aglasem.com
Home Schools Admission Career Mock Test PDF Docs Playground
ClassChoose class
StateSelect state

JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA

Download the JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA PDF for free at AglaSem. Solving this previous year question paper helps you understand the real JEMAS PG exam pattern, question types, difficulty level and marking scheme, and reveals important repeated topics — practise it to build speed, accuracy and exam confidence. More Detail
JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA - Page 1 of 15

Finished viewing? Save it for later —

Download JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA (PDF · 15 pages)
Downloaded 17 times

About JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA

JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA is available here for free download. Published by WBJEEB for JEMAS PG, this question paper can be viewed online or downloaded as a PDF (15 pages). Candidates preparing for JEMAS PG can use JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA to understand the exam pattern, the type of questions asked, and the overall difficulty level.

Frequently Asked Questions

How can I download JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA?

Open this page and click the Download button to save JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA as a PDF. It is completely free on AglaSem Docs.

Is JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA free to download?

Yes. JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA can be viewed online and downloaded as a PDF free of cost on AglaSem Docs.

How many pages does JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA have?

JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA contains 15 pages, which you can read online or download together as a single PDF.

Where can I find more JEMAS PG study material?

You can find more JEMAS PG question papers, sample papers, syllabus, and answer keys on AglaSem Docs.

JEMAS PG 2023 Question Paper MHA – Text

Read the full text of this question paper below — useful to quickly search, copy and reference the content online without downloading the PDF.

📄 View text version (14 pages)

Page 1

JEMAS(PG)-2023 QB No: 3102700001
Subject: Master in Hospital Administration (MHA)

Duration: 90 minutes No of MCQ: 100 Full Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. All questions are of objective type having four answer options for each.
2. Category-1: Carries 1 mark each and only one option is correct. In case of incorrect answer
or any combination of more than one answer, ¼ mark will be deducted.
3. Questions must be answered on OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble marked
A, B, C, or D.
4. Use only Black/Blue ink ball point pen to mark the answer by filling up of the respective
bubbles completely.
5. Write Question Booklet number and your roll number carefully in the specified locations
of the OMR sheet. Also fill appropriate bubbles.
6. Write your name (in block letter), name of the examination center and put your signature
(as is appeared in Admit Card) in appropriate boxes in the OMR sheet.
7. The OMR sheet is liable to become invalid if there is any mistake in filling the correct
bubbles for Question Booklet number/roll number or if there is any discrepancy in the
name/ signature of the candidate, name of the examination center. The OMR sheet may also
become invalid due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage to it. The
consequence of such invalidation due to incorrect marking or careless handling by the
candidate will be sole responsibility of candidate.
8. Candidates are not allowed to carry any written or printed material, calculator, pen, log-
table, wristwatch, any communication device like mobile phones, bluetooth devices etc.
inside the examination hall. Any candidate found with such prohibited items will be
reported against and his/her candidature will be summarily cancelled.
9. Rough work must be done on the Question Booklet itself. Additional blank pages are given
in the Question Booklet for rough work.
10. Hand over the OMR sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.
11. Candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet after examination is over.

Signature of the Candidate: ___________________________
(As in Admit Card)

Signature of the Invigilator: _____________________________

Page 2

1. What is the value of x in the equation 3x – 15 – 6 = 0 ?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) –9

2. What is the missing number in 2,3,5,7,11,_,15, 19?
(A) 9
(B) 14
(C) 13
(D) None of these

3. This series is called 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, … ?
(A) Geometric series
(B) A.P
(C) Arithmetic series
(D) G.P

4. The average of first 10 even numbers is___________?
(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 9
(D) 11

5. The average age of three boys is 15 years and their ages are in proportion 3:5:7. What is the age
in years of the youngest boy?
(A) 15 Years
(B) 9 Years
(C) 18 Years
(D) 21 Years

6. What least value should be replaced by ___ in “223___431” so that the number become divisible
by 9
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

7. The ratio 5:20 expressed as percent equals to
(A) 50 %
(B) 125 %
(C) 25 %
(D) None of above

8. If a:b = 2:3 and b:c = 4:3, then find a:b:c
(A) 8:12:9
(B) 2:3:8
(C) 2:3:9
(D) 2:3:12
P a g e 1 | 13

Page 3

9. Salil took a loan for 6 years at the rate of 5% per annum on Simple Interest. If the total interest
paid was Rs. 1230, the principal was
(A) 4100
(B) 4200
(C) 4300
(D) 4400

10. Find the compound interest on Rs. 7500 at 4% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually.
(A) Rs. 610
(B) Rs. 612
(C), Rs. 614
(D) Rs. 616

11. If AIRLINE is written as ENILRIA7, then RAILWAY will be written as -
(A) YAWLIAR7
(B) YAWLIAR8
(C) YAWILAR7
(D) YAWILAR8

