AUAT 2024 Question Paper M.Sc in Chemistry

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Sc. in Chemistry (P12)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )

Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours

Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Date of Examination : _______________________________________

Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.

1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.

2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).

3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.

4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.

5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.

6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.

7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.

8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /124- A

PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. IUPAC nomenclature of the compound 3. The structure of the major product
CH2 —
— CHCH(CH3)CH2Br is formed in the following reaction is

[A] 4-bromo-3-methylbut-1-ene

[B] 3-bromomethylbut-1-ene

[C] 1-bromo-2-methylbut-3-ene

[D] 1-bromomethylbut-3-ene

[A]
2. n-Butane in Fischer Projection
formula is

[A]
[B]

[B]

[C]
[C]

[D] [D]

AUAT-2024 /124- A 2

4. The structure of the major product 6. The structure of the major product
formed in the following reaction is formed in the following reaction is

[A]
[A]

[B]
[B]

[C] [C]

[D] [D]

5. Which of the following compounds is 7. Which of the following compounds
formed when phenol is heated with will take part in nucleophilic addition
CCl4 and NaOH? reaction most readily?

[A] Sodium salicylate [A] C6H5CHO

[B] Para-hydroxybenzaldehyde [B] C6H5COC6H5

[C] Salicylic acid [C] CH3CHO

[D] Salicylaldehyde [D] CH3COCH3

AUAT-2024 /124- A 3 [ P.T.O.

8. The final product (C) formed in the 10. Which of the following is not a sugar?
following reaction sequence is
[A] Glucose

[B] Sucrose

[C] Fructose

[D] Cellulose

11. The major product formed in the
following reaction is
[A]

[B]

[A]

[C]

[B]

[D]

[C]
9. Which of the following is a basic
amino acid?

[A] Glycine

[B] Alanine

[C] Lysine [D]

[D] Glutamic acid
AUAT-2024 /124- A 4

12. Which of the following compounds is 15. The following pair of compounds is
formed when formaldehyde is treated an example of
with concentrated potassium
hydroxide solution?

[A] Glyoxal

[B] Methanol
[A] optical isomerism

[C] Ethanol
[B] geometrical isomerism
[D] Acetic acid

[C] functional group isomerism
13. When Phenol is treated with bromine
water a white precipitate is formed due
[D] positional isomerism
to the formation of which compound?

[A] 2-Bromophenol
16. Which of the following compounds
forms effervescence with aq. NaHCO3
[B] 4-Bromophenol
solution?

[C] 2,4-Dibromophenol

[D] 2,4,6-Tribromophenol [A]

14. Which of the following systems is anti-
aromatic?

[B]
[A]

[B]

[C]

[C]

[D] [D]

AUAT-2024 /124- A 5 [ P.T.O.

17. The major product formed in the 18. The hybridization of the encircled C
following reaction is atom of the following molecule is

[A] sp3

[B] sp2

[C] sp

[D] dsp2

[A]
19. Which of the following statements is
true about benzene?

[A] All the C—C bond lengths of
benzene are equal due to
hyperconjugation

[B] All the C—C bond lengths of
benzene are equal due to
resonance
[B]
[C] All the C—C bond lengths of
benzene are not equal due to
improper resonance

[D] Due to resonance benzene is less
stable than the anti-aromatic
compounds

[C] 20. A molecule with permanent dipole
moment is

[A]

[B]

[D] [C]

[D]

AUAT-2024 /124- A 6

21. Based on dipole moment, geometries 25. A system in which state variables have
of BF3 and NH3 are respectively constant values throughout the
system is called in a state of
[A] pyramidal and planar
[A] equilibrium
[B] planar and pyramidal
[B] non-equilibrium
[C] pyramidal and cubic [C] isothermal equilibrium

[D] cubic and planar [D] None of the above

22. Langmuir isotherm holds good at low 26. The phenomenon of lowering of
pressure but fails at temperature when a gas is made to
expand adiabatically from a region of
[A] low temperature high pressure into a region of low
pressure is known as
[B] high pressure
[A] first law of thermodynamics
[C] intermediate pressure [B] second law of thermodynamics

[D] None of the above [C] Le Chatelier’s principle

[D] Joule-Thomson effect
23. The migration of positively charged
colloidal particles, under an electrical
field, toward the cathode is called 27. The heat of neutralisation of a strong
acid and a strong base is always
[A] electrophoresis
[A] zero
[B] electro-osmosis [B] constant

[C] sedimentation [C] positive

[D] electro-dialysis [D] changing

24. Which of the following decays 28. The process of sublimation for a solid
represents the decay of uranium-238 occurs
to thorium-234?
[A] at the melting point
[A] Alpha decay
[B] at a temperature below its
melting point
[B] Beta decay
[C] at a temperature above its
[C] Gamma decay melting point

[D] None of the above [D] None of the above

AUAT-2024 /124- A 7 [ P.T.O.

