AUAT 2024 Question Paper M.Sc in Microbiology

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Sc. in Microbiology (P16)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )

Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours

Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Date of Examination : _______________________________________

Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification

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2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).

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provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
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AUAT-2024/126 -A

PART—I

( Core Subject )
1. Which of the following Prokaryotes 5. The histones and DNA associate to
lacks the peptidoglycan layer? form complexes 10 nm in diameter,
are called
[A] Gram negative bacteria
[A] Myosin
[B] Cyanobacteria
[B] Thylakoids
[C] Archaebacteria [C] Actin
[D] Both [A] and [C] [D] Nucleosome

2. Electrophoretic method generally 6. Which of the following are the end
used for estimation of purity and products of anabolism?
molecular weight of proteins, makes
[A] Energy poor products : CO2, H2O
use of
and NH3
[A] Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS) [B] Cell macromolecules : Proteins,
Polysaccharide s, lipids and
[B] Gum Arabic
nucleic acids
[C] Bisacrylamide [C] Precursor molecules : Amino
acids, sugars, fatty acids and
[D] None of the above
nitrogenous bases

[D] None of the above
3. The study of reaction rates and how
they change in response to changes
in experimental parameters is called 7. Glycolysis is the break down of 6
carbon glucose into
[A] Kinetics
[A] 3 molecules of 3C pyruvate which
[B] Allosterism takes place in 10 steps

[B] 4 molecules of 3C pyruvate
[C] Zymogen
[C] 2 molecules of 3C pyruvate which
[D] Enzymology takes place in 10 steps

[D] None of the above
4. The membrane protein
bacteriorhodopsin is a characteristic
of 8. Which of the following possesses
heterocyst?
[A] Halobacterium
[A] Vaucheria
[B] Escherichia coli [B] Chlorella
[C] Mycoplasma [C] Gymnodinium

[D] Both [B] and [C] [D] Nostoc

AUAT-2024/126 -A 2

9. Serum is 14. Geosmin production

[A] the fluid with RBC [A] makes the soil hard

[B] the fluid with WBC [B] makes the soil soft

[C] Both [A] and [B] [C] changes the colour of the soil
[D] the remaining fluid after the blood [D] produces musty odour to the soil
has coagulated or clotted

15. A diazotroph is known as
10. Potable water means
[A] that releases SO2
[A] water of an earthen pot
[B] that fixes up SO2
[B] water fit for drinking
[C] that fixes up N2
[C] water of a river
[D] that fixes up CO2
[D] water in the pot of a copper

16. Biosensors are used
11. Which of the following is true for
sterilization? [A] to survey the number of bacteria
[A] Se le ctive killing of [B] to locate biological active
microorganisms pollutants
[B] Heating to boil [C] to locate the pre se nce of
carbohydrate in a solution
[C] Heating to 100 °C

[D] To make free from all kind of [D] Both [B] and [C]
organisms
17. Which of the following bacterial
12. Which of the following is true for CD4 species is used as larvicide?
cells?
[A] Escherichia coli
[A] Work as receptors of HIV
[B] Rhizobium
[B] Kill HIV
[C] Bacillus propillae
[C] Keep away HIV
[D] Thiobacillus
[D] None of the above
18. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is
13. Carcinogenic screening test is present in

[A] Widal test [A] cyanophage

[B] ELISA test [B] bacteriophage

[C] Ames test [C] T.M.V.

[D] Enterotube multitest [D] H.I.V.
AUAT-2024/126 -A 3 [ P.T.O.

