Kerala 3 Year LLB 2024 Question Paper with Answers

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 15/2024/OL
Exam:THREE YEAR LLB 2024
Date of Test: 18-08-2024

1. Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A) acrobatic
B) aerobatic
C) agnostic
D) antibiatic

2. Find out the incorrectly spelled word
A) commissioner
B) caterpiller
C) idler
D) controller

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
3. HEINOUS
A) hateful
B) odious
C) lousy
D) desirable

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
4. INTRICATE
A) uncomplicated
B) complex
C) inexplicable
D) trivial

Find out a word which is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals.
5. REPULSIVE
A) counter
B) attractive
C) friendly
D) hard

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
6. BENIGNANT
A) gracious
B) callous
C) difficult
D) clear

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
7. INTERLOPER
A) worker
B) listener
C) intruder
D) fighter

Find out a word which is nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.
8. MENDACIOUS
A) reliable
B) dishonest
C) specific
D) faithful

Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:
9. The gatekeeper said to him, “Are you going to your House?”
A) The gatekeeper asked him if he is going to his house.
B) The gatekeeper asked him if he was going to his house.
C) The gatekeeper asks him if he is going to his house.
D) The gatekeeper asked him if he goes to his house.

Convert the given sentence into indirect speech:
10. She said, “ I may buy a book on geography”
A) She said that she will buy a book on geography.
B) She says that she might be buying a book on geography.
C) She said that she might be buying a book on geography.
D) She said that she might buy a book on geography.

Convert the given sentence into direct speech:
11. He said that he did not like horror movies.
A) He said, “I did not like horror movies”
B) He says, “I did not like horror movies”
C) He said, “I do not like horror movies”

D) He says, “I do not like horror movies”

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
12. Her brother was with her THROUGH THICK AND THIN.
A) at bad times only
B) at good times only
C) at times of emergency only
D) at all times both good and bad

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
13. Most of the players of the team were at ODDS over the selection method.
A) to become angry
B) in dispute
C) to become silent
D) to agree

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
14. It will be wiser on our part to let the BYGONES BE BYGONES.
A) recollect the past
B) worry about the past
C) revive the past
D) ignore the past

Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.
15. Trained workers are essential for the ----------------- functioning of the factory
A) efficient
B) futile
C) fruitless
D) hollow

Pick out the best filler which can complete the given sentence correctly.
16. He ---------- his sister saying that he would clear all her debts.
A) startled
B) frightened
C) scared
D) reassured

17. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.

Water is ----------- by chemicals and other wastes from industries

A) refined
B) polluted
C) filtered
D) purified

Find the correct preposition.
18. She is a doctor and she works ------------- night.
A) for
B) to
C) with
D) at

19. Find the correct preposition :
He is fond --------- his mother.
A) in
B) for
C) with
D) of

20. The sweet is prepared -------- his neighbour.
A) with
B) to
C) by
D) of

21. Change
the sentence
“ He plays chess ” into an interrogative sentence
A) Does he plays chess?
B) Did he play chess?
C) Is he playing Chess?
D) Does he play chess ?

22. Change the sentence
“ He could count the number of persons in the crowd” into an interrogative sentence
A) Who could count the number of persons in the crowd?
B) Anyone could count the number of persons in the crowd?
C) Could he count the number of persons in the crowd?

D) Can he count the number of persons in the crowd?

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
23. sentence , choose the option (D).
A) A committee was established in the year
B) 1967 and dissolved in
C) 1985 as a measures of economy
D) No error

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
24. sentence , choose the option (D).
A) The central board of customs
B) deal with the tasks of
C) formulation of policies
D) No error

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
25. sentence , choose the option (D).
A) The Indian Institute of Science
B) offers research programme
C) in Physics
D) No error

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
26. P: in maintaining Q: the police force
R: is a vital force S: law and order
A) QRSP
B) QRPS
C) SRQP
D) QSPR

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
27. P: taken major initiatives Q: the Government of Kerala has
R: and implementation of e-governance S: to accelerate the development
A) QRSP
B) QSPR
C) SRPQ
D) QPSR

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
28. P: the problem of losses Q: in a time bound manner
R: The States need to address S: in the power sector
A) QRSP
B) QSPR
C) SRQP
D) RPSQ

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
29. P: school students Q: was held by
R: a cultural event S: at the Meet
A) SQPR
B) SRPQ
C) RQPS
D) RPQS

Read the passage and answer the question

"Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns
generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs.
Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities
create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city
regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a
mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due
30. to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act
as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national
economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to
powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information
technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that
are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in
these regions are high."

