CBSE Class 10 Question Paper 2026 Solution Social Science

FOR CBSE CLASS 10 EXAM PREPARATION

CBSE Class 10 2026
Question Paper
Solution · Social
Science
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

CBSE Class 10 2026 Question Paper Solution Social Science

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Strictly Confidential
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(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2026 (X) a
SOCIAL SCIENCE. (087) (Q.P. CODE /Set No 32/1/1)

General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems
which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand
the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
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2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, evaluation done and several other aspects. Its leakage to
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public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the
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life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in Newspaper/Website, etc. may invite action ag
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under various rules of the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be
done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme
should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers
which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be
assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In Class-
X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand given
answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

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The question paper has been divided into four (04) sections i.e. Section-A, Section-B,

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Section-C and Section-D. Section- A is History, Section-B is Geography, Section-C is

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Political Science and Section-D is Economics.

la in 04 sections in Social Science for writing
1. Students will divide the answer g
answers.2. Replies of questionsa
book
are to be written only within the space identified for the
concerned section only.3. Reply of a section should not be written or mixed in any other
section.4. In case, if replies are mixed, these will not be evaluated, and no marks will be
awarded.5. Such mistakes will not be accepted and addressed even during verification or
revaluation process after the results are declared.

5 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The
students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should

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be awarded accordingly.

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6 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator
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on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in

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the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after deliberation and
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discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after

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ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.

ag 7 Evaluators will mark ( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X’ be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓) while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which
evaluators are committing.
8 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
9 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
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10 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
11 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only
once.
12 A full scale of marks 80_ (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper)
has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.

13 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every
day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in
other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus
and number of questions in question paper.

14 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner
in the past :-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is
correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect
answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
15 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be
marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks.
16 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned,
it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.

17 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for
Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
18 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to
the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
19 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment
of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners
are once again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per
value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

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`MARKING SCHEME
Social Science (Subject Code- 087)
(PAPER CODE: 32/1/1) 2026 Set 1
Maximum Marks 80

Q. EXPECTED VALUE POINTS Page Marks
No. No.
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1. (C)
s eII,mIV, I and III 31, 32, 1la

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2. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation 55 1
of (A).
3. (D) Raja Ravi Verma 123 1
(For Visually Impaired Candidates only.)
(D) Punjab 125 1
4. (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak – Kesari 127 1
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5. (A) How had globalization begun long before sixteenth 54 2x1= 2
century? Explain.
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(i) Globalization primarilyla
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began through the Silk route.
(ii) Globalization spread
exchange.
(iii)The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-
modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of
the world.
(iv) Historians have identified several silk routes, over land
and by sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and
linking Asia with Europe and Northern Africa.
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(v) Early Christian missionaries travelled this route to Asia,
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as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.
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a (vii) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.

OR
(B) How did trade help to spread diseases during the pre-
modern world? Explain. 55 2x1= 2

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(i) The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors
was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was
the germs such as those of smallpox that they carried
on their person.
(ii) Because of their long isolation America’s original
inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases
that came from Europe.
(iii) Smallpox in particular proved a deadly killer. Once
introduced, it spread deep into the continent.
(iv) Ahead of even any Europeans reaching there, it killed
and decimated whole communities, paving the way for
conquest.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.
6. (A) Explain the role of Johann Gutenberg in the spread 109 3x1= 3
of print culture in Europe.
(i) Gutenberg learnt the art of polishing stones, became a
master goldsmith and also acquired the knowledge to
create the moulds for making trinkets.
(ii) Drawing on this knowledge he adopted the existing
technology to design his innovation.
(iii) The first book he printed was the Bible and 180 copies
were printed.
(iv) Printing press grew and book production boomed in
Europe
(v) His innovation led to the Print Revolution.
(vi) Protestant Revolution and reading mania are significant
outcomes of Print Revolution.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
Any three points to be explained.
OR 112 3x1= 3
(B) Explain the role of print in the expansion of Protestant
reformation.
(i) The religious reformer Martin Luther wrote ‘Ninety-
Five Theses’ criticising many of the practices and
rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.
(ii) A printed copy of this was posted on a church door in
Wittenberg. It challenged the Church to debate his
ideas.
(iii) Luther’s writings were immediately reproduced in
large number and read widely.
(iv) This led to a division within the Church and to the
beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

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a sold many
(v) Luther’s translation of the New Testament
copies within a few weeks and a second edition
appeared within three months.
(vi) Print brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and
helped spread the new ideas that led to the
Reformation.
(vii) Deeply grateful to print Luther said, ‘Printing is the
ultimate gift of god and the greatest one.'
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(viii) Any other relevant point.
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Any three points to be explained.
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(A) “The formation of the British Nation-State was
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different from the rest of Europe.” Justify the statement
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with suitable arguments.

