JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper M.Phil CP

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4102800001
Subject: M. Phil in Clinical Psychology (M. Phil CP)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
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consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
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11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
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MPhil CP
1. Symbol search subtest of WAIS-IV assesses:
(A) Auditory processing.
(B) Concentration.
(C) Mental manipulation.
(D) Processing speed.

2. In his observation of motor skills of young children, Arnold Gesell found infant
motor skills developing in a consistent sequence. According to his observations, an
infant typically:
(A) Walks alone at nine months.
(B) Rolls over at one month.
(C) Sits without support between five and six months.
(D) Stands alone at seven months.

3. In the early work of Hartshorne and May, designed to assess children’s moral
behavior, it was found that:
(A) Moral children always adhere to generally recognized moral standards.
(B) Children seem to apply situational morality, acting differently in separate
situations involving the same moral principle.
(C) Moral children never cheat.
(D) Boys generally have stronger conscience than girls.

4. Which of the following expresses a correct sequence in cognitive development?
(A) Voluntary movement, intuitive thought, object permanence.
(B) Concrete operations, mental representation, information processing.
(C) Mental representation, symbolic thought, intuitive thought.
(D) Conservation, object permanence, intuitive thought.

5. The play pattern most prevalent among three-year old children is:
(A) Solitary play.
(B) Associative play.
(C) Cooperative play.
(D) Parallel play.

6. The positive psychology movement:
(A) Took root within psychodynamic theory.
(B) Had its early beginning in social behaviorism.
(C) Tends to de-emphasize the importance of adaptation.
(D) Found thematic parallels in humanistic psychology.

7. Language comprehension is traditionally associated with which area of the brain:
(A) Recorla’s.
(B) Broca’s.
(C) Gage’s.
(D) Wernicke’s.

8. In the Jungian view of personality, key functions include:
(A) Will to power, will to pleasure.
(B) Sensing, feeling, intuiting.
(C) Prototaxic, parataxic, syntaxic.
(D) Extroversion, introversion, interposition.

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9. The term social loafing refers to:
(A) Playing when expected to be working.
(B) Working harder in groups than individually.
(C) Working harder individually than in groups.
(D) The opposite of social inhibition.

10. The somatosensory area of cortex is responsible for our sense of:
(A) Taste.
(B) Sight.
(C) Hearing.
(D) Touch.

11. REM sleep behavior disorder is associated with movements, occasionally violent,
during sleep, sometimes characterized as “acting out dreams”. What normal feature of
REM sleep is absent in individuals with this disorder?
(A) Atonia.
(B) Rapid eye movements.
(C) High frequency, low amplitude EEG.
(D) Penile erections (in males).

12. Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
(A) Serotonin.
(B) Dopamine.
(C) Epinephrine.
(D) Insulin.

13. Which of the following chemical substances is not classified as an opioid?
(A) Cocaine.
(B) Codeine.
(C) Heroin.
(D) Morphine.

14. In signal-detection research, when no stimulus is presented and the subject reports of
seeing one, it is called:
(A) Hit.
(B) Miss.
(C) False alarm.
(D) False positive.

15. When a light paired with a bell comes to elicit a conditioned response (CS) such as
salivation, the phenomenon is called:
(A) Anomalous conditioning.
(B) Distinctive conditioning.
(C) Counterconditioning.
(D) Higher-order conditioning.

16. Which of the following is an accurate learning acquisition sequence?
(A) Drive-cue-response-reinforcement.
(B) Cue-drive-response-reinforcement.
(C) Cue-response-drive-reinforcement.
(D) Drive-response-cue-reinforcement.

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17. If an animal receives a shock but learns that pressing a bar will turn off the shock.
However, if there is no response that will turn off the shock, the situation is described
by the term:
(A) Avoidance learning.
(B) Second-order conditioning.
(C) Learned helplessness.
(D) Latent learning.

