JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper M.Sc PH-MCH

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4101900001
Subject: M.Sc in Public Health(Maternal & Child Health)(M.Sc PH-MCH)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
5. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations
of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature
(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

M.Sc. PH-MCH

1. Zero dose of OPV can be given to a new-born within:
(A) First 24 hours.
(B) First 48 hours.
(C) First 7 days.
(D) First 15 days.

2. The leading cause of severe dehydrating diarrhoea in under-five children is:
(A) Rota virus.
(B) Adeno virus.
(C) Norwalk virus.
(D) Giardiasis.

3. B.M.I. is:
(A) Weight (kg) / height (met).
(B) Weight (kg)/ height (met)2.
(C) Height (met) / weight (kg).
(D) Height (met)/ weight (kg)2.

4. The parameter used for assessment of chronic insufficient nutrient intake is:
(A) Weight for age.
(B) Weight for height.
(C) Height for age.
(D) Subcutaneous skin fold thickness.

5. Pulses are deficient in:
(A) Metheonine.
(B) Lysine.
(C) Leucine.
(D) Tryptophan.

6. Spectrum of Iodine Deficiency Disorders does not include:
(A) Still birth.
(B) Hyperactivity.
(C) Deafness.
(D) Delayed development.

7. WHO criteria of haemoglobin cut -off level for diagnosis of anaemia in pregnancy:
(A) 10 gm%.
(B) 11 gm%.
(C) 12 gm%.
(D) 13 gm%.

8. Aedes mosquito is the vector for all, except:
(A) Japanese encephalitis.
(B) Yellow fever.
(C) Dengue.
(D) Chikungunya.

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9. Blindness is defined by W.H.O. as a visual acuity of less than:
(A) 3/60.
(B) 6/60.
(C) 6/18.
(D) 6/6.

10. Principles of primary health care include all, except:
(A) Equitable distribution.
(B) Intersectoral coordination.
(C) Monitoring of health programmes.
(D) Participation of community.

11. Diseases transmitted through feco-oral route are all except:
(A) Typhoid fever.
(B) Poliomyelitis.
(C) Measles.
(D) Viral hepatitis.

12. Which vaccine reduces risk of cancer?
(A) Hep B.
(B) HPV.
(C) Both.
(D) None.

13. “Denominator” for calculating Infant Mortality Rate is:
(A) Mid-year population.
(B) Total pregnant women of the community.
(C) Total births in the year.
(D) Live births in the year.

14. Household waste-water which does not contain human excreta is known as:
(A) Refuse.
(B) Sewage.
(C) Sludge.
(D) Sullage.

15. Koplik’s spot is found in:
(A) Vitamin A deficiency.
(B) Vitamin C deficiency.
(C) Measles.
(D) Diphtheria.

16. Communicability of a disease is assessed by:
(A) Secondary attack rate.
(B) Incubation period.
(C) Serial interval.
(D) Generation time.

17. Odds’ ratio is an estimate of:
(A) Relative risk.
(B) Attributable risk.
(C) Prevalence.
(D) Incidence rates.
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18. All of the following are true for Calcium supplementation during pregnancy except-:
(A) Each tablet contains 500 mg of elemental Calcium.
(B) Should be started from 14th week of pregnancy
(C) Can be taken along with iron tablets
(D) Should be taken after food.

19. Sex Ratio is defined as:
(A) Number of males per 100 females.
(B) Number of females per 100 males.
(C) Number of males per 1000 females.
(D) Number of females per 1000 males.

20. After vasectomy operation the acceptor male person becomes sterile:
(A) Immediately after the operation.
(B) Usually after one week.
(C) After at least 10 ejaculations.
(D) After at least 30 ejaculations.

21. Time interval between entry of infectious disease agent in body and appearance of first
sign or symptom is known as:
(A) Serial interval.
(B) Incubation period.
(C) Period of infectivity.
(D) Communicable period.

22. Which vaccine is administered subcutaneously?
(A) BCG.
(B) Hepatitis B.
(C) Measles.
(D) Pentavalent.

23. What is the colour-coding of bag used in hospitals to dispose of human anatomical
wastes such as body parts?
(A) Yellow.
(B) Black.
(C) Red.
(D) Blue.

24. In India, all births and deaths must be registered within:
(A) 7 days.
(B) 14 days.
(C) 21 days.
(D) 28 days.

25. Freshly prepared ORS should not be used for more than:
(A) 3 hours.
(B) 6 hours.
(C) 12 hours.
(D) 24 hours.

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26. At Primary Health Centre (PHC) level, vaccines are stored in:
(A) Cold box.
(B) Ice lined refrigerator.
(C) Deep freezer.
(D) Vaccine carrier.

