JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper M.Sc CCS

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4101700001
Subject: M. Sc. in Critical Care Science (M. Sc CCS)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
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become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
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11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

M.Sc. CCS
1. Which mechanism of Phototherapy is chiefly responsible for reduction in Serum Bilirubin?
A. Photo-oxidation
B. Photo-isomerization
C. Structural Isomerization
D. Conjugation

2. A 4-year-old boy, presents in OPD accompanied by his parents. He has had foul smelling
watery diarrhoea for the last 5 months. His height and weight are below 50th percentile. To
estimate total body fat, a subscapular skinfold thickness is needed, what is the name of this
device used to measure subscapular skin fold Thickness?
A. Vernier Calipers
B. Orchidometer
C. Shakir’s tape
D. Harpenden Calipers

3. Which one of the following option is NOT a Major Jones criteria for diagnosis of acute
rheumatic fever?
A. Migratory Polyarthritis
B. Carditis
C. Fever
D. Sydenham Chorea

4. What is likely cause of the continuous non-radiating machine-like murmur heard at the left
upper sternal border in a 1 day old boy who was delivered at term via normal vaginal delivery
without any complication?
A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Atrial Septal Defect
C. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
D. Pericardial Effusion

5. Radiological sign for Transposition of Great arteries?
A. Figure of three
B. Box-shaped heart
C. Boot-shaped heart
D. Egg on string

6. A 55 year old man is brought because of sudden onset difficulty speaking for 1 hour . The
patient speaks slowly in simple sentences containing only one word. He can clearly hear and
understand what the physician says. What area of brain is most likely affected in this patient?
A. Broca’s area
B. Wernicke’s area
C. Paracentral lobule
D. Insula

7. Next Best step in the management of a pregnant lady with sudden weakness on right side of her
body, inability to speak , blood pressure 150/90 mm hg, and 1/5 motor strength on right side
developed over an hour back, Her NCCT is normal
A. Immediately start her on Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAT)
B. Thrombolysis
C. Perform an MRI and do a catheter guided clot extraction
D. Thrombectomy

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8. A patient with two hours of generalized tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness
in between. There was frothing from mouth, up-rolling of eyeballs and urinary incontinence.
Which of the following is the appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Phenytoin
C. Lorazepam
D. Valproate

9. Safest Anti-epileptic for Generalized tonic-clonic seizure in Pregnancy?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Phenytoin

10. Which of the following will be the least significant marker of AKI?
A. CA125
B. Urea
C. Creatinine
D. Alkaline Phosphatase

11. A man complains of double vision, worse when watching TV. He feels weaker towards the end
of the day and his face is slightly puffy. There is ptosis of left eyelid, mouth hangs open and
neck veins are distended. What is the diagnosis?
A. Lamberton Eaton Syndrome
B. Myasthenia Gravis
C. Duchenne’s Muscular dystrophy
D. Multiple System Atrophy

12. Treatment of choice for Paracetamol overdose?
A. Atropine
B. Naloxone
C. N-Acetylcysteine
D. Phentolamine

13. Toxicity of which system is seen by the bites of snakes from family of Elapidae (cobras,
mambas, common kraits)
A. Vasculotoxic
B. Neurotoxic
C. Musculotoxic
D. Non toxic

14. Which of the following condition is a contraindication for hemodialysis?
A. Hypertension
B. Refractory Hyperkalemia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Coagulopathy

15. Most common subtype of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is
A. Nodular Sclerosis
B. Mixed cellularity
C. Lymphocyte predominant
D. Lymphocyte rich

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16. Best Method for the diagnosis of Hiatus Hernia is
A. Barium Meal follow through
B. Barium Meal Upper GI series
C. CT scan with oral contrast
D. Upper GI endoscopy

17. Which out of the following is Normocytic normochromic anemia?
A. Iron deficiency Anemia
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Thiamine Deficiency
D. Anemia of chronic Disease

18. What forms the triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome
A. Esophageal Webs, Microcytic hypochromia anemia, atrophic glossitis
B. Esophageal Webs, Microcytic hypochromia anemia, koilonychia
C. Microcytic hypochromia anemia, koilonychia, atrophic glossitis
D. Koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, Esophageal Webs

19. A patient presents with frequent epigastric pain with burning sensation for the past 2 years. The
pain usually occurs 2-3 hours after a mealand is relieved by taking food. He also says that he
wakes up at night because of severe pain. The most probable cause for his symptom is:
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal Ulcer
C. Esophagitis
D. GERD