18. One is a bun, two is a shoe, three is a tree, four is a door. This is part of improving
memory and the method is known as:
(A) Pegword.
(B) Loci.
(C) Visual imagery.
(D) Flashbulb.
19. Which of these is a stage in the Stages of Change Model?
(A) Relaxation.
(B) Contemplation.
(C) Deliberation.
(D) Meditation.

20. Which of the following techniques is a client-centered therapist most likely to use?
(A) Analysis.
(B) Giving advice.
(C) Reflection.
(D) Aversive conditioning.

21. "Hallucinations” are disorders of:
(A) Judgement.
(B) Perception.
(C) Intelligence.
(D) Thinking.

22. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are all except:
(A) Affective flattening.
(B) Bizarre behaviour.
(C) Circumstantiality.
(D) Delusions.

23. When same group is studied over a period of time; the study method is known as?
(A) Longitudinal.
(B) Sequential.
(C) Cross-sectional.
(D) Recapitulation.

24. Which psychologist thought that our behaviour are learnt through interaction with the
observation of the environment?
(A) Cattell.
(B) Hull.
(C) Sigmund Freud.
(D) Albert Bandura.

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25. The procedure in which people learn to modify internal responses such as heart rate
and body temperature is known as:
(A) Biofeedback.
(B) Hypnosis.
(C) Sublimation.
(D) None of the above.

26. First Rank Symptoms” of Schizophrenia given by Schneider include all except:
(A) Depersonalisation.
(B) Running commentary of one’s thoughts.
(C) Primary delusion.
(D) Somatic passivity.

27. The Indian Psychoanalytic Society was founded by:
(A) Girindra Sekhar Bose.
(B) Brajendra Nath Seal.
(C) N. N. Sengupta.
(D) Sigmund Freud.

28. “Kluver Bucy Syndrome” is characterised all except:
(A) Visual Agnosia.
(B) Hypersexuality.
(C) Compulsive licking and biting.
(D) Delusions.

29. Procedural memory can be affected by damage to the:
(A) Cerebrum.
(B) Cerebellum.
(C) Motor Cortex.
(D) Limbic system.

30. According to social-exchange theory we will help when:
(A) The benefits are external and the costs are internal.
(B) The benefits are greater than the costs.
(C) The benefits and costs are proportional.
(D) The benefits are smaller than the costs.

31. The term IQ was invented by:
(A) Terman.
(B) Allport.
(C) William Stern.
(D) Watson.

32. What does MMSE test help to assess?
(A) Phobias.
(B) Depression.
(C) ADHD.
(D) Dementia.

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33. What is the full form of the test ISAA?
(A) Indian scale for autism in adults.
(B) International scale for assessment of autism.
(C) Indian scale for assessment of Autism.
(D) Indian scale for adult autism.

34. Which of these is not a defense mechanism?
(A) Displacement.
(B) Catastrophizing.
(C) Reaction formation.
(D) Humor.

35. Which of the following illness caused by long-term abuse of alcohol often involves
profound retrograde amnesia?
(A) Alzheimer’s disease.
(B) Korsakoff’s disease.
(C) Parkinson’s disease.
(D) Huntington’s disease.

36. After a recent heavy catastrophic floods in a given state, a psychologist interviewed
120 participants to understand the psychological consequences of the event. This is
an example of:
(A) Controlled experiment.
(B) Field experiment.
(C) Ex post facto field research.
(D) Psychometric research.

37. Memory can be distorted by being influenced by the individual’s expectation rather
than what has actually happened. The term is called:
(A) Confirmation bias.
(B) Mood dependent memory.
(C) Mood congruence effect.
(D) Flash bulb memory.

38. According to Elizabeth Kubler Ross most people experience predictable stages, when
they face impeding death. Which is the correct sequence of the stages?
(A) Anger, sadness, bargaining, denial, acceptance.
(B) Denial, Anger, bargaining, sadness, acceptance.
(C) Bargaining, anger, denial, sadness, acceptance.
(D) Acceptance, anger, bargaining, denial, sadness.

39. Which of the following is not one of the Big Five personality factors?
(A) Extroversion.
(B) Agreeableness.
(C) Submissiveness.
(D) Openness to experience.