29. Which of the following equations is 33. The unit(s) of coefficient of viscosity
used to calculate the heats of reaction is/are
when ∆G at two temperatures are
given? [A] dyne cm–2 sec

[A] Gibbs-Helmholtz equation
[B] poise
[B] Clapeyron equation
[C] centipoise
[C] Kirchhoff’s equation
[D] All of the above
[D] None of the above

34. For an orthorhombic crystal system,
30. Each substance in a given state has a
which is incorrect?
tendency to escape from that state and
this escaping tendency is called
[A] a ≠ b ≠ c
[A] spontaneity
[B] α = β = γ = 90°
[B] Gibbs free energy

[C] fugacity [C] a = b ≠ c

[D] activity
[D] None of the above

31. The root mean square velocity of a
certain gas at 27 °C is a m sec–1. Its 35. Which of the following defects is
root mean square velocity at 927 °C generally found in sodium chloride
is and cesium chloride?

[A] a/2 m sec–1 [A] Frenkel defect

[B] 2a m sec–1
[B] Interstitial defect
[C] 3a m sec–1
[C] Schottky defect
[D] 6a m sec–1
[D] None of the above

32. A liquid is in equilibrium with its
vapours at its boiling point. On the 36. The liquid crystals have
average, the molecules in the two
phases have equal
[A] properties of super cooled liquid
[A] potential energy
[B] properties of amorphous solids
[B] kinetic energy
[C] the fluidity of a liquid and optical
[C] van der Waal’s forces properties of a solid
[D] total energy
[D] None of the above
AUAT-2024 /124- A 8

37. The parachor is 41. Oxidation of toluene with CrO3, in the
presence of (CH3CO)2O followed by
[A] an additive property hydrolysis gives a product (A) which
on treatment with aqueous NaOH
produces
[B] a constitutive property
[A] C6H5CHO
[C] both additive and constitutive
properties [B] (C6H5CO)2O

[C] C6H5COONa
[D] None of the above
[D] 2,4-Diacetyltoluene

38. Which ion has maximum magnetic 42. The velocity of an electron in the third
moment? orbit of hydrogen atom is

[A] V +3 [A] 7·28 × 107 cm sec–1

[B] 7·08 × 107 cm sec–1
[B] Mn +
[C] 7·38 × 107 cm sec–1
[C] Fe +3 [D] 7·48 × 107 cm sec–1

[D] Cu +2
43. Tautomerism is not exhibited by

39. Which of the following amine does
[A]
not react with Heinsberg reagent?

[A] Neopentyl amine

[B] Isopropyl amine
[B]
[C] Triethyl amine

[D] Ethylmethylamine

40. Alpha-glucose and beta-glucose are
[C]
called

[A] isomers

[B] anomers
[D]
[C] tautomers

[D] epimers

AUAT-2024 /124- A 9 [ P.T.O.

44. Which of the following compounds 47. Interhalogen compound which exists
reacts with chloroform and a base to in dimeric form, is
form phenyl isocyanide?
[A] ICl 3
[A] Phenol
[B] ICl

[B] Aniline
[C] IF7

[C] Benzene [D] BrF5

[D] Nitrobenzene
48. Which of the following is most reactive
towards SN1 mechanism?

45. Air contains 79% N2 and 21% O2 by
volume. If the barometric pressure is
750 mm of Hg, the partial pressure of [A]
oxygen is

[A] 157·5 mm of Hg
[B]

[B] 175·5 mm of Hg

[C] 315 mm of Hg [C]

[D] None of the above

[D]

46. The ratio of closed packed atoms to
tetrahedral holes in cubic close
packing is
49. 0·005 M acid solution has PH = 5. The
percentage ionisation of acid is
[A] 1 : 1
[A] 0·8%

[B] 1 : 2
[B] 0·6%

[C] 1 : 3 [C] 0·4%

[D] 2 : 1 [D] 0·2%

AUAT-2024 /124- A 10

50. The efficiency of heat engine is 52. Which of the following is known name
maximum when for the reaction given below?

[A] temperatures of source and sink
are maximum

[B] temperatures of source and sink
are minimum

[C] temperature of source is (where, X = Cl, Br, I, OTf; R2 = Alkyl,
minimum and that of sink is Aryl, H; R3 = Alkyl, Aryl)
maximum
[A] Ullmann reaction
[B] Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
[D] temperature of source is
[C] Buchwald-Hartwig reaction
maximum and that of sink is
minimum [D] Chan-Lam coupling

