JEMAS PG 2024 Question Paper MSLP

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

JEMAS(PG)-2024 QB No: 4103500001
Subject: M. Sc. in Speech Language Pathology (MSLP)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
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of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
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(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

MSLP / M.Sc. (Speech Language Pathology)

1. Declarative memory talks about :
(A) Non-associative learning.
(B) Priming.
(C) Events.
(D) Habits.

2. Basal ganglia is responsible for :
(A) Timing.
(B) Execution.
(C) Motor Programs.
(D) Factual understanding.

3. Amygdala plays a role in :
(A) Emotional memory.
(B) Sequential memory.
(C) Simultaneous memory.
(D) Auto-pilot.

4. Alertness, attention and awareness stands for :
(A) Declarative memory.
(B) Short term memory.
(C) Non explicit memory.
(D) Immediate memory.

5. Law of Proximity and Similarity are the example of :
(A) Figure ground discrimination.
(B) Law of Continuity.
(C) Law of closure.
(D) Gestalt Principles.

6. Cognitive flexibility is related to :
(A) Theory of Mind.
(B) Speech perception.
(C) Selective attention.
(D) None of the above.

7. Planning is :
(A) Inhibitory Control.
(B) Cognitive flexibility.
(C) Working memory.
(D) Higher level executive functions.

8. Conversational analysis of aphasia is related to :
(A) Syntactic complexity.
(B) Semantic relationship.
(C) Turn taking.
(D) Phonological analysis.
P a g e 1 | 13

9. Construct of coherence is used as :
(A) Framework for understanding pragmatic preservation.
(B) Framework for understanding semantic preservation.
(C) Framework for understanding thematic preservation.
(D) Framework for understanding morpho-syntactic preservation.

10. ‘Boom Boom’ is the example of :
(A) Repeatability.
(B) Drill.
(C) Onomatopoeia.
(D) Metathesis.

11. A new word of use and expression is :
(A) Echolalia.
(B) Neologism.
(C) Jargon.
(D) Paraphasia.

12. Circumlocution is :
(A) Paraphasia.
(B) Echolalia.
(C) Neologism.
(D) Jargon.

13. ‘Roller coaster of emotions’ is the example of :
(A) Syntactic errors.
(B) Metaphorical meaning.
(C) Segmentalism.
(D) Cognitive flexibility.

14. Cohesion and coherence are the major concerns in :
(A) Schizophrenia.
(B) Aphasia.
(C) Right Hemisphere Disorders.
(D) Primary Progressive Aphasia.

15. According to Hough and Pierce, 1993, Discourse is :
(A) Conversational, Procedural and Predictive.
(B) Procedural, Narrative and Expository.
(C) Conversational, Procedural and Expository.
(D) None of the above.

16. Neglect disorders are mostly seen in :
(A) Cortical dysrhythmia.
(B) Chorea.
(C) Right Hemisphere disorders.
(D) Left hemisphere disorders.

P a g e 2 | 13

17. Relationship development intervention in Autism Focuses on :
(A) Conversational skills.
(B) Pragmatic skills.
(C) Interactive, Positive Behaviour.
(D) Symbolic play.

18. According to Visser et al., 2014, ADHD is affecting :
(A) 13% of school going children.
(B) 12% of school going children.
(C) 10% of school going children.
(D) 11% of school going children.

19. Morrison –Rammage classification(1993) divides MTD into :
(A) 3 types.
(B) 5 types.
(C) 6 types.
(D) 2 types.

20. Resections of the tongue base have increased :
(A) Oral preparatory time.
(B) Increased oral transit time.
(C) Increased oral residue along with increament of pharyngeal transit time .
(D) All of the above.

21. Patients reconstructed with pedicled flaps such as the pectoralis major myocutaneous flap
have been shown to demonstrate :
(A) Impaired tongue mobility scores.
(B) Oropharyngeal swallow efficiency.
(C) Increased oral sensation.
(D) Sparing the true vocal folds and arytenoids.

