HP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam 2024 Question Paper

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Atal Medical & Research University, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)
(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. 01905-243967

Answer keys
for B. Sc. Nursing Entrance test
Paper Code-2401
held on 7th July, 2024
Morning Shift (10:00 AM to 12:00 Noon)

If a candidate does not satisfy with the key answers, he/she can make representation
with documentary proof to the COE, Atal Medical and Research University, HP, at
Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-175008 through email on
[email protected] up to 09.07.2024 by 05:00 PM and thereafter, no
representation will be entertained under any circumstances.

-Sd/-
(Dr. Parveen Kumar Sharma)
Controller of Examinations
Atal Medical & Research University, HP,
Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.

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To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Father’s Name : ________________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of Questions : 100

Paper Code- 2401
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE:
(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be supplied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the
questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black Ink/ Ball Pen only, to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(iii) Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer Sheet, as faintly darkened circle might
be rejected by the Optical Scanner.
(iv) Darkening of more than one circle shall be rejected by the scanner. Over-writing, cutting, erasing
or use of White Fluid is not allowed.
(v) Before dealing with the question paper, fill-up the required information with Blue/Black Ball Pen
correctly both in the Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(vi) Do not fold the OMR Answer Sheet nor put any mark here and there to avoid rejection by the
Optical Scanner.
(vii) Write Roll. No. carefully on the OMR Answer Sheet and darken the appropriate circle properly.
(viii) Each question carries One Mark. There will be No Negative Marking.
(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed.
(x) No over-writing, cutting, erasing or use of white fluid is allowed.
(xi) Rough work be done on the sheet(s) at the end.
(xii) MOBILE TELEPHONES (EVEN ON SWITCH-OFF MODE) AND SUCH OTHER
ELECTRONIC DEVICES ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION HALL.
(xiii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
(xiv) Question No 1 - 20 is Biology, 21 – 40 is Physics, 41 – 60 is Chemistry, 61 – 80 is Nursing Aptitude and
81 – 100 is English.

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Biology Q5. In Lac Operon the number of
Q1. Pollination in closed flower is Structural genes are
called (a) Five
(a) Cleistogamy (b) Four
(b) Chasmogamy (c) Three
(c) Xenogamy (d)Two
(d) Geitonogamy Answer (c) Three
Answer (a) Cleistogamy
Q6. When original drifted population
Q2. The Uterus is single in female and becomes founders, effect is called
it is also called as: (a) Founder effect
(a) Cervix (b) Industrial Melanism
(b) Ovary (c) Adaptive Radiation
(c) Womb (d) Mutation Effect
(d) Ampulla Answer (a) Founder effect
Answer (c) Womb
Q7. The Yellowish fluid Colostrum
Q3. Family Planning Programme were secreted by Mother during the
initiated in the year initial days of lactation has
(a) 1947 Abundant
(b) 1975 (a) Antigens
(c) 1981 (b) Antibodies
(d) 1951 (c) Allergy
Answer (d) 1951 (d) Oncogenes
Answer (b) Antibody
Q4. F1 generation resembles both the
parents in Q8. Large holes in “Swiss Cheese” are
(a) Incomplete dominance due to production of large amount
(b) (b) Co-Dominance of
(c) (c) Pleiotropy (a) H2SO4
(d) (d) Law of Dominance (b) O2
Answer (b) Co-Dominance (c) CO2
(d) H2S
Answer (c) CO2

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Q9. DNA fragments can be joined (c) Aves
together by using (d) Amphibians
(a) Restriction Endonuclease Answer (c) Aves
(b) Okazaki Fragments
Q14. When Sepals are united,
(c) DNA Ligase
condition is called
(d) DNA Helicase
(a) Polysepalous
Answer (c) DNA Ligase
(b) Polypetalous
(c) Gamopetalous
Q10. When one species cause harm to
(d) Gamosepalous
another organism without any cost
Answer (d) Gamosepalous
or benefits to itself
(a) Commensalism Q15. Cell Theory was given by
(b) Amensalism (a) Singer and Nicolson
(c) Predation (b) Rudolf Virchow
(d) Mutualism (c) Schleiden and Schwann
Answer (b) Amensalism (d) Robertson
Answer (c) Schleiden and Schwann
Q11. The smallest living cells are
(a) Mycoplasma Q16. Kranz Anatomy is found in
(b) Bacteria leaves of
(c) Fungus (a) C4 Plants
(d) Bacteriophage (b) C3 Plants
Answer (a) Mycoplasma (c) C2 Plants
Q12. Plants having naked seeds are (d) All of the above
(a) Angiosperms Answer (a) C4 Plants
(b) Gymnosperms
Q17. Each Mammalian Haemoglobin
(c) Pteridophytes
molecule can carry a maximum
(d) Bryophytes
number of………….molecules of
Answer (b) Gymnosperms
Oxygen
(a) 5
Q13. Presence of feathers are
(b) 4
characteristics of
(c) 3
(a) Mammals
(d) 2
(b) Reptiles
Answer (b) 4

