JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper M.Sc PH-HP

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4102300001
Subject: M.Sc in Public Health(Health Promotion)(M.Sc PH-HP)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
5. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations
of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature
(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

M.Sc. PH (HP)

1. The discipline which deals with the study of human society is:
(A) Socialized medicine.
(B) Community medicine.
(C) Sociology.
(D) Preventive and social medicine.

2. Which of the following is an “Audio-Visual Aid” in health education?
(A) Pamphlets.
(B) Radio.
(C) Posters.
(D) Television.

3. In which of the following is the sample studied same as the total population?
(A) National Family Health Survey.
(B) Sample Registration Scheme.
(C) Census.
(D) Model Registration Scheme.

4. The sex ratio is described as:
(A) Females for every 1000 males.
(B) Males for 1000 females.
(C) Fraction of females divided by males.
(D) Fraction of males divided by females.

5. Another name for experimental study is:
(A) Interventional study.
(B) Case-control study.
(C) Cohort study.
(D) Cross-sectional study.

6. A cross-sectional descriptive study will give us:
(A) Incidence.
(B) Prevalence.
(C) Relative Risk.
(D) Odds ratio.

7. The mid day meal program offers:
(A) Half of daily protein and one-third of calories requirement.
(B) Half of daily protein and half of calories requirement.
(C) One-third of daily protein and half of calories requirement.
(D) One-third of daily protein and one-third of calories requirement.

8. Mission “Indradhanush” focuses on:
(A) Basic obstetric care.
(B) Immunization.
(C) Water supply and sanitation.
(D) Prevention of life style diseases.

P a g e 1 | 12

9. Which is the minimum number of members which should be present in a village
health, sanitation and nutrition committee (VHSNC)?
(A) 5.
(B) 10.
(C) 15.
(D) 20.
10. The information regarding the occurrence of birth and death event is to be given
within:
(A) 14 days.
(B) 21 days.
(C) 28 days.
(D) 3 months.

11. WHO recommends a minimum of how many antenatal visits?
(A) 1.
(B) 2.
(C) 3.
(D) 4.

12. Additional daily calorie requirement for a pregnant woman is (in kcal):
(A) 100.
(B) 300.
(C) 600.
(D) 1000.

13. Maternal death is death of a woman while pregnant or within how many days of
termination of pregnancy?
(A) 28.
(B) 42.
(C) 60.
(D) 72.

14. Infancy refers to life in the:
(A) 1st year.
(B) 1-2 years.
(C) 1-3 years.
(D) Up to 5 years.

15. LBW baby is one whose birth weight is below:
(A) 2200 g.
(B) 2000 g.
(C) 1500 g.
(D) 2500 g.

16. Perinatal mortality denotes:
(A) Stillbirths.
(B) Neonatal deaths.
(C) Stillbirths and early neonatal deaths.
(D) Stillbirths and neonatal deaths.

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17. How many tablets of iron with folic acid are given to a pregnant woman by health
worker?
(A) 100.
(B) 70.
(C) 150.
(D) 200.

18. Under National Nutritional Anemia Prophylaxis Program of India, the strength of iron
and folic acid in tablets is:
(A) 60 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid.
(B) 100 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid.
(C) 100 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg folic acid.
(D) 60 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg folic acid.

19. Adolescents in RCH represent the age group:
(A) 11 – 18 years.
(B) 10 – 19 years.
(C) 10 – 18 years.
(D) 12 – 19 years.

20. Protein with an NPU of more than which of the following is considered to be of
optimum quality?
(A) 65.
(B) 75.
(C) 100.
(D) 125.

21. Yellow and orange fruits and vegetables are rich in:
(A) Vitamin K.
(B) Vitamin C.
(C) Vitamin A.
(D) Vitamin E.

22. Egg is a poor source of which vitamin?
(A) Vitamin A.
(B) Vitamin B.
(C) Vitamin C.
(D) Vitamin D.

23. In which of the following conditions, the child is “skin and bones” due to loss of
subcutaneous tissue?
(A) Kwashiorkor.
(B) Stunting.
(C) Nephrotic syndrome.
(D) Marasmus.

24. The presence of an infectious agent in an inanimate article or on skin surface,
particularly hands, is called:
(A) Pollution.
(B) Contamination.
(C) Infection.
(D) Infestation.

