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Entrance Exam
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
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Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Sc. in Physics (P11)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )
Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours
Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________
Date of Examination : _______________________________________
Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.
5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.
6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.
7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.
8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /123 -A
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PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. At the end of communication system, 5. Given that the ground state energy of
the signal is converted from radio to hydrogen atom is –13·6 eV, the
ground state energy of positronium
[A] sound (which is a bound state of electron
[B] mechanical energy and positron) is
[C] kinetic energy [A] +6·8 eV
[D] potential energy
[B] –6·8 eV
2. A collection of N two-level systems
with energies 0 and E > 0 is in [C] –13·6 eV
thermal equilibrium at temperature T.
For T → ∞, the specific heat [D] –27·2 eV
approaches to
[A] 0 6. The electronic configuration of
sodium (Z = 11) in its first excited state
[B] NKB
is given by
[C] 3NKB/2
[A] 1s22s22p63s1
[D] ∞
[B] 1s22s22p63p1
3. A body weighs 5 N in air and 2 N
when immersed in a liquid. The [C] 1s22s22p53s2
buoyant force is
[A] 7 N [D] 1s22s22p53p2
[B] 3 N
[C] 5 N 7. If the leading anharmonic correction
to the energy of nth vibrational level
[D] 2 N of a diatomic molecule is
2
1
4. A 3 kg block is suspended to a spring − xe n + ℏ ω with xe = 0·001, the
2
and it produces an extension of
0·5 m. Now this block is replaced by total number of energy levels possible
another block of mass 4 kg and put is approximately
into vertical oscillations. The time
period of oscillation is [A] 500
[A] 4·64 s
[B] 1500
[B] 3·64 s
[C] 2·64 s [C] 300
[D] 1·64 s [D] 750
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 2
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8. An atomic spectral line is observed to 12. Phenomenon that cannot be
split into nine components due to understood with the framework of
Zeeman shift. If the upper state of the classical physics is
atom is 3D2, then the lower state will
be
[A] atomic spectra
3
[A] F2
[B] 3
F1 [B] blackbody radiation, atomic
spectra
3
[C] P1
3 [C] inertial frame
[D] P2
[D] None of the above
9. Rest mass energy of an electron is
[A] 1·02 MeV 13. Earth can be considered as which
type of frame?
[B] 0·511 keV
[C] 2·02 MeV [A] Non-inertial frame
[D] 0·511 MeV
[B] Accelerated frame
10. In He-Ne laser, the laser emits from
[C] Inertial frame
[A] 3s → 2 p
[B] 3s → 3 p [D] Velocity frame
[C] 2 p → 3s
14. In cathode ray oscilloscope, spots are
[D] 2s → 2 p formed on screen having
11. According to the special theory of [A] anode
relativity which one is not an absolute
quantity?
[B] grid
[A] Mass
[B] Height
[C] matrix
[C] Time and mass
[D] None of the above [D] cathode
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 3 [ P.T.O.
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15. Magnetic field outside a solenoid is 18. Iron has a Body-Centered Cubic (BCC)
structure with atomic radius 0·123 Å.
Find the lattice constant.
[A] strong
[A] 4·587 Å
[B] zero
[C] negligible [B] 0
[D] infinite [C] 2·314 Å
[D] 0·2840 Å
16. In a transistor, emitter current is
[A] equal to base current 19. A Carnot cycle is to be designed to
attain efficiency of 0·75. If
temperature of high temperature
[B] slightly less than collector
reservoir is 727 °C, then low
temperature reservoir will have to be
[C] slightly more than collector maintained at
[D] equal to the collector [A] –23 °C
[B] 181 °C
17. Consider a Maxwellain distribution of
the velocity of the molecules of an
ideal gas. Let Vmp and Vrms denote [C] 23 °C
the most probable and root mean
square velocity respectively. The
magnitude of the ratio Vmp/Vrms is [D] –181 °C
[A] 1
20. The nuclear radius of 27 is
Al 13
approximately is
2
[B]
3
[A] 1·05 fm
2
[C] [B] 4·50 fm
3
[C] 0·350 fm
3
[D]
2
[D] 11·2 fm
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 4
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21. The interplanar spacing of (220) plane 24. Which of the following oscillators is
of a Face-Centered Cubic (FCC) suitable for frequencies in the range
structure is 1·7458 Å. Calculate the of mega hertz?
lattice constant.