20. Which of the Drug is not effective in H.Pylori eradication in a patient with peptic ulcer
disease?
A. Bismuth Subsalicyclate
B. Erythromycin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metronidazole

21. Which of the following is true about Philadelphia chromosome?
A. Unbalanced translocation between short arm of chromosome 9 and 22
B. Unbalanced translocation between long arm of chromosome 9 and 22
C. balanced translocation between short arm of chromosome 9 and 22
D. balanced translocation between short arm of chromosome 9 and 22

22. Patients suffering from which type of Acute Myeloid Leukemia are more prone to develop
Disseminated Intravascular coagulation?
A. Monocytic
B. Myelomonocytic
C. Monoblastic
D. Acute promyelocytic

23. Isolated prolongation of prothrombin time was seen in a patient with chronic liver disease .
What does this suggest?
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Factor XII deficiency
C. Factor XI deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency

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24. Which of the following mechanisms is predominantly responsible for an increase in fasting
plasma glucose level of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis
B. Decreased Peripheral uptake of glucose
C. Decreased Glycogenesis in muscles
D. Decreased Hepatic glycogenesis

25. Which of the following is not a feature of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A. Low serum sodium
B. High Anion gap
C. Serum pH <7.4
D. Serum Bicarbonate > 15 meq/L

26. Which of the following is specific sign for Grave’s disease?
A. Goiter
B. Ophthalmopathy
C. Thyroid bruit
D. Pretibial Myxedema

27. Most common symptom of thyrotoxicosis
A. Palpitation
B. Fatigue and weakness
C. Heat intolerance
D. Hyperactivity and irritability

28. Which of the following arteries is most commonly involved in patients with coronary artery
disease?
A. Right Coronary artery
B. Left anterior descending coronary artery
C. Left circumflex coronary artery
D. Left main coronary artery

29. Which area of myocardium is most vulnerable to damage in patients with ischemic hearty
disease
A. Subepicardium
B. Subendocardium
C. Pericardium
D. Midmyocardium

30. A 45 year old woman is diagnosed with mitral stenosis . which of the following features is least
likely to be seen in this patient?
A. Pulmonary Artery Hypertension
B. Tricuspid Regurgitation
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy

31. A 49 year old woman was brought to the emergency with complaints of dizziness, shortness of
breath and palpitations. ECG showed tachyarrhythmia with narrow QRS complex and irregular
RR interval with absent p waves. What is likely diagnosis
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. AV nodal re-entry tachycardia
C. Atrial flutter
D. Atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia

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32. Which is the most aggressive type of lung cancer?
A. Small cell carcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Broncho-alveolar carcinoma

33. Which of the following antihypertensive decrease both preload and afterload?
A. Hydralazine
B. Enalapril
C. Nitrates
D. Propranolol

34. A 45 year old man presented for haematemesis and hematochezia . An urgent upper GI
endoscopy showed multiple esophageal varices, mild portal hypertensive gastropathy, and no
gastric varices. Which of the following agents is recommended for variceal bleeding?
A. Octreotide
B. TIPS
C. Antibiotics
D. Nitroglycerine

35. Which of the following drug used in heart failure is an inhibitor of I(f) current in sinoatrial
node?
A. Omapatrilat
B. Ivabradine
C. Nesiritide
D. Levosimendan

36. Which is the best way to diagnose patients with suspected bronchial asthma?
A. Chest Xray
B. Skin test for inhaled allergens
C. FEV1 VALUES
D. Demonstration of reversible obstruction

37. The Gold’s criteria for severe COPD?
A. FEV1/FVC 0.7 and FEV1 >= 30%
B. FEV1/FVC 0.7 and FEV1 < 30%
C. FEV1/FVC 0.7 and FEV1 <30%
D. FEV1/FVC 0.7 and FEV1 >= 50%

38. Which of the following findings is least likely to be seen in patients with COPD?
A. Barrel Chest
B. Hoover’s sign
C. Cyanosis
D. Clubbing

39. Most common sustained arrhythmia in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Atrial flutter
C. Multifocal Atrial tachycardia
D. Ventricular Tachycardia

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40. Most common protein mutation seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A. Myosin heavy chain
B. Alpha-tropomyosin
C. Cardiac troponin C
D. Titin

41. Which of the following feature is not seen in patients with pneumothorax
A. Deep sulcus sign
B. Mediastinal shift to ipsilateral side
C. Area of hypertranslucensy on ipsilateral side
D. Collapse of ipsilateral lung