22. Resection includes one false vocal fold, one ventricle, and one true vocal fold, excluding
the arytenoids but usually taking the vocal process, as well as a portion of the thyroid
cartilage on the same side as the lesion stands for :
(A) Partial Laryngectomy.
(B) Total Laryngectomy.
(C) Hemi laryngectomy.
(D) Pharyngolaryngoesephagectomy.

23. Yale Residue Scale is :
(A) FEES based understanding of the severity of Pharyngeal Residue.
(B) FEES based understanding of the severity of oral Residue.
(C) VFSS based understanding of the severity of Pharyngeal Residue.
(D) VFSS based understanding of the severity of oral Residue.

24. Decannulating algorithm is used in :
(A) Persons with ASD.
(B) Persons with Parkinson Disease.
(C) Persons with chemoradiation.
(D) Tracheotomized intensive care patients.
P a g e 3 | 13

25. High-resolution manometry (HRM) allows :
(A) Coughing and throat clearing.
(B) Motility disorders of the esophagus.
(C) Dysphagia in COPD patients.
(D) Assessment of the aspiration risk.

26. Evans Blue Test (EBT) is used in :
(A) Persons with ASD.
(B) Persons with Parkinson Disease.
(C) Persons with chemoradiation.
(D) Tracheotomized patients.

27. International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative” (IDDSI) provides :
(A) FEES guidelines on food intake.
(B) Global standardized terminology and definitions for texture modified food.
(C) Global standardized terminology and definitions for swallow dosages.
(D) VFSS guidelines on food intake.

28. Therapy technique “Pure Cluttering” stands for :
(A) Pause to formulate.
(B) Concomitant disorder treatment plan.
(C) Concurrent activities.
(D) Cyclical activities.

29. Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR) with reference to stuttering stands for :
(A) Antibiotics.
(B) Diuretics.
(C) Tiagabine.
(D) Encorate.

30. Nasal Resistance Technique helps to improve :
(A) Hypofunctional Voice Disorders.
(B) Hyperfunctional Voice Disorders.
(C) Spasmodic dysphonia.
(D) All of the above.

31. PVFMD patients report :
(A) Reduced HNR and increased jitter.
(B) Increased HNR and increased jitter.
(C) Reduced HNR and reduced jitter.
(D) Increased HNR and reduced jitter.

32. Hand Over Mouth is a :
(A) Facilitatory exercises.
(B) Compensatory exercises.
(C) Innertance training.
(D) SOVT.

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33. Contingency management in stuttering therapy describes :
(A) Combined reinforcement for fluent speech and mild, nonaversive punishment for
stuttering behaviors.
(B) Blending, or continuous voicing.
(C) Desensitization to the experience of stuttering (confrontation).
(D) Help the client learn ways to be disfluent in a more normal way.

34. Stuttering modification sequence is :
(A) Post-block modification, or cancellation, In-block modification, or pull-out, Pre-
block modification, or preparatory set.
(B) Associating stuttering with pleasant events, for example, “reinforcement” for
stuttering, or tag game, Voluntary stuttering.
(C) Help the client learn ways to be disfluent in a more normal way, Remove, through
modeling and practice, one behavior at a time until disfluencies are normal.
(D) Extinction of defensive behavior.

35. Phoneme-specific nasal emission (PSNE) is the result of the use of :
(A) Pharyngeal or posterior nasal fricative as a substitution for other fricatives or
affricates.
(B) Establish placement for velar plosives (/k/ and /g/).
(C) Palatal-dorsal productions.
(D) Transition to the syllable by inserting an /h/ between the /s/ and vowel.

36. Echo arrival times in a composite signal since the delayed echoes appear as ripples in the
logarithmic spectrum of the input data sequence- stands for understanding of :
(A) Power Spectrum.
(B) Power cepstrum.
(C) Complex Spectrum.
(D) Complex cepstrum.

37. Cyrano Communicator 2 is the example of :
(A) AAC-Electronic Communication Modality.
(B) AAC-Proprietary software with off-the-shelf hardware.
(C) Open Source AAC System.
(D) Real-time communication support for AAC users.

