JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper DHPE

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4101100001
Subject: Diploma in Health Promotion and Education (DHPE)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
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of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature
(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

DHPE
1. Which among these is a macronutrient?
(A) Vitamin.
(B) Mineral.
(C) Milk.
(D) Carbohydrate.

2. Which of these dimensions is mentioned in the definition of Health?
(A) Nutrition.
(B) Environmental.
(C) Lifestyle.
(D) Social.

3. For which of these diseases tertiary prevention is an important aspect?
(A) Leprosy.
(B) Pulmonary TB.
(C) ARI.
(D) Diarrhoea.

4. Who is known as the father of Public Health?
(A) James Lind.
(B) Chadwick.
(C) Cholera.
(D) John Snow.

5. Rabies is caused by a:
(A) Virus.
(B) Bacteria.
(C) Parasite.
(D) Dog.

6. Reducing weight for the control of Diabetes Mellitus is an example of:
(A) Primordial prevention.
(B) Primary Prevention.
(C) Secondary Prevention.
(D) Tertiary Prevention.

7. Periodic checkup of Blood Sugar above the age of 30 to prevent Diabetes Mellitus is an
example of:
(A) Primordial prevention.
(B) Primary Prevention.
(C) Secondary Prevention.
(D) Tertiary Prevention.

8. Restriction of salt to prevent hypertension is an example of:
(A) Primordial prevention.
(B) Primary Prevention.
(C) Secondary Prevention.
(D) Tertiary Prevention.

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9. In the iceberg phenomenon of disease the tip of the iceberg represents:
(A) Carriers.
(B) Sub clinical cases.
(C) Apparently diseased.
(D) Latent cases.

10. Scabies is spread by:
(A) Blood products.
(B) Feco Oral route.
(C) Droplet infection.
(D) Direct spread.

11. What indicator can be used to measure a Social dimension of health?
(A) Fasting blood glucose.
(B) Out of pocket spending on health.
(C) Weight for age.
(D) Uric acid.

12. Leprosy is caused by a:
(A) Virus.
(B) Bacteria.
(C) Parasite.
(D) Armadillo.

13. Adeno viral infection is spread by:
(A) Sexual route.
(B) Blood products.
(C) Fomites.
(D) Feco oral route.

14. What indicator can be used to measure a mental dimension of health?
(A) Fasting blood glucose.
(B) Quality of Life.
(C) Weight for age.
(D) Uric acid.

15. Rotaviral infection is spread by:
(A) Feco oral route.
(B) Sexual route.
(C) Blood products.
(D) Droplet infection.

16. Which of these biological transmissions is done for filarial infection?
(A) Cyclopropagative.
(B) Cyclical.
(C) Propagative.
(D) Direct spread.

17. Which of these minerals are required to treat nutritional anemia?
(A) Sodium.
(B) Potassium.
(C) Iron.
(D) Calcium.
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18. Which of these minerals are required to treat nutritional hypothyroidism?
(A) Calcium.
(B) Potassium.
(C) Iodine.
(D) Iron.

19. Which of these is NOT a complication of adult hypothyrodism?
(A) Menstrual abnormality.
(B) Hypothermia.
(C) Lethargy.
(D) Cretinism.

20. The mainstay of diagnosis of TB in India is:
(A) Chest X Ray.
(B) Sputum CBNAAT.
(C) Tuberculin tes.
(D) IGRA.

21. Which vector control measure works best for Aedes control?
(A) IRS.
(B) Space Spray.
(C) Insecticides.
(D) Source reduction by environmental modification.

22. Which mechanism is used to coordinate the health department with PRI at village level?
(A) VHNSC.
(B) VHND.
(C) DEO.
(D) BAM.