27. All are examples of anti-larval methods of mosquito control, except:
(A) Intermittent irrigation.
(B) DDT.
(C) Parish green.
(D) Gambusia fish.

28. Iron and folic acid supplementation to all pregnant women is an example of:
(A) Primordial prevention.
(B) Health promotion.
(C) Specific protection.
(D) Secondary prevention.

29. Minimum number of postnatal care for institutional delivery:
(A) 5.
(B) 6.
(C) 7.
(D) 8.

30. What is the recommended folic acid supplementation for pregnant women to prevent
neural tube defects in the developing foetus?
(A) 200 micrograms per day.
(B) 400 micrograms per day.
(C) 600 micrograms per day.
(D) 800 micrograms per day.

31. A child comes to you at 15 months unvaccinated. Which vaccine you would not give?
(A) Measles.
(B) DPT.
(C) OPV.
(D) Rota.

32. PCV vaccine is given in which route as per national Immunization Schedule:
(A) Intramuscular.
(B) Oral.
(C) Subcutaneous.
(D) Intradermal.

33. Diluent for BCG vaccine is:
(A) Sterile Water.
(B) Phosphate Buffer solution.
(C) Sodium Chloride.
(D) Any of the above.

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34. How many extra calories a day should you eat when breastfeeding?
(A) 120 kcal.
(B) 250 kcal.
(C) 600 kcal.
(D) 1200 kcal.

35. Advantages of breast feeding to the mothers are all except:
(A) Creates bonding between mother and baby.
(B) Prevents ovarian cancer of mother.
(C) Prevents breast cancer of mother.
(D) Prevents liver cancer of mother.

36. After a normal delivery, breastfeeding should be initiated within:
(A) 1 Hr.
(B) 2 Hrs.
(C) 12 Hrs.
(D) 24 Hrs.

37. Temperature of ILR is:
(A) +2 to +8 degree Celsius.
(B) -2 to +8 degree Celsius.
(C) 0 to -10 degree Celsius.
(D) Room temperature.

38. The hormone primarily responsible for milk ejection (“let-down”) is:
(A) Oestrogen.
(B) Progesterone.
(C) Prolactin.
(D) Oxytocin.

39. The hormone primarily responsible for milk production is:
(A) Oestrogen.
(B) Progesterone.
(C) Prolactin.
(D) Oxytocin.

40. All of the following are criteria of SAM except:
(A) Bipedal oedema.
(B) Weight for Height < - 3 SD.
(C) Mid upper arm circumference < 11.5 cm.
(D) Weight for age < 2 SD.

41. In India the most common cause of Neonatal mortality (0-4weeks) is:
(A) Acute respiratory infection.
(B) Congenital anomalies.
(C) Low Birth Weight and prematurity.
(D) Diarrhoea.

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42. What is the average weight gain during pregnancy in Indian women with adequate
calorie intake?
(A) 7-8 kg.
(B) 8-9 kg.
(C) 9-11 kg.
(D) 5-6 kg.

43. Which of the following vaccine must not administered to an infant with symptomatic
HIV infection?
(A) BCG.
(B) IPV.
(C) Hepatitis B.
(D) Pentavalent Vaccine.

44. LaQshya Program includes following except one:
(A) Immunization of under 5 children.
(B) Quality care in labour room.
(C) Improvement in quality in maternity operation theatres.
(D) Reduce maternal and new born mortality because of pregnancy complication.

45. Which of the following is not a component of APGAR Score?
(A) Pulse rate.
(B) Colour of the baby.
(C) Respiratory effort.
(D) Buldged anterior fontanelle.

46. Stunting represents:
(A) Acute Malnutrition.
(B) Chronic Malnutrition.
(C) Vitamin A deficiency.
(D) Vitamin C Deficiency.

47. ICDS is run by:
(A) Ministry of health and family welfare.
(B) Ministry of food processing industries.
(C) Ministry of human resource development.
(D) Ministry of Women and Child Development.

48. All are correct except one for “attachment” during breast feeding:
(A) Upper and lower areola of mother’s breast are equally visible.
(B) Baby’s chin touching to the mother’s breast.
(C) Baby’s mouth cavity is wide open.
(D) Lower lip is everted.

49. At which year, India received Polio free certificate from WHO?
(A) 2011.
(B) 2012.
(C) 2013.
(D) 2014.

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50. What will be the nutritional status If a under-5 child has weight for height (as per WHO
chart) between -2 to -3 SD?
(A) Severe wasting.
(B) Severe stunting.
(C) Moderate wasting.
(D) Severe underwight.

