JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper M.Sc MM

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4102200001
Subject: M.Sc in Medical Microbiology(M.Sc. MM)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
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become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
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11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

M.Sc. Medical_Microbiology
1. Virus contains nucleic acid as
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) RNA and DNA
(D) RNA or DNA

2. Which of the following is the major core antigen of HIV ?
(A) gp120
(B) gp41
(C) P18
(D) P24

3. Jeryl Lynn strain is used for vaccination against –
(A) Influenza
(B) Measles
(C) Rubella
(D) Mumps

4. All of the following are true regarding Koplik’s spot except –
(A) They appear one to two days after the rash appears
(B) They are bluish white ulcerations on buccal mucosa
(C) They indicate local viral replication
(D) They contain cytoplasmic and intra-nuclear inclusion bodies

5. Owl’s eye appearance is associated with –
(A) HSV-2
(B) Herpes Zoster infection
(C) CMV
(D) Tanapox

6. Which part of the brain tissue has Negri bodies in abundance?
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Brain Stem
(C) Hippocampus
(D) Corpus callosum

7. Which of the following is false with regard to Prions ?
(A) They are proteinaceous infectious particles
(B) Cause chronic progressive degenerative disease of the CNS
(C) They possess either DNA or RNA
(D) Resistant to heat, irradiation and formalin

8. Any of the following viruses may cause infective diarrhoea except –
(A) Norwalk virus
(B) Parvovirus
(C) Rotavirus
(D) Calicivirus

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9. Cart wheel appearance is seen in which of the following viruses ?
(A) Measles virus
(B) Rotavirus
(C) SARS-CoV
(D) HIV

10. Genetic re-assortment is a common natural event of –
(A) Influenza A virus
(B) Influenza B virus
(C) Influenza C virus
(D) Influenza D virus

11. Which of the following is an example of primary cell lines?
(A) HeLa
(B) Hep-2
(C) KB
(D) Monkey Kidney

12. All of the following viruses are transmitted by parenteral route except –
(A) HIV
(B) Hepatitis B virus
(C) Hepatitis C virus
(D) Hepatitis A virus

13. Which of the following is a single stranded DNA virus?
(A) Pox virus
(B) Papova virus
(C) Paramyxovirus
(D) Parvo virus

14. HBV vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?
(A) Live
(B) Killed
(C) Live attenuated
(D) Cloned subunit

15. Which virus results in syncytium formation in cell lines?
(A) Hepatitis B virus
(B) Herpes virus
(C) Enterovirus
(D) Measles virus

16. All of the following are oncogenic viruses except –
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Papilloma
(C) Ebstein Barr virus
(D) HTLV-1

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17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Nipah virus –
(A) It is a zoonotic virus
(B) It causes a food-borne disease that is transmitted by ingestion of dates contaminated with
urine or saliva
(C) There is no person to person transmisssion
(D) Clinical presentation can range from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory infection
and fatal encephalitis

18. Carcinoma cervix is associated with –
(A) HSV-2
(B) HPV
(C) HIV
(D) HSV-2 and HPV

19. Which is the best laboratory test to detect HIV infection in the window period ?
(A) P24 antigen assay
(B) IgM Capture ELISA
(C) IgG ELISA
(D) Western Blot

20. Guarnieri bodies are seen in which viral infection?
(A) Rabies
(B) Polio
(C) Vaccinia
(D) Herpes

21. Haemadsorption test uses RBC of
(A) Sheep
(B) Mouse
(C) Guinea Pig
(D) Hamster

22. Which of the following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus ?
(A) Hepatitis A
(B) Hepatitis B
(C) Hepatitis C
(D) Hepatitis G

23. Which marker indicates protective immunity following HBV vaccination –
(A) HBsAg
(B) Anti HBsAg
(C) Anti HBcAg
(D) Anti HBeAg