40. The tendency to organize things to make a balanced or symmetrical figure that
includes all parts is called:
(A) Principle of continuation.
(B) Principle of similarity.
(C) Law of good figure.
(D) Law of closure.
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41. As per ICD-10 Classification of mental and behavioural disorders what is the
diagnostic code for Schizophrenia:
(A) F20.
(B) F90.
(C) F00.
(D) F22.

42. In research the following is not a type of sampling method:
(A) Snowball.
(B) Systematic.
(C) Stratified.
(D) Closure.

43. In WAIS-IV which of the following subtest belongs to the Perceptual Reasoning
Index scale?
(A) Digit span.
(B) Visual puzzles.
(C) Symbol search.
(D) Letter number sequencing.

44. According to John Bowlby what are the 4 types of attachment styles?
(A) Secure, anxious-ambivalent, disorganized and avoidant.
(B) Secure, insecure, anxious-avoidant and disorganized.
(C) Secure, anxious-ambivalent, anxious-avoidant and disorganized.
(D) Secure, insecure, approachable and avoidant.

45. Which of the following is not a specific interpersonal problem area in IPT?
(A) Interpersonal effectiveness.
(B) Interpersonal deficits.
(C) Interpersonal role disputes.
(D) Role transition.

46. Parameter is characteristic of:
(A) The sample.
(B) The population.
(C) An individual.
(D) A test.

47. For which psychiatric illness is ERP best suggested for?
(A) Paranoid Schizophrenia.
(B) OCD.
(C) Substance Dependence.
(D) Depression.

48. The Id, according to Freud, is driven by aggressive and sexual instincts. This
corresponds to Jung’s archetype called:
(A) Shadow.
(B) Persona.
(C) Evil force.
(D) Sun.

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49. According to the Beck's cognitive triad one has a negative views about:
(A) Past, present and future.
(B) Self, world and future.
(C) Self, past and future.
(D) Self, world and present.

50. Kurt Lewin’s approach to personality was a:
(A) Gestalt approach.
(B) Behavioural approach.
(C) Social learning approach.
(D) Deterministic approach.

51. The phenomenon of development of Super-Ego, according to Freud is a consequence
of:
(A) Identification with the opposite sex parent.
(B) Resolution of Oedipus/Electra complex.
(C) Anatomical superiority.
(D) Age progression.

52. Which of the following is not a cause of forgetting?
(A) Interference.
(B) Decay.
(C) Selective attention.
(D) Retrieval inhibition.

53. What is the resolution point of Erik Erikson’s fourth stage of psychosocial
development?
(A) Purpose.
(B) Will.
(C) Competence.
(D) Wisdom.

54. What is true for the contention that we are normally driven to eat by the anticipated
pleasure of eating?
(A) Set point theory.
(B) Negative feedback system.
(C) Positive incentive theory.
(D) Homeostatis.

55. Which one of the following theories predicts that work motivation will be low if an
employee perceives that an increased effort will have little, or no effect on his/her
performance?
(A) Just-world theory.
(B) Need-drive theory.
(C) Expectancy theory.
(D) Normative theory.

56. The defence of unconscious shifting of emotions from the real source of threat to a
less threatening external object is usually known as:
(A) Dissociation.
(B) Isolation.
(C) Conversion.
(D) Displacement.
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57. Replacing the fragmented self with the cohesive self is the primary developmental
and therapeutic goal of:
(A) Kernberg.
(B) Kohut.
(C) Malan.
(D) Horowitz.

58. Cognitive Behaviour Therapy is a type of __________ therapy.
(A) Reconstructive.
(B) Re-educative.
(C) Supportive.
(D) Meta-cognitive.

59. Hermann Ebbinghaus, had done the pioneering experiments on _________:
(A) Perception.
(B) Psychophysics.
(C) Serial Position Effect.
(D) Memory.

