JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper MHA

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4102500001
Subject: Master in Hospital Administration (MHA)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
5. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations
of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature
(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

MHA

1. What is the value of x in the equation 5x + 15 – 25 = 0 ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

2. What is the missing number in 2,5,11,23,47,_,191, 383?
(A) 95
(B) 96
(C) 101
(D) None of these

3. This series is called 3, 9, 27, 81, 243, 729, … ?
(A) Geometric series
(B) Harmonic Progression
(C) Arithmetic series
(D) Multiple series

4. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages
three years ago ?
(A) 71 years
(B) 72 years
(C) 74 years
(D) 77 years

5. Shyamlal purchased guava and apples costing him Rs. 30. He purchased five guavas and had to
spend double the amount for apples to what he had spent for guava. What was the price of guavas?
(A) Rs. 5
(B) Rs. 4
(C) Rs. 3
(D) Rs. 2

6. A woman says, "If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my husband's age. He is 9
years, senior to me”. The woman's age is
(A) 24 years
(B) 34 years
(C) 44 years
(D) 54 years

7. For some integer n, the odd integer is represented in the form of:
(A) n
(B) n + 1
(C) 2n + 1
(D) 2n

P a g e 1 | 14

8. If p and q are integers and is represented in the form of p/q, then it is a:
(A) Whole number
(B) Rational number
(C) Natural number
(D) Even number

9. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 5 is:
(A) 70
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 90

10. The largest triangle inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r, then the area of that triangle is;
(A) r2
(B) 1/2r2
(C) 2r2
(D) √2r2

11. If NOIDA is written as OPJEB, then what will be the code for DELHI?
(A) EFMAK
(B) EFAMK
(C) EFMIJ
(D) EFMIK

12. Which of the following is the odd one from the given alternatives?
(A) Driving
(B) Diving
(C) Swimming
(D) Sailing

13. Which is the odd number among the following?
(A) 27
(B) 38
(C) 51
(D) 82

14. Statement 1: Amal is taller than Bimal, Statement 2: Kamal is taller than Amal, Statement 3:
Bimal is taller than Kamal. If statement 1 and statement 2 are true, statement 3 will be -
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) Inadequate information

15. Make a logical sequence with the following words: 1. Satisfaction, 2. Business, 3. Food, 4.
Profit, 5. Education
(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(B) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

P a g e 2 | 14

16. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence - 1. Booking, 2. Plan, 3. Child, 4.
Travel, 5. Happy
(A) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

17. Sprint is to race, as doze is to -
(A) Winter
(B) Summer
(C) Sleep
(D) Bear

18. A thermometer is to temperature as a compass is to -
(A) Needle
(B) Pressure
(C) Direction
(D) Humidity

19. A clock always has -
(A) Display
(B) Pendulum
(C) Battery
(D) Balance wheel

20. Which of the following pairs of words are differently related?
(A) Kind : Cruel
(B) Slow : Sluggish
(C) Stale : Fresh
(D) Truth : Lie

21. Assertion (A): The earthworms reduce the fertility of the soil.
Reason (R): They make the soil soft and porous.
(A) A is true, but R is false.
(B) A is false, but R is true.
(C) Both A and R are true.
(D) Both A and R are false.

22. Assertion (A): Plants have green leaves.
Reason (R): Plants contain phycoerythrin, the green pigment.
(A) A is true, but R is false.
(B) A is false, but R is true.
(C) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

P a g e 3 | 14

23. Pointing to an image Amina tells Bashir, "I am the only daughter of this lady, and her son
is your maternal uncle." How is the Amina related to Bashir 's father?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Sister-in-law
(D) None of the above

24. A is the mother of B, B is the sister of C, C is the father of D. So, how A is related to D?
(A) Grandmother
(B) Mother
(C) Aunt
(D) Father

25. A factory always has -
(A) Files
(B) Workers
(C) Air conditioners
(D) Chimneys

26. Find the odd sequence out.
(A) BEK
(B) CFL
(C) MPS
(D) GJP

27. If ‘white’ is called ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called
‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘violet’ and ‘violet’ is called ‘green’, then what would be the colour of
light emitting from an old-fashioned filament-fitted bulb?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D) Black