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25. The level of immunity that is present in a population against an infectious agent is
known as:
(A) Innate immunity.
(B) Acquired immunity.
(C) Selective immunity.
(D) Herd immunity.

26. Health workers going into the community in search of cases is an example of:
(A) Sentinel surveillance.
(B) Passive surveillance.
(C) Mass surveillance.
(D) Active surveillance.

27. Which of the following vegetable oils has a high percentage of saturated fatty acids?
(A) Safflower oil.
(B) Groundnut oil.
(C) Hydrogenated vegetable oil.
(D) Mustard oil.

28. A person is said to be diabetic when the plasma fasting glucose is more than or equal
to (in mg/dl):
(A) 100.
(B) 126.
(C) 200.
(D) 110.

29. An Eligible couple is a couple wherein the age of the wife ranges from:
(A) 21- 45 years.
(B) 15-45 years.
(C) 15-49 years.
(D) 20- 40 years Autocratic.

30. Separation of a sick/ infected person in a place till he or she becomes non- infectious is
called:
(A) Isolation.
(B) Quarantine.
(C) Observation.
(D) None of the above.

31. After Vasectomy, the person should use condom or any other contraceptive method for
next:
(A) 20 ejaculations or
(B) 3 months or
(C) Whichever is earlier.
(D) Doesn’t require any protection at all.

32. Mixing, substitution, concealing the quality of a food is called:
(A) Fortification.
(B) Adulteration.
(C) Standardisation.
(D) Preservation.

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33. The beneficiaries of ICDS include:
(A) Children bellow 6 years & Adolescents girls.
(B) Pregnant & lactating mothers.
(C) Women of reproductive age groups.
(D) All of the above.

34. The commonest causes of Maternal mortality is:
(A) Sepsis.
(B) Haemorrhage.
(C) Anaemia.
(D) Unsafe abortion.

35. The commonest Cause of Infant mortality is:
(A) Diarrhoea.
(B) ARI.
(C) Prematurity.
(D) Birth injury.

36. Dengue is transmitted by:
(A) Culex mosquitoes.
(B) Anopheles mosquitoes.
(C) Aedes mosquitoes.
(D) Sand fly.

37. All of the following are advantages of exclusive breast feeding to the mother except:
(A) Acts as a natural contraceptive.
(B) Helps in early involution of uterus.
(C) Reduces the risk of postpartum haemorrhage.
(D) Increases the risk of Breast Cancer.

38. All of the following are good sign of attachment of breast feeding except:
(A) Chin touching the breast.
(B) Mouth wide open.
(C) Lower lip turned out.
(D) Most of the areola is outside the mouth. .

39. Expressed milk can be kept under ordinary condition for:
(A) Up to 2 hours.
(B) Up to24 hours.
(C) Up to 6 hours.
(D) Up to 1 hour.

40. The Weekly Iron Folic Acid supplementation program (WIFS) provides services to the
following except:
(A) School going Adolescent Girls.
(B) School going adolescent boys.
(C) Out of school adolescent Girls.
(D) Out of school adolescent boys.

41. Which of the following food groups are rich in protein?
(A) Cereals.
(B) Pulses.
(C) Green Leafy vegetables.
(D) Seasonal fruits.
P a g e 5 | 12

42. Which of the following food groups are called dense calorie food?
(A) Roots & Tubers.
(B) Meat and fish.
(C) Fats and oils.
(D) GLV.

43. Sudden occurrence of a disease in a large geographic area is known as:
(A) Outbreak.
(B) Endemic.
(C) Epidemic.
(D) Sporadic.

44. All of the following are true about Antara– (Medroxy Progesterone Acetate (MPA)
except:
(A) It is an injectable contraceptive.
(B) Highly effective.
(C) No side effects.
(D) Interferes with breast feeding.

45. All of the following are modifiable determinants of health except:
(A) Life style.
(B) Education.
(C) Income.
(D) Age.

46. All of the followings are true about condom except:
(A) It can protect from STD & AIDS.
(B) Helps in spacing of births.
(C) Helps to avoid unwanted pregnancies.
(D) Must be checked for leakage before use.

47. All of the following diseases are non-communicable diseases except:
(A) Tuberculosis.
(B) Cancer.
(C) Diabetes Mellitus.
(D) Night blindness.