This passage is primarily focused on
A) development of cities
B) population in metropolitan cities
C) general activities in urban areas
D) agglomeration economies

31. Read the passage and answer the question
"Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns
generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs.
Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities
create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city
regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a
mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due
to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act
as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national

economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to
powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information
technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that
are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in
these regions are high."

Agglomeration economies mean?
A) National economies
B) a differentiation of different economies
C) the agricultural economy
D) a lot of different economies gathered together

Read the passage and answer the question

"Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns
generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs.
Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities
create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city
regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a
mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due
32. to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act
as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national
economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to
powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information
technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that
are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in
these regions are high."

According to the passage, agglomeration economies differ due to?
A) sizes of the population
B) the literacy rate
C) the policies of government
D) taxes levied

Read the passage and answer the question

"Agglomeration economies differ between habitations of different sizes. Market towns
generate scale economies in marketing and distribution of agricultural inputs and outputs.
Medium-sized cities present localisation economies linked to specialisation. Larger cities
create urbanisation economies due to diversity, leading to innovation. Metropolitan city
regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working. They represent a
mass of interconnected economic activities, typically characterised by high productivity due
33. to jointly-generated and mutually-reinforcing agglomeration economies. These regions act
as innovators of products, processes and techniques. They drive regional and national
economic growth. As gateways to national and international economies, they are exposed to
powerful forces of globalization, including transportation, communication and information
technologies. Metropolitan city regions around the globe engage in economic activities that
are increasingly structured on national and international planes. Population densities in
these regions are high."

Which regions offer the benefits of localisation, urbanisation and net working?

A) Medium sized city
B) Larger city
C) Rural village
D) Metropolitan city

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for
34. ‘ who does things for pleasure and not for money ’.
A) dramatist
B) actor
C) player
D) amateur

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for
35. ‘ happening every second year ’.
A) twice
B) annual
C) biennial
D) fortnight

Choose the nearest one word from the alternatives given below for
36. ‘ words inscribed on the tomb of the dead ’
A) golden
B) epitaph
C) inscription
D) epigraph

37. Who is the first sportsperson who has received Bharat Ratna?
A) Kapil Dev
B) Virat Kholi
C) Sachin Tendulkar
D) M.S.Dhoni

38. Who was the first Indian Pilot?
A) Rakhesh Sarma
B) Neetu Gupta
C) Jayagan Bhagvathi
D) JRD Tata

39. The official language of the United Arab Emirates is
A) Urdu
B) English
C) Arabic
D) Persian

40. Which one of the following is associated with Dr.M.S.Swaminathan ?
A) White revolution
B) Green revolution
C) Red Revolution
D) Grey Revolution

41. Which one of the following is not Union Territory of India ?
A) The Government of NCT of Delhi
B) Ladakh
C) Puducherry
D) Manipur

42. The river Godavari does not drain the state of
A) Karnataka
B) Chhattisgarh
C) Telangana
D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
43. The Telangana state was formed by bifurcation on
A) 2 June, 2015
B) 2 June, 2014
C) 2 June, 2016
D) 2 June, 2017

44. The 2024 Indian general election was held in Kerala to elect
A) 22 members of Lok Sabha from the State
B) 25 members of Lok Sabha from the State
C) 20 members of Lok Sabha from the State
D) 18 members of Lok Sabha from the State

45. Who was the Home Minister of India during Indo-Pakistan War of 1947?

A) G.B.Pant
B) Kailash nath Katju
C) Lal Bahadur Sastri
D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The Indo-Pakistan War which led to the formation of the country Bangladesh, occurred in
46. the year
A) 1973
B) 1971
C) 1975
D) 1977

The Line of Control , a military control line between the Indian and Pakistani Controlled parts
47. of the former princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, was established as per
A) the Bhutan Agreement
B) the Asia pacific Trade agreement
C) the Lahore declaration
D) the Simla Agreement

The Indian Economist Amartya Sen has won the Nobel Prize in the year 1998 for his works
48. in
A) Literature
B) Economic Sciences
C) Chemistry
D) Physics