38. Videofluoroscopy allows quantification of the following measurements that cannot be
made using FEES EXCEPT :
(A) Hyolaryngeal displacement.
(B) Pharyngoesophageal segment opening during swallow.
(C) Total pharyngeal transit time.
(D) Degree of pharyngeal constriction during the swallow.

39. The duration of an infant feeding or child’s meal should take no longer than :
(A) 50 to 60 minutes.
(B) 10 to 15 minutes.
(C) 70 to 75 minutes.
(D) 20 to 30 minutes.

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40. The human voice is best described as an octave and a half or 12 notes on scale. This
range is known as :
(A) Habitual pitch range.
(B) Optimum pitch.
(C) Low pitch.
(D) Pitch breaks.

41. A system and pattern of sound that occur in a particular language is referred as :
(A) Phonology.
(B) Phonotactics.
(C) Articulation.
(D) Phones.

42. A bilingual person who is equally proficient in both languages is referred as :
(A) Balanced.
(B) Dominant.
(C) Sequential.
(D) Simultaneous.

43. Gasping of air in laryngectomee patients is an indication of :
(A) Failure to inject.
(B) Tension around neck place.
(C) Multiple injections.
(D) Spasm structures.

44. Which of the following must be ruled out before diagnosing children with learning
disability?
(A) Environmental disadvantage.
(B) Number of years retained.
(C) Number of schools the child has attended.
(D) Number of years retained as well as number of schools the child has attended.

45. In which of the following communication disorders is there a deficit in language
decoding?
(A) Specific language impairment.
(B) Developmental verbal dyspraxia.
(C) Stuttering.
(D) Acquired Dysarthria.

46. Which of the following occurs during the sensory processing stage of the human
communication cycle?
(A) Sound waves are converted by the ear into nervous impulses, which are then,
carried to the auditory centres in the brain.
(B) The brain recognises certain nervous signals as speech and non-speech sounds.
(C) The articulatory movements that are required to produce an utterance are planned.
(D) A speaker’s communicative intention in producing an utterance is established.

P a g e 6 | 13

47. An individual with a communication disorder involving semantics and/or pragmatics
would be considered as having :
(A) A stutter.
(B) A speech disorder.
(C) A syntax problem.
(D) A language disorder.

48. The assessment of a child considered to have a communication disorder must include all
of the following EXCEPT :
(A) Observation.
(B) A medical exam.
(C) Interviews.
(D) Teacher reports.

49. The Cloze procedure for a child with language disorders consists of :
(A) Allowing child to fill in the blanks of verbal utterances.
(B) Correcting the child’s spoken errors.
(C) Children working together in groups of three to four.
(D) Allowing child to do whatever he/she does.

50. SOAP in therapeutic intervention refers to :
(A) Student Oriented Assessment Protocol.
(B) Self Oriented Ability Program.
(C) Subjective Objective Assessment Plan.
(D) Subject Oriented Assessment Program.

51. Physical manipulation of the larynx during voice therapy to produce changes in voice
quality is called as :
(A) Digital manipulation.
(B) Inhalation phonation.
(C) Chewing technique.
(D) Laryngeal massage.

52. Damage in the upper motor neuron leads to :
(A) Spastic paralysis.
(B) Hyperactive reflexes.
(C) Spastic paralysis and Hyperactive reflexes.
(D) Flaccid paralysis and reduced reflexes.

53. Sprechgesang is a mode of presentation of stimuli followed in :
(A) PACE.
(B) VAT.
(C) MIT.
(D) SFA.

54. Identify the extra sylvian non-fluent aphasia from the following :
(A) Anomic aphasia.
(B) Transcortical motor aphasia.
(C) Mixed transcortical aphasia.
(D) Broca’s aphasia.

P a g e 7 | 13

55. A systemic process of gathering information about a person’s background, history
problem, skills, perception and feeling is known as :
(A) Testing.
(B) Assessment.
(C) Screening.
(D) Performance.