51. Which one is correct statement about human breast milk?
(A) Its lactose content is more than cow’s milk.
(B) Its protein content is more than cow’s milk.
(C) Human milk contains more casein than whey protein.
(D) It does not contain any anti-infective factor.

52. Episode of diarrhoea following MR vaccine belongs to which category of AEFI?
(A) Vaccine quality defect-related reaction.
(B) Vaccine product-related reaction.
(C) Immunization anxiety-related reaction.
(D) Coincidental event.

53. Deep Freezer is used for:
(A) To keep live vaccines.
(B) To prepare ice-packs.
(C) To keep killed vaccines.
(D) To keep diluent prepare ice packs.

54. In “Anemia Mukt Bharat” Program IFA supplementation for children starts from:
(A) Two months age of the baby.
(B) Four months age of the baby.
(C) Six months age of the baby.
(D) Eight months age of the baby.

55. Which one is the richest source of Vitamin C?
(A) Orange.
(B) Amla.
(C) Lime.
(D) Guava.

56. The commonest cancer in Indian women is:
(A) Breast.
(B) Cervix.
(C) Endometrium.
(D) Oral cavity.

57. PHC caters to a population of how much in plain areas?
(A) 30,000.
(B) 20,000.
(C) 80,000.
(D) 5000.

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58. ASHA works under which scheme/program?
(A) Village health guide scheme.
(B) NRHM.
(C) RCH program.
(D) ICDS scheme.

59. A cross-sectional descriptive study will give us:
(A) Incidence.
(B) Prevalence.
(C) Relative Risk.
(D) Odds ratio.

60. The mid-day meal program offers:
(A) Half of daily protein and one-third of calories requirement.
(B) Half of daily protein and half of calories requirement.
(C) One-third of daily protein and half of calories requirement.
(D) One-third of daily protein and one-third of calories requirement.

61. Under NUHM, one urban PHC will be provided for how much population?
(A) 80,000 to 1, 20,000.
(B) 50,000 to 60,000.
(C) 20,000 to 30,000.
(D) One million populations.

62. Under NUHM, one ASHA will be provided for every:
(A) 200 – 500 households.
(B) 1000 population.
(C) 3000 – 5000 population.
(D) 1000 households.

63. PHC which conducts more than 20 deliveries in a month is designated as:
(A) Type A.
(B) Type B.
(C) Type C.
(D) Type D.

64. Mission “Indradhanush” focuses on:
(A) Basic obstetric care.
(B) Immunization.
(C) Water supply and sanitation.
(D) Prevention of lifestyle diseases.

65. Ambulance for transport of a road traffic accident victim can be called by dialling which
number?
(A) 100.
(B) 101.
(C) 102.
(D) 108.

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66. An ambulance for the transport of a pregnant lady for the purpose of delivery can be
called by dialing which number?
(A) 100.
(B) 101.
(C) 102.
(D) 108.

67. Which of the following schemes provide for cash assistance?
(A) Janani Suraksha Yojna (JSY).
(B) Janani Shishu Suraksha Yojna (JSSY).
(C) Rastriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram.
(A) Rastriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram.

68. What is the minimum number of members which should be present in a village health,
sanitation and nutrition committee (VHSNC)?
(A) 5.
(B) 10.
(C) 15.
(D) 20.

69. The minimum floor area in a house required for one person should be (in sq. ft):
(A) 100.
(B) 200.
(C) 250.
(D) 50.

70. Iron/folic acid tablets are distributed to private doctors for free distribution under which
scheme?
(A) NRHM.
(B) CSSM.
(C) Janani Suraksha Yojna.
(D) Vande Mataram Scheme.

71. Prematurity is childbirth before:
(A) 40 weeks.
(B) 38 weeks.
(C) 37 weeks.
(D) 28 weeks.

72. LBW baby is one whose weight is below:
(A) 2200 g.
(B) 2000 g.
(C) 1500 g.
(D) 2500 g.

73. Perinatal mortality denotes:
(A) Stillbirths.
(B) Neonatal deaths.
(C) Stillbirths and early neonatal deaths.
(D) Stillbirths and neonatal deaths.

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74. Under National Nutritional Anemia Prophylaxis Program of India, the strength of iron
and folic acid in tablets is:
(A) 60 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid.
(B) 100 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid.
(C) 60 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg folic acid.
(D) 60 mg elemental iron and 0.1 mg folic acid.

75. Adolescents in RCH represent the age group:
(A) 11 – 18 years.
(B) 10 – 19 years.
(C) 10 – 18 years.
(D) 12 – 19 years.

