HP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key (Provisional) Series A

FOR HP B.SC NURSING EXAM PREPARATION

HP B.Sc Nursing 2026
Question Paper
(Provisional) · Series A
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

HP B.Sc Nursing 2026 Question Paper (Provisional) Series A
INCLUDES
Answer Key

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
Atal Medical & Research University, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)
(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. 01905-243967

m
m c. o
co
Answer Keys
. e m
em la s
l a s a g
ag B. Sc. Nursing Course
Paper Code- 2601
Series-A
held on 2nd August, 2026
Morning Shift (11:00 AM to 01:00 PM)
m
c. o
If a candidate does not satisfyem
s
la to the COE, Atal Medical and Research
with the key answers, he/she can make
representation with documentarygproof
a
University, HP, at Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-175008 through email on
[email protected] up to 06.08.2026 by 05:00 PM and thereafter,
no representation will be entertained under any circumstances.

o m
m -Sd- .c
c. o s emKumar)
em la of Examinations
(Dr. Rajesh

las a g
Controller

ag Atal Medical & Research University, HP,
Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.

m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 17

(To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________________
_

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of Questions : 100

B. Sc. Nursing Entrance Test
Paper Code- 2601
Series-A
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE:
(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be supplied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the
questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black Ink/ Ball Pen only, to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(iii) Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer Sheet, as faintly darkened circle
might be rejected by the Optical Scanner.
(iv) Darkening of more than one circle shall be rejected by the scanner. Over-writing, cutting, erasing
or use of White Fluid is not allowed.
(v) Before dealing with the question paper, fill-up the required information with Blue/Black Ball Pen
correctly both in the Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(vi) Do not fold the OMR Answer Sheet nor put any mark here and there to avoid rejection by the
Optical Scanner.
(vii) Write Roll. No. carefully on the OMR Answer Sheet and darken the appropriate circle
properly.
(viii) Each question carries One Mark. There will be No Negative Marking.
(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed.
(x) No over-writing, cutting, erasing or use of white fluid is allowed.
(xi) Rough work be done on the sheet(s) at the end.
(xii) Mobile telephones (even on switch-off mode) and such other electronic devices are not
allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
(xiv) The Carbon Copy of the OMR Answer Sheet may be retained by the candidate only after
permission is granted by the Invigilator.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g

Rough Page
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

m
m c. o
.co s e m
e m la
l a s a g
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m .co
c. o se
m
s em g la
gla a
a

m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 17

Biology (b) Golgi bodies
Q1. The basic unit of biological (c) Polysome
classification is the:
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Genus
Answer = (b) Golgi bodies
(b) Species
(c) Family
Q5. Amino acids are linked together by
(d) Order which bond to form proteins?
Answer = (b) Species (a) Glycosidic bond
(b) Phosphodiester bond
Q2. Coralloid roots containing N2 fixing (c) Peptide bond
cyanobacteria are found in
(d) Hydrogen bond
(a) Sequoia
Answer = (c) Peptide bond
(b) Picea
(c) Cycas
Q6. Meiosis results in
(d) pinus
(a) Production of gametes
Answer = (c) Cycas
(b) Reduction in the number of
chromosomes
Q3. Active cell division is primary (c) Introduction of variation
characteristic of which tissue
(d) All the above
(a) Parenchyma
Answer = (d) All the above
(b) Meristematic
(c) Sclerenchyma
Q7. Blackman’s Law of limiting factor
(d) Collenchyma states that if a chemical process is
affected by more than one factor then
Answer = (b) Meristematic
one factor, its will be determined by the
factor which is
Q4. Which is the important site of (a) Most abundant in the environment
formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(b) Nearest to minimal value
in eukaryotic cell
(c) maintain at an optimal value
(a) Peroxisomes

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
(d) Totally absent in environment. Q11.The following substances are the
excretory product in animals. Choose
Answer = (b) Nearest to minimal
the least toxic among them
value
(a) Urea
(b) Uric acid
m
Q8. When Proteins are used as

m c. o
respiratory substrates the Respiratory (c) Ammonia

.co e m
Quotient would be about:
m s
(d) Carbon dioxide
(a) 0.9
a s e g la
(b) 0.7 gl a
Answer = (b) Uric acid