[A] RC phase shift
[A] 5·125 Å
[B] Hartley
[B] 0
[C] Wien bridge
[C] 4·983 Å [D] Both [A] and [C]
[D] 2·458 Å
25. In low density oxygen gas at low
temperature, only the translational
and rotational modes of the molecules
22. For space shuttle which flow is best are excited. The specific heat per
suited? molecule of the gas is
[A] Laminar flow 1
[A] KB
2
[B] Turbulent flow
[B] KB
[C] Free molecular flow
3
[C] KB
2
[D] Continuum flow
5
[D] KB
23. The particles of the medium vibrate 2
in longitudinal waves
26. For a base current of 10 µA, what is
[A] do not vibrate at all
the value of collector current in
common emitter if βdc = 100?
[B] perpendicular to the direction of
the wave motion [A] 1 mA
[C] along the direction of wave [B] 100 µA
motion
[C] 10 mA
[D] opposite to the direction of the
wave motion [D] 10 µA
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 5 [ P.T.O.
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27. A region of negative differential 30. In adiabatic expansion real gas shows
resistance is observed in the current
voltage characteristics of a silicon PN
junction if [A] heating effect
[A] the N-region is heavily doped [B] cooling effect or heating effect
compared to the P-region
[C] cooling effect
[B] an intrinsic silicon region is
inserted between the P-region
and the N-region [D] neither cooling effect nor heating
effect
[C] both the P-region and the
N-region are heavily doped
31. An electric field in free space is given
by
[D] the P-region is heavily doped
→
compared to the N-region E = 100 cos(108 t + kx ) y^
Find the wavelength of propagating
wave.
28. The intrinsic carrier concentration of
a crystal is 5 × 1022 atoms/m3 at room
temperature (27 °C). The position of [A] 6π
Fermi level is at
[B] 2π
[A] 0·16 eV
1
[B] 0·26 eV [C]
3
[C] 0·36 eV
[D] 10 8
[D] 0·06 eV
32. Which capacitor-store higher amount
29. At series resonance the circuit acts of energy?
as pure
[A] Mica capacitor
[A] inductive
[B] Plastic film capacitor
[B] resistive
[C] Air capacitor
[C] capacitive
[D] Paper capacitor
[D] All of the above
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 6
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33. If electron is accelerated through 25 36. When iron is heated its colour
volts de Brogile wavelength of an changes in the order red → yellow →
electron is white. This is a consequence of
[A] 2·452 Å [A] Stefan’s law
[B] 24·52 Å [B] Wien’s radiation law
[C] 0·2452 Å [C] Wien’s displacement law
[D] 0·49 Å
[D] Rayleigh-Jeans law
34. If the coefficient of stimulated
37. Number of electric lines of force
emission for a particular transition is
passing through a certain area is
2·1 × 1019 m3 W–1s–3 and the emitted
known as
photon is at wavelength 3000 Å, then
the lifetime of the excited state is
approximately [A] electric field
[A] 20 ns
[B] electric flux
[B] 40 ns
[C] electric potential
[C] 80 ns
[D] potential difference
[D] 100 ns
38. The area of the triangle whose vertices
are (4i − 6 j + 2k ) , (2i − 2 j + 2k ) and
35. The binding energy of the hydrogen
atom (electron bound to proton) is (i + j + k ) is
13·6 eV. The binding energy of
positronium (electron bound to
positron) is [A] 6 sq. unit
[A] 13·6/2 eV
[B] 3 sq. unit
[B] 13·6 × 2 eV
[C] 8 sq. unit
[C] 13·6/1810 eV
[D] 2 sq. unit
[D] 13·6 × 1810 eV
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 7 [ P.T.O.