19. “Mad Cow disease” is caused by 24. Catalase converts hydrogen peroxide
into
[A] Ricketssia
[B] Chlamydia [A] water and oxygen

[C] Prions [B] water and carbon dioxide
[D] None of the above [C] water and nitrogen

[D] Both [A] and [B]
20. Plasmid produces proteins that inhibit
the growth of susceptible bacterial
strains is known as 25. A positive strand DNA virus is
[A] R-plasmid [A] DNA ge nome with minus
[B] Ti-plasmid configuration

[C] PBR-322 [B] single stranded DNA of plus
[D] Col-plasmid configuration

[C] DNA without any configuration
21. RNA polymerase leaves its foot print
on a promoter. What is foot printing [D] double stranded DNA with plus
in view of the following? configuration

[A] Spotting transcription bubble
26. Suitable substratum for the growth of
[B] A te chnique derived from dermatophytes is
principle s is used in DNA
sequencing [A] keratin
[C] Biological inter conversion of [B] fat
DNA and RNA
[C] oil
[D] Both [A] and [C]
[D] sugars
22. Yersinia pestis is caused by
[A] Pneumonic plague 27. Which of the following is called
retrotransposons from an yeast?
[B] Influenza
[A] Copia element
[C] Tetanus
[D] Yellow fever [B] Primordial exons

[C] LDL receptors and ribozyme
23. In the re plication of E. coli
chromosome, the regulatory apparatus [D] Ty element
for the synthesis of lagging strand is
a travelling protein machine known 28. Termination codons are
as
[A] UAA, UAG and UGA
[A] Okazaki fragments
[B] Fork movements [B] UAA, UAC and UCA

[C] Primosome [C] UUA, UAA and UAT
[D] Replisome [D] None of the above
AUAT-2024/126 -A 4

29. Fully-developed virus particle is called 34. Which of the following compounds are
most recalcitrant to degradation
[A] Capsomer during bioremediation process?
[B] Virion [A] Natural gases such as ethane and
[C] Capsid propane

[B] Methane
[D] Envelope
[C] Polycyclic hydrocarbons
30. Reason(s) for greenhouse effect is/are [D] Straight chain hydrocarbons
[A] CO2
35. A bacterial disease is
[B] CFC
[A] Amoebic dysentery
[C] Freon and CH4
[B] Beri-Beri
[D] All of the above
[C] Arthritis

31. Auxotroph are bacteria that can grow [D] Leprosy

[A] minimal media
36. P-amino salicylic acid i.e. PAS is
[B] minimal media supplemented used for the treatment of
with some nutrients
[A] AIDS
[C] minimal media supplemented
with specific nutrients [B] Malaria

[D] Both [B] and [C] [C] Plague

[D] Tuberculosis
32. Plasmid incompatibility occurs
37. Uranium biore me diation is
[A] when the cell removes its plasmid
dependent on
[B] when the genomic DNA removed
[A] fermentation
from the cell
[B] metal reducing bacteria
[C] when second plasmid
introduction causes removal of [C] methanogens
the first plasmid
[D] sulfur oxidizing bacteria
[D] None of the above
38. F factors can integrate into bacterial
33. Microbes clean up pollution created chromosome and the cells containing
by human activities is known as these integrated F factors are called

[A] biodegradation [A] F+ strain

[B] bioremediation [B] F– strain

[C] bioaugmentation [C] Hfr strain

[D] bioengineering [D] None of the above

AUAT-2024/126 -A 5 [ P.T.O.

39. Interrupted mating experiment helps 44. The production of antibiotics by one
in finding microorganism that inhibits or kills a
susceptible microorganism is called
[A] mapping of genes
[A] competition
[B] mapping of chromosome [B] ammensalism
[C] mapping of amino acids [C] synergism
[D] neutralism
[D] studying pathways
45. Water from the surface to the depth to
which light penetrates with sufficient
40. Bacillus Calmette Gue rin give s
intensity to support autotrophs is called
immunity against
[A] thermocline
[A] Plague [B] anoxic zone
[B] Covid-19 [C] photic zone
[D] primary producer
[C] Lyme disease
46. Potable water contains
[D] Tuberculosis
[A] less than 1 fae cal coliform
bacteria
41. Algae used for the preparation of [B] fewer than 100 faecal coliform
single cell protein is bacteria
[A] Aspergillus [C] fewer than 150 faecal coliform
bacteria
[B] Rhodopseudomonas [D] fewer than 10 faecal coliform
[C] Candida bacteria