60. “Dereflection” is a component of:
(A) Existential Therapy.
(B) Person Centered Therapy.
(C) Logo therapy.
(D) Gestalt Therapy.

61. Consider a scenario where a salesperson knocks someone’s door and requests them to
buy a latest technology refrigerator of his organization. When he is turned down, he
requests to buy a portable ice box where the customer feels obliged to comply. The
technique that this salesperson has tentatively used is:
(A) Low ball technique.
(B) Foot-in-the-door technique.
(C) Door- in- the- face technique.
(D) Reciprocity.

62. Awareness of one’s own thought processes enabling effective learning through
correction is called:
(A) Analogies.
(B) Algorithm.
(C) Meta cognition.
(D) Constructive process.

63. The famous textbook “The principles of Psychology” was authored by ----------:
(A) Wilhelm Wundt.
(B) William James.
(C) Edward B. Titchener.
(D) Alan Carr.

64. Ivan Petrovich Pavlov received the Nobel Prize in 1904 for:
(A) Contribution to Psychology.
(B) Conditioned reflexes.
(C) Physiology of digestion.
(D) Experiment with animals.
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65. Among the following pioneering psychologists who is not associated with
Behaviourism?
(A) A.T Beck.
(B) E.R Guthrie.
(C) B.F Skinner.
(D) C.L Hull.

66. “Moving towards people, moving away from people, moving against people” are
constituents of whose classification of pattern of needs:
(A) Dollard-Miller.
(B) Max Wertheimer.
(C) Horney.
(D) Alfred Adler.

67. The need to submit passively to others, to seek and accept injury, blame and criticism
is also known as the need for:
(A) Abasement.
(B) Succorance.
(C) Order.
(D) Defence.

68. ‘Animistic thinking’ or the tendency to ascribe life to non-living things is found in the
------------ stage of Piaget’s development:
(A) Preoperational stage.
(B) Concrete operational stage.
(C) Formal operational stage.
(D) Sensorimotor stage.

69. Which of the following therapies is not considered as a form of third wave therapies?
(A) Dialectical Behaviour Therapy.
(B) Mindfulness Based Interventions.
(C) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy.
(D) Behaviour Therapy.

70. The famous book “Feminine Psychology” is credited to author:
(A) Erik Erikson.
(B) Karen Horney.
(C) Anna Freud.
(D) Melanie Klein.

71. A therapist suggests to a patient that each time he begins to feel anxious he should
breathe deeply and imagine himself in a relaxing place. What principle could underlie
this suggestion?
(A) Extinction.
(B) Flooding.
(C) Reciprocal Inhibition.
(D) Differential reinforcement.

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72. If a child is brought to you for assessment and his/her social quotient or SQ happens
to be 43 on Vineland Social Maturity Scale, then according to The Gazette of India,
what will be the disability calculation?
(A) 25%.
(B) 50%.
(C) 75%.
(D) 90%.

73. Which one is an immature defence?
(A) Distortion.
(B) Rationalization.
(C) Altruism.
(D) Acting out.

74. Pica is:
(A) Pathological over eating.
(B) Unrealistic fear of eating.
(C) Craving non-food substance.
(D) Food refusal.

75. Pseudocyesis is:
(A) Malingering.
(B) Pseudo pregnancy.
(C) Memory loss.
(D) Delusion of guilt.

76. Waxy flexibility is:
(A) Disorder of memory.
(B) Disorder of Emotion.
(C) Disorder of Motor behaviour.
(D) Disorder of Consciousness.

77. Intermittent Explosive Disorder is a:
(A) Personality disorder.
(B) Impulse control disorder.
(C) Mood disorder.
(D) Thought disorder.

78. Empathy is:
(A) Feeling against.
(B) Feeling for.
(C) Feeling with.
(D) Lack of feeling.

79. Hawthorne effect is:
(A) Modification of behaviour under observation.
(B) Obedience.
(C) Modification of behaviour for better attention.
(D) Defiance towards given instructions.

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80. Psychiatric medicine can be prescribed by:
(A) Social workers.
(B) Psychiatric social workers.
(C) Clinical psychologists.
(D) Psychiatrists.