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39. If hydrogen atom is bombarded by 42. A 100 turn coil has an inductance of
energetic electrons, it will emit 6 mH. If the number of turns is
increased by 200%, all other
[A] Kα X-rays quantities remaining the same, the
inductance will be
[B] Neutrons
[C] β-rays [A] 6 mH
[D] None of the above [B] 3 mH
[C] 24 mH
40. In a Hall effect experiment on an
intrinsic semiconductor, which of the
following statements are correct? [D] 12 mH
[A] Hall voltage is always zero
43. A small magnet is dropped down a
[B] Hall voltage is negative if the long vertical copper tube in a uniform
effective mass of holes is larger gravitational field. After a long time,
than those of electrons the magnet
[C] Hall voltage depends on the
[A] moves with a constant
mobility of the carriers
acceleration
[D] Hall coefficient can be used to
estimate the carrier [B] attains a constant velocity
concentration in the
semiconductor [C] executes simple harmonic motion
41. When a mass m1 collides with m2 [D] moves with a constant
deceleration
elastically, the fractional loss of
energy in such collisions is given by
44. Consider a particle of electric charge
m e and mass m moving under the
4 1
m2 influence of a constant horizontal
[A] electric field E and constant vertical
(m1 + m2 )2
gravitational field described by
acceleration due to gravity g. If the
4m1m2 particle starts from rest, what will be
[B] its trajectory?
(m1 + m2 )2
[A] Circular
4m1m2
[C] (m1 + m2 ) [B] Parabolic
[C] Straight line
2m1m2
[D]
(m1 + m2 )2
[D] Elliptic
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 8
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45. Two 100 W, 220 V bulbs are required 48. 2’s complement of 0011 0101 1001
to be connected across a 400 V 1100 is
supply. The value of resistance to be
inserted in the line so that the voltage
[A] 1100 1010 0110 0100
across the bulbs does not exceed
220 V is approx
[B] 1100 1010 1100 0100
[A] 127 Ω
[C] 1100 1010 0110 1100
[B] 198 Ω
[D] 1100 1010 0110 1101
[C] 62 Ω
49. The refractive index (n) of the entire
[D] 15 Ω environment around a double slit
interference setup is changed from
n = 1 to n = 2. Which one of the
following statements is correct about
46. A satellite moves around a planet in
the change in the interference
a circular orbit at a distance R from
pattern?
its centre. The time period of
revoluation of the satellite is T. If the
same satellite is taken to an orbit of [A] The fringe pattern disappears
radius 4R around the same planet,
the time period would be [B] Fringe width of the pattern
decreases by a factor 2
[A] 8T
[C] Fringe width of the pattern
[B] 4T increases by a factor 2
[D] The central bright maximum
[C] T/4
turns dark, i.e. becomes a
minimum
[D] T/8
50. The wavelength of red helium-neon
47. What is the binary equivalent of laser in air is 6328 Å. What happens
decimal 61? to its frequency in glass that has a
refractive index of 1·50?
[A] 111011
[A] Increases by a factor of 3
[B] 111101
[B] Decreases by a factor of 1·5
[C] 111110
[C] Decreases by a factor of 0·5
[D] 101011
[D] Remains the same
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 9 [ P.T.O.
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51. A cube of each side a is placed in a 55. A monatomic ideal gas at 170 °C is
adiabatically compressed to 1/8 of its
uniform electric field E = E 0iˆ. The
original volume. The temperature after
total electric flux through the cube is compression is
[A] zero
[B] 2a2E 0 [A] 2·1 °C
[C] 4a2E0
[B] 17 °C
[D] 6a2E 0
[C] –200·5 °C
52. Two gases separated by an
impermeable but movable partition are
allowed to freely exchange energy. At [D] 887 °C
equilibrium, the two sides will have
the same
56. When unpolarised light is incident on
[A] pressure and temperature
a glass plate at a particular angle, it
[B] volume and temperature is observed that the reflected beam is
linearly polarized. What is the angle
[C] volume and energy
of the refracted beam with respect to
[D] pressure and volume the surface normal?