23. Which Programme is used as a mechanism of earliest signal of epidemic?
(A) NHM.
(B) NIDDCP.
(C) NPCDCS.
(D) IDSP.

24. What is NOT a measure of central tendency?
(A) Mean.
(B) Standard Deviation.
(C) Median.
(D) Mode.

25. Which among these is a vaccine preventable disease?
(A) Diabetes.
(B) Leprosy.
(C) HIV.
(D) HiB.

26. Which of these tools can be used for mass media campaigns?
(A) Flipbook.
(B) Miking.
(C) Pamhphlet.
(D) Booklet.
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27. Under which scheme has the sub centres been upgraded to Arogya Mandirs?
(A) PMJAY.
(B) PMSSY.
(C) PMABHIM.
(D) PMMSY.

28. Which test is performed to detect bacteria in water?
(A) Nitrate test.
(B) Heat test.
(C) Coliform count test.
(D) Rothera’s test.

29. Which of these tests are used to see the effect of successful pasteurisation of milk?
(A) Heat test.
(B) Coliform count test.
(C) Rothera’s test.
(D) Alkaline phosphatase test.

30. What is the name of the portal for telemedicine in India?
(A) Nikshyay.
(B) Nikusth.
(C) E-Sanjeevani.
(D) Tele health.

31. What is the age cut off for filling up CBAC cards for NCD prevention?
(A) 25 years.
(B) 30 years.
(C) 35 years.
(D) 40 years.

32. What is the systolic BP cut off to screen for hypertension in screening (in mm Hg)?
(A) 140.
(B) 110.
(C) 120.
(D) 130.

33. What is the recommended frequency of screening for cervical cancer in years?
(A) 1.
(B) 2.
(C) 3.
(D) 5.

34. What is the cutoff of waist circumference in women (in cm)?
(A) 80.
(B) 90.
(C) 85.
(D) 95.

35. What is the BMI cut off to determine overweight in adults?
(A) 18.5.
(B) 24.9.
(C) 30.
(D) 16.5.
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36. Which of these is NOT a symptom of pulmonary TB?
(A) Weight loss.
(B) Hemoptysis.
(C) Chronic Cough.
(D) Bone pain.

37. Which of these vaccines are most freeze sensitive?
(A) TT.
(B) OPV.
(C) COVID.
(D) BCG.

38. In which temperature the vaccines are maintained (in degree celcius)?
(A) 2 to 8.
(B) 1 to 10.
(C) 5 to 15.
(D) 10 to 20.

39. Beyond which count is fast breathing defined in an infant (0-59 days)?
(A) 40 per minute.
(B) 50 per minute.
(C) 60 per minute.
(D) 30 per minute.

40. In which age group the jaundice is called physiological jaundice?
(A) Less than 1 day.
(B) More than 14 days.
(C) 1-14 days.
(D) First week.

41. Severity of disease is assessed by:
(A) Case fatality rate.
(B) Standardized mortality rate.
(C) Incidence rate.
(D) Prevalence rate.

42. Sanguinarine is derived from:
(A) Fusarium incamatum.
(B) Argeome oil.
(C) Jhunjhujia seeds.
(D) Ksheri –dhal.

43. Weight of India reference women is:
(A) 45 kg.
(B) 50 kg.
(C) 55 kg.
(D) 60 kg.

44. Reservoir of Indian Kala azar is:
(A) Man.
(B) Rodent.
(C) Canine.
(D) Equine.

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45. Society is defined as:
(A) A conglomeration of people.
(B) A group of people bound with social norms.
(C) An association with regulated membership.
(D) An association with patterned norms of interaction.

46. Measure of dispersion is:
(A) Mean.
(B) Mode.
(C) Standard deviation.
(D) Median.

47. In what stage of demographic cycle is India today?
(A) Low stationary.
(B) High stationary.
(C) Early expanding.
(D) Late expanding.

48. Test for detecting argemone oil contamination does not include:
(A) Nitric acid test.
(B) Paper chromatography test.
(C) Aldehyde test.
(D) None.

49. Kata thermometer is used to measure:
(A) Maximum temperature.
(B) Minimum temperature.
(C) Radiant heat.
(D) Cooling power.