12. If PINK is coded as 1691411, then RED will be coded as -
(A) 1963
(B) 1854
(C) 1853
(D) 1954

13. Statement 1: John runs faster than George, Statement 2: Tom runs faster than John, Statement 3:
George runs faster than Tom. If statement 1 and statement 2 are true, statement 3 will be -
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Uncertain
(D) None of the above

14. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence - 1. Frog, 2. Grass. 3. Grasshopper, 4.
Eagle, 5. Snake
(A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

15. Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence - 1. Sun, 2. Rain. 3. Child, 4. Rainbow,
5. Happy
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
(D) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

16. If marathon is to race, then hibernation is to -
(A) Winter
(B) Summer
(C) Sleep
(D) Bear
P a g e 2 | 13

Page 4

17. The day before yesterday was Saturday. What will be the day after tomorrow?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday

18. Statement: It is suggested to put a child in school at the age of 4.
Assumptions: i) Schools do not admit children after the age of 4. ii) At this age, the child is ready to
learn new things.
(A) Assumption 1 is true.
(B) Assumption 2 is true.
(C) Both assumptions 1 and 2 are true.
(D) Neither assumption 1 true nor assumption 2 true.

19. Statement: If it is easy to become a doctor, I don't want to be a doctor.
Assumptions: i) A candidate wants to be professional. ii) One wants to achieve a thing which is
hard-earned.
(A) Assumption 1 is true.
(B) Assumption 2 is true.
(C) Both assumptions 1 and 2 are true.
(D) Neither assumption 1 true nor assumption 2 true.

20. A book always has -
(A) Pages
(B) Story
(C) Hard binding
(D) A price

21. Which of the following is different from others?
(A) Carpenter
(B) Blacksmith
(C) Tailor
(D) Barber

22. Which of the following set of letters complete the letter series, when sequentially placed at the
gaps of the series: a _ cdaab _ cc _ daa _ bbb _ ccddd
(A) bbdac
(B) aacbb
(C) dbbca
(D) bbabc

23. Ramen says "Anup's mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is Anup related to
Ramen?
(A) Brother
(B) Nephew
(C) Father
(D) None of the above

P a g e 3 | 13

Page 5

24. Looking at the portrait of a man, Mohan said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son and I
have no brother and sister." at whose portrait was Mohan looking?
(A) His sister
(B) His cousin
(C) His son
(D) His nephew

25. A, B and C are intelligent, A, D and E are laborious and D, C and E are honest and. A, B, and E
are ambitious. Which of the following are not honest?
(A) A and B
(B) C and A
(C) A and D
(D) C, A and B

26. Anita and Pranita are experts in dancing and music. Sunita and Pranita are expert in music and
painting. Anita and Binita are expert in debate and dancing. Binita and Sunita are expert in Painting
and debate. Which girl is not expert in painting.
(A) Anita only
(B) Sunita only
(C) Anita and Pranita
(D) Binita only

27. A group of 30 students play cricket and football. 20 plays cricket and 15 plays football. Each
student plays at least one game. How many of them plays both
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) None

28. There are six books A, B, C, D, E and F. B, C, and E have blue covers while the rest have red
covers. D and F are new books while 'the rest are old books. A, C and D are law reports while the
rest are of physics. Which is blue covered, old and a law report book
(A) C
(B) B
(C) E
(D) F

29. A team of four from A, B, C, D, E, F and G is to be selected according to the
following conditions: B and C must be together, D and E must not be together, A and G must be
together, F and D must be together, C and G will not be together and C and E must be together.
The team will have
(A) ADFG
(B) ABCE
(C) BCAG
(D) None of these

P a g e 4 | 13

Page 6

30. A group of 25 students play Hockey, Football and Cricket. 5 plays all the three games, 12 plays
hockey and football only, 13 plays football and cricket only. How many students do not play
football?
(A) 8
(B) 13
(C) 10
(D) 12

31. Which Indian Banker was appointed as managing director and chief financial officer of the
World Bank in 2019?
(A) Anushula Kant
(B) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(C) Rajnish Kumar
(D) Gita Gopinath

32. In which system of economy is the “participation of the workers in the collective bargaining” is
a feature?
(A) Traditional Economy
(B) Market Economy
(C) Socialist Economy
(D) Mixed Economy

33. What is the base year of Consumer Price Index?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2013
(D) 2010

34. Which is the top silk-producing country in the world?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) USA
(D) Brazil

35. After ONGC, OIC, NTPC and SAIL, which ‘Navratna’ PSU has been accorded ‘Maharatna’
status?
(A) HAL
(B) GAIL
(C) Coal India Ltd
(D) BHEL

36. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State
relations?
(A) 1980
(B) 1983
(C) 1987
(D) 1992

P a g e 5 | 13

Page 7

37. Which Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances that warranted the
declaration of an Emergency in 1975?
(A) Shah Commission
(B) Khosla Commission
(C) Sarkaria Commission
(D) Nanavati Commission

38. Which of the following list prevails when there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and
the State List?
(A) Concurrent List
(B) State List
(C) Union List
(D) Residuary List

39. What are the privileges enjoyed by the office of Governor?
(A) He is immune from any criminal proceedings
(B) He cannot be arrested or imprisoned
(C) Both of them
(D) None of them

40. The Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act was passed in which year?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013

41. Where is the headquarters of World Health Organization?
(A) Washington D C
(B) London
(C) Beijing
(D) Geneva

42. Consider the following: 1. Oxides of Carbon, Sulphur, Nitrogen, 2. Ozone and 3. Lead. Which
among the above is / are considered as pollutants in the recently launched National Air Quality
Index (AQI)?
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 1 & 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3

43. Amazon Rainforest Forests are located in which continent?
(A) South America
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Europe

44. The researchers of which institute have discovered a new species of vine snake from the
Western Ghats that dates back 26 million years?
(A) IIT Madras
(B) IIT Kharagpur
(C) IIT Bombay
(D) IISc – Bengaluru
P a g e 6 | 13

Page 8

45. Everything that surrounds or affects an organism during its lifetime is collectively known as
which of the following?
(A) Ecology
(B) Ecosystem
(C) Environment
(D) None of the above

46. Which part of the computer carries out the arithmetic and logical operations?
(A) Control Unit
(B) Processing Element
(C) BIOS
(D) Mother Board

47. Which of the following is a single integrated circuit on which a CPUs are typically constructed?
(A) Microprocessor
(B) Memory
(C) Motherboard
(D) Hard Disk

48. Every computer runs an OS software program. What does OS stand for?
(A) Operating Software
(B) Operating System
(C) Operating Status
(D) Operating Supplier

49. Which one of the following devices converts digital signal to analog signal and vice versa?
(A) Switch
(B) Router
(C) Modem
(D) Bridge

50. Which of these software is necessary to view web pages on the internet?
(A) Web mail
(B) Web Browser
(C) MS Office
(D) Flash Player

51. Which among the following in Human Heart is / are responsible for contractions that send the
blood to the legs?
(A) Left Atrium
(B) Right Atrium
(C) Right Ventricle
(D) Left Ventricle

52. Which of the following diseases are caused by bacterial infection?
(A) Dengue
(B) Jaundice
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Japanese encephalitis

P a g e 7 | 13

Page 9

53. Which of the following is known as the “Master Gland” of human body?
(A) Pituitary
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Thyroid
(D) Adrenal

54. Anaemia can develop due to deficiency of all of the following except:
(A) Folic acid
(B) Sodium
(C) Vitamin B 12
(D) Iron

55. Which of the following is a micronutrient in human diet:
(A) Magnesium
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Protein
(D) Fat

56. Which of the following is not a disease principally due to some nutritional deficiency:
(A) Anaemia
(B) Scurvy
(C) Cataract
(D) Pellagra

57. Vitamin A can be found aplenty in:
(A) Ripe pumpkin
(B) Fish
(C) Milk
(D) Soyabeen

58. Which of the following is the special characteristic of Cardiac muscle:
(A) Voluntary
(B) Striated
(C) Automaticity
(D) Attached to bony skeleton of the body

59. Which of the following is the organ where old RBC-s are destroyed:
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Spleen
(C) Liver
(D) Kidney

60. Which of the following component of blood serves to protect the body from infection:
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) Platelets
(C) RBC-s
(D) Neutrophils

P a g e 8 | 13

Page 10

61. Paracetamol is used to treat all of the following except:
(A) Infection
(B) Headache
(C) Joint pain
(D) Fever

62. Liquid Antacids act by which of the following mechanisms:
(A) Blocking a certain type of receptors
(B) Raising the pain threshold to perceive pain
(C) Neutralising reaction
(D) All of the above

63. Most of the function of digestion takes place at:
(A) Large intestine
(B) Jejunum
(C) Duodenum
(D) Stomach

64. The functions of liver are all except:
(A) Detoxification
(B) Storage of Glycogen
(C) Digestion of Fats and oils
(D) Secretion of Gastro-intestinal hormones

65. Which of the following disease is implicated commonly as associated with hospital generated
wastes:
(A) Hepatitis B
(B) Chronic Obstructive Lung Diseases
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Diarrhoea

66. Which of the following is the primary treatment of dehydration in children:
(A) Water
(B) Oral Rehydration Salt solution
(C) Normal Saline
(D) Glucose