53. Which of the following is an organic
compound having the molecular
51. Which of the following statements is
formulae C 10 H 14 exhibited two
not true?
singlets in the 1H NMR spectrum and
three signals in the 13C NMR?
[A] The ratio of the mean speed to
the RMS speed is independent of
the temperature
[A]

[B] The sequence of the mean speed
of the molecules is equal to the
mean squared speed at a certain
temperature
[B]

[C] Mean kinetic energy of the gas
molecules at any given
temperature is independent of the
mean speed
[C]

[D] The difference between RMS
speed and mean speed at any
temperature for different gases
diminishes as larger and yet [D]
larger molar masses are
considered

AUAT-2024 /124- A 11 [ P.T.O.

54. An organic compound (MF; C8H10O) 57. The temperature coefficient of the rate
exhibited the following 1H NMR special of a reaction is 3. How many times
data : 62·5 (3H, s), 3·8 (314, s), the rate of reaction would increase, if
6·8 (2H, d, J 8 Hz), 7·2 (2H, d, J 8 Hz) the temperature is raised by 30 K?
ppm. Which of the following is that
compound among the choices?
[A] 3
[A] 4-methylbenzyl alcohol
[B] 4-methyl anisole
[B] 9
[C] 4-ethylphenol
[D] 2-ethylphenol
[C] 27
55. Which of the following is true about
transesterification?
[D] 81
[A] Exchanging the organic alkyl
group of alcohol with the organic
group alkyl of an ester
58. Which form represents term symbols
[B] Exchanging the organic alkyl in the Russell-Saunders coupling?
group of an ester with the organic
group alkyl of an ether
[A] 2S +1 L
[C] Exchanging the organic alkyl 2
group of an ester with the organic
group alkyl of an alcohol
[B] 2L +1 S
J
[D] Exchanging the organic alkyl
group of an ester with the organic
group alkyl of an alkane [C] 2S+1 L
J

56. What is the complete IUPAC name of
the following substance? [D] 2S+1 J

59. Which one of these is not an intensive
property?

[A] Boiling point
[A] (1 R,3S)-1-methylcyclopentane-
1,3-diol
[B] (1 S,3R)-1-methylcyclopentane- [B] pH
1,3-diol
[C] (1 S,3S)-1-methylcyclopentane- [C] EMF of a cell
1,3-diol
[D] (1 R,3R)-1-methylcyclopentane-
1,3-diol [D] Entropy

AUAT-2024 /124- A 12

60. What is the energy corresponding to 63. Which among CO32–, SO3, XeO3 and
a transition between 3 rd and 4 th NO3– have planar structure?
orbits, if the ionization energy of
hydrogen atom is 13·6 eV?
[A] CO32–, SO3, XeO3

[A] 3·40 eV
[B] SO3, XeO3, NO3–

[B] 1·51 eV
[C] CO32–, XeO3, NO3–

[C] 0·85 eV
[D] CO32–, SO3, NO3–

[D] 0·66 eV
64. The CFSE will be highest for

61. Most basic among following is
[A] [CoF6]3–

[A] NH3
[B] [Co(CNS)4]2–

[B] PH3
[C] [Mn(H2O)6]2+

[C] SbH3 [D] [Co(NH3)6]3+

[D] BiH3

65. is not aromatic because
62. The molecule with biggest bond angle
is

[A] it does not have delocalization of
[A] NH3 π electrons

[B] NF3 [B] it has maximum angle strain

[C] it has not allowed 4n + 2 Huckel’s
[C] H3O+
rule

[D] NH4+
[D] this molecule is not planar
AUAT-2024 /124- A 13 [ P.T.O.

66. The reaction given below is an 68. Statement I : The size of Zr and Hf
example of are similar.

Statement II : Size of Hf is affected
by lanthanide contraction.