24. The incubation period of human influenza is
(A) 1-3 days
(B) 10-12 days
(C) 8-10 days
(D) 12-14 days

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25. Sequential change in viral antigenic structure by recombination of viral genetic segments at
regular interval is called
(A) Antigenic shift
(B) Antigenic drift
(C) Point mutation
(D) Antigenic recombination

26. “Anchovy sauce” pus is a hallmark of :
(A) Ameboma
(B) Scabies
(C) Toxocariasis
(D) Amebic liver abscess

27. All are methods of diagnosing Malaria in humans except:
(A) RDT
(B) Peripheral blood smear examination
(C) Quantitative Buffy Coat examination
(D) Serotyping

28. DEC provocation test is recommended for diagnosis of:
(A) Filariasis
(B) Leishmaniasis
(C) Dracunculiasis
(D) Sparganosis

29. Features of Congenital Toxoplasmosis are all except:
(A) Microcephaly
(B) Hepatosplenomegaly
(C) Micro-ophthalmia
(D) Saber Tibia

30. Which of the following can manifest both as visceral and cutaneous larva migrans:
(A) Necator americanus
(B) Strongyloides stercoralis
(C) Trichuris trichiura
(D) Enterobius vermicularis

31. ‘Calabar swelling’ is characteristic of :
(A) Mansonella ozzardi
(B) Wuchereria bancrofti
(C) Loa loa
(D) All of the above

32. Parasite with modified acid fast oocysts causing intractable diarrhea in HIV-AIDS patient is:
(A) Babesia microti
(B) Entameba histolytica
(C) Cystoisospora belli
(D) Toxocara canis

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33. Novy MacNeal Nicolle medium is used for cultivation of:
(A) Leishmania spp.
(B) Leptospira spp.
(C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(D) All of the above

34. Which of the following is a non-bile stained ovum?
(A) Ancylostoma duodenale
(B) Ascaris lumbricoides
(C) Taenia solium
(D) Trichuris trichiura

35. Acid fast structures are:
(A) Matured oocysts of coccidian parasites
(B) Embryophore of Taenia saginata
(C) None of the above
(D) Both a+b

36. “Maltese cross appearance” is characteristic of:
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense
(B) Hymenolepis nana
(C) Babesia microti
(D) Trichuris trichiura

37. Muscle biopsy is recommended for diagnosis of:
(A) Hookworm infection
(B) Filariasis
(C) Trichinellosis
(D) Leishmaniasis

38. Which of the following parasite doesnot abide by the classical definition of trematode:
(A) Gastrodiscoides hominis
(B) Fasciola hepatica
(C) Schistosoma hematobium
(D) Paragonimus westermanii

39. Parasite most commonly causing Vitamin B12 deficiency in human beings:
(A) Spirometra spp.
(B) Acanthamoeba spp.
(C) Diphyllobothrium latum
(D) Echinococcus multilocularis

40. Which of the following is a parasitic cause of blindness?
(A) Gnathostoma spinigerum
(B) Blastocystis hominis
(C) Entamoeba coli
(D) Schistosoma mansoni

41. “Herring worm” is a common name for:
(A) Anisakis simplex
(B) Taenia saginata
(C) Enterobius vermicularis
(D) Trichinella spiralis
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42. Human beings commonly get infected with Paragonimus westermani from:
(A) Droplets
(B) Infected crab meat
(C) Handshakes
(D) All of the above

43. Tachyzoites of Toxoplasma gondii are maintained in:
(A) NNN media
(B) Fetal calf serum
(C) Intraperitoneal cavity of laboratory mouse
(D) All of the above

44. True statement is:
(A) Malaria parasites are cultivated routinely in most laboratories
(B) Scabies infestation of human beings may result in acute kidney injury (AKI) and eventual
Chronic Kidney Disease(CKD)
(C) Transfusion transmitted malaria does not require any therapy
(D) Loa loa is a very common cause of Acne vulgaris