53. For a black body radiation in a cavity, [A] 033·4
photons are created and annihilated
freely as a result of emission and
[B] 023·3
absorption by the walls of the cavity.
This is because
[C] 56·7
[A] the chemical potential of the
photons is zero
[D] The light is completely reflected
[B] photons obey Pauli exclusion
and there is no refracted beam
principle
[C] photons are spin-1 particles 57. A cyclotron can accelerate deuteron
to 16 MeV. If the cyclotron is used to
[D] the entropy of the photons is very
accelerate α particle, what will be
large
their energy? Take the mass of
deuteron to be twice the mass of
54. A reversible Carnot engine is operated proton and mass of alpha particles to
between temperatures T 1 and T 2 be four times the mass of protons.
(T1 > T2) with a photon gas as the
working substance. The efficiency of [A] 8 MeV
the engine is
[A] 1 – 3T1/4T2 [B] 16 MeV
[B] 1 – T1/T2
[C] 32 MeV
[C] 1 – (T1/T2)3/4
[D] 1 – (T1/T2)4/3
[D] 64 MeV
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 10
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58. The distance of a star from the Earth 61. A conducting sphere of radius r has
is 4·25 light years, as measured from charge Q on its surface. If the charge
the Earth. A space ship travels from on the sphere is doubled and its
Earth to the star at a constant velocity radius is halved, the energy
in 4·25 years, according to the clock associated with the electric field will
on the ship. The speed of the space
[A] increase four times
ship in units of the speed of light is
[B] increase eight times
[A] 1/2 [C] remain the same
[D] decrease four times
[B] 1/ 2
62. Consider two point charges q and l q
[C] 1/3 located at the point, x = a and x = ma,
respectively. Assuming that the sum
of the two charges is constant, what
[D] 2/3 is the value of l for which the
magnitude of the electrostatic force
is maximum?
59. A spherical air bubble is embedded
in a glass slab. It will behave like [A] m
a/an [B] l
[C] l/m
[A] diverging lens
[D] l + m
[B] converging lens
63. When two different solids are brought
[C] achromatic lens in contact with each other, which one
of the following is true?
[D] cylindrical lens [A] Their Fermi energies become
equal
60. A thin air film of thickness d is formed [B] Their band gaps become equal
in a glass medium. For normal [C] Their chemical potentials become
incidence, the condition for equal
constructive interference in the
[D] Their work functions become
reflected beam is (in terms of
equal
wavelength λ and integer m = 0,1,2,...)
64. The Dulong-Petit law fails near room
1 temperature (300 K) for many light
[A] 2d = m − λ
2 elements (such as boron and
beryllium) because their Debye
[B] temperature is
2d = m λ
[A] ≫ 300 K
[C] 2d = (m − 1) λ [B] ~300 K
[C] 0 K
1
[D] 2λ = m − d [D] ≪ 300 K
2
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 11 [ P.T.O.
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65. The ground state energy of 5 identical 68. The half-life of a radioactive nuclear
spin 1/2 particles which are subject source is 9 days. The fraction of
to a one-dimensional simple nuclei which are left under caved
harmonic oscillator potential of after 3 days is
frequency ω is
7
[A]
15 8
[A] ℏω
2
1
[B]
13 3
[B] ℏω
2
5
[C]
6
1
[C] ℏω
2
1
1/3
[D] 2
[D] 5 ℏ ω
66. Which of the following statements is 69. The acceleration experienced by the
correct for a common emitter bob of a simple pendulum is
amplifier circuit?