76. All of the following are essential for New born care except:
(A) Immediate drying of the baby
(B) Putting the baby on mother’s chest and covering the baby and the mother together .
(C) Immediate cord cutting
(D) Initiation of Breast Feeding.

77. Yellow and orange coloured fruits and vegetables are rich in:
(A) Vitamin K.
(B) Vitamin C.
(C) Vitamin A.
(D) Vitamin E.

78. Which of the following will help increase the iron absorption from diet?
(A) Nicotinic acid.
(B) Ascorbic acid.
(C) Pantothenic acid.
(D) Folic acid.

79. Infants should be exclusively breastfed up to:
(A) 2 months.
(B) 6 months.
(C) 9 months.
(D) 1 year.

80. The presence of an infectious agent in an inanimate article or on skin surface,
particularly hands, is called:
(A) Pollution.
(B) Contamination.
(C) Infection.
(D) Infestation.

81. The level of immunity that is present in a population against an infectious agent is
known as:
(A) Innate immunity.
(B) Acquired immunity.
(C) Selective immunity.
(D) Herd immunity.

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82. Epidemiological triad consists of:
(A) Agent, Host and Environment.
(B) Vector, pollution and virus.
(C) Childhood, adolescence and adulthood.
(D) None of the above.

83. All the following are mosquito borne diseases except:
(A) Malaria.
(B) Dengue.
(C) Japanese Encephalitis.
(D) Typhoid.

84. All the following are Killed vaccines, except:
(A) Typhoid.
(B) Cholera.
(C) Measles.
(D) Pertussis.

85. “Cold chain” refers to the process used to maintain optimal conditions during the
transport, storage, and handling of vaccines:
(A) From manufacturer to PHC.
(B) From manufacturer to SHC.
(C) From PHC to SHC.
(D) From manufacturer till administration to client.

86. Sand fly is the vector for:
(A) Viral Encephalitis.
(B) Q Fever.
(C) Kala Azar.
(D) Tularemia.

87. Coliform count of water indicates:
(A) Water contamination.
(B) Vector breeding.
(C) No. of cholera vibrio.
(D) None of the above.

88. Millennium Development Goal 4 aims to:
(A) Reduce child mortality.
(B) Improve maternal health.
(C) Eradicate hunger.
(D) Ensure environmental sustainability.

89. Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are:
(A) > 6 skin lesions.
(B) > 5 skin lesions.
(C) > 4 skin lesions.
(D) > 3 skin lesions.

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90. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (SBA) was launched on:
(A) 2 October 2014.
(B) 2 November 2015.
(C) 14 November 2016.
(D) 1st December 2014.

91. In India, the level of iodization of salt has been fixed at:
(A) Not less than 15 ppm at consumer level.
(B) Not less than 20 ppm at consumer level.
(C) Not less than 25 ppm at consumer level.
(D) Not less than 30 ppm at consumer level.

92. All the following are contradictions of Intra Uterine devices, except:
(A) Suspected pregnancy.
(B) Pelvic inflammatory disease.
(C) Previous still birth.
(D) Cancer cervix.

93. Eligible couple means a currently married couple where in:
(A) The wife is between 15-45 years of age
(B) The wife is between 20-50 years of age
(C) The wife is between 15-55 years of age
(D) None of the above.

94. ICDS program beneficiaries include all the following except:
(A) Pre-school children below 6 years.
(B) Adolescent girls 11 – 18 years.
(C) Pregnant and lactating mothers.
(D) Adolescent boys 10 – 15 years.

95. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) is an important initiative aims towards
early identification of all the following except:
(A) Defects at birth.
(B) Deficiencies.
(C) Development delays including disability.
(D) Socio economic status.

96. Dose of Vit A first dose is:
(A) 1 ml (1 lakh IU).
(B) 0.5 ml (50,000 IU).
(C) 2 ml (2 lakh IU).
(D) 2.5 ml (2.5 lakh IU).

97. The natural host of the Nipah virus are:
(A) Fruit bats.
(B) Birds.
(C) Monkeys.
(D) Dogs.

P a g e 12 | 13

98. The warm chain to keep the new-born includes all the following except:
(A) Skin-to-skin contact at birth.
(B) Breastfeeding.
(C) Postponing bathing and weighing.
(D) Room heater.

99. Village Health & Nutrition Days are:
(A) Outreach services for comprehensive Maternal and Child Health care.
(B) Outreach services for nutrition of children only.
(C) Outreach services for health of children only.
(D) Health centre based services for nutrition of children only.

100. All of the following are true for Chhaya/Saheli except:
(A) No side effects like vomiting, nausea, and weight gain.
(B) Can be taken by women of all ages.
(C) Safe for use among breastfeeding women.
(D) Cannot be used before first pregnancy.

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