50. Head quarter of FAO is at:
(A) New York.
(B) Geneva.
(C) Rome.
(D) San Francisco.

51. Concept of PHC was devised at:
(A) Geneva.
(B) Rome.
(C) San Francisco.
(D) Alma Ata.

52. Acculturation means:
(A) Culture contact.
(B) Study of various cultures.
(C) Movement in socio economic states.
(D) None of the above.

53. Nuclear family consists of:
(A) Husband, wife and son.
(B) Husband, wife and dependent children.
(C) Husband and wife only.
(D) Father, mother, husband and wife.
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54. What is SDG?
(A) Suitable Development Goals.
(B) Systematic Development Goals.
(C) Sustainable Development Goals.
(D) Specific Development Goals.

55. Spectrum of disease is:
(A) Graphic representation of variations in the manifestations of disease.
(B) Geographical representation of variations in the manifestations of disease.
(C) Generic representation of variations in the manifestations of disease.
(D) General representation of variations in the manifestations of disease.

56. Enzootic means:
(A) Epidemic occurring in birds.
(B) Epidemic occurring in animals.
(C) Epidemic occurring in aquatic animals.
(D) None of the above.

57. Agent used for disinfection of sputum:
(A) Malathion.
(B) DDT.
(C) Cresol.
(D) Phenol.

58. Rice water stools is symptom of:
(A) Amoebiasis.
(B) Giardiasis.
(C) Cholera.
(D) Typhoid.

59. Which of the following is known as break- bone fever?
(A) Typhoid fever.
(B) Malaria fever.
(C) Dengue fever.
(D) Chikungunya fever.

60. Rule of halves is related to which condition:
(A) Diabetes.
(B) Stroke.
(C) Hypertension.
(D) Coronary artery disease.

61. An adult male is said to have central obesity if waist his circumference is more than:
(A) 100 cm.
(B) 90 cm.
(C) 80 cm.
(D) 70 cm.

62. Mass Drug administration is done for:
(A) Malaria.
(B) Dengue.
(C) Filariasis.
(D) Chikungunya.
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63. All of the following are at risk babies except:
(A) Birth weight <2.5 kg.
(B) Twins.
(C) Artificial feeding.
(D) Birth order 3 or more.

64. Which of the following nutritional deficiency is geochemical in nature?
(A) Iron.
(B) Calcium.
(C) Phosphorus.
(D) Iodine.

65. Which of the following nutrient provide least calories?
(A) Protein.
(B) Fat.
(C) Carbohydrate.
(D) Fibre.

66. To be effective the water must be boiled for:
(A) 30-40 min.
(B) 20-30 min.
(C) 10-20 min.
(D) 5-10 min.

67. Water is said to be very hard if level of hardness is:
(A) < 50 mEq/L.
(B) 50-150 mEq/L.
(C) 150-300 mEq/L.
(D) >300 mEq/L.

68. Which of the following is true regarding Horrock’s apparatus?
(A) 6 white cups.
(B) 6 black cups.
(C) 2 white cups.
(D) 2 black cups.

69. Soiling index is used for:
(A) Water pollution.
(B) Soil pollution.
(C) Air pollution.
(D) Sound pollution.

70. Which is suitable method for solid waste disposal for town’s population less than 1,00000?
(A) Dumping.
(B) Controlled tipping.
(C) Incineration.
(D) Composting.

71. Which is called as “Nuisance mosquito”?
(A) Aedes.
(B) Anopheles.
(C) Mansonia.
(D) Culex.
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72. Under Biomedical waste management Human anatomical waste is disposed in:
(A) Red bags.
(B) Yellow bags.
(C) Blue bags.
(D) Black bags.

73. School health program was first started in:
(A) Kerala.
(B) Maharashtra.
(C) Gujarat.
(D) Tamil Nadu.

74. Modes of intervention in Secondary Prevention:
(A) Health promotion.
(B) Specific protection.
(C) Early diagnosis and treatment.
(D) Rehabilitation.