(c) 1
a
Q12. Which of the following was proved
(d) 1.7 helpful in preserving pollens as fossils
Answer = (a) 0.9 (a) Pollen Tube
(b) Cellulosic intine

m
c.(d)o Sporopollenin.
Q9. Respiratory Rhythm centre of (c) Pollen Kitt

em
breathing is located in

l a s
g
(a) Pons
a
Answer = (d) Sporopollenin
(b) Crura cerebri
(c) Medulla oblongata
Q13.Fertilisation of sperm and Ovum
(d) Cerebellum take place in:
Answer = (c) Medulla oblongata (a) Uterus

m
(b) Ampullary region

m .co
c. o m
Q10. A mineral element playing (c) Cervix

em (a) Calcium
important role in clotting of blood
l a se
s
(d) Ovary

la g
a Ampullary region
ag
Answer = (b)
(b) Magnesium
(c) Zinc
Q14. In IUT embryo with more than 8
(d) Sodium blastomeres formed by In vitro
fertilisation is transferred into
Answer = (a) Calcium
(a) Cervix
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 17

(b) Uterus (b) Gradual accommodation of small
variation
(c) Fallopian tube
(c) Environment impact on phenotype
(d) Fimbriae
(d) Non-random mating patterns.
Answer = (b) Uterus
Answer = (a) Single-step large
mutation
Q15. Possibility of the blood groups of
the children in a family where the father
is heterozygous for blood group A and Q18. The primary lymphoid organ
mother is heterozygous for blood group is/are:
B would be:
(a) Bone marrow
(a) Blood groups A, B
(b) Thymus
(b) Blood groups A, B, O
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Blood groups AB , O
(d) None of the above
(d) Blood groups A, B , AB, O
Answer = (c) Both a and b
Answer = (d) Blood groups A, B ,
AB, O
Q19. Which of the following
microorganisms is used for production
Q16. Which among the following was of a commercial blood cholesterol-
the first genetic material : lowering agent?
(a) DNA (a) Trichoderma polysporum
(b) RNA (b) Monascus purpureus
(c) Lipid (c) Aspergillus niger
(d) cellulose (d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Answer = (b) RNA Answer = (b) Monascus purpureus

Q17. The concept of “saltation” was Q20.A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by
proposed by Hugo de Vries to explain same restriction endonuclease can be
evolution. It refers to: joined to form recombinant plasmid
using
(a) Single-step large mutation
(a) Ligase

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
(b) Eco RI Q24. Identify a molecule which does not
exist
(c) Taq polymerase
(a) He₂
(d) Polymerase II
(b) Li₂
Answer = (a) Ligase
(c) C₂
m
m c. o
co
(d) O₂
m
Chemistry

m . s e
e la
Answer (a) He₂

l a s
Q21. 1 amu is equal to
a g
ag
(a) 1/12 of C-12
Q25. Unit of entropy is
(b) 1/14 of O-16
(a) J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
(c) 1 g of H₂
(b) J mol⁻¹
(d) 1.66 × 10⁻²⁴ kg
(c) J⁻¹ K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
Answer (a) 1/12 of C-12
m
(d) J K mol⁻¹
Q22. The numbers of electrons present
. co
em
Answer (a) J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹
s
in the orbitals for which n = 3 and l = 1
are
g l a
(a) 2 a Q26. Calculate the pH of a solution at
(b) 6 25°C that contains 1×10⁻⁴ M of H₃O⁺ ?

(c) 10 (a) 4.000

(d) 14 (b) 10.000
(c) 7.000
m
Answer (b) 6

m c o
c. oQ23. Which of the following has largest Answer (a) 4.000 sem.
(d) 2.000

s em size? g l a
gla a
a (a) Na Q27. The oxidation state of Cr in Cr₂O₇²⁻
(b) Na⁺ is

(c) Na⁻ (a) +4

(d) Can't be predicted (b) +5

Answer (c) Na⁻ (c) +7
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 17

(d) +6 (b) Mole fraction of solvent
Answer (d) +6 (c) Moles of solute
(d) Moles of solvent
Q28. The number of σ and π bonds in Answer (a) Mole fraction of solute
ethene (C₂H₄) are respectively:
A) 4σ, 1π
B) 5σ, 1π Q32. The standard electrode potential
C) 5σ, 2π for Hydrogen electrode is
D) 6σ, 1π (a) -0.76 V
Answer B) 5σ, 1π (b) +0.34 V
(c) 0.0 V
Q29. Which of the following is used as
an anti-knocking material? (d) 1.10 V