28. If the letters of the word “PRODUCT” are arranged alphabetically, then which letter would be
farthest from the second letter of word?
(A) T
(B) R
(C) U
(D) P

29. In a row of 26 girls, when Sakshi shifted four places towards the left, she becomes 10th from
the left end. What was her earlier position form the right end of the row?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 13th
(D) 12th

P a g e 4 | 14

30. Milly introduced a boy as the son of the only daughter of the mother of her maternal uncle.
How is Milly related to that boy?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C) Brother
(D) Sister

31. What is the name of the weak zone of the earth’s crust to cause earthquakes?
(A) Seismic
(B) Cosmic
(C) Formic
(D) Atmospheric

32. In 2019, which popular singer was awarded the Bharat Ratna award?
(A) Lata Mangeshkar
(B) Asha Bhonsle
(C) Bhupen Hazarika
(D) Manna Dey

33. What is the full form of DRDL?
(A) Differential Research and Documentation Laboratory
(B) Department of Research and Development Laboratory
(C) Defence Research and Development Laboratory
(D) Defence Research and Development Library

34. Who is popularly called the father of Indian missile technology:
(A) Dr Homi Bhabha
(B) Dr Chidambaram
(C) Dr U.R. Rao
(D) Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

35. What is the reason behind the Bats flying in the dark?
(A) They produce high pitched sounds called ultrasonic sound
(B) They cannot tolerate light
(C) They have a perfect vision in the dark
(D) None of the above explanation is true

36. Which of these is the small-scale industry in India?
(A) Jute industry
(B) Paper Industry
(C) Textile Industry
(D) Handloom Industry

37. The largest public sector undertaking in the country is?
(A) Railways
(B) Airways
(C) Roadways
(D) Iron and Steel Plants

P a g e 5 | 14

38. Who of the following is called for “Green Revolution”:
(A) M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Verghese Kurien
(C) Tribhuvandas Patel
(D) H. M. Dalaya

39. During which five year plan, Heavy Industrialization was initiated in India:
(A) First five year plan
(B) Second five year plan
(C) Third five year plan
(D) Fourth five year plan

40. National Income Estimates in India is prepared by:
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)
(D) Indian Statistical Institute

41. Which among the following is a suitable term for the state of economy in which economic
activity is slowing down but wages and prices continue to rise:
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Skewflation
(D) Stagflation

42. In India, Agriculture income is calculated by:
(A) Output method
(B) Input method
(C) Expenditure method
(D) Commodity flow method

43. The minimum forest cover to maintain ecological balance in the plains is:
(A) 25%
(B) 33%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%

44. The main source of National Income in India is:
(A) Service Sector
(B) Agriculture Sector
(C) Business Sector
(D) Industries Sector

45. The Standard of living in a country is represented by its:
(A) Poverty Ratio
(B) Per Capita Income
(C) National Income
(D) Unemployment Rate

P a g e 6 | 14

46. In a computerized keyboard, Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called _________ keys.
(A) Function
(B) Adjustment
(C) Modifier
(D) Alphanumeric

47. Microsoft Office is an example of a
(A) Closed source software
(B) Open source software
(C) Horizontal market software
(D) Vertical market software

48. MS-Word is an example of _____
(A) An operating system
(B) Application software
(C) A processing device
(D) An input device

49. Which of the following language does the computer understand?
(A) Computer understands only C Language
(B) Computer understands only Assembly Language
(C) Computer understands only Binary Language
(D) Computer understands only BASIC

50. Which of the following is the brain of the computer?
(A) Central Processing Unit
(B) Memory
(C) Arithmetic and Logic unit
(D) Control unit

51. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Light year – Unit of measuring time
(B) Angstrom – Unit of wavelength of light
(C) Nautical mile – Unit of distance used in navigation
(D) Knot – Measure of speed of ship

52. The unit of work is?
(A) Dyne
(B) Watt
(C) Neutron
(D) Joule

53. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to?
(A) Vapour pressure
(B) Density
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension

P a g e 7 | 14

54. Pressure inside a soap bubble is __________.
(A) Half of atmospheric pressure
(B) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(C) More than atmospheric pressure
(D) Less than atmospheric pressure

55. The size of the Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (R.S.P.M.) in air is _________.
(A) Less than 5mm (micron)
(B) More than 5mm (micron)
(C) More than 6mm (micron)
(D) More than 7mm (micron)

56. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
(A) Crystallization of table salt from seawater
(B) Fermentation of sugarcane juice
(C) Cracking of petroleum
(D) Burning of coal in air

57. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Bromine
(C) Selenium
(D) Phosphorus

58 Commercially, sodium bicarbonate is known as _______ .
(A) Soda ash
(B) Bleaching powder
(C) Washing soda
(D) Baking soda
.
59. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?
(A) Water gas
(B) Mustard gas
(C) Hydrogen cyanide
(D) Carbon monoxide

60. Leakage of which of the following gases had caused the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(A) Methyl isocyanate
(B) Carbon mono-oxide
(C) Nitric oxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide

61. Living being can produce new living beings similar to itself on reaching maturity is known as
(A) Regeneration
(B) Adaptation
(C) Reproduction
(D) Differentiation

P a g e 8 | 14

62. Entropy is best described as:
(A) Anabolism
(B) Catabolism
(C) Disorder
(D) None of the above

63. _______ is the common and major characteristics of the living baby animal:
(A) Death
(B) Growth
(C) Adaptation
(D) Reproduction

64. By which name is complex biochemical processes in each living cell of organisms is known
as?
(A) Growth
(B) Metabolism
(C) Differentiation
(D) Development

65. How living organisms do try to show adaptations?
(A) By body structure
(B) By mode of action
(C) By behaviour
(D) All of the above

66. DNA is responsible in higher classes of organisms?
(A) For sex determination
(B) To maintain legacy
(C) For genetic engineering
(D) For organ transplantation

67. Which of the following is a reference to classification?
(A) Manu’s writing
(B) Sushrut Samihita
(C) Ayurveda
(D) Yajurveda

68. Which of the following sequence is meaningful in ecosystem?
(A) Grass – rat – snake – eagle
(B) Snake – grass – rat – eagle
(C) Eagle – grass – snake – rat
(D) Rat – eagle – snake – grass

69. Potato is a modified form of:
(A) Leaf
(B) Flower
(C) Stem
(D) Root

P a g e 9 | 14

70. Which of the following can prevent the rancidity of edible oil:
(A) Storage in glass containers
(B) Proper handling
(C) Use of anti-oxidants
(D) Addition of hydroperoxides

71. The smallest bones in the human body are found in which part?
(A) Neck
(B) Back
(C) Ear
(D) Fingers

72. What is the heaviest organ in the human body?
(A) Brain
(B) Skin
(C) Liver
(D) Hair

73. In the human body, nails are made up of
(A) Melanin
(B) Cartilage
(C) Enamel
(D) Keratin

74. Approximate amount of saliva produced by a human being every day is:
(A) 10 ml.
(B) 100 ml.
(C) 1000 ml.
(D) 10000 ml.

75. Which of following statements is true about cartilage:
(A) It is highly vascular
(B) It is a type of connective tissue
(C) It has a much organised microstructure compared to bones
(D) It is found only on the face of the humans

76. Top management of an organisation is concerned with formulation of
(A) Guidelines for supervisors.
(B) Long-term plans.
(C) Short-term plans.
(D) None of these

P a g e 10 | 14

77. Management is a __________ directed process as it aims at achieving specified objectives.
(A) Continuously
(B) Future
(C) Goal
(D) Deliberately

78. This function of management related to placing the right person at the right job is
(A) Organising
(B) Staffing
(C) Planning
(D) Controlling

79. Which of the following statements is not true for lower level management?
(A) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business.
(B) Ensure the quality of the output
(C) They strive to reduce the wastage of resources
(D) They ensure that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation

80. Successful organisations do not achieve goals by chance but by following a deliberate process
known as
(A) Planning
(B) Co-ordination
(C) Controlling
(D) Management

81. He has never wished _______________ reward although he has served suffering humanity.
(A) For
(B) Of
(C) About
(D) At

82. The police never looked__________________the thief, yet he had known what was going on.
(A) Down
(B) For
(C) At
(D) On

83. Walk _______________ the street; you will soon find a good café.
(A) Through
(B) By
(C) At
(D) Down

P a g e 11 | 14

84. Come _______________; I shall show you the viewpoint.
(A) Along
(B) Down
(C) In
(D) Through

85. Select the appropriate phrase: The tiger disappeared in the bush _______________.
(A) In a minute
(B) Immediately
(C) In the blink of an eye
(D) In front of me

86. Select the appropriate phrase: The music “rings a bell”, it _____________ to me.
(A) Makes a lot of noise
(B) is frightening
(C) sounds familiar
(D) is annoying

87. __________ : Leave :: Vacillate : Decide (choose the word that best completes the
comparison)
(A) Linger
(B) Arrive
(C) Announce
(D) Depart

88. Protractor : Angle :: Ruler : ______ (choose the word that best completes the comparison)
(A) Rectangle
(B) Length
(C) Classroom
(D) King

89. Find the wrong word(s): Dipak has not completed the assignment yet, and Dilip hasn’t neither.
(A) Has not
(B) The assignment
(C) Yet
(D) Hasn’t neither

90. Find the wrong word(s): These televisions are all too expensive for we to buy at this time, but
perhaps we will return later.
(A) These
(B) All too expensive
(C) We to buy
(D) This time

P a g e 12 | 14

91. Find the wrong word(s): Mumtaz usually arrives at the office at nine o’clock, but because the
storm, she was two hours late.
(A) Usually arrives
(B) At the office
(C) Because
(D) Late

92. Find the wrong word(s): At the rate the clerks were processing the applications, Harry figured
that it will take four hours for his to be reviewed.
(A) Processing
(B) Will take
(C) His
(D) To be reviewed

93. Select the appropriate article(s): I like _______ blue T-shirt over there better than ____ red
one.
(A) a, the
(B) the, the
(C) the, a
(D) the, no article

94. Select the appropriate article(s): I can do it in _______ hour and _______ half.
(A) a, an
(B) a, the
(C) an, the
(D) an, a

95. Meaningfully fill in the blank: Sujit didn’t want to appear ____________, but his brothers
simply could not convince him to change his mind.
(A) Pitiful
(B) Scrupulous
(C) Harmonious
(D) Obstinate

96. Meaningfully fill in the blank: The cop was in a ____________: should he chase the criminal
or help the victim?
(A) quandary
(B) Plethora
(B) Tatter
(D) Discord

97. Meaningfully fill in the blank: After years of living at a(n) ______________ pace, Prashanta
decided it was time to slow down and learn how to relax.
(A) Frenetic
(B) Insipid
(C) Pretentious
(D) Colloquial

P a g e 13 | 14

98. Meaningfully fill in the blank: Sometimes late at night Sharon would gaze joyfully at her
children as they slept and ______ in their innocence.
(A) Sneer
(B) Ostracize
(C) Revel
(D) Repudiate

99. Which one is in singular number?
(A) Criteria
(B) Data
(C) Agenda
(D) Index

100. Which one of the following is a plural?
(A) News
(B) Crises
(C) Ethics
(D) Economics

P a g e 14 | 14

Entrance Exams
Agricultural Entrance Exams
Architecture Entrance Exam
Arts and Humanities Entrance Exams
Commerce Entrance Examinations
Common Entrance Examinations
Computer Application Entrance Exams
Design Entrance Exams
Education Entrance Exams
Engineering Entrance Exams
Hotel Management Entrance Exams
Law Entrance Exams
MBA Entrance Exams
Media & Journalism Entrance Exams
Medical Entrance Exams
Nursing Entrance Exams
Pharmacy Entrance Exams
Science Entrance Exams
Diploma & Polytechnic
Lateral Entry