45. True regarding Trichomonas vaginalis:
(A) Has only one form and are actively motile
(B) Can be cultivated on Kupferberg media
(C) Is a common agent of Sexually transmitted infection
(D) All of the above

46. Heartworm disease is caused by:
(A) Wuchereria bancrofti
(B) Loa loa
(C) Dirofilaria immitis
(D) Onchocerca volvulus

47. Sappinia diploidea is a/an:
(A) Ectoparasite
(B) Free living ameba
(C) Soil transmitted helminth
(D) Trematode infecting neonates

48. Motility of Giardia lamblia is:
(A) Rapid darting
(B) Stately
(C) Falling leaf like
(D) Right handed cork-screw

49. Kato-Katz technique is used to :
(A) Quantify Schistosoma and some nematode eggs
(B) Control auto-infection
(C) Assay drug resistance in malaria
(D) Reduce filarial lymphangitis

P a g e 6 | 12

50. Iron deficiency anemia is caused by:
(A) Whipworm
(B) Dog tapeworm
(C) Hookworm
(D) Pinworm

51. Fungi are
(A) Prokaryote
(B) Eukaryote
(C) Both
(D) None

52. Which of the following is a fungus?
(A) Klebsiella
(B) Clostridia
(C) Trichosporon
(D) Listeria

53. C. albicans is:
(A) Yeast
(B) Yeast like
(C) Dimorphic
(D) Mould

54. The only pathogenic true yeast is:
(A) Candida
(B) Saccharomyces
(C) Cryptococcus
(D) Apergillus

55. Imperfect fungi are also known as:
(A) Basidiomycetes
(B) Ascomycetes
(C) Phycomycetes
(D) Deuteromycetes

56. Dimorphic fungi grow as yeasts at:
(A) 25°C
(B) 37°C
(C) 42°C
(D) Room Temperature

57. All are dimorphic fungi except:
(A) Histoplasma
(B) Paracoccidiodes
(C) Cryptococcus
(D) Blastomyces

58. Aspergillus is
(A) Yeast like
(B) True yeast
(C) Mould
(D) All of the above
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59. The most commonly used culture media for fungi is
(A) SDA
(B) Nutrient agar
(C) LJ media
(D) All of the above

60. Which fungus gives germ tube test positive?
(A) Cryptococcus
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Candida albicans
(D) All Candida species

61. Reagent used for germ tube test is
(A) Serum
(B) Normal Saline
(C) Whole blood
(D) Urine

62. Pseudo hyphe seen in
(A) Candida
(B) Cryptococcus
(C) Aspergillus
(D) Trochosporon

63. Which of the following test is used as negative staining for fungus
(A) Gram stain
(B) Giemsa stain
(C) KOH preparation
(D) India ink preparation

64. Budding is seen with:
(A) Cryptococcus and Candida
(B) Candida and Rhizopus
(C) Rhizopus and Mucor
(D) Candida and Aspergillus

65. Cryptococcus can be readily demonstrated by:
(A) Albert’s stain
(B) India ink stain
(C) Giemsa stain
(D) Gram’s stain

66. Zygomycosis is caused by:
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Candida
(C) Yeast
(D) Rhizopus

67. Which of the following is septate fungus?
(A) Aspergillus
(B) Candida
(C) Nocardia
(D) Rhizopus
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68. Broad aseptate hyphe seen in
(A) Candida
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Cryptococcus
(D) Mucor

69. Selective media for fungus is
(A) SDA
(B) Blood agar
(C) LJ Media
(D) XLD media

70. Subcutenous mycosis caused by
(A) Trichophyton
(B) Microsporum
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Madurella

71. LPCB is used to see morphology of
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) Parasite

72. Wood’s Lamp used in all expect:
(A) Tinea pedis
(B) Pityriasis versicolor
(C) Sporotrichosis
(D) Vitiligo

73. Lower fungi which have nonseptate hyphae and which form sporangiospores are called:
(A) Ascomycetes
(B) Phycomycetes
(C) Deuteromycetes
(D) Basidiomycetes

