HP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam 2022 Question Paper

HP B.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam

Question Paper - 2022

This question paper has been compiled on the basis of question
paper shared by students on social media after the exam. We
have provided a typed version of the paper because the quality of
the scanned paper was not very good.

Q1. Which of the following groups of animals are uricotelic?

(A) Reptiles, birds, land snails, insects
(B) Reptiles, birds, land snails
(C) Aquatic amphibians, birds, land snails, insects

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(D) Amphibians, reptiles, birds, insects

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Q2. Lysosomes are formed from :
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(A) E.R
(B) Golgi bodies
(C) Mitochondria
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(D) Both A and B

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Q3. Nucleotides are formed by
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(A) Purine, sugar and phosphate
(B) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(C) Purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(D) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate

Correct answer : (C)

Q4. Erythropoiesis starts in

(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen
(D) Red bone marrow

Q5. The yellow colour of urine of the vertebrates is due to

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(A) Cholesterol
(B) Urochrome

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(C) Secretion
(D) Ultrafiltration

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Q6. Which of the following disorders is not hereditary?
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(A) Haemophilia
(B) Cataract
(C) Thalassemia
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(D) Cystic fibrosis
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Q7. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of milk in female?

(A) Oxytocin
(B) Progesterone
(C) LH
(D) Prolactin

Q8. Which one is correct for mammalian testis?

(A) Graffian follicles, Sertoli cells and Leydig cell
(B) Graffian follicles, Sertoli cells and Seminiferous tubules
(C) Graffian follicles, Leydig cells and Seminiferous tubules
(D) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leydig cell

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Q9. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered comparitvely safe
upto how many weeks of pregnancy ?

(A) Six
(B) Twelve
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(C) Eight
(D) Eighteen
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Q10. Vasectomy prevents
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(A) production of sperms in testes
(B) production of semen
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(C) movement of sperms into urethra
(D) male erection

Correct answer : (C)

Q11. Roots are modified to haustoria in

(A) Cuscuta
(B) Zea mays

(C) Trapa
(D) Vanda

Correct answer : (A)

Q12. General formula for aerobic respiration is

(A) 6𝐶𝑂2 + 6𝐻2𝑂 = 𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6 + 6𝑂2
(B) 𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6 + 6𝑂2 = 6𝐶𝑂2 + 6𝐻2𝑂 + 686𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙

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(C) 𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6 = 2𝐶2𝐻5𝑂𝐻 = 2𝐶𝑂2 + 2𝐴𝑇𝑃
(D) 𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6 = 2𝐶3𝐻6𝑂3 + 2𝐴𝑇𝑃

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Q13. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
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(A) Autogamy and xenogamy
(B) Autogamy and geitonogamy
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(C) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(D) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
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Correct answer : (A)
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Q14. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing:

(A) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(B) between two genotypes with the dominant trait
(C) between two genotypes with the recessive trait
(D) between two F1 hybrids

Correct answer : (A)

Q15. A person who is trisomic for twenty first pair of chromosomes is

(A) Klinefelters syndrome
(B) Downs syndrome
(C) Turners syndrome
(D) None of these

Correct answer : (A)

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Q16. During dna replication the addition of nucleotides on the lagging strand
occurs

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(A) Continuously
(B) Discontinuously
(C) Towards the replication fork
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(D) At a faster rate than leading occurs.

Correct answer : (C)
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Q17. The preserved fossil remains of Archaeopteryx show that
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(A) it was flying reptile from the Permain period
(B) reptiles gave rise to birds during jurassic period
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(C) it was a flying reptile in the Triassic period
(D) reptiles gave rise to birds during Permian period.

Q18. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRl. What does "co" part in it
stand for?

(A) Coli

(B) Colon
(C) Coelom
(D) Coenzymes

Correct answer : (A)

Q19. Organisms capable of maintaining constant body temperature are

(A) conformers
(B) Stenothermal

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(C) poikilothermal
(D) Homeothermal

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Q20. 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻𝑂 and 𝐶6𝐻5𝐶𝐻2𝐶𝐻𝑂 can be distinguished chemistry by
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(A) Benedict’s test
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(B) Iodoform test
(C) Tollen’s reagent test
(D) Fehling solution test
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Q21. An international treaty known as Montreal Protocol was signed to control
emission of _______________.

(A) CFC
(B) Ozone
(C) Oxygen
(D) UV rays

Q22. Which is correct IUPAC name for

(A) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl propane
(B) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl2-methylethanel
(C) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutanel
(D) Methyl-1-bromobutane

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Correct answer : (A)

Q23. The crystal with metal excess defect is :

(A) NaCl
(B) FeO
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(C) KCl
(D) ZnO
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Q24. The S.I. unit of mole fraction is :
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−1
(A) 𝑀𝑜𝑙 𝐿
−1
(B) 𝑀𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑔
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−1
(C) 𝑔 𝐿
(D) Unit less

Q25. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.

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(A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
(B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(C) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

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(D) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

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Q26. An electrochemical cell behave as electrolytic cell when
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(A) Ecell>Eext
(B) Ecell=0
(C) Eext>Ecell
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(D) Eext=Ecell

Correct answer : (C)
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Q27. Which of the following statement is correct:

(A) The rate of reaction decreases with passage of time as the concentration
of reactants decreases
(B) The rate of reaction is same at any time during the reaction
(C) The rate of a reaction is independent of temperature change
(D) The rate of a reaction decreases with increase in concentration of reactant
(s)

Correct answer : (A)

Q28. Tanning of leather is :

(A) colouring of leather by chemicals
(B) drying process to make leather hard
(C) polishing of leather to make it look attractive
(D) coagulative hardening of the leather by chemicals

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Q29. Decomposition of 𝐻2𝑂2 can be prevented in presence of:

(A) Glycerol
(B) Acetanilide
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(C) Phosphoric acid
(D) All of these
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Q30. Which of the following is a mineral of iron?