49. The headquarters of the World Trade Organisation is located at
A) New York
B) Stockholm
C) Geneva
D) Washington

50. The International Court of Justice was established in the year
A) 1945
B) 1955
C) 1965
D) 1975

51. UNESCO stands for
A) Unified Nations Educational Scheme and Cultural Organisation
B) United Nations Educational Scientific and Civil Organisation
C) United Nations Educational Scheme and Cultural Organisation
D) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation

The regions in space where an enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume are
52. called as
A) galaxy
B) Black holes
C) dead star
D) Grey holes

53. Which one the following is not true?
A) Earth is the third planet from the Sun
B) Earth is the only place in the Universe to host life
C) Earth is the fifth largest planet in the solar system
D) Earth orbits the sun, defining day and night for surface dwellers

54. Earth’s atmosphere contains
A) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1 % other gases
B) 60% nitrogen, 31% oxygen and 9 % other gases
C) 85% nitrogen, 14 % oxygen and 1 % other gases
D) 60% nitrogen, 38% oxygen and 2% other gases

55. Who is considered as the “ founding father ” of space programmes in India ?
A) Dr.A P J Abdul Kalam
B) Satish Dhawan
C) Dr. Vikram A Sarabhai
D) Jawaharlal Nehru

56. The National Remote Sensing centre of ISRO is located in
A) Ahmadabad
B) Hyderabad
C) Sriharikota
D) Bengaluru

The first National Law University established in 1986, the National Law School of India
57. University is located in
A) Mumbai
B) Bengaluru
C) Mysore
D) Bhopal

58. The National level entrance examination, CLAT stands for
A) The Central Law Admission Test
B) The Common Law Admission Test
C) The Criminal Law Admission Test
D) The Civil Law Admission Test

59. Which one of the following is known as quicksilver ?
A) Sodium
B) Uranium
C) Mercury
D) Lithium

60. The United States of America is a federal republic of
A) 60 states
B) 50 States
C) 48 States
D) 55 states

61. One of the bio-diversity hotspots in the world is the
A) Silent Valley in Idukki district of Kerala
B) Silent Valley in Kollam district of Kerala
C) Silent Valley in Palakkad district of Kerala
D) Silent Valley in Kannur district of Kerala

62. The author of the book Randamoozham in Malayalam is
A) M.T.Vasudevan
B) Vaikom Muhammad Basheer
C) Benyamin
D) O.V. Vijayan

63. The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is
A) Itanagar
B) Dispur
C) Kohima
D) Imphal

The product of three consecutive positive integers is 2184. Then the sum of the three
64. positive numbers is
A) 39
B) 49
C) 29
D) 59

A gardener wants to arrange 1296 plants in rows and columns. If the number of rows and
columns of the arrangement is equal, then the number of rows in the arrangement of
65. plants is

A) 43
B) 44
C) 34
D) 36

66. A person bought an item for Rs.21000. He sold it for Rs.18900. The loss percentage is
A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 8%
D) 10%

67. The very next number in the sequence 5, 10, 40, 320, … is
A) 5020
B) 5120
C) 6120
D) 5240

68. The sum of the numbers 12, 24, 36, 48, …… , 120 is
A) 660

B) 720
C) 680
D) 740

The average score of a cricketer in his 10 innings is 45 runs. If he has scored 70 runs in
69. another 3 innings, then the average score of the player is
A) 38 runs
B) 40 runs
C) 42 runs
D) 44 runs

X can do a work in 10 days. X and Y both together can do the same work in 6 days. Then Y
70. alone can do the work in
A) 14 days
B) 15 days
C) 16 days
D) 18 days

71. Rs. 24000 has to be shared between A and B in the ratio 7 : 5. Then B will get
A) Rs.9000
B) Rs.10000
C) Rs.8000
D) Rs.7800

72. The smallest number among the fractions 14/15 , 13/15, 11/15 , 9/15 is
A) 14/15
B) 11/15
C) 9/15
D) 13/15

A can do a work in 8 days and B can do the same work in 16 days. If A, B and C can
73. together do the same work in 4 days, then C can do the work in
A) 10 days
B) 4 days
C) 8 days
D) 16 days

74. If RUCH is coded as QTBG , then MNOP corresponds to
A) NOLM
B) MNOL
C) LMNO
D) OLMN

A man walks 24 km distance straight from a place X and reach another place Y in the
75. eastern direction. At Y, he turns 90 degrees and walks straight towards North to reach the
Place Z which is 7 km from Y. The distance between X and Z is
A) 25 km
B) 27 km
C) 37 km
D) 31 km

76. In a certain coding system, the word MODEL is coded as JLABI , then ENERGY is given by
A) BKBOVD
B) BKOBDV
C) BKBODV
D) BKBDOV

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.

