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Entrance Exam
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
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Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Sc. in Zoology (P17)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )
Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours
Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________
Date of Examination : _______________________________________
Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.
5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.
6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.
7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.
8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024/127 -A
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PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. Each haemoglobin molecule has the 6. The most commonly used molecular
ability to carry a maximum of tool for phylogenetic analysis involves
the sequencing of
[A] one O2 molecule
[A] mitochondrial DNA
[B] two O2 molecules
[B] mitochondrial RNA
[C] three O2 molecules
[C] ribosomal RNA
[D] four O2 molecules
[D] nuclear DNA
2. Larva of Gastropoda is
7. _____ is a phylogenetic tree that
[A] trocophore represents evolutionary time through
its branch spans.
[B] veliger
[A] Dendrogram
[C] nauplius
[B] Chronogram
[D] bipinnaria
[C] Phylogram
3. Which of the following is a [D] Cladogram
characteristic of reptiles?
8. The resolution power of electron
[A] Cold-blooded
microscope is
[B] Presence of feathers
[A] 0·01–0·1 nm
[C] Live birth
[B] 50–200 nm
[D] Three-chambered heart [C] 1–3 mm
[D] 1–20 nm
4. African sleeping sickness is caused
by 9. The type of placenta found in cats and
dogs is
[A] Giardia intestinalis
[A] zonary
[B] Leishmania donovani
[B] diffuse
[C] Trypanosoma gambiense
[C] discoidal
[D] Entamoeba histolytica
[D] metadiscoida
5. Odd-toed ungulates such as horse, 10. During re plication, the Okazaki
zebra, donkey etc. are included under fragments on lagging strand are
order joined together by
[A] Proboscidea [A] DNA polymerase
[B] Ruminants [B] DNA ligase
[C] Perissodactyla [C] primase
[D] Artiodactyla [D] helicase
AUAT-2024/127 -A 2
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11. Fight-or-flight reactions include 15. Which of the following is an example
activation of of a mutualistic relationship?
[A] the parathyroid glands, leading to [A] Predation
increased metabolic rate [B] Parasitism
[B] the thyroid gland, leading to an [C] Commensalism
increase in the blood calcium
concentration [D] Mycorrhizae
[C] the ante rior pituitary gland,
16. In ecological succession, which type
leading to cessation of gonadal
of species are the first to colonize a
function
newly formed habitat?
[D] the adrenal medulla, leading to [A] Climax species
incre ase d secretion of
epinephrine [B] K-selected species
[C] Pioneer species
12. The Km value of an enzyme represents
[D] Symbiotic species
[A] maximum reaction velocity
17. The process by which two or more
[B] substrate concentration at 50%
specie s e volve adaptations in
velocity
response to each other over time is
[C] affinity of enzyme for substrate called
[D] rate of product formation [A] coevolution
[B] convergence
13. Which of the following lipoproteins is [C] divergence
primarily responsible for transporting
die tary triglycerides from the [D] parallel evolution
intestine to adipose tissue?
18. What is the role of microtubules in
[A] HDL
cell division?
[B] Chylomicrons
[A] Maintaining cell shape
[C] LDL [B] Contracting during cytokinesis
[D] VLDL [C] Forming the mitotic spindle
[D] Secreting hormones
14. Which of the following is not a
component of the electron transport
19. Which type of ce ll de ath is
chain?
characte rize d by morphological
[A] NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I) changes, including cell shrinkage and
DNA fragmentation?
[B] Succinate de hydrogenase
(Complex II) [A] Necrosis
[C] Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex [B] Apoptosis
IV) [C] Autophagy
[D] ATP synthase (Complex V) [D] Cellular senescence
AUAT-2024/127 -A 3 [ P.T.O.