67. The cut-off for identifying a mentally retarded child is an I.Q. of:
(A) Less than 100
(B) Less than 90
(C) Less than 80
(D) Less than 70

68. The most common mental disorder is:
(A) Depression
(B) Epilepsy
(C) Hysteria
(D) Alzheimer’s disease

P a g e 9 | 13

Page 11

69. The most common infection that is hospital acquired (nosocomial):
(A) Gastro-intestinal infection
(B) Urinary Tract Infection
(C) Cardio-vascular infection
(D) Respiratory infection

70. Which of the following vitamins can be synthesized on human skin with sunlight:
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D

71. Which of the following is used in pencils?
(A) Graphite
(B) Silicon
(C) Charcoal
(D) Phosphorous

72. Chlorophyll is a naturally occurring chelate compound in which central metal is
(A) Copper
(B) Magnesium
(C) Iron
(D) Calcium

73. The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxygen

74. Washing soda is the common name for
(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium bicarbonate
(D) Calcium carbonate

75. Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks etc. is chemically
(A) Sodium silicate
(B) Germanium oxide
(C) A mixture of germanium oxide and silicon dioxide
(D) Silicon dioxide

76. The variety of coal in which the deposit contains recognisable traces of the original plant
material is
(A) Bitumen
(B) Anthracite
(C) Lignite
(D) Peat

P a g e 10 | 13

Page 12

77. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of:
(A) Lead
(B) Chromium
(C) Zinc
(D) Tin

78. Which of the following is correct in relation to Heavy water:
(A) Deuterium oxide
(B) pH7
(C) Rain water
(D) Tritium oxide

79. When an iron nail gets rusted, iron oxide is formed
(A) Without any change in the weight of the nail
(B) With decrease in the weight of the nail
(C) With increase in the weight of the nail
(D) Without any change in colour or weight of the nail

80. The element common to all acids is
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Carbon
(C) Sulphur
(D) Oxygen

81. They ______________ her and trusted her for years
(A) Know
(B) Had known
(C) Knew
(D) Known

82. World war I and World War II took place ______________ the 20th century.
(A) On
(B) In
(C) At
(D) Into

83. This must not happen again, ______________ you will be dismissed.
(A) Or
(B) But
(C) And
(D) So

84. French people love cooking, ______________ the English don't seem very interested.
(A) When
(B) Whenever
(C) Where
(D) Whereas

P a g e 11 | 13

Page 13

85. He got too tired _____ over-work.
(A) Because of
(B) Because off
(C) On
(D) For

86. The train ____ as fast as the bus.
(A) Went
(B) Running
(C) Moves
(D) Going

87. He was seen _____ to the school.
(A) Went
(B) Going
(C) Gone
(D) Go

88. She ____ in the sun for 1 hour.
(A) Sitting
(B) Has been sitting
(C) Has been sit
(D) Has sit

89. Choose the correct answer:
(A) My friend has got a new job.
(B) My friend has got a new work.
(C) My friend is got a new job.
(D) My friend did got a new job.

90. Choose the correct sentence.
(A) Do you like a glass of water?
(B) Would you like a glass of water?
(C) Would you like the glass of water?
(D) Do you like the glass of water?

91. Which of the following is the Antonym of Rabid?
(A) Frantic
(B) Sober
(C) Chaos
(D) Vulgar

92. Which of the following is the Synonym of Trend
(A) Wander
(B) Straight
(C) Tortuous
(D) Bias

P a g e 12 | 13

Page 14

93. Correct the sentence if necessary: Sony bought two dozens apples.
(A) Sony bought two dozens apples.
(B) Sony bought two dozen apples.
(C) Sony bought two dozen apple.
(D) None of the above.

94. Correct the sentence if necessary: There are thousand deers in the forest.
(A) There are thousand deers in the forest.
(B) There are a thousand deers in the forest.
(C) There are thousand deer in the forest.
(D) None of the above

95. Correct the sentence if necessary: She is senior than me.
(A) She is senior to me.
(B) She is senior than me.
(C) She is senior then me.
(D) None of the above

96. Correct the sentence if necessary: This is preferable than that.
(A) This is preferable than that.
(B) This is preferable then that.
(C) This is preferable to that.
(D) None of the above

97. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Cocensus
(B) Consensus
(C) Consencus
(D) Consansus

98. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(A) Worrisome
(B) Worisome
(C) Worrisom
(D) Worresome

99. Meaning of "Chicken Feed":
(A) A very small money
(B) A huge money
(C) Food for thought
(D) Money to be expended

100. Meaning of Exhort:
(A) Weak Plea
(B) To urge strongly
(C) Beg
(D) Borrow

P a g e 13 | 13

Document Details

Board / OrgWBJEEB
ExamJEMAS PG
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages15
Updated24 Sep 2026