56. Purposeless, random, involuntary movements of the body parts associated with
hyperkinetic dysarthria is known as :
(A) Myoclonus.
(B) Chorea.
(C) Tics.
(D) Tremors.

57. Which of the following would most likely cause a patient to speak almost entirely in
neologisms?
(A) Damage to cranial nerves.
(B) Severe Wernicke's aphasia.
(C) Mixed dysarthria.
(D) Flaccid dysarthria.

58. The nativistic theory emphasizes on which component of language :
(A) Pragmatics.
(B) Syntax.
(C) Morphology.
(D) Semantics.

59. A measure of the variety of different words produced by a child is referred to as :
(A) Mean Length of Utterance.
(B) Type-token ratio.
(C) T-unit.
(D) D0 structure.

60. The communicative use of interpersonal space is called :
(A) Kinesics.
(B) Lexeme.
(C) Proxemics.
(D) Pragmatics.

61. Which of the following is the most common non genetic cause of Developmental
Disability?
(A) Down Syndrome.
(B) Fetal Alcohol Syndrome.
(C) Fragile X syndrome.
(D) Williams Syndrome.

62. Prevalence is :
(A) The rate at which new cases develops.
(B) The number of cases at a given time.
(C) The duration of illness.
(D) The number of new cases over a defined time period.

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63. Primary progression aphasia is :
(A) A degenerative disorder of language.
(B) A non-degenerative disorder of language.
(C) A degenerative disorder of Speech.
(D) A non-degenerative disorder of Speech.

64. “The language of confusion”, “Non-aphasic language disturbances”, “Cognitive
Language disturbances” and “sub-clinical aphasia” are the features seen in persons with :
(A) TBI.
(B) RHD.
(C) Dementia.
(D) Aphasia.

65. Area where two neurons communicate with one another is called a ________ :
(A) Synapse.
(B) Cell.
(C) Axon.
(D) Dendrite.

66. Axons branch repeatedly, forming anywhere from ______ to 10,000 synapses :
(A) 1500.
(B) 2000.
(C) 4000.
(D) 1000.

67. The cerebral cortex comprises about _______% of brain weight :
(A) 30.
(B) 40.
(C) 50.
(D) 60.

68. Pons means :
(A) Bridge.
(B) Bark.
(C) Bone.
(D) Back.

69. _______ aphasia is characterized by a disproportionate impairment in repetition relative
to spontaneous speech and oral and written comprehension :
(A) Conduction.
(B) Broca’s.
(C) Global.
(D) Mixed.

70. Phonemes are produced because of contextual influences are known as :
(A) Coarticulation.
(B) Allophones.
(C) Alliteration.
(D) None of the above.

P a g e 9 | 13

71. GILCU program was developed by :
(A) Perkins.
(B) Ryan.
(C) Cooper.
(D) Webster.

72. A_______ is an inquiry designed to get more specific or complete information :
(A) Cue.
(B) Prompt.
(C) Probe.
(D) All of the above.

73. Joint action routine is sometimes known as :
(A) Script therapy.
(B) Inductive teaching.
(C) Mand model.
(D) Delay.

74. Test–teach–retest method is part of __________ assessment :
(A) Dynamic.
(B) Criterion reference.
(C) Norm reference.
(D) All of the above.

75. A______ texture easily forms into a cohesive bolus and does not need to be chewed :
(A) Puree.
(B) Soft.
(C) Regular.
(D) All of the above.

76. __________morphemes are those that change the meaning and grammatical class of a
word :
(A) Free.
(B) Bound.
(C) Derivational.
(D) Inflection.

77. __________ refers to a clint’s ability to produce a correct production of an erred sound :
(A) Sensitivity.
(B) Specificity.
(C) Stimulability.
(D) Prevalence.

78. ____________ is jerky movements observed in chorea :
(A) Ballism.
(B) Athetoid.
(C) Fibrillation.
(D) None of the above.