[A] The output is taken from the [A] maximum at the extreme
emitter positions
[B] There is 180° phase shift between
input and output voltages [B] maximum at the lowest (central)
[C] There is no phase shift between positions
input and output voltages
[D] Both p-n junctions are forward [C] maximum at a point between the
biased above two positions
67. For a diatomic ideal gas near room [D] same at all positions
temperature, what fraction of the heat
supplied is available for external work
if the gas is expanded at constant 70. A DC voltage of 80 volts is switched
pressure? on across a circuit containing a
resistance of 5 Ω in series with an
1 inductance of 20 H. What is the rate
[A]
7 of change of current at the instant
when the current is 12 A?
5
[B]
7 [A] 0 A/s
3
[C] [B] 1 A/s
4
2 [C] 5 A/s
[D]
7
[D] 80 A/s
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 12
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PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. Alhamdulillah means 76. Mother of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)
died when he was _____ year(s) old.
"àºÒೃå[ºÀàÒ &¹ "=¢
šÚK´¬¹ ³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.) ³àtõ¡Òà¹à Ò> _____ ¤á¹
[A] Praise be to Allah
¤ÚìΡú
[B] Glory be to Allah
[A] 1
[C] Allah is almighty
[B] 3
[D] Allah is the most gracious
[C] 6
72. As per Islam, which of the following is [D] 12
true about intoxicants?
77. Which of the following is a festival of
Òüκೠ">åÎàì¹ ³àƒA¡‰ì¤¸¹ ¤¸àšàì¹ ëA¡à>ô ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ sacrifice?
Î[k¡A¡? [>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ t¡¸àìK¹ l¡ü;Τ?
[A] Totally allowed [A] Laylat al-Qadr
[B] Marginally allowed [B] Muharram
[C] Marginally forbidden [C] Eid al-Fitr
[D] Strongly forbidden [D] Eid al-Adha
73. The Holy Qur’an is revealed 78. The first woman martyr in Islam is
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ "¤t¡ão¢ ÒìÚìá Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] at a time [A] Asma
[B] over a period of 12 years [B] Nusaybah
[C] Al-Khansa
[C] over a period of 23 years
[D] Sumayyah
[D] over a period of 32 years
79. Hijri calendar is enumerated from the
74. The saying ‘Cleanliness is half of faith’ time of
is made by
ëA¡à>ô Î³Ú ë=ìA¡ [Ò\[¹ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ Ko>à A¡¹à ÒÚ?
‘ š[¤yt¡à #³àì>¹ "ì‹¢A¡’ &Òü l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡ì¹ìá>
[A] birth of Prophet Muhammad
[A] Prophet Muhammad
[B] migration of Prophet Muhammad
[B] Hazrat Umar to Madinah
[C] Ibn Taymiyya [C] journey of Prophet Muhammad
[D] Imam Bukhari into heaven
[D] death of Prophet Muhammad
75. The prayer at the noon is called
80. Islam acknowledges
ƒåšåì¹¹ >à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ ÒüκೠѬãAõ¡[t¡ ëƒÚ
[A] Fajr
[A] only the last Prophet
[B] Zuhr [B] only the last four Prophets
[C] Asar [C] only the last ten Prophets
[D] Isha [D] all the Prophets
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 13 [ P.T.O.
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81. On which day Muslims pray Jummah 86. Which Country is called the ‘Land of
Prayer? Prophets’?
ëA¡à>ô [ƒì> ³åκ³à>¹à \å³à¹ >à³à™ šìØl¡? ëA¡à>ô ëƒÅìA¡ ‘>¤ã샹 ëƒÅ’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] Sunday [A] Saudi Arabia
[B] Saturday [B] Syria
[C] Tuesday [C] Palestine
[D] Friday [D] Iraq
82. The term Waqf refers to _____. 87. Which word is mentioned most times
in the Holy Qur’an?
*ÚàA¡ó¡ Ŧ[i¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ _____¡ú ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ ëA¡à>ô Ŧ[i¡ ΤìW¡ìÚ ë¤[Å ¤à¹
[A] Bill of exchange l¡üìÀJ A¡¹à ÒìÚìá?