[D] Spirulina 47. Leukocidins are
[A] membrane disrupting exotoxin
42. Anamox reactions are [B] specific host site exotoxin
[C] super antigens
[A] anaerobic and part of nitrogen
[D] AB toxin with A as the enzyme
cycle
and B binds to the host receptor
[B] anaerobic and part of carbon cycle
48. Which of the following statements
[C] aerobic and part of sulfur cycle about substrate-level phosphorylation
is false?
[D] aerobic and part of metal ion [A] No final electron acceptor is
oxidation required
[B] It occurs in glycolysis
43. Ultimate source of energy in nature [C] The oxidation of intermediate
is metabolic compounds releases
energy that is used to generate
[A] ATP
ATP
[B] GTP [D] It involves the direct transfer of a
high energy phosphate group
[C] Sun
from an intermediate metabolic
[D] Both [A] and [B] compound to ADP

AUAT-2024/126 -A 6

49. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. 55. Portal of entry of HIV virus from
If a culture containing 105 cells/ml mother to the embryo is
is grown for 175 minutes, what will
[A] Mucous membrane
be cell concentration after that?
[A] 175 × 105 [B] Placenta

[B] 35 × 105 [C] Skin
[C] 5 × 105 [D] Conjunctiva
[D] 32 × 105
56. Which of the following statements
50. Drugs that act against protein most closely expresses our present
synthesis include understanding?
[A] Beta-lactams [A] The chloroplast is an ancestor of
[B] Sulphonamides the cyanobacteria
[C] Polymyxin [B] The cyanobacteria are
[D] Aminoglycosides descendants of the chloroplast
[C] The chloroplast arose from the
51. Human pathogens fall into incorporation of a cyanobacterial-
[A] Mesophiles like organism

[B] Thermophiles [D] The chloroplast and the
cyanobacteria are not closely (or
[C] Psychrophiles
specifically) related
[D] Halophiles

57. Mycoplasma lost their cell walls via
52. In tissue culture, hormones are
reductive evolution. This was possible
sterilized through
because
[A] water bath at 80 °C
[A] their cell membranes became
[B] hot air oven extra thick to compensate
[C] filters
[B] it allowed them not be sensitive
[D] radiation to antibiotics that target the cell
wall
53. Zoonoses is the transmission of the
[C] as obligate parasites they live in
disease from
the environments with constant
[A] animal reservoirs osmolarity
[B] non-living reservoir
[D] they live in soils with plenty of
[C] human reservoir available moisture
[D] Both [A] and [C]
58. Which of the following is used in
54. The water of Holy Ganges river is pure negative staining?
due to the presence of
[A] Safranine
[A] Cyanophages
[B] Crystal violet
[B] Hydrophytes
[C] Acid-water
[C] Bacteriophages
[D] All of the above [D] Nigrosin

AUAT-2024/126 -A 7 [ P.T.O.

59. Adipose tissue which consists of 65. MALDI-TOF is used for
adipocyter (fat cells) releases fatty
[A] sequencing of proteins
acids through the action of
[B] sequencing of nucleic acids
[A] Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone
(TRH) [C] Both [A] and [B]
[B] Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) [D] None of the above
[C] Epinephrine
[D] Prostaglandins 66. Transfection in Eukaryotes means
[A] degradation of DNA
60. Haemolysin which form pores on
erythrocytes are [B] degradation of RNA
[A] specific host site exotoxins [C] uptake of RNA
[B] AB toxins [D] uptake of DNA
[C] membrane disrupting exotoxins
[D] super antigens 67. “MRSA” term is used for
[A] Streptococcus pyogenes
61. In marine system, the final carbon-
nitrogen-phosphorous ratio of the [B] Staphylococcus aureus
phytoplankton is termed as [C] Salmonella typhi
[A] Microbial ecology [D] Streptococcus albus
[B] DOM ratio
[C] Redfield ratio 68. OMIM database gives information of
[D] None of the above [A] bacterial inheritance