81. Median is:
(A) The representative score.
(B) The middle score.
(C) The 1st quartile score.
(D) The most frequent score.

82. Which of the following names are usually not connected with Existential therapy?
(A) Victor Frankl.
(B) Rollo May.
(C) Walter Mischel.
(D) Irvin Yalom.

83. The concept of ‘borderline personality organization’ was given by:
(A) Melanie Klein.
(B) Otto Kernberg.
(C) Heinz Kohut.
(D) Margeret Mahler.

84. …..........is not an example of Non Parmetric Test:
(A) Mann-Whitney U Test.
(B) Wilcoxin Signed Rank Test.
(C) Friedman.
(D) Independent T test.

85. Sundowning or Sundown Syndrome is a phenomenon commonly associated with:
(A) Depression.
(B) Alcoholism.
(C) Dementia.
(D) Schizophrenia.

86. Which of the following is not based on operant conditioning?
(A) Contingency Management.
(B) Implosion.
(C) Token economy.
(D) Premak principle.

87. Regarding Ganser’s syndrome which of the following is true:
(A) Repeated lying.
(B) Approximate answers.
(C) Unconscious episodes.
(D) Feigning illness.

88. A type II error occurs:
(A) Whenever a true null hypothesis is accepted.
(B) Whenever a false null hypothesis is rejected.
(C) Whenever a false null hypothesis is accepted.
(D) Whenever a true null hypothesis is rejected.

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89. Which type of reinforcement is least resistant to Extinction?
(A) Ratio Interval.
(B) Variable interval.
(C) Fixed Interval.
(D) Fixed Ratio.

90. From the perspective of Erik Erikson, life stages are important because:
(A) Each involves a crisis or dilemma.
(B) Each signals a new stage of cognitive development.
(C) Each is an expression of biological programming.
(D) Their failure to appear is evidence of psychopathology.

91. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her research in the area of:
(A) Eating disorders.
(B) Adolescent behaviour.
(C) Coping with stress.
(D) Death and dying.

92. Internal standards used to judge stimuli are referred to as:
(A) Adaptation level.
(B) Intuition.
(C) Frames of reference.
(D) Context.

93. __________ theory maximized and __________ theory minimized the role of the
unconscious:
(A) Trait; Humanistic.
(B) Psychoanalytic; Behaviourist.
(C) Psychoanalytic; Humanistic.
(D) Trait; Behaviourist.

94. Which of the statements correctly describes the general findings of studies examining
treatment of childhood anxiety?
(A) CBT and sertraline are not significantly different in terms of efficacy.
(B) CBT improves outcome in around 60% of cases.
(C) CBT and sertraline combined produce the best outcome.
(D) All of these.

95. Which of these is NOT considered to be a cardinal feature of Borderline Personality
Disorder (BPD)?
(A) Eccentric’ behaviour marked by odd patterns of thinking and communication.
(B) An enduring pattern of instability in personal relationships.
(C) A lack of a well-defined and stable self-image.
(D) Regular and unpredictable changes in mood.

96. Porteus developed an early performance test based on:
(A) Block design.
(B) Mazes.
(C) Non-verbal cues.
(D) Drawing people.

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97. The Deviation IQ is based on the notion of:
(A) Delinquency as a factor affecting the development of intelligence.
(B) Mental age versus chronological age.
(C) A z-score.
(D) Verbal versus performance scores.

98. _____ is a sub process of _____:
(A) Psychological testing; Observation.
(B) Psychological testing; Interviewing.
(C) Interviewing; Psychological assessment.
(D) Psychological assessment; Observation.

99. What proportion of scores in a normal distribution lie above a z score of 1?
(A) 50 Percent.
(B) 16 Percent.
(C) 25 Percent.
(D) 10 Percent.

100. The Stroop Color-Word Interference Test is usually used as a test of:
(A) Verbal fluency.
(B) Visual perception.
(C) Memory.
(D) Attention.

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