48. Deficiency of dietary Iodine can cause:
(A) Rickets.
(B) Pellegra.
(C) Goitre.
(D) Scurvy.

49. All of the following are dangers of artificial feeding except:
(A) It increases the risk of infection to the baby.
(B) It increases the risk of allergic diseases to the baby.
(C) It increases the IQ of the baby.
(D) All of the above.

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50. All of the following are true for “Nischaya” except:
(A) It is an oral contraceptive pill.
(B) It is a pregnancy testing kit.
(C) It helps in early detection of pregnancy.
(D) It is freely available from ASHA.

51. Menstrual Hygiene Management includes:
(A) Use clean menstrual management material to absorb menstrual blood.
(B) Can use soap and water for washing hands & body as required.
(C) Have access to safe and convenient facilities to dispose of used materials.
(D) All of the above.

52. All the following are mosquito borne diseases except:
(A) Malaria.
(B) Dengue.
(C) Japanese Encephalitis.
(D) Typhoid.

53. All the following are Killed vaccines, except:
(A) Typhoid.
(B) Cholera.
(C) Measles.
(D) Pertussis.

54. Annual Parasite Incidence is a measure of:
(A) Malaria.
(B) Tuberculosis.
(C) Measles.
(D) Chicken Pox

55. “Cold chain” refers to the process used to maintain optimal conditions during the transport,
storage, and handling of vaccines:
(A) From manufacturer to PHC.
(B) From manufacturer to SHC.
(C) From PHC to SHC.
(D) From manufacturer till administration to client.

56. All the following groups should be vaccinated against Hepatitis B except:
(A) All infants, children, and teens ages 0–18 years.
(B) Sexually active people who are not in mutually monogamous relationships.
(C) Men who have sex with men.
(D) Poultry workers.

57. Sand fly is the vector for:
(A) Viral Encephalitis,
(B) Q Fever,
(C) Kala Azar,
(D) Tularemia,

58. All the following diseases are water borne infections except:
(A) Amoebiasis.
(B) Giardiasis.
(C) Salmenellosis.
(D) Chancroid.
P a g e 7 | 12

59. Coliform count of water indicates:
(A) Water contamination.
(B) Vector breeding.
(C) No. of cholera vibrios.
(D) None of the above.

60. All the following diseases are caused by the presence of an infective agent in blood, except:
(A) Poliomyelitis.
(B) Hepatitis B.
(C) HIV.
(D) Hepatitis C.

61. Adverse events following immunization include all the following except:
(A) Acute Flaccid paralysis.
(B) Anaphylaxis.
(C) Brachial neuritis.
(D) Diarrhoea.

62. All the following are signs of severe dehydration, except:
(A) Drowsy.
(B) Dry tongue.
(C) Feeble pulse.
(D) Frequent urine.

63. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (SBA) was launched on:
(A) 2 October 2014.
(B) 2 November 2015.
(C) 14 November 2016.
(D) 1st December 2014.

64. Recommended salt intake per day for adults is:
(A) < 5g.
(B) < 10g.
(C) <15g.
(D) <20g.

65. In India, the level of iodization of salt has been fixed at:
(A) Not less than 15 ppm at consumer level.
(B) Not less than 20 ppm at consumer level.
(C) Not less than 25 ppm at consumer level.
(D) Not less than 30 ppm at consumer level.

66. John Snow located source of:
(A) Cholera.
(B) Typhoid.
(C) Plague.
(D) Measles.

67. MAA program stands for:
(A) Mothers’ Absolute Affection.
(B) Maternal Attention & Affection.
(C) Monthly Attendance Accuracy.
(D) Mothers’ Antenatal Attendance.
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68. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is an important initiative aims towards
early identification of all the following except:
(A) Defects at birth.
(B) Deficiencies.
(C) Development delays including disability.
(D) Socio economic status.

69. Dose of Vit A first dose is:
(A) 1 ml (1 lakh IU).
(B) 0.5 ml (50,000 IU).
(C) 2 ml (2 lakh IU).
(D) 2.5 ml (2.5 lakh IU).

70. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is aimed at screening children from:
(A) 0 to 18 years.
(B) 0 to 10 years.
(C) 0 to 5 years.
(D) 0 to 12 years.

71. Kangaroo mother care provides a new-born all the following except:
(A) Warmth.
(B) Mother’s milk.
(C) Protection.
(D) Kangaroo milk.