62. Shine-Dalgarno sequence is present [B] proteins
in [C] nucleic acids
[A] tRNA [D] human inheritance
[B] mRNA
[C] rRNA 69. Adjuvants are mixed with antigens
[D] All of the above [A] to decrease the immunogenicity
of that antigen
63. Hybridoma technology involved
[B] to increase the immunogenicity
[A] fusion of antibody producing B
of that antigen
cell with a cancer cell
[B] fusion of T cell with cancer cell [C] to decrease the immunogenicity
of that antibody
[C] fusion of monoclonal antibody
with polyclonal antibody [D] to increase the immunogenicity
of that antibody
[D] None of the above

64. A specific DNA sequence on a 70. Signature sequence is found in
chromosome is detected by [A] 16S rRNA of Prokaryotes
[A] RFLP [B] 26S rRNA of Eukaryotes
[B] Southern blotting
[C] 18S rRNA of Eukaryotes
[C] FISH
[D] All of the above
[D] Both [A] and [B]
AUAT-2024/126 -A 8

PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. Alhamdulillah means 76. Mother of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)
died when he was _____ year(s) old.
"àºÒೃå[ºÀàÒ &¹ "=¢
šÚK´¬¹ ³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.) ³àtõ¡Òà¹à Ò> _____ ¤á¹
[A] Praise be to Allah
¤ÚìΡú
[B] Glory be to Allah
[A] 1
[C] Allah is almighty
[B] 3
[D] Allah is the most gracious
[C] 6
72. As per Islam, which of the following is [D] 12
true about intoxicants?
77. Which of the following is a festival of
Òüκೠ">åÎàì¹ ³àƒA¡‰ì¤¸¹ ¤¸àšàì¹ ëA¡à>ô ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ sacrifice?
Î[k¡A¡? [>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ t¡¸àìK¹ l¡ü;Τ?
[A] Totally allowed [A] Laylat al-Qadr
[B] Marginally allowed [B] Muharram
[C] Marginally forbidden [C] Eid al-Fitr
[D] Strongly forbidden [D] Eid al-Adha

73. The Holy Qur’an is revealed 78. The first woman martyr in Islam is

‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ "¤t¡ão¢ ÒìÚìá Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] at a time [A] Asma

[B] over a period of 12 years [B] Nusaybah
[C] Al-Khansa
[C] over a period of 23 years
[D] Sumayyah
[D] over a period of 32 years
79. Hijri calendar is enumerated from the
74. The saying ‘Cleanliness is half of faith’ time of
is made by
ëA¡à>ô Î³Ú ë=ìA¡ [Ò\[¹ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ Ko>à A¡¹à ÒÚ?
‘ š[¤yt¡à #³àì>¹ "ì‹¢A¡’ &Òü l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡ì¹ìá>
[A] birth of Prophet Muhammad
[A] Prophet Muhammad
[B] migration of Prophet Muhammad
[B] Hazrat Umar to Madinah
[C] Ibn Taymiyya [C] journey of Prophet Muhammad
[D] Imam Bukhari into heaven
[D] death of Prophet Muhammad
75. The prayer at the noon is called
80. Islam acknowledges
ƒåšåì¹¹ >à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ ÒüκೠѬãAõ¡[t¡ ëƒÚ
[A] Fajr
[A] only the last Prophet
[B] Zuhr [B] only the last four Prophets
[C] Asar [C] only the last ten Prophets
[D] Isha [D] all the Prophets
AUAT-2024/126 -A 9 [ P.T.O.

81. On which day Muslims pray Jummah 86. Which Country is called the ‘Land of
Prayer? Prophets’?
ëA¡à>ô [ƒì> ³åκ³à>¹à \å³à¹ >à³à™ šìØl¡? ëA¡à>ô ëƒÅìA¡ ‘>¤ã샹 ëƒÅ’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] Sunday [A] Saudi Arabia
[B] Saturday [B] Syria