(a) Glyoxal Answer (c) 0.0 V

(b) Freon
(c) T.E.L.(Tetra ethyl lead) Q33. The given reaction 2FeCl₃ + SnCl₂
→ 2FeCl₂ + SnCl₄ is an example of
(d) Ethyl alcohol
(a) Third order reaction
Answer (c) T.E.L.(Tetra ethyl lead)
(b) First order reaction
(c) Second order reaction
Q30. Geometrical isomers differ in
(d) None of these
(a) Position of functional group
Answer (a) Third order reaction
(b) Position of atoms
(c) Spatial arrangement of atoms
Q34. Ethylene diamine tetraacetate
(d) Length of carbon chain (EDTA) ion is
Answer (c) Spatial arrangement of (a) Tridentate ligand
atoms
(b) Hexadentate ligand
(c) Unidentate ligand
Q31. According to Raoult’s law, the
relative lowering in vapour pressure for (d) Bidentate ligand
a solution is equal to Answer (b) Hexadentate ligand
(a) Mole fraction of solute

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
Q35. Which ion is colourless? (b) Formation of carboxylate ion
(a) Cu⁴⁺ (c) Formation of intermolecular H-
bonding
(b) Sc³⁺
(d) None of these
(c) Ti³⁺

m
Answer (c) Formation of intermolecular

c. o
(d) V³⁺
m
H-bonding

.co e m
Answer (b) Sc³⁺

em l a s
s
a halide is converted into reducing sugar?
Q36. Thelalkyl a g
Q39. Which of the following is non-
g
a by
an alcohol
(a) Glucose
(a) Elimination reaction
(b) Sucrose
(b) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(c) Maltose
(c) Addition reaction
(d) Lactose

m
co
(d) Substitution reaction

.
Answer (b) Sucrose

em
Answer (d) Substitution reaction

l a s
Q37. Lucas reagent is a g Q40. Which of the following vitamin is
water soluble?
(a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl₂ (a) Vitamin E
(b) Conc. HNO₃ and hydrous ZnCl₂ (b) Vitamin K
(c) Conc. HNO₃ and anhydrous ZnCl₂ (c) Vitamin A

m
(d) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl₂ (d) Vitamin B

m .co
c. o m
Answer (a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous Answer (d) Vitamin B

m se
ZnCl₂

s e
Physics
g l a
gla Q41. Which ofa the following
a Q38. Carboxylic acids have higher measurement is the most precise?
boiling points than aldehydes, ketones (a) 7.00 m
and even alcohols of comparable mass. (b) 7.0 km
It is due to (c) 7.4 cm
(a) Formation of intramolecular H- (d) 7.00 mm
bonding Answer: (d) 7.00 mm

m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 17

Q42. What does the speedometer of a (c) Increases
vehicle read? (d) Decreases
(a) Average speed Answer: (c) Increases
(b) Average velocity
(c) Instantaneous speed
Q47. Which of the following has the
(d) Instantaneous velocity
highest elasticity?
Answer: (c) Instantaneous speed
(a) Plastic
(b) Steel
Q43. When a bus suddenly stops, the (c) Copper
passengers fall forward due to: (d) Rubber
(a) Inertia of motion Answer: (b) Steel
(b) Inertia of direction
(c) Gravitational pull by earth
Q48. A gas performs minimum work
(d) Momentum of bus
when it expands:
Answer: (a) Inertia of motion
(a) Adiabatically
(b) Isothermally
Q44. A force does maximum work on (c) Isobarically
an object when the angle between force (d) Isochoric ally
and displacement is: Answer: (d) Isochoric ally
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 90° Q49. The number of degrees of
(d) 60° freedom of a rigid diatomic gas is:
Answer: (a) 0° (a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
Q45. The Torque of a force ⃗⃗⃗𝐹 = -3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ (d) 7
+ 5𝑘̂ acting at the point 𝑟⃗⃗ =7𝑖̂ +3𝑗̂ +𝑘̂ Answer: (a) 5
is-
(a) 14𝑖̂ − 38𝑗̂ + 16𝑘̂
Q50. Distance between two consecutive
(b) 4𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂
nodes is:
(c) −21𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂
(a) λ/2
(d) −14𝑖̂ + 38𝑗̂ − 16𝑘̂
(b) λ/4
Answer: (a) 14𝑖̂ − 38𝑗̂ + 16𝑘̂
(c) λ
(d) 2λ
Q46. If we move from equator to pole, Answer: (a) λ/2
the value of acceleration due to gravity:
(a) First increases then decreases
(b) Remains same