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Q18. Which one of following is not a Q22. The angle between two equal
part of E.C.G. vectors is
(a) P-Wave a) 0◦ b) 30◦ c) 90◦ d)180◦
(b) Q -Wave Ans a
(c) T-Wave
(d) Z-Wave Q23. Change in momentum is given
Answer (d) Z-Wave by
a) Force x Mass
Q19. Accumulation of Urea in blood b) Force x Time
is called c) Force x Velocity
(a) Angina d) Force x Distance
(b) Gout Ans b
(c) Uremia
Q24. Ev is the unit of
(d) Osteoporosis
a) Charge
Answer (c) Uremia
b) Voltage
c) Energy
Q20. The Site for Active ribosomal
d) Acceleration
RNA Synthesis is
Ans c
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria Q25. For which of the following does
(c) Nucleolus the centre of mass lie outside the
(d) Vacuoles body?
Answer (c) Nucleolus a) a pencil
b) a dice
Physics c) a bangle
d) a shotput
Q21. The dimensions of Plank’s Ans c
Constant equals to that of
a) Energy Q26. The acceleration due to gravity
b) Momentum at the centre of earth is
c) Angular momentum a) 9.8 ms-2
d) Power b) 4.9 ms-2
Ans c c) Zero
d) None of these
Ans c

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Q27. An ice cube floats in a glass of Q31. In a nonuniform electric field,
water. What happens to the level electric dipole experiences
of water in the glass when ice a) Torque only
melts? b) Torque as well as net force
a) Decreases c) Force only
b) Increases d) None of these
c) Remains the same Ans b
d) First increases and then decreases
Ans c Q32. If mobility of electron is 𝑢𝑒 and
mobility of hole is 𝑢ℎ then
Q28. Degree of freedom of a a) 𝑢𝑒 = 𝑢ℎ
monoatomic gas molecule is b) 𝑢𝑒 > 𝑢ℎ
a) 3 c) 𝑢𝑒 < 𝑢ℎ
b) 5 d) 𝑢𝑒 ≤ 𝑢ℎ
c) 6 Ans b
d) 7
Ans a Q33. A galvanometer acting as
voltmeter will have
Q29. The Phenomenon of round a) High resistance in parallel with its
propagation in air is coil
a) Isothermal process b) High resistance in series with its
b) Adiabatic process coil
c) Isobaric process c) Low resistance in parallel with
d) Isochoric process coil
Ans b d) Low resistance in series with coil
Ans c
Q30. For an ideal gas
a) Cp < Cv Q34. A transformer is a device which
b) Cp = Cv transform
c) Cp > Cv a) DC voltage
d) Cp = Cv =0 b) AC voltage
Ans c c) AC and DC voltage
d) None
Ans b

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Q35. Which of the following has Q39. Which sphere of atmosphere is
smallest wavelength closest to earth
a) Yellow rays a) Troposphere
b) X-rays b) Stratosphere
c) ∝-rays c) Mesosphere
d) 𝛾-rays d) Ionosphere
Ans d Ans a

Q36. Image formed by an objective of Q40. Torque acting on electric dipole
a compound microscope is moment 𝑃⃗ placed in uniform
a) Virtual and enlarged electric field 𝐸⃗ is
b) Virtual and diminished
a) 𝑃⃗ x 𝐸⃗
c) Real and diminished
b) 𝑃⃗. 𝐸⃗
d) Real, enlarged and inverted
Ans d c) 𝑃⃗ x 𝐸⃗ x 𝑃⃗
𝐸⃗ ⋅𝑃⃗
d)
𝐷2
Q37. If the particles are moving with Ans a
same velocity, then maximum de-
Chemistry
Broglie wavelength is for
Q41. Which of the following term is
a) Proton
unitless-
b) Neutron
a) Molality
c) ∝-particle
b) Molarity
d) 𝛽- particle
c) Mole fraction
Ans d
d) Strength
Ans- C
Q38. Demodulation is essential feature
of a Q42. The maximum number of
a) Transmitter electrons in a subshell is given by
b) Receiver the expression
c) Medium a) 4l – 2
d) None of these b) 4l +2
Ans b c) 2l + 1
d) 2n2
Ans- B