[A] Statement I and II are correct and
II is the correct explanation of I

[B] Statement I and II are correct but
II is not the correct explanation
of I

[C] Statement I is correct and II is
[A] E2 elimination
incorrect

[D] Statements I and II are both
[B] E1 elimination incorrect

69. The complex in which ligand form
[C] Syn elimination only C bond with metal is

[A] W(CH3)6
[D] E1CB elimination
[B] (n5-C5H5)2Fe

[C] K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
67. In a 200 MHz NMR spectrometer, a
molecule shows two doublets [D] (n6-C6H6)2Ru
separated by 2 ppm. The observed
coupling constant is 10 Hz. The
separation between these two signals 70. The decreasing order of
and the coupling constant in a 600 nucleophilicity for the following
MHz spectrometer will be, respectively anions is

CH3CO2–, CH3O–, C6H5O–, NO3–

[A] 600 Hz and 30 Hz
[A] CH3CO2– > CH3O– > C6H5O– >
NO3–

[B] 1200 Hz and 30 Hz [B] CH 3 O – > NO 3 – > C 6 H 5 O – >
CH3CO2–

[C] 600 Hz and 10 Hz [C] CH3O– > C6H5O– > CH3CO2– >
NO3–

[D] C 6 H 5 O – > CH 3 O – > NO 3 – >
[D] 1200 Hz and 10 Hz CH3CO2–
AUAT-2024 /124- A 14

PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. Alhamdulillah means 76. Mother of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)
died when he was _____ year(s) old.
"àºÒೃå[ºÀàÒ &¹ "=¢
šÚK´¬¹ ³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.) ³àtõ¡Òà¹à Ò> _____ ¤á¹
[A] Praise be to Allah
¤ÚìΡú
[B] Glory be to Allah
[A] 1
[C] Allah is almighty
[B] 3
[D] Allah is the most gracious [C] 6
72. As per Islam, which of the following is [D] 12
true about intoxicants?
77. Which of the following is a festival of
Òüκೠ">åÎàì¹ ³àƒA¡‰ì¤¸¹ ¤¸àšàì¹ ëA¡à>ô ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ sacrifice?
Î[k¡A¡? [>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ t¡¸àìK¹ l¡ü;Τ?
[A] Totally allowed [A] Laylat al-Qadr
[B] Marginally allowed [B] Muharram
[C] Marginally forbidden [C] Eid al-Fitr
[D] Strongly forbidden [D] Eid al-Adha

73. The Holy Qur’an is revealed 78. The first woman martyr in Islam is

‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ "¤t¡ão¢ ÒìÚìá Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asma
[A] at a time
[B] Nusaybah
[B] over a period of 12 years
[C] Al-Khansa
[C] over a period of 23 years
[D] Sumayyah
[D] over a period of 32 years
79. Hijri calendar is enumerated from the
74. The saying ‘Cleanliness is half of faith’ time of
is made by
ëA¡à>ô Î³Ú ë=ìA¡ [Ò\[¹ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ Ko>à A¡¹à ÒÚ?
‘ š[¤yt¡à #³àì>¹ "ì‹¢A¡’ &Òü l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡ì¹ìá>
[A] birth of Prophet Muhammad
[A] Prophet Muhammad [B] migration of Prophet Muhammad
[B] Hazrat Umar to Madinah
[C] Ibn Taymiyya [C] journey of Prophet Muhammad
into heaven
[D] Imam Bukhari
[D] death of Prophet Muhammad
75. The prayer at the noon is called 80. Islam acknowledges
ƒåšåì¹¹ >à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ ÒüκೠѬãAõ¡[t¡ ëƒÚ
[A] Fajr [A] only the last Prophet
[B] Zuhr [B] only the last four Prophets
[C] Asar [C] only the last ten Prophets
[D] Isha [D] all the Prophets

AUAT-2024 /124- A 15

81. On which day Muslims pray Jummah 86. Which Country is called the ‘Land of
Prayer? Prophets’?
ëA¡à>ô [ƒì> ³åκ³à>¹à \å³à¹ >à³à™ šìØl¡? ëA¡à>ô ëƒÅìA¡ ‘>¤ã샹 ëƒÅ’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] Sunday [A] Saudi Arabia
[B] Saturday [B] Syria
[C] Tuesday [C] Palestine
[D] Friday [D] Iraq

82. The term Waqf refers to _____. 87. Which word is mentioned most times
in the Holy Qur’an?
*ÚàA¡ó¡ Ŧ[i¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ _____¡ú ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ ëA¡à>ô Ŧ[i¡ ΤìW¡ìÚ ë¤[Å ¤à¹
[A] Bill of exchange l¡üìÀJ A¡¹à ÒìÚìá?
[B] What is due to the State treasury? [A] Qul
[C] Promissory note [B] Allah
[D] Charitable foundation or trust [C] Rahman
–
83. The Arabic term Haq means [D] Amana