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
Q51. The angle between dipole moment (d) X-rays
and net electric field due to an electric Answer: (b) Gamma rays
dipole on equatorial line is:
(a) 0°
Q56. How are resolving power (RP)
(b) 90°
and limit of resolution (LR) of an
(c) 180°
m
optical instrument is related?

c. o
(d) 120°
m
(a) LR = RP

co m
Answer: (c) 180°
. e
(b) LR² = RP

em la s
s
(c) RP = 1/LR

l a (d) LR = √RP
a g
ag
Q52. If the radius of copper wire is
doubled, what will be the effect on its Answer: (c) RP = 1/LR
specific resistance?
(a) Remains same
Q57. The time taken by light to travel a
(b) Becomes two times
distance of 3 cm is:
(c) Decreases
(a) 10⁻⁸ s
(d) Decreases four times
(b) 10⁻⁹ s
Answer: (a) Remains same
m
(c) 10⁻¹⁰ s

. co
(d) 10¹⁰ s

em
Answer: (c) 10⁻¹⁰ s
s
Q53. One Tesla is equal to:
(a) 10⁷ gauss
g l a
(b) 10⁻⁴ gauss
(c) 10⁴ gauss a Q58. Electron volt (eV) is a unit of:
(a) Potential
(d) 10⁻⁶ gauss
(b) Energy
Answer: (c) 10⁴ gauss
(c) Charge
(d) Current
Q54. Lenz law is a consequence of the Answer: (b) Energy

m
co
law of conservation of:

m .
c. o
(a) Charge
m
Q59. The energy equivalent of one

se
(b) Mass

em la
atomic mass unit (amu) is:
s g
(c) Energy

la
(a) 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J

g
(d) Momentum
a
a
(b) 6.02 × 10⁻²³ J
Answer: (c) Energy
(c) 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ J
(d) 931 MeV
Q55. Which of the following is most Answer: (d) 931 MeV
penetrating radiation?
(a) Alpha rays
Q60. Which of the following elements
(b) Gamma rays
is a semiconductor?
m .
co
(c) Beta rays

. e m
e m l as
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 17

(a) Na (b) on
(b) Ba (c) for
(c) Sr
(d) Ge (d) with
Answer: (d) Ge Answer = B

English
Q65. He was accused _____ theft.
Q61. He is _____honest man.
(a) for
(a) a
(b) with
(b) an
(c) of
(c) the
(d) from
(d) none
Answer = C
Answer = B

Q66. She sat _____ me and my sister.
Q62. She is _____ university professor.
(a) among
(a) a
(b) between
(b) an
(c) beside
(c) the
(d) besides
(d) none
Answer = B
Answer = A

Q67. He jumped _____ the river.
Q63. He has _____ European car.
(a) into
(a) a
(b) in
(b) an
(c) over
(c) the
(d) onto
(d) none
Answer = A
Answer = A

Q68. She kept the flowers in a
Q64. She insisted _____ going there.
________.
(a) at
(a) basket

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
(b) bottle Q72. “He spoke softly.”
(c) vase Identify the name of the part of speech
(d) plate used in the word ‘softly’.
Answer = C (a) noun

m
(b) adverb

m c. o
co m
Q69. “He is poor but ______.” (c) verb

m . s e
e la
(a) greedy (d) interjection

l a s a g
ag
(b) coward Answer = B
(c) honest
(d) Rude Q73. Identify the part of speech in the
Answer = C underlined word:
The brave soldier fought fearlessly.

m
Q70. The _____ was investigating the (a) pronoun
matter.
c. o
(b) adverb

s em (c) adjective
a
(a) doctor

g l
(b) police
a (d) interjection
(c) driver Answer = C
(d) soldier
Answer = B Q74. Identify the part of speech in the
underlined word:

m
co
Q71. Keep the milk in the _____ so it Alas! The old man is dead.
m .
c. ostays cold. (a) pronoun
se
m
s em (a) oven g la
la
(b) adverb
(c) adjective a
ag (b) cupboard
(c) refrigerator (d) interjection
(d) basket Answer = D
Answer = C