75. -------------- of disease implies termination of all transmission of infection by extermination
of the infectious agent:
(A) Disease control.
(B) Disease elimination.
(C) Disease eradication.
(D) Disease surveillance.

76. Prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in population groups in which
they have not yet appeared:
(A) Primordial prevention.
(B) Primary prevention.
(C) Secondary prevention.
(D) Tertiary prevention.

77. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function:
(A) Impairment.
(B) Disability.
(C) Handicap.
(D) Disease.

78. Mid-year population estimated as on:
(A) 1st January.
(B) 1st April.
(C) 1st July.
(D) 1st August.

79. What is the denominator for Crude Death Rate?
(A) Total population.
(B) Mid-year population.
(C) Total Deaths in the year.
(D) Old age population.

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80. Number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time:
(A) Incidence.
(B) Prevalence.
(C) Duration.
(D) Morbidity.

81. What is prevalence?
(A) Only new cases in defined population during specified time.
(B) All current cases (old+new) at a given point in time.
(C) All fatal cases during specified time.
(D) All cured cases at a given point of time.

82. Which study is often called as retrospective study?
(A) Cross-sectional study.
(B) Case control study.
(C) Cohort study.
(D) Randomised Controlled Trial.

83. The constant presence of a disease or presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given
geographic area or population group is called as:
(A) Epidemic.
(B) Endemic.
(C) Pandemic.
(D) Sporadic.

84. The first case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit is called as:
(A) Primary case.
(B) Secondary case.
(C) Index case.
(D) Suspect case.

85. The time interval between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host
is:
(A) Incubation period.
(B) Generation time.
(C) Communicable period.
(D) Lead time.

86. The number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of the incubation
period, following exposure to primary case is:
(A) Secondary Attack rate.
(B) Infection rate.
(C) Mortality rate.
(D) Susceptibility rate.

87. Most heat sensitive vaccine is:
(A) OPV (Oral Poliovirus).
(B) Measles.
(C) Influenza.
(D) Cholera.

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88. A system of storage and transport of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to
the actual vaccination site is known as:
(A) Cold Chain.
(B) Vaccine Vial Monitor.
(C) Open vial Policy.
(D) Safe Transport.

89. Diluent use for BCG vaccine:
(A) Normal saline.
(B) Distilled water.
(C) Tap water.
(D) Dextrose.

90. Diluent use for Measles vaccine:
(A) Normal saline.
(B) Distilled water.
(C) Tap water.
(D) Dextrose.

91. Route of administration of Hepatitis B vaccine:
(A) Intramuscular.
(B) Intradermal.
(C) Subcutaneous.
(D) Oral.

92. Screening test is done on:
(A) Sick individual.
(B) Apparently healthy individual.
(C) Individual showing sign and symptoms.
(D) Morbid individual.

93. Appearance of the rash Koplik’s spots like table salt crystals appear on the buccal mucosa
opposite the first and second lower molars seen in:
(A) Measles.
(B) Chickenpox.
(C) Mumps.
(D) Rubella.

94. Panchayati Raj was first established in which state?
(A) Bihar.
(B) Gujarat.
(C) Rajasthan.
(D) West Bengal.

95. Bagassosis is a disease caused due to:
(A) Cane fibre.
(B) Cotton dust.
(C) Tobacco.
(D) Silica.

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96. Which one of the following is mechanical ventilation method?
(A) Window.
(B) Doors.
(C) External Ventilation.
(D) Air conditioner.

97. Reinforcement in health education means:
(A) Learning by doing.
(B) Known to unknown.
(C) Feedback.
(D) Repetition.

98. Counselling means:
(A) Advice.
(B) Instruction.
(C) Request.
(D) Choice.

99. The Head Quarter of WHO is at:
(A) Geneva.
(B) Washington.
(C) Manila.
(D) New Delhi.

100. Deficiency of Riboflavin result:
(A) Angular stomatitis.
(B) Megaloblastic anaemia.
(C) Pellagra.
(D) Osteomalacia.

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