[C] Tuesday [C] Palestine
[D] Iraq
[D] Friday
87. Which word is mentioned most times
82. The term Waqf refers to _____.
in the Holy Qur’an?
*ÚàA¡ó¡ Ŧ[i¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ _____¡ú ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ ëA¡à>ô Ŧ[i¡ ΤìW¡ìÚ ë¤[Å ¤à¹
[A] Bill of exchange l¡üìÀJ A¡¹à ÒìÚìá?
[B] What is due to the State treasury? [A] Qul
[C] Promissory note [B] Allah
[D] Charitable foundation or trust [C] Rahman
–
[D] Amana
83. The Arabic term Haq means
88. What is the name of the fountain
"à¹[¤ Ŧ ÒA¡ &¹ "=¢ Òìºà which each person of paradise will
[A] legal rights drink before entering?
[B] credit proposal \àÄàìt¡ šøìt¡¸A¡ ¤¸[v¡û¡ šøì¤ìŹ šè줢 ë™ c¡o¢à¹ \º
[C] taking full responsibility šà> A¡¹ì¤ t¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[D] kind of sale [A] Zamzam
[B] Kawsar
84. How many gates of Jannah are there?
[C] Tasneem
\àÄàìt¡¹ ƒ¹\à A¡Ú[i¡? [D] None of the above
[A] Six
89. How many times does ‘Bismillah’
[B] Seven repeat in the Holy Qur’an?
[C] Eight ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ A¡t¡¤à¹ ‘[¤Î[³ÀàÒ’ &ìÎìá?
[D] Nine [A] 112
85. Name the Angel who was appointed to [B] 113
deliver messages to Prophet [C] 114
Muhammad (SAW) from Allah (SWT)? [D] None of the above
"àÀàÒ¹ (Îå¤àÒà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà) šÛ¡ ë=ìA¡ >¤ã 90. Which is the longest Surah in the Holy
³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.)-&¹ A¡àìá ¤àt¢¡à ëš]ìá ëƒ*Ú๠\>¸ Qur’an?
[>™åv¡û¡ ëó¡ì¹Åt¡à¹ >à³ [A¡? ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>¹’ ƒãQ¢t¡³ Îè¹à ëA¡à>[i¡?
[A] Jibreel (AS) [A] Surah Al - Maidha
[B] Mikael (AS) [B] Surah An - Nisa
[C] Israfil (AS) [C] Surah Al - Imran
[D] Azrael (AS) [D] Surah Al - Baqarah
AUAT-2024/126 -A 10

91. The study of various aspects of ageing 96. Who is called the first female teacher
is called of India?
[A] Psephology ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà [ÅÛ¡A¡ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Chronology [A] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Gerontology [B] Savitribai Phule
[D] Entomology [C] Rani Lakshmibai
[D] None of them
92. The fear of being without your mobile
phone is called 97. Mount Etna is a famous volcano
[A] Philophobia located in
[B] Claustrophobia ³àl¡ü@i¡ &i¡>à &A¡[i¡ [¤J¸àt¡ "àìN¥Ú[K[¹ "¤[Ñ‚t¡
[C] Ophidiophobia [A] Argentina
[D] Nomophobia [B] Italy
[C] Mexico
93. His courage won him honour. Identify [D] Philippines
the type of the underlined noun.
[A] Proper 98. The Battle of Kalinga was fought in
[B] Collective the year

[C] Abstract A¡[ºìU¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[D] Common [A] 540 BC
[B] 320 AC
94. Fill in the blank with the correct [C] 440 BC
alternative. [D] 261 BC
When I met her _____ years after, she
looked old and haggard. 99. In which year the First World War was
[A] a few fought?
[B] the few šø=³ [¤Å¬™å‡ý¡ A¡t¡ Îàìº Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[C] few [A] 1917 – 1920
[D] some [B] 1914 – 1918
[C] 1912 – 1916
95. Choose the correct alternative from [D] 1910 – 1914
the given sentences :
[A] Those never fail who dies in great 100. Which country is the largest tea
cause producer in the world?
[B] They never fail who die in a great [¤ìŬ¹ ¤õÒv¡³ W¡à l¡ü;šàƒ>A¡à¹ã ëƒÅ ëA¡à>[i¡?
cause
[A] India
[C] They never fails who dies in a
[B] China
great cause
[C] Bhutan
[D] They never fails who die in a
great cause [D] Nepal

AUAT-2024/126 -A 11 [ P.T.O.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024/126 -A 12 NNN24(141)—24×4

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