[B] What is due to the State treasury? [A] Qul
[C] Promissory note [B] Allah
[D] Charitable foundation or trust [C] Rahman
–
83. The Arabic term Haq means [D] Amana
"à¹[¤ Ŧ ÒA¡ &¹ "=¢ Òìºà 88. What is the name of the fountain
which each person of paradise will
[A] legal rights drink before entering?
[B] credit proposal
\àÄàìt¡ šøìt¡¸A¡ ¤¸[v¡û¡ šøì¤ìŹ šè줢 ë™ c¡o¢à¹ \º
[C] taking full responsibility šà> A¡¹ì¤ t¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[D] kind of sale [A] Zamzam
84. How many gates of Jannah are there? [B] Kawsar
[C] Tasneem
\àÄàìt¡¹ ƒ¹\à A¡Ú[i¡?
[D] None of the above
[A] Six
[B] Seven 89. How many times does ‘Bismillah’
repeat in the Holy Qur’an?
[C] Eight
‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ A¡t¡¤à¹ ‘[¤Î[³ÀàÒ’ &ìÎìá?
[D] Nine
[A] 112
85. Name the Angel who was appointed to [B] 113
deliver messages to Prophet
Muhammad (SAW) from Allah (SWT)? [C] 114
[D] None of the above
"àÀàÒ¹ (Îå¤àÒà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà) šÛ¡ ë=ìA¡ >¤ã
³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.)-&¹ A¡àìá ¤àt¢¡à ëš]ìá ëƒ*Ú๠\>¸ 90. Which is the longest Surah in the Holy
Qur’an?
[>™åv¡û¡ ëó¡ì¹Åt¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[A] Jibreel (AS)
‘š[¤y A塹"àì>¹’ ƒãQ¢t¡³ Îè¹à ëA¡à>[i¡?
[A] Surah Al - Maidha
[B] Mikael (AS)
[B] Surah An - Nisa
[C] Israfil (AS)
[C] Surah Al - Imran
[D] Azrael (AS)
[D] Surah Al - Baqarah
AUAT-2024 /123 -A 14
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91. The study of various aspects of ageing 96. Who is called the first female teacher
is called of India?
[A] Psephology ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà [ÅÛ¡A¡ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Chronology [A] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Gerontology [B] Savitribai Phule
[D] Entomology [C] Rani Lakshmibai
[D] None of them
92. The fear of being without your mobile
phone is called 97. Mount Etna is a famous volcano
[A] Philophobia located in
[B] Claustrophobia ³àl¡ü@i¡ &i¡>à &A¡[i¡ [¤J¸àt¡ "àìN¥Ú[K[¹ "¤[Ñ‚t¡
[C] Ophidiophobia [A] Argentina
[D] Nomophobia [B] Italy
[C] Mexico
93. His courage won him honour. Identify [D] Philippines
the type of the underlined noun.
[A] Proper 98. The Battle of Kalinga was fought in
[B] Collective the year
[C] Abstract A¡[ºìU¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[D] Common [A] 540 BC
[B] 320 AC
94. Fill in the blank with the correct [C] 440 BC
alternative.
[D] 261 BC
When I met her _____ years after, she
looked old and haggard.
99. In which year the First World War was
[A] a few fought?
[B] the few šø=³ [¤Å¬™å‡ý¡ A¡t¡ Îàìº Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[C] few [A] 1917 – 1920
[D] some [B] 1914 – 1918
[C] 1912 – 1916
95. Choose the correct alternative from [D] 1910 – 1914
the given sentences :
[A] Those never fail who dies in great 100. Which country is the largest tea
cause producer in the world?
[B] They never fail who die in a great
[¤ìŬ¹ ¤õÒv¡³ W¡à l¡ü;šàƒ>A¡à¹ã ëƒÅ ëA¡à>[i¡?
cause
[A] India
[C] They never fails who dies in a
great cause [B] China
[D] They never fails who die in a [C] Bhutan
great cause [D] Nepal
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