m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 17

Q75. Identify the type of noun in the Q78. Choose the correct sentence:
underlined word: (a) The sceneries of Kashmir are
The team played brilliantly. beautiful.
(a) abstract noun (b) The scenery of Kashmir is beautiful.
(b) proper noun (c) The scenery of Kashmir are
(c) collective noun beautiful.
(d) material noun (d) The sceneries of Kashmir is
Answer = C beautiful.
Answer = B
Q76. Identify the type of pronoun in the
sentence: Q79. Choose the correctly spelt words:
Someone is knocking at the door. (a) Embarrasment
(a) Personal (b) Embarrassment
(b) Relative (c) Embarrasment
(c) Indefinite (d) Embarresment
(d) Demonstrative Answer = B
Answer = C
Q80. Choose the synonym of ‘Rapid’:
Q77. Identify the type of verb in the (a) slow
sentence: (b) fast
She is writing a letter. (c) lazy
(a) Linking verb (d) quiet
(b) Non-finite verb Answer = B
(c) Intransitive verb
(d) Verb phrase NURSING APTITUDE
Answer = D
Q81. A nurse is assigned to multiple
patients at the same time. Best action:
a) Ignore documentation
b) Prioritize care based on patient

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
condition c) IV fluids
c) Leave duty early d) Medication
d) Delay medication Answer: b) Airway clearance
Answer: b) Prioritize care based on
patient condition
Q86. Before giving insulin, nurse
m
c. o
should:
m
co m
Q82. A child is anxious before a) Check blood glucose level

m . s e
la
injection. Nurse should: b) Give immediately

s e g
a
a) Forcefully give injection c) Skip documentation
l a
ag
b) Explain calmly and use distraction d) Ask relatives
technique Answer: a) Check blood glucose level
c) Avoid procedure
d) Call parents only
Answer: b) Explain calmly and use Q87. A confused patient is trying to get
distraction technique out of bed. Nurse should:
a) Leave patient alone

m
b) Apply restraints without order
Q83. A nurse sees a medication error
. co
c) Ensure safety and supervision

s em
made by another nurse. First action: d) Ignore behavior
a) Inform senior nurse
g l a Answer: c) Ensure safety and

a
b) Hide the mistake supervision
c) Tell other patients
d) Ignore it
Answer: a) Inform senior nurse Q88. Which patient is attended first?
a) Stable post-op patient
b) Child with breathing difficulty
Q84. Most effective method to prevent c) Patient asking water
m
co
infection: d) Patient waiting for discharge
m .
c. o m
a) Mask only Answer: b) Child with breathing

em la se
b) Hand hygiene difficulty

las c) Gloves only
a g
ag
d) Antibiotics
Answer: b) Hand hygiene Q89. Sharing patient reports on social
media is:
a) Acceptable
Q85. A patient has airway obstruction. b) Ethical
First priority: c) Breach of confidentiality
a) Oxygen d) Required

m .
b) Airway clearance Answer: c) Breach of confidentiality

.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 17

Q90. Nursing records should be: Q95. Best nursing quality:
a) Delayed a) Strictness
b) Accurate and timely b) Empathy
c) Written at end of week c) Ignorance
d) Optional d) Delay
Answer: b) Accurate and timely Answer: b) Empathy

Q91. A good nurse leader should: Q96. Task delegation should be based
a) Avoid decisions on:
b) Guide and support team a) Friendship
c) Work alone only b) Staff competency
d) Ignore staff issues c) Seniority only
Answer: b) Guide and support team d) Random selection
Answer: b) Staff competency

Q92. Best way to manage workload:
a) Do easy tasks first Q97. Patient does not understand
b) Prioritize critical patients language. Nurse should:
c) Delay care a) Shout
d) Skip reporting b) Use interpreter or visual aids
Answer: b) Prioritize critical patients c) Ignore
d) Stop care
Answer: b) Use interpreter or visual
Q93. Patient has right to: aids
a) Refuse treatment
b) Ignore advice
c) Leave without information Q98. Nurse should maintain:
d) Avoid consent a) Personal bias
Answer: a) Refuse treatment b) Professional boundaries
c) Emotional reaction
d) Partiality
Q94. In cardiac arrest, first action: Answer: b) Professional boundaries
a) Call doctor
b) Start CPR
c) Give fluids Q99. Best practice to prevent falls:
d) Wait a) No supervision
Answer: b) Start CPR b) Bed rails and monitoring
c) Remove call bell

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 17

m
m .co
c. o

e m
em l a s
s a g
d) Leave patient alone
Answer: b) Bed rails and monitoring

Q100. In emergency, nurse should first:
a) Wait for doctor
m
c. o
b) Act based on priority ABC (Airway,
m
co m
Breathing, Circulation)

m . s e
la
c) Document first

s e g
a
d) Call relatives
l a
ag
Answer: b) Act based on ABC priority
(Airway, Breathing, Circulation)

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m .co
c. o se
m
s em g la
gla a
a

m .
.co s e m
e m l a
l a s a g
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 17