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20. The Major Histocompatibility Complex 25. Human population growth curve is a
(MHC) molecules on the cell surface
present antigens to [A] S-shaped curve
[A] B lymphocytes [B] parabola curve
[B] cytotoxic T lymphocytes [C] J-shaped curve
[C] natural killer cells [D] zig-zag curve
[D] All of the above
26. The enzyme required for transcription
21. The enzyme telomerase is crucial for is
maintaining the inte grity of
chromosomal ends by adding [A] DNA polymerase
[A] guanine repeats [B] RNA polymerase
[B] adenine-thymine rich sequences [C] restriction enzyme
[C] histone modifications [D] RNase
[D] non-coding RNA
27. Colour blindness in man is
22. Which of the following is not a type of
[A] sex-linked character
cell junction in animal cells?
[A] Tight junctions [B] sex-influenced character
[B] Desmosomes [C] sex-limited character
[C] Gap junctions [D] dominant character
[D] Plasmodesmata
28. The earlie st fossil form in the
23. Which type of mutation can lead to a phylogeny of horse is
frameshift in the protein sequence?
[A] Merychippus
[A] Silent mutation
[B] Equus
[B] Missense mutation
[C] Eohippus
[C] Insertion or deletion mutation
[D] Mesohippus
[D] Nonsense mutation
29. The acrosome of the sperm is formed
24. The largest biogeographical region of
by
India is
[A] Himalayas [A] lysosome
[B] Desert [B] mitochondrion
[C] Gangetic Plain [C] Golgi complex
[D] Deccan Plateau [D] vacuole
AUAT-2024/127 -A 4
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30. Which of the following hormones 35. A false positive result is best described
he lps to retain pre gnancy and as one that is given
prevents premature parturition? [A] by a substance other than that
[A] Progesterone being tested for
[B] when the substance being tested
[B] Estrogen for is present in large amounts
[C] Relaxin [C] when substance being tested for
is present in minute quantities
[D] Oxytocin
[D] when substance being tested for
is absent
31. Which of the following is not an
enzyme? 36. Human blood types in the ABO blood
group are identified by
[A] Maltase
[A] clotting factors in plasma
[B] Lipase [B] microscopic examination of white
[C] Trypsin blood cells
[C] antigen-antibody reactions
[D] Amylose
[D] se ries of enzyme controlle d
reactions
32. Which of the following is one of the
parts of the hindbrain? 37. Name the event wherein the paternal
and maternal chromosomes change
[A] Hypothalamus
their material with each other in cell
[B] Cerebellum division.
[A] Crossing over
[C] Corpus callosum
[B] Synapsis
[D] Spinal cord
[C] Dyad forming
[D] Bivalent forming
33. The synaptic ve sicles, a
neuromuscular junction discharges 38. Which of these substances is
[A] adrenaline transported by the blood plasma?
[A] Carbon dioxide
[B] epinephrine
[B] Nitrogenous waste
[C] acetylcholine [C] Food
[D] None of the above [D] All of the above
39. Which of the following techniques is
34. The sequence of the structural genes
used to de te rmine the protein
in the lac operon is
structures?
[A] lacA-lacZ-lacY [A] X-ray crystallography
[B] lacZ-lacY-lacA [B] Kryptonics X-ray vision
[C] Magnetic Resonance Imaging
[C] lacZ-lacA-lacY (MRI)
[D] lacA-lacY-lacZ [D] None of the above
AUAT-2024/127 -A 5 [ P.T.O.
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40. Which of the following is an example 45. Which central tendency is most
of Homology and similarity tool? affected by outliers?