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Q43. Which of the following is not a a) 0.34 V
transition metal b) – 0.44 V
a) Silver c) 0 V
b) Lead (Pb) d) – 0.76 V
c) Tungsten (w) Ans- C
d) Manganese (Mn)
Ans- B Q48. The formula of Soda ash is-
a) Na2CO3 . 10 H2O
Q44. The ratio of π to σ bond in b) Na2 Co3 . 2 H2O
benzene is c) Na2CO3. H2O
a) 1 : 2 d) Na2CO3
b) 1 : 6 Ans- D
c) 1 : 4
d) 1 : 1 Q49. Reduction process involve-
Ans- C a) Gain of electrons
b) Addition of oxygen
Q45 The spherical shape of rain water c) Loss of electrons
droplet is due to d) Increase in oxidation number
a) Viscosity Ans- A
b) Surface tension
c) Temperature Q50. An electrophilic reagent is
d) Pressure a) Electron deficient species
Ans- B b) Electron rich species
c) Negatively charged species
Q46. The normal P.H range of human d) None of above
blood is Ans- A
a) 0 – 5.25
b) 7.35 – 7.45 Q51. The IUPAC Name of the
c) 6.25 – 6.75 compound
d) 8.00 – 9.25 CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH is
Ans- B a) Pent- 2 en-4-yne
b) Pent-1-en-4-yne
Q47. The electrode potential of c) Pent-3-en-1-yne
standard hydrogen electrode d) Pent-2-en-5-yne
(SHE) fixed is Ans- C
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Q52. The Chlorination of methane is d) Cm-1
an example of Ans- D
a) Elimination reaction
b) Substitution reaction Q57. For a zero order reaction, the rate
c) Addition reaction of reaction is
d) Oxidation reaction a) Independent of initial conc. of
Ans- B reactants
b) Depends upon initial conc. of
Q53. Isotonic solutions have reactants
a) Same boiling point c) Both of above
b) Same vapor pressure d) None of above
c) Same melting point Ans- A
d) Same osmotic pressure
Q58. Transition metals behave as
Ans-D
good catalyst because
Q54. The Concentration Term a) High melting point
independent of temperature is b) High ionization enthalpy
a) Normality c) Alloy formation
b) Volume percentage d) Variable oxidation states
c) Molality Ans- D
d) Molarity
Ans-C Q59. EDTA is
a) Unidentate ligand
Q55. For redox reaction to proceed in b) Bidentate ligand
a cell, the e.m.f must be c) Tridentate ligand
a) Positive d) Hexadentate ligand
b) Negative Ans- D
c) Fixed
d) Zero Q60 Which of the following is
Ans- A colligative property
a) Relative Lowering in vapour
Q56. The unit of cell constant is pressure
a) Ohm-1 cm-1 b) Lowering in vapour pressure
b) Cm c) Vapour pressure
c) Ohm-1 cm d) Saturated Pressure
Ans- A
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Subject-Nursing Aptitude Q65. Which part of brain is
responsible for respiration?
Q61. Highest source of vitamin A is (a) Pons
a) Papaya (b) Cerebrum
b) Green Leafy vegetable (c) Medulla oblongata
c) Cod Liver oil (d) Gyri
d) Carrot Answer – C
Answer - C

Q62. Which one of the following Q66. The meiotic division takes place
organs breaks fat to produce in
cholesterol? a) Meristematic cells
(a) Lungs b) Conductive cells
(b) Intestine c) Reproductive cells
(c) Liver d) Vegetable cells
(d) Kidneys Answer – c
Answer - C

Q63. Who has propounded the word Q67. What is the standard value of ph
“Vitamin’’? range of acids?
(a) Darwin (a) 0-7
(b) Pasteur (b) 7-14
(c) Landeck (c) 2-7
(d) Carimir Funk (d) 7-15
Answer - D Answer - A

Q64. Which of the following has a Q68. What is the SI unit of current?
oxygenated blood? (a) Coulomb
(a) Renal Veins (b)Ampere
(b) Pulmonary Veins (c) Ohm
(c) Pulmonary artery (d) Volt
(d) Hepatic portal veins Answer - B
Answer - B