42. A 35 year old lady presents with pulmonary TB started on anti-tubercular therapy. What is the
rationale for administering multi-drug therapy to her?
A. To delay development of resistance
B. To reduce toxicity
C. To broaden antimicrobial spectrum
D. To prevent toxin release from organism

43. A 30 year old HIV positive man presents with fever for 3 weeks, dry cough, and significant
weight loss. He complains of retrosternal chest pain that is worse on inspiration. Most likely
diagnosis?
A. Staphylococcus Pneumonia
B. Pneumococcal Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

44. Which of the following organism can cause both typical and atypical pneumonia?
A. Legionella
B. Pneumococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Staphylococcus aureus

45. Which of the following seen in patients with brainstem injury ?
A. Low Po2 and high pco2
B. Normal pO2 and high pC02
C. Low pO2 and low pCO2
D. Low pO2 and normal pCO2

46. Ideal Ventilator setting for patient with Acute Respiratory distress Syndrome?
A. Low tidal volume High PEEP
B. High Tidal volume Low PEEP
C. High Tidal volume High PEEP
D. Low Tidal Volume Low PEEP

47. Which among the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. HepatitisD

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48. Which of the following is associated with highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis?\
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis E
D. Hepatitis D

49. Which of the following sites is most commonly involved in Crohn’s disease?
A. Terminal ileum
B. Rectosigmoid colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Proximal Duodenum

50. Earliest radiographic feature of Crohn’s disease
A. Ram’s horn sign
B. Rose-thorn appearance
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. String sign of kantor

51. SIADH is:
A. Hyperosmolar hyponatremia
B. Hypo-osmolar hyponatremia
C. Iso-osmolar hyponatremia
D. Pseudohyponatremia

52. Rapid sodium correction can lead to:
A. Somnolence
B. Diuresis
C. Central pontine demyelination
D. Muscle cramps

53. ECG change that is seen in hypokalemia:
A. ST elevation
B. Absent P-wave
C. QT prolongation
D. U wave

54. A complication of thyroid surgery:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia

55. Drug(s) to treat organophosphorus poisoning:
A. Beta blockers
B. Anticholinergics
C. Pralidoxime
D. Both B and C

56. Carbon monoxide poisoning can result in:
A. Blackish red skin
B. Cherry red skin
C. Purple red skin
D. Bluish red skin

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57. Correct order for shockable rhythm in ACLS protocol:
A. Adrenaline - DC shock - Chest compression
B. Chest compression - DC Shock - Adenaline
C. DC Shock - Chest compression - Adrenaline
D. Adrenaline - Chest compression - DC Shock

58. PS (Pressure Support) in case of Non-invasive Ventilation is:
A. CPAP + IPAP
B. EPAP + IPAP
C. IPAP - EPAP
D. IPAP - CPAP

59. In atrial fibrillation there is:
A. Monomorphic p waves
B. Polymorphic p waves
C. Absent p waves
D. Multiple p waves

60. Interfaces for Non-invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation:
A. Nasal mask
B. Facial mask
C. Anatomical mask
D. Both A and B

61. Utilized for weaning from mechanical ventilation:
A. Spontaneous Breathing Index
B. Rapid Shallow Breathing Index
C. CROP index
D. Both A and C

62. ARDS is defined by:
A. Berlin Criteria
B. New York Criteria
C. Canadian Criteria
D. Australian Criteria

63. Porvided by mechanical ventilator:
A. Auto-PEEP
B. Extrinsic PEEP
C. Instric PEEP
D. Both A and C

64. Effect of hypercarbia:
A. Pulmonary vasodilatation
B. Cerebral vasoconstriction
C. Renal vasoconstriction
D. Pulmonary vasoconstriction

65. A type of Ventilator Induced Lung Injury:
A. Atelectasis
B. ARDS
C. Biotrauma
D. Pneumonia

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66. Guide for Goal Directed Fluid Therapy:
A. Stroke volume variance
B. Mean pressure variance
C. Central volume variance
D. IVC diameter variance

67. Loss 35% of total blood volume can be classified as Acute hemorrhage:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

68. Anticoagulant-Preservative solution that gives 35 days shelf-life for PRBC:
A. Citrate
B. Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose-Adenine
C. Citrate-Phosphate-Dextrose
D. New Generation Additives

69. Risk of HLA alloimmunization is lowered in:
A. Leukocyte poor RBC
B. Packed RBC
C. Washed RBC
D. Frozen RBC

70. Variable in Cockroft-Gault equation:
A. GFR
B. Creatinine
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen
D. Urea

71. Stage 5 Chronic Kidney Disease as per KDOQI Staging System is defined as:
A. GFR <20 ml/min/1.73 sqm
B. GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 sqm
C. Urine output <1 ml/kg/min
D. Urine output <0.5 ml/kg/min