[A] BLAST [A] Mean
[B] RasMol [B] Median
[C] EMBOSS [C] Mode
[D] PROSPECT [D] Range
41. Ovum receives the sperm in the region 46. An exception to Mendel’s law is
of
[A] independent assortment
[A] vegetal pole
[B] linkage
[B] equator
[C] dominance
[C] animal pole
[D] purity of gametes
[D] pigmented area
47. Homozygosity and heterozygosity of
42. Which of the following cells of the
an individual can be determined by
immune system do not perform
phagocytosis? [A] test cross
[A] Macrophage [B] back cross
[B] Neutrophil [C] self-fertilization
[C] Eosinophil [D] All of the above
[D] Basophil
48. The traditional system of brackish
43. Lac operon will be turned on when water aquaculture in West Bengal is
known as
[A] lactose is less than glucose
[A] Gheris
[B] lactose is less in the medium
[B] Kharlands
[C] lactose is more than glucose
[C] Pokkali fields
[D] glucose is enough in the medium
[D] Bheris
44. B cells mature in the _____ while
T cells mature in the _____. 49. Predatory fish is
[A] thymus and bone marrow [A] Catla
[B] spleen and bone marrow [B] Rohu
[C] bone marrow and thymus [C] Mrigal
[D] liver and kidneys [D] Seenghala
AUAT-2024/127 -A 6
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50. Which species is used for production 55. The endocrine gland responsible for
of marine pearls? the body’s circadian rhythm is the
[A] C. Madrasensis [A] thymus gland
[B] Perna viridis [B] pineal gland
[C] Pinctada fucata [C] parathyroid gland
[D] pituitary gland
[D] Paphia textile
56. Which of the following processes does
51. Apis dorsata is used to refer to
not occur in prokaryotes?
[A] rock bee [A] Transcription
[B] Indian bee [B] Splicing
[C] European bee [C] Translation
[D] little bee [D] Replication
52. Silk contains a protein known as 57. Which is responsible for the sticky
ends in the DNA fragment?
[A] casein
[A] Calcium ions
[B] fibroin
[B] Endonuclease
[C] sericin
[C] Unpaired bases
[D] Both [B] and [C]
[D] Free methylation
53. The bee carries the pollen back to its 58. Which of the following is not a
colony on characteristic of arthropods?
[A] its body [A] Presence of an exoskeleton
[B] its middle legs [B] Presence of jointed appendages
[C] its front legs [C] Presence of a neural spine
[D] its rear legs [D] Presence of a segmented body
54. What does a high BOD value mean? 59. Which is the most abundant protein
in animals?
[A] Pure form of water
[A] Albumin
[B] Low pollution rate of water
[B] Collagen
[C] High pollution rate of water
[C] Haemoglobin
[D] None of the above [D] Cellulose
AUAT-2024/127 -A 7 [ P.T.O.
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60. An environmental stimulus that can 65. The most common plasmid vector used
be used to entrain an endogenous in genetic engineering is
clock is called [A] PBR 328
[A] Zeitgeber [B] PBR 322
[B] Zugunruhe [C] PBR 325
[D] PBR 330
[C] Key stimulus
[D] Circadian rhythm 66. Which of the following was India’s first
Biosphere Reserve?
61. The honey bees exhibit a type of [A] Sundarbans
dance to communicate the location [B] Nanda Devi
of food. This is known as [C] Nilgiri
[A] Waggle dance [D] Pachmarhi
[B] Tap dance
67. The functional unit of muscle
[C] Round dance and waggle dance contraction is
[D] Breakdance [A] A-band
[B] Myofibril
62. The inherited behavior is called [C] H-band
[D] Sarcomere
[A] imprinting
[B] learning 68. Which of the following works as
bioindicator of e nvironme ntal
[C] maturation
pollution?
[D] instinct [A] Diatoms
[B] Coral Reefs
63. The posterior pituitary stores and [C] Fishes
releases
[D] Lichens
[A] growth hormone and prolactin
69. The non-cellular membrane of human
[B] prolactin and oxytocin
ovum is called
[C] oxytocin and Antidiure tic [A] zona pellucida
Hormone (ADH)
[B] zona radiate
[D] ADH and growth hormone [C] membrana granulosa
[D] vitelline membrane
64. Which of the following is called the
resting and inactive stage in the 70. Two bones can be connected to each
insect life cycle? other by which of the following
[A] The egg stage connective tissues?