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Q69. Name the part of the body on Q73. What to be call the nuclides
which corona virus affects the having same mass numbers?
most? (a) Isotopes
(a) Heart (b) Isobars
(b) Liver (c) Isotones
(c) Kidney (d) Such species don’t exist
(d) Lungs Answer - B
Answer – D
Q74. Who is the father of Genetics?
Q70. What is the chemical formula of (a) Gregor mendel
alcohol? (b) Thomas hunt morgan
(a) C2H5OH (c) Francis galton
(b) C2H5 (d) Krateuas
(c) C2H5COOH Answer - A
(d) C2H5O
Answer – A Q75. Which of the following is the
lens of the eye?
Q71. What is the scientific name of (a) Concave
Humans? (b) Biconcave
(a) Mangifera Indica (c) Biconvex
(b) Rana Tigrina (d) None of above
(c) Homo sapiens Answer – C
(d) Homo species
Answer - C Q76. How many bones are present in
the middle ear?
Q72. Which of the following (a) 2
hormones stimulates the (b) 3
development of ovarian follicles? (c) 6
(a) FSH (d) 9
(b) Estrogen Answer - B
(c) Progesterone
(d) L. H.
Answer - A

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Q77. Which of the following is not an English
infectious disease? Q81. She dyed her hair and wore dark
(a)Cholera glasses…………people wouldn’t
(b) Chicken pox recognise her.
(c) Malaria (a) if only
(d) Alzheimers (b) so that
Answer - D (c) never again
(d) even so
Q78. Which vitamin is responsible for Answer - B
wound healing?
(a) Vitamin A Q82. The doctor recommended that
(b) Vitamin B I………. More careful with my
(c) Vitamin K diet.
(d) Vitamin C (a) be
Answer- D (b) will be
(c) am
Q79. In RNA of humans adenine pairs (d) was
with Answer- A
(a) Uracil
(b) Guanine Q83. Select the most appropriate
(c) Thymine synonym of the word “erase”:
(d) None of the above (a) Dilute
Answer - A (b) Aerate
(c) Delete
Q80. Which of the following is the (d) Ignite
functional unit of body? Answer- C
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Cytoplasm Q84. Select the most appropriate
(c)Spleen Antonym of the word “glut”:
(d) Cell (a) Shortage
Answer - D (b) Shout
(c) Sick
(d) Shroud
Answer- A

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Q85. Select the most appropriate Q89. Choose the word that is spelled
Antonym of the word correctly.
“incidental”: (a) Embarassment
(a) Fortunate (b) Embarrassment
(b) Planned (c) Embarrasment
(c) Important (d) Embarassmentt
(d) Arbitrary Answer – B
Answer - B
Q90. Choose the word that is spelled
Q86. Select the most appropriate correctly.
synonym of the word “tedious”: (a) accomodate
(a) Interesting (b) accommodate
(b) Boring (c) accomodation
(c) Exiting (d) accomodated
(d) Confusing Answer - B
Answer-B
Q91. Choose the word that is spelled
Q87. Select the most appropriate correctly.
synonym of the word (a) Beleive
“unpredictable”: (b) believe
A. Expected (c) belive
B. Surprising (d) beleiveing
C. Clear Answer -B
D. Boring
Answer -B Q92. A person who renounces the
world and practice self-discipline
Q88. Select the most appropriate in order to attain salvation;
Antonym of the word “jubilant”: (a) sceptic
(a) Happy (b) Ascetic
(b) Depressed (c) Devotee
(c) Surprised (d) Antiquarian
(d) Confused Answer -B
Answer -A

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Q93. A sad song is; (d) Have go
(a) Ditty Answer -B
(b) Knell
(c) Dirge Q98. What are you doing here? She
(d) Lay asked me.
Answer - C (a) She asked what I was doing here
(b) She wanted to know what I am
Q94. A disease which spread by doing here
contract; (c) She wants to know what I was
(a) incurable doing here
(b) Infectious (d) She wanted to know what I was
(c) Contagious doing here
(d) Fatal Answer - D
Answer – C
Q99. The lawyer said to his client,
Q95. She is interested…… learning a “We will win the case.”
new language (a) The lawyer told to his client
(a) At that they would win the case.
(b) To (b) The lawyer said that the client
(c) On would win the case.
(d) In (c) The lawyer told his client that
Answer - D they should win the case.
Q96. He ran …..the house (d) The lawyer told the client that
(a) Onto they would win the case.
(b) Into Answer – D
(c) TO
(d) For Q100. We must respect the elders
Answer- B (a) The elders deserves respect from
us
Q97. I usually......for a walk every (b) The elders must be respected
morning (c) The elder respect must respected
(a) Goes (d) Respect the elder we must
(b) Go
(c) Will go Answer -B

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