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79. Palilalia is frequently associated with ________ dysarthria :
(A) Hyperkinetic.
(B) Ataxia.
(C) Hypokinetic.
(D) Spastic.

80. Effort closure techniques to enhance vocal fold adduction are usually contraindicated
in________dysarthria
(A) Flaccid.
(B) Ataxia.
(C) Spastic.
(D) UUMN.

81. Behavioural speech treat is contraindicated for persons with flaccid dysarthria resulting
from :
(A) Myasthenia gravis.
(B) Paralysis.
(C) Parkinsion.
(D) Stroke.

82. The groove or valley separating adjacent gyri is called :
(A) Sulcus.
(B) Gyrus.
(C) Commissure.
(D) Convolution.

83. Time out technique is based on :
(A) Positive reinforcement principle.
(B) Negative reinforcement principle.
(C) Punishment principle.
(D) Classical conditioning principle.

84. Griesinger's sign is found in :
(A) Sigmoid sinus thrombosis.
(B) Meningitis.
(C) Extradural abscess.
(D) Brain abscess.

85. Larynx is highly placed in the neck of :
(A) Adults.
(B) Geriatrics.
(C) Infants.
(D) Adolescent.

86. The air reservoir for the esophageal speech is :
(A) Less than 100 cc.
(B) 500 cc.
(C) 1000cc.
(D) 1500cc.

P a g e 11 | 13

87. Thalamic aphasia resembles :
(A) Transcortical motor aphasia.
(B) Transcortical sensory aphasia.
(C) Anomic aphasia.
(D) Isolation aphasia.

88. Worster- drought syndrome is associated with :
(A) Suprabulbar paresis.
(B) Bulbar paresis.
(C) Pseudobulbar paresis.
(D) Corticospinal paresis.

89. Fluency initiating Gestures for children with stuttering is proposed by :
(A) Conture.
(B) Cooper.
(C) Van Riper.
(D) Bloodstein.

90. Prognosis refers to :
(A) Poor progress.
(B) Good progress.
(C) No progress.
(D) Prediction of outcome.

91. Canonical babbling refers to :
(A) Reduplicated.
(B) Non-reduplicated.
(C) Variegated.
(D) Reduplicated and non-reduplicated.

92. ‘Facilitation’ in therapy is alternately termed as :
(A) Reorganization.
(B) Accommodation.
(C) Deblocking.
(D) Assimilation.

93. Loudness, the subjective quality of sound, is strongly dependent on which one of the
following physical parameters?
(A) Sound pressure.
(B) Spectrum.
(C) Duration.
(D) Envelope.

94. Facial paresis / paralysis subsequent to Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is due to infection
caused by :
(A) Herpes Zoster.
(B) HIV.
(C) Polio.
(D) Herpes simplex.

P a g e 12 | 13

95. The only abductor muscle of larynx is :
(A) Posterior Cricoarytenoid.
(B) Cricothyroid.
(C) Thyroarytenoid.
(D) Lateral Cricoarytenoid.

96. Vocal nodule is generally present at the :
(A) Junction of anterior third and posterior two-thirds of the vocal cord.
(B) Middle of the vocal cord.
(C) Junction of the interior two-thirds and posterior third of the vocal cord.
(D) Anywhere on the vocal cord.

97. Symptoms of depression and catastrophic reaction are most commonly seen in persons
with :
(A) Wernicke’s aphasia.
(B) Broca’s aphasia.
(C) Global aphasia.
(D) Both a and c.

98. Malocclusion characterized by premature occlusion of posterior teeth and the absence of
anterior occlusion is :
(A) Under bite.
(B) Open bite.
(C) Cross bite.
(D) Over bite.

99. Instrumentation used to measure the timing and location of the tongue’s contact with the
hard palate is called :
(A) Glossometry.
(B) Electromagentic articulography.
(C) Electropalatography.
(D) Ideoflouroscopy.

100. Which of the following cranial nerve innervates tensor tympani muscle?
(A) Facial nerve.
(B) Acoustic nerve.
(C) Vagus.
(D) Trigeminal.

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