[A] Tendon
[B] The larva stage
[B] Ligament
[C] The pupa stage [C] Cartilage
[D] The adult stage [D] All of the above
AUAT-2024/127 -A 8
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PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. Alhamdulillah means 76. Mother of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)
died when he was _____ year(s) old.
"àºÒೃå[ºÀàÒ &¹ "=¢
šÚK´¬¹ ³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.) ³àtõ¡Òà¹à Ò> _____ ¤á¹
[A] Praise be to Allah
¤ÚìΡú
[B] Glory be to Allah
[A] 1
[C] Allah is almighty
[B] 3
[D] Allah is the most gracious
[C] 6
72. As per Islam, which of the following is [D] 12
true about intoxicants?
77. Which of the following is a festival of
Òüκೠ">åÎàì¹ ³àƒA¡‰ì¤¸¹ ¤¸àšàì¹ ëA¡à>ô ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ sacrifice?
Î[k¡A¡? [>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ t¡¸àìK¹ l¡ü;Τ?
[A] Totally allowed [A] Laylat al-Qadr
[B] Marginally allowed [B] Muharram
[C] Marginally forbidden [C] Eid al-Fitr
[D] Strongly forbidden [D] Eid al-Adha
73. The Holy Qur’an is revealed 78. The first woman martyr in Islam is
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ "¤t¡ão¢ ÒìÚìá Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] at a time [A] Asma
[B] Nusaybah
[B] over a period of 12 years
[C] Al-Khansa
[C] over a period of 23 years
[D] Sumayyah
[D] over a period of 32 years
79. Hijri calendar is enumerated from the
74. The saying ‘Cleanliness is half of faith’ time of
is made by
ëA¡à>ô Î³Ú ë=ìA¡ [Ò\[¹ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ Ko>à A¡¹à ÒÚ?
‘ š[¤yt¡à #³àì>¹ "ì‹¢A¡’ &Òü l¡ü[v¡û¡[i¡ A¡ì¹ìá>
[A] birth of Prophet Muhammad
[A] Prophet Muhammad
[B] migration of Prophet Muhammad
[B] Hazrat Umar to Madinah
[C] Ibn Taymiyya [C] journey of Prophet Muhammad
[D] Imam Bukhari into heaven
[D] death of Prophet Muhammad
75. The prayer at the noon is called
80. Islam acknowledges
ƒåšåì¹¹ >à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ ÒüκೠѬãAõ¡[t¡ ëƒÚ
[A] Fajr [A] only the last Prophet
[B] Zuhr [B] only the last four Prophets
[C] Asar [C] only the last ten Prophets
[D] Isha [D] all the Prophets
AUAT-2024/127 -A 9 [ P.T.O.
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81. On which day Muslims pray Jummah 86. Which Country is called the ‘Land of
Prayer? Prophets’?
ëA¡à>ô [ƒì> ³åκ³à>¹à \å³à¹ >à³à™ šìØl¡? ëA¡à>ô ëƒÅìA¡ ‘>¤ã샹 ëƒÅ’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] Sunday [A] Saudi Arabia
[B] Saturday [B] Syria
[C] Tuesday [C] Palestine
[D] Iraq
[D] Friday
87. Which word is mentioned most times
82. The term Waqf refers to _____.
in the Holy Qur’an?
*ÚàA¡ó¡ Ŧ[i¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ _____¡ú ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ ëA¡à>ô Ŧ[i¡ ΤìW¡ìÚ ë¤[Å ¤à¹
[A] Bill of exchange l¡üìÀJ A¡¹à ÒìÚìá?
[B] What is due to the State treasury? [A] Qul
[C] Promissory note [B] Allah
[D] Charitable foundation or trust [C] Rahman
–
[D] Amana
83. The Arabic term Haq means
88. What is the name of the fountain
"à¹[¤ Ŧ ÒA¡ &¹ "=¢ Òìºà which each person of paradise will
[A] legal rights drink before entering?