(A) Malachite
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(B) Cassiterite
(C) Pyrolusite
(D) Magnetite

Q31. Froth floatation process used for the concentration of ……………. ores

(A) Oxide

(B) Sulphide
(C) Chloride
(D) None of these

Q32. The correct name of [𝑃𝑡(𝑁𝐻3)2𝐶𝑙2] is :

(A) Diaminedichloridoplatinum .(II)

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(B) Diaminedichloridoplatinum .(IV)
(C) Diaminedichloridoplatinum .(O)
(D) Dichloridodiaminiplatinum .(IV)

Correct answer : (A)

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Q33. The number of significant figures in 0.0101 is :
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(A) 3
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(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
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Correct answer : (A)
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Q34. The number of water molecules present in a drop of water weighing 0.018
g is :

26
(A) 6.02 x 10
23
(B) 6.02 x 10
20
(C) 6.02 x 10
19
(D) 6.02 x 10

Correct answer : (C)

Q35. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?

2+
(A) 𝑀𝑔
3+
(B) 𝑇𝑖
3+
(C) 𝑉
3+
(D) 𝐹𝑒

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Q36. Transition metals have general electron configuration :

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2 1−10
(A) 𝑁𝑠 , 𝑛𝑑
3 1 1−10
(B) 𝑁𝑠 , 𝑛𝑝 , (𝑛 − 1)𝑑
1−2 1−10
(C) 𝑁𝑠 , (𝑛 − 1)𝑑
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2 6 1−10
(D) 𝑁𝑠 , 𝑛𝑝 , (𝑛 − 1)𝑑

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Q37. The angle between covalent bond s is maximum in :
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(A) 𝐶𝐻4
(B) 𝐵𝐹3
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(C) 𝑃𝐹3
(D) 𝑁𝐻3

Q38. Real gas approach ideal behaviour at

(A) Low temperature and low pressure

(B) 𝐿𝑜𝑤 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒
(C) 𝐻𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒
(D) 𝐻𝑖𝑔ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑒

Q39. Which property of water can be used to explain spherical shapes of rain
droplets :

(A) Viscosity

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(B) Surface tension
(C) Critical phenomenon

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(D) Pressure

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Q40. For an ideal gas 𝐶𝑝 and 𝐶𝑉 are related as :
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(A) 𝐶𝑝 - 𝐶𝑉 = R
(B) 𝐶𝑝 / 𝐶𝑉 = R
(C) 𝐶𝑝 + 𝐶𝑉 = R
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(D) 𝐶𝑉 - 𝐶𝑝 = R
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Correct answer : (A)

𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
Q41. If the dimension of a physical quantity is given by 𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 , then the
physical quantity will be

(A) velocity if a=1,b=0,c=-1
(B) acceleration if a=1,b=1,c=-2
(C) force if a=0,b=-1,c=-2
(D) pressure if a=1, b=-1,c=-2

Q42. A particle located at x=0 at time t=0, starts moving along with the
positive x−direction with a velocity 'v' that varies as v=a√x. The displacement
of the particle varies with time as

2
(A) 𝑡
(B) t

m
1/2
(C) 𝑡
3
(D) 𝑡

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Correct answer : (A)

Q43. The acceleration-displacement graph of a particle moving in a
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straight line is as shown in figure, initial velocity of particle is zero. Find
the velocity of the particle when displacement of the particle is s=10m.
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(A) 4√10 m/s
(B) 2√10 m/s
(C) 3√10 m/s
(D) 10√3 m/s

Correct answer : (A)

Q44. A particle acted upon by constant forces 4 i ^ + j ^ ​−3 k ^ and 3 i ^ + j ^ ​−
k ^ is displaced from the point i ^ +2 j ^ ​+3 k ^ to point 5 i ^ +4 j ^ ​+ k ^ . The
total work done by the forces in SI unit is:

(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60

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Q45. The angular momentum of a particle rotating with a central force is

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constant due to

(A) Constant torque
(B) Constant force
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(C) Constant linear momentum
(D) Zero torque
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Q46. A small planet is revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of
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radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force between the
−5/2
planet and the star were proportional to 𝑅 , then T would be proportional to
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3/2
(A) 𝑅
3/5
(B) 𝑅
7/2
(C) 𝑅
7/4
(D) 𝑅

Q47. Satellite is revolving around the earth. If it's radius of orbit is increased to 4
times the radius of geostationary satellite, what will become its time period ?

(A) 8 days
(B) 4 days
(C) 2 days
(D) 16 days

Correct answer : (A)

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Q48. The bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is

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(A) Zero
(B) Unity
(C) Infinity
(D) Between 0 and 1
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Correct answer : (C)
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Q49. Length of a wire at room temperature is 4.55 m, when the temperature
increases upto 100 then its length becomes 4.57m. The coefficient of linear
expansion (α) of the given wire is:
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−5 −1
(A) 5.021 x 10 𝐾
−5 −1
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(B) 6.021 x 10 𝐾
−5 −1
(C) 7.021 x 10 𝐾
−5 −1
(D) 8.021 x 10 𝐾

Q50. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500 K. If
temperature of source is kept constant and its efficiency raised to 60%, then the
required temp. of sink will be:

(A) 100K
(B) 600 K
(C) 400K
(D) 500K

Correct answer : (C)

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