72. A technique of continuous renal replacement therapy:
A. Hemodiafiltration
B. Isolated ultrafiltration
C. Hemofiltration
D. Both A and B

73. Typically increased in case of cholestatic jaundice:
A. Total Bilirubin
B. SGOT
C. Indirect bilirubin
D. SGPT

74. Indication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy:
A. Oxygen toxicity
B. Pneumothorax
C. Gas gangrene
D. Retrolental fibroplasia

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75. Best method of confirming endotracheal intubation:
A. Fogging inside ET tube
B. EtCO2 monitoring
C. Auscultation by stethoscope
D. Fibre optic Bronchoscopy

76. Unpaired cartilage of larynx:
A. Arytenoid
B. Corniculate
C. Cuneiform
D. Cricoid

77. Drug that is contraindicated in case of bronchial asthma:
A. Alpha agonist
B. Beta agonist
C. Alpha antagonist
D. Beta antagonist

78. Infertility can be associated with:
A. Pneumonia
B. Lung fibrosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Asthma

79. Ischaemia of inferior wall of heart can be seen in ECG leads:
A. I, aVL, aVF
B. V2-V4
C. II, III, aVF
D. V4-V6

80. Enzyme that is elevated in serum in case of NSTEMI:
A. SGPT
B. CPK-B
C. CPK-M
D. Troponin-T

81. Characteristics of left ventricle in case of severe aortic stenosis:
A. Concentric hypertrophy
B. Eccentric hypertrophy
C. Dialated cardiomyopathy
D. Obstructive cardiomyopathy

82. Part of chest wall overlying the heart is known as:
A. Parietal pericardium
B. Mediastinum
C. Precordium
D. Visceral pericardium

83. Hypochloremia can be associated with:
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Alkalosis

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84. Purpose of maintaining certain water level in intercostal chest drain is:
A. Collecting blood
B. Collecting pus
C. Preventing air entry
D. Preventing water entry

85. Component of chest physiotherapy:
A. Percussion
B. Auscultation
C. Vibration
D. Both A and C

86. Pulse pressure is equal to:
A. (SBP + DBP) / 2
B. DBP + (1/3rd MAP)
C. MAP - SBP
D. SBP - DBP

87. Deep vein thrombosis can be prevented by:
A. Early enteral nutrition
B. Maintaining Blood pressure
C. Early ambulation
D. Parenteral nutrition

88. Nasogastric tube for adults have markings at:
A. 30 cm, 40cm, 50 cm
B. 40 cm, 50 cm, 60 cm
C. 20 cm, 40 cm, 60 cm
D. 30 cm, 50 cm, 70 cm

89. Maximum flow rate is possible through peripheral venous cannula of:
A. White colour
B. Green colour
C. Orange colour
D. Grey colour

90. Surgical airway access is:
A. Thyroidectomy
B. Cricoidectomy
C. Cricothyroidotomy
D. Laryngectomy

91. Parkland formula is used for:
A. Perioperative fluid therapy
B. Fluid therapy in paediatric patients
C. Fluid therapy in burnt patients
D. Fluid therapy in drowning patients

92. Most acidic pH is in which of the following:
A. Normal Saline
B. Balanced Salt Solution
C. Ringer's Lactate solution
D. 5% Dextrose solution

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93. Maximum FiO2 achievable by which of the following:
A. Nasal cannula
B. Venturi face mask
C. Simple face mask
D. Nebulization mask

94. ICU psychosis can be prevented by:
A. Exposure to daylight
B. Physical restraint
C. Intravenous sedation
D. Parenteral nutrition

95. Severe hypothermia is body temperature:
A. <30 degree celcius
B. <28 degree celcius
C. <18 degree celcius
D. <32 degree celcius

96. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can be prevented by:
A. Parenteral nutrition
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Early enteral feeding
D. Early mobilization

97. A feature of isolated left ventricular failure:
A. Raised JVP
B. Pulmonary oedema
C. Pedal oedema
D. Hepatomegaly

98. Feature of pneumothorax:
A. Flattened diaphragm in Chest X-ray
B. Fluid level in Chest X-ray
C. Increased bronchovascular markings in chest x-ray
D. Shifting dullness

99. One of the ketone bodies of body:
A. Acetate
B. Acetoacetate
C. Glutamate
D. Butyrate

100. Shock with peripheral vasodilatation:
A. Cardiogenic
B. Hypovolemic
C. Septic
D. Neurogenic

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