[B] credit proposal \àÄàìt¡ šøìt¡¸A¡ ¤¸[v¡û¡ šøì¤ìŹ šè줢 ë™ c¡o¢à¹ \º
[C] taking full responsibility šà> A¡¹ì¤ t¡à¹ >à³ [A¡?
[D] kind of sale [A] Zamzam
[B] Kawsar
84. How many gates of Jannah are there?
[C] Tasneem
\àÄàìt¡¹ ƒ¹\à A¡Ú[i¡? [D] None of the above
[A] Six
89. How many times does ‘Bismillah’
[B] Seven repeat in the Holy Qur’an?
[C] Eight ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>’ A¡t¡¤à¹ ‘[¤Î[³ÀàÒ’ &ìÎìá?
[D] Nine [A] 112
85. Name the Angel who was appointed to [B] 113
deliver messages to Prophet [C] 114
Muhammad (SAW) from Allah (SWT)? [D] None of the above
"àÀàÒ¹ (Îå¤àÒà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà) šÛ¡ ë=ìA¡ >¤ã 90. Which is the longest Surah in the Holy
³åÒà´¶ƒ(Îà.)-&¹ A¡àìá ¤àt¢¡à ëš]ìá ëƒ*Ú๠\>¸ Qur’an?
[>™åv¡û¡ ëó¡ì¹Åt¡à¹ >à³ [A¡? ‘š[¤y A塹"àì>¹’ ƒãQ¢t¡³ Îè¹à ëA¡à>[i¡?
[A] Jibreel (AS) [A] Surah Al - Maidha
[B] Mikael (AS) [B] Surah An - Nisa
[C] Israfil (AS) [C] Surah Al - Imran
[D] Azrael (AS) [D] Surah Al - Baqarah
AUAT-2024/127 -A 10
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91. The study of various aspects of ageing 96. Who is called the first female teacher
is called of India?
[A] Psephology ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ ³[Òºà [ÅÛ¡A¡ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Chronology [A] Sarojini Naidu
[C] Gerontology [B] Savitribai Phule
[D] Entomology [C] Rani Lakshmibai
[D] None of them
92. The fear of being without your mobile
phone is called 97. Mount Etna is a famous volcano
[A] Philophobia located in
[B] Claustrophobia ³àl¡ü@i¡ &i¡>à &A¡[i¡ [¤J¸àt¡ "àìN¥Ú[K[¹ "¤[Ñ‚t¡
[C] Ophidiophobia [A] Argentina
[D] Nomophobia [B] Italy
[C] Mexico
93. His courage won him honour. Identify [D] Philippines
the type of the underlined noun.
[A] Proper 98. The Battle of Kalinga was fought in
[B] Collective the year
[C] Abstract A¡[ºìU¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[D] Common [A] 540 BC
[B] 320 AC
94. Fill in the blank with the correct [C] 440 BC
alternative. [D] 261 BC
When I met her _____ years after, she
looked old and haggard. 99. In which year the First World War was
[A] a few fought?
[B] the few šø=³ [¤Å¬™å‡ý¡ A¡t¡ Îàìº Î}Q[i¡t¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[C] few [A] 1917 – 1920
[D] some [B] 1914 – 1918
[C] 1912 – 1916
95. Choose the correct alternative from [D] 1910 – 1914
the given sentences :
[A] Those never fail who dies in great 100. Which country is the largest tea
cause producer in the world?
[B] They never fail who die in a great [¤ìŬ¹ ¤õÒv¡³ W¡à l¡ü;šàƒ>A¡à¹ã ëƒÅ ëA¡à>[i¡?
cause
[A] India
[C] They never fails who dies in a
[B] China
great cause
[C] Bhutan
[D] They never fails who die in a
great cause [D] Nepal
AUAT-2024/127 -A 11 [ P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024/127 -A 12 NNN24(141)—24×4
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