74. A sporangium contains:
(A) Spherules
(B) Sporangiospores
(C) Chlamydospores
(D) Conidia

75. Which Fungus was cultivated only recently ?
(A) Rhinosporidium seeberi
(B) Penicillium marneffei
(C) Aspergillus flavus
(D) Sporothrix schenckii

76. Bacterial capsule can be best demonstrated by:
(A) Gram staining
(B) Acid-fast staining
(C) Negative staining
(D) Albert staining
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77. Which is an enrichment media
(A) Blood agar
(B) MacConkey agar
(C) Chocolate agar
(D) Selenite F broth

78. Which of the following is a Gram-negative cocci
(A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(B) Neisseria meningitidis
(C) Listeria monocytogenes
(D) Acinetobacter baumannii

79. Lipopolysaccharide is a component of cell wall of
(A) Gram-negative bacteria
(B) Gram-positive bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Fungi

80. Which is a form of cold sterilization?
(A) Infrared rays
(B) Gamma rays
(C) Autoclave
(D) UV rays

81. Which of the following is used for disinfection of blood spillage area?
(A) Phenol
(B) Lysol
(C) Hypochlorite
(D) Formaldehyde

82. All of the following of are Enterobacteriaceae except
(A) E.coli
(B) Salmonella
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) Klebsiella

83. Which of the following organism gives indole test positive
(A) Proteus vulgaris
(B) Klebsiella pmeunoniae
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Salmonella Typhi

84. Disposable plastic syringe is sterilized by
(A) ETO
(B) Hot air oven
(C) Autoclave
(D) UV rays

85. All are Acid-fast organisms except
(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(B) Nocardia
(C) Actinomyces
(D) Bacterial spore
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86. Rapid diagnosis of Mycobacteria can be done by all methods except
(A) CBNAAT
(B) TRUENAT
(C) PCR
(D) MGIT

87. All of the following bacteria can cause UTI except
(A) E.coli
(B) Enterococci
(C) Proteus
(D) Vibrio cholerae

88. Selective media for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is
(A) Blood agar
(B) Chocolate agar
(C) MacConkey agar
(D) Potassium tellurite containing agar

89. Catalase test is negative in
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Salmonella Typhi
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes
(D) None of the above

90. Which antibody can transmit from mother to foetus
(A) Ig A
(B) Ig G
(C) Ig M
(D) Ig D

91. Contact dermatitis is an example of
(A) Type I hypersensitivity
(B) Type II hypersensitivity
(C) Type III hypersensitivity
(D) Type IV hypersensitivity

92. All cells are part of acquired immune system except
(A) T helper cell
(B) B Lymphocyte
(C) NK cell
(D) T cytotoxic cell

93. T Lymphocytes mature in the
(A) Thymus
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph node

94. Cell mediated immune response targets all except
(A) Virus
(B) Intracellular bacteria
(C) Extracellular bacteria
(D) Cancer cell
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95. Which of the following bacteria causes STI
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Shigella flexneri
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis
(D) Helicobacter pylori

96. Widal test for enteric fever is diagnostic in which week of fever
(A) 1st week
(B) 2nd week
(C) 3rd week
(D) None of the above

97. Scrub typus is caused by
(A) Orientia tsutsugamushi
(B) Rickettsia rickettsii
(C) Rickettsia typhi
(D) Leptospira interorgans

98. All are Hospital acquired infections except
(A) CLABSI
(B) CAUTI
(C) CA-MRSA
(D) VAP

99. Disposable infected syringes are discarded in
(A) Blue bag
(B) Red bag
(C) Yellow bag
(D) White puncture proof container

100. Cefoxitin is a surrogate marker for the detection of
(A) MRSA
(B) VRSA
(C) VISA
(D) VRE

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