Statements :
77. 1. Mathematics is essential for all subjects
2. Statistics is applied in Economics

Conclusions:

I. Mathematics is not needed in Sociology
II. Economics is applied in Statistics
A) only conclusion I follows
B) only conclusion II follows
C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows
D) both conclusions I and II follow

78. Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.

Statements :

1. Some animals are mammals
2. All animals are not herbivorous

Conclusions:

I. Some animals are herbivorous
II. All animals are mammals
A) only conclusion I follows
B) only conclusion II follows
C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
D) both conclusions I and II follow

79. The Fundamental Rights are contained in
A) Part-II of the Constitution of India
B) Part-III of the Constitution of India
C) Part-VI of the Constitution of India
D) Part-VII of the Constitution of India

80. The MGNREGA provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in
A) a financial year to every willing member of rural Households
B) every six months to every willing member of rural Households
C) a financial year to every willing member of urban Households
D) every six months to every willing member of urban Households

81. Alimony refers to
A) penalty levied by the court to pay former spouse after divorce
B) payment awarded to spouse or former spouse within a separation or divorce
C) money awarded to spouse or former spouse of a victim met with accident
D) payment awarded to spouse or former spouse due to custodial death

82. Arbitration means
A) settling a dispute by using a referee appointed by the court
B) postponing the trial indefinitely
C) ex-parte judgment
D) settling the dispute without giving witness
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
83. An examination of a dead body to find the cause of death is known as
A) file
B) autopsy

C) biopsy
D) report

84. The Constitution of India was framed by the
A) Constituent Assembly of India
B) a group of experts
C) Law commission of India
D) princely states in India

The words socialist and secular were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by
85. the
A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
B) 14th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962
C) 18th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1966
D) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975

The President of India can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation
86. letter to the
A) Vice-President of India
B) Speaker of Indian Lok Sabha
C) Prime Minister of India
D) Chief Justice of India

87. The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of
A) the salary of Prime Minister
B) the list of States and Union Territories
C) the salary of President
D) the list of languages recognized by the Constitution

The President of India can act in his discretion and dissolve the Lok Sabha if,
88.
A) the council of Ministers has lost its majority
B) the Vice-President recommends
C) the Speaker of the House recommends
D) the Chief Justice of India recommends

Who stated : “ If any functionary under our Constitution is to be compared with the U.S.
89. President, he is the Prime Minister and not the President of the Union ’’

A) Muhammed Sadulla
B) K.M.Munshi
C) B.L.Mitter
D) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar

90. Which one the following is not true?
A) The President of India is the head of state of the Republic of India.
B) The President of India is the nominal head of the executive.
C) The President of India is the first citizen of India
D) The President Secretariat is headed by the Cabinet Secretary

Which one the following is not true?
91. (CAG means The Comptroller and Auditor General of India )

A) The CAG is provided with the security of tenure.
B) The CAG is not eligible for further office
C) The salary of CAG is determined by the Prime Minister of India
The administrative expenses of the office of CAG shall be charged upon the Consolidated
D)
Fund of India

92. Puisne Judge in The Supreme Court of India refers to
A) a Judge other than the Chief Justice of India
B) the most Junior judge in the Supreme Court
C) the immediate junior judge to the Chief Justice of India
D) the judge temporarily appointed in the Supreme Court of India

93. The term ‘ alibi ’ refers to a claim that a person was
A) elsewhere when a crime was committed
B) not involved in the crime
C) present when a crime was committed
D) silent when a crime was committed

94. Bequest refers to
A) land or real property given in a will
B) something given in a will, other than money or jewel
C) something given in a will, other than land or real property
D) something given in a will with values more than rupees one crore.

95. Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to proclaim
A) National Disaster
B) State Emergency
C) Financial Emergency
D) National Emergency

96. The Presiding Officer of the Indian Lok Sabha is the
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Vice-President of India
C) Home Minister of India
D) Speaker of the House

97. Article 124 of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the
A) District Courts in the States
B) Supreme Court of India
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) States Public Service Commission

98. The first Chief Justice of High Court of Kerala is
A) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
B) Justice K.T.Koshy
C) Justice Anna Chandy
D) Justice M. Fathima Beevi

99. An Advocate-on-Record can file cases before
A) the Supreme Court of India
B) Indian High Courts only
C) District Courts only
D) Both High Courts and District Courts only

100. Identify the statement which is not true?
A) The Central Vigilance Commission is a Constitutional Body
B) The Central Vigilance Commission is a statutory Body
C) The Central Vigilance Commission prevents corruption in the Central Government offices
D) The Central Vigilance Commission was established in the year 1964

101. Which is not true in respect of Lok Adalat?
A) There is no fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
B) The persons deciding the cases in Lok Adalats have no judicial role.
C) Any civil case pending before any court can be referred to Lok Adalat
D) Members of Lok Adalats can pressurize any of the parties for compromise

102. The Central Information Commission has been constituted in India under
A) the Right To Information Act, 2005
B) the Right To Information Act, 2015
C) the Right To Information Act, 1985
D) the Right To Information Act, 1995

The Central Administrative Tribunal was established for adjudication of disputes and
103. complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to
A) the Union or authorities under the control of the Government
B) Multinational companies
C) Private limited companies
D) only public Sector Undertakings

104. The acronym NALSA stands for
A) National Administration of Legal Services Authority
B) National Authority of Legal Services Administrators
C) National Legal Services Authority
D) National Admission of Legal Service and Aid

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
105.
1. There is absolutely no charge for getting free legal aid through NALSA in India
2. One can choose a lawyer, from the panel of lawyers, of his or her choice while availing
free legal aid through NALSA
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

106. Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
1. A Governor of a State is appointed by the Prime Minister of India by warrant under his
hand and seal
2. A Governor of a State in India must have completed 60 years of age
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
107. 1. Article 338 of the Indian Constitution of India deals with the National Commission for
Scheduled Castes.
2. Kishore Makwana is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled
Castes.
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
108. 1. A censure motion in the Lok Sabha can be moved against an individual minister
2. If a censure motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of Ministers has to resign
from the office
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements.

109. Statements :
1. The term of the Prime Minister of India is five years
2. The term of the Chief Minister of a State is five years.
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

110. Bona fide means
A) persons with good habits

B) genuine, sincere or in good faith
C) a person proved innocent in a court
D) a service certificate issued by the employer

111. Book value refers to the value of
A) a fixed asset, such as a building or machine, as recorded in ledger
B) a movable property as recorded in official ledger
C) cash kept in a locker as recorded in the ledger
D) property as intimated to income tax department

112. Cartel is an agreement between
A) businesses to restrict the competition and keep prices high
B) bus owners to restrict the competition
C) businesses to increase the competition and keep prices low
D) businesses to restrict the production and keep prices low

113. Causation means one thing being done causing
A) injury to happen
B) bad things to happen
C) something else to happen
D) good things to happen

114. The Chairperson of the Goods and Service Tax council is
A) the Prime Minster of India
B) the Vice-President of India
C) the Senior most Chief Minister of a State
D) the Union Finance Minister

115. In India, the Goods and Service Tax was launched with effect from
A) 1st July, 2017
B) 1st July, 2018
C) 1st July, 2019
D) 1st July, 2015

116. In law, closing order is an order
A) prohibiting the litigant from his personal appearance in the Court

B) prohibiting the use of a house as the house is not fit for humans to live in.
C) delivering the judgment in a Court
D) prohibiting the litigant from moving an appeal petition.

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
117. 1. The National Green Tribunal is a Judicial body adjudicating environmental cases in the
country
2. The National Green Tribunal has five Zones: North, Central, East, West and South
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

118. The term ‘ feme convert ’ means
A) a woman who is married
B) a woman who is dependant
C) a woman who is independent
D) a woman who has no cases filed against her

119. The term ‘euthanasia means’
A) killing someone accidentally
B) killing someone to end his or her sufferings
C) killing someone for vengeance
D) killing someone for a gain

120. The contempt of Court is an offence of
A) abusing a judge during a court case
B) non-filing of case within the jurisdiction of the court
C) non-filing of case within the working hours of the court
D) non-appearance of an advocate in the court

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