72. Most common diarrhoeal agent for infant is:
(A) Rhino virus.
(B) Rota virus.
(C) Enterovirus.
(D) E. coli.

73. Health education aims to:
(A) Diagnose and treat diseases.
(B) Empower individuals to make informed health choices.
(C) Solely focus on individual behaviour change.
(D) Primarily rely on medication for health improvement.

74. The health educator who teaches proper body mechanics for bending and lifting is
conducting activities in the level of:
(A) Primary prevention.
(B) Secondary prevention.
(C) Tertiary prevention.
(D) Focused prevention.

75. Baby-friendly hospital initiative is concerned with:
(A) Zero-dose immunization.
(B) Observing five cleans during delivery.
(C) Breastfeeding.
(D) All the above.

P a g e 9 | 12

76. Anaemia in pregnancy is defined as Hb% of less than:
(A) 9 g.
(B) 10 g.
(C) 11 g.
(D) 12 g.

77. All of the following tests are performed during pregnancy at sub-centre level except:
(A) Pregnancy detection kit.
(B) Urine test for sugar and albumin.
(C) Haemoglobin examination.
(D) Blood grouping with Rh factor.

78. Which one of the following health facilities are set up for inpatient management of
Severely Acute Malnutrition (SAM) children?
(A) Nutritional Rehabilitation Centres.
(B) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram.
(C) Mothers’ Absolute Affection.
(D) Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics.

79. The average birth weight of newborn in a hospital can be best represented by which of
the following diagram?
(A) Bar chart.
(B) Histogram.
(C) Pie chart.
(D) Frequency polygon.

80. Post neonatal period refers as:
(A) 0 – 7 days of life.
(B) 7 – 28 days of life.
(C) 7 – 1 year of life.
(D) 28 days – 1 year of life.

81. Which one of the following program’s objective is to train health personal in basic
newborn care and resuscitation at every delivery point?
(A) Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC).
(B) Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (NSSK).
(C) Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF).
(D) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK).

82. Panel discussion is:
(A) Didactic method.
(B) Socratic method.
(C) Didactic or Socratic.
(D) Autocratic method.

83. Essential element of Health Communication is:
(A) Encode.
(B) Decode.
(C) Message.
(D) Feedback.

P a g e 10 | 12

84. Name of the important and sensitive indicators of the health status:
(A) CBR.
(B) CDR.
(C) IMR.
(D) MMR.

85. The lowest IMR in India is in:
(A) Assam.
(B) Tamilnadu.
(C) Kerala.
(D) West Bengal.

86. PMTCT programme is associated with:
(A) AIDS.
(B) Blindness control Programme.
(C) TB.
(D) Leprosy.

87. PCPNDT act in India was enacted in the year:
(A) 1954.
(B) 1969.
(C) 1971.
(D) 1994.

88. Koplik’s spot appears in a case of:
(A) Chicken Pox.
(B) Diphtheria.
(C) Measles.
(D) Small Pox.

89. Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to:
(A) Ricket.
(B) Angular cheilitis.
(C) Night blindness.
(D) Gum infection.

90. Window period is associated with:
(A) AIDS.
(B) TB.
(C) Leprosy.
(D) Cancer.

91. The reservoir of Swine Flu is:
(A) Cattle.
(B) Pig.
(C) Monkey.
(D) Rodent.

P a g e 11 | 12

92. The approach for achieving Health for All by 2000 AD is:
(A) Primary Health Care.
(B) Secondary Health Care.
(C) Tertiary Health Care.
(D) Preventive Healthcare.

93. Behavioural Science includes:
(A) Sociology.
(B) Economics.
(C) Philosophy.
(D) Political science.

94. Paraphrasing means:
(A) Clarifying.
(B) Summarising.
(C) Advertising.
(D) Probing.

95. Poster is:
(A) Audio Aid.
(B) Visual Aid.
(C) Audio Visual Aid.
(D) Audio Visual Material.

96. Census is held on every:
(A) 9 year.
(B) 10 year.
(C) 11 year.
(D) 15 year.

97. Principal unit of administration in India is:
(A) Block.
(B) District.
(C) Taluka.
(D) State.

98. NVBDCP National Health Program was started in India in:
(A) 2002.
(B) 2003.
(C) 2004.
(D) 2005.

99. Road to health chart was first designed by :
(A) Damson.
(B) Sir Joseph Bhore.
(C) Henry Dunent.
(D) David Morley.

100. MTP act was enacted in the year:
(A) 1970.
(B) 1971.
(C) 1972.
(D) 1973
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