"à¹[¤ Ŧ ÒA¡ &¹ "=¢ Òìºà 88. What is the name of the fountain
which each person of paradise will
[A] legal rights drink before entering?
[B] credit proposal
\àÄàìt¡ šøìt¡¸A¡ ¤¸[v¡û¡ šøì¤ìŹ šè줢 ë™ c¡o¢à¹ \º
[C] taking full responsibility šà> A¡¹ì¤ t¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[D] kind of sale [A] Zamzam
84. How many gates of Jannah are there? [B] Kawsar
[C] Tasneem
\àÄàìt¡¹ ƒ¹\à A¡Ú[i¡?
[D] None of the above
[A] Six
[B] Seven 89. How many times does ‘Bismillah’
repeat in the Holy Qur’an?
[C] Eight
‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ A¡t¡¤à¹ ‘[¤Î[³ÀàÒ’ &ìÎìá?
[D] Nine
[A] 112
85. Name the Angel who was appointed to [B] 113
deliver messages to Prophet
Muhammad (SAW) from Allah (SWT)? [C] 114
[D] None of the above
"àÀàÒ¹ (Îå¤àÒà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà) šÛ¡ ë=ìA¡ >¤ã
³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.)-&¹ A¡àìá ¤àt¢¡à ëš]ìá ëƒ*Ú๠\>¸ 90. Which is the longest Surah in the Holy
Qur’an?
[>™åv¡û¡ ëó¡ì¹Åt¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[A] Jibreel (AS)
‘š[¤y A塹"àì>¹’ ƒãQ¢t¡³ Îè¹à ëA¡à>[i¡?
[A] Surah Al - Maidha
[B] Mikael (AS)
[B] Surah An - Nisa
[C] Israfil (AS)
[C] Surah Al - Imran
[D] Azrael (AS)
[D] Surah Al - Baqarah
AUAT-2024 /124- A 16

91. The study of various aspects of ageing 96. Who is called the first female teacher
is called of India?
[A] Psephology ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà [ÅÛ¡A¡ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Chronology [A] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Gerontology [B] Savitribai Phule
[D] Entomology [C] Rani Lakshmibai
[D] None of them
92. The fear of being without your mobile
phone is called 97. Mount Etna is a famous volcano
[A] Philophobia located in
[B] Claustrophobia ³àl¡ü@i¡ &i¡>à &A¡[i¡ [¤J¸àt¡ "àìN¥Ú[K[¹ "¤[Ñ‚t¡
[C] Ophidiophobia [A] Argentina
[D] Nomophobia [B] Italy
[C] Mexico
93. His courage won him honour. Identify [D] Philippines
the type of the underlined noun.
[A] Proper 98. The Battle of Kalinga was fought in
[B] Collective the year

[C] Abstract A¡[ºìU¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[D] Common [A] 540 BC
[B] 320 AC
94. Fill in the blank with the correct [C] 440 BC
alternative.
[D] 261 BC
When I met her _____ years after, she
looked old and haggard.
99. In which year the First World War was
[A] a few fought?
[B] the few šø=³ [¤Å¬™å‡ý¡ A¡t¡ Îàìº Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[C] few [A] 1917 – 1920
[D] some [B] 1914 – 1918
[C] 1912 – 1916
95. Choose the correct alternative from [D] 1910 – 1914
the given sentences :
[A] Those never fail who dies in great 100. Which country is the largest tea
cause producer in the world?
[B] They never fail who die in a great
[¤ìŬ¹ ¤õÒv¡³ W¡à l¡ü;šàƒ>A¡à¹ã ëƒÅ ëA¡à>[i¡?
cause
[A] India
[C] They never fails who dies in a
great cause [B] China

[D] They never fails who die in a [C] Bhutan
great cause [D] Nepal

AUAT-2024 /124- A 17 [ P.T.O.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /124- A 18

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /124- A 19 [ P.T.O.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /124- A 20 NNN24(141)—24×4

Entrance Exams
Agricultural Entrance Exams
Architecture Entrance Exam
Arts and Humanities Entrance Exams
Commerce Entrance Examinations
Common Entrance Examinations
Computer Application Entrance Exams
Design Entrance Exams
Education Entrance Exams
Engineering Entrance Exams
Hotel Management Entrance Exams
Law Entrance Exams
MBA Entrance Exams
Media & Journalism Entrance Exams
Medical Entrance Exams
Nursing Entrance Exams
Pharmacy Entrance Exams
Science Entrance Exams
Diploma & Polytechnic
Lateral Entry