(i) In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the
result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. It was the
result of a long-drawn-out process. There was no
British nation prior to the eighteenth century.
(ii) The primary identities of the people who inhabited the
British Isles were ethnic ones- such as English, Welsh,
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Scot or Irish.
(iii) The English parliament, which had seized power from
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the monarchy at the end of a protracted conflict, was
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the instrument through which a nation-state, with
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England at its centre, came to be forged.
(iv) The Act of Union between England and Scotland that
resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of
Great Britain’ meant, in effect, that England was able
to impose its influence on Scotland.
(v) Ireland suffered a similar fate. It was a country deeply
divided between Catholics and Protestants.
(vi) The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to
establish their dominance over a largely Catholic m
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m .co (vii) After a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone and his United
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s e Irishmen, Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the
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a (viii) The symbol of the new Britain-the British flag (Union
Jack), the national anthem (God Save Our Noble
King), the English language were actively promoted
and the older nations survived only as subordinate
partners in this union.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
OR
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(B) “Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century 9 5x1=5
Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism.”
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

(i) Liberalism derived from the Latin word Liber, means
free.
(ii) For the new middle classes liberalism stood for
freedom for the individual and equality of all before
the law.
(iii) Politically, it emphasised the concept of government
by consent.
(iv) Since the French Revolution, liberalism had stood for
the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a
constitution and representative government through
parliament.
(v) In revolutionary France, the right to vote and to get
elected was granted exclusively to property-owning
men.
(vi) Men without property and all women were excluded
from political rights. Only for a brief period under the
Jacobins did all adult males enjoy suffrage.
(vii) In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the
freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed
restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
(viii) These ideas resulted in the formation of institution
called Zollverin or a custom union. It was a symbol of
economic liberalism.
(ix) Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be justified.
8. Read the given source carefully and answer the questions 41 1+1+2=
that follow: 4
‘To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense.’

Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through
non-violence. In the year 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was
founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi. Amongst its leaders were
Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh. In a series of dramatic actions in different parts
of India, the HSRA targeted some of the symbols of British power. In April 1929, Bhagat
Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly. In the same year
there was an attempt to blow up the train that Lord Irwin was travelling in. Bhagat Singh
was 23 when he was tried and executed by the colonial government. During his trial,
Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the cult of the bomb and pistol’ but
wanted a revolution in society –
‘Revolution is the inalienable right of mankind. Freedom is the imprescriptible birthright
of all. The labourer is the real sustainer of society. To the altar of this revolution we
have brought your youth as incense, for no sacrifice is too great for so magnificent a
cause. We are content. We await the advent of revolution. Inquilab Zindabad!’

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8.1 Why is the formation of ‘Hindustan Socialist
Republican Army (HSRA)’ considered as a turning point
in the freedom struggle of India? 1
(i) Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the
British could not be won through non-violence.
(ii) It led to the rise of new leadership of young
revolutionaries.
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(iii) It helped to spread of nationalist spirit.
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(iv) It fuelled national sentiments and gave rise to patriotic
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fervour.
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(v)
s e Any other relevant point.
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a8.2 How did Bhagat Singh’s trial speeches transform him
from a revolutionary to a philosopher of freedom? 1

(i) Bhagat Singh stated that he did not wish to glorify ‘the
cult of the bomb and pistol’ but wanted a revolution.
(ii) Bhagat Singh’s broader vision of team formation
(Socio-Pol-Cultural) brought revolution in the society.
(iii) He wanted radical changes in society.
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(iv) He glorified nationalism against colonial power.
(v) His speeches discussed the ideas of freedom, justice and
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social equality, expressing philosophical ideas linked to
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(vi) Any other relevant point. a
Any one point to be explained.

8.3 In what way did Bhagat Singh redefine the meaning of
‘revolution’ for his generation? Explain. 2x1=2
(i) He considered revolution as the inalienable right of
humans.
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(ii) He considered freedom as the imprescriptible birth
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right of all.
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(iv) He wanted the advent of revolution. ag
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spirit of Indians for freedom.
(vi) Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained.

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9. (Please see attached map.) 32 2x1=2
Note: The following questions are for the Visually
Impaired Candidates only in lieu of question
number 9:
(A) Name the place where General Dyer ordered
1
firing upon a peaceful gathering on 13 April,
1919.
Jallianwala Bagh /Amritsar

(B) Name the place where the Session of Indian 1
National Congress was held in the year 1927.

Madras /Chennai

Section – B 20
Geography
10. (B) Laterite Soil 9 1
11. (C) Uttarakhand 16 1
12. (C) I -(c), II-(d), III-(a), IV-(b) 30, 31 1
13. (C) Non-Ferrous Minerals 43, 44 1
14. (D) Physical and Human factors 4 1
15. (B) Manas – Assam 15 1
16. Suggest any two measures for better productivity and 38 2x1=2
organic farming.
(i) Use of organic manure and compost improves soil
fertility
(ii) Provides essential nutrients to crops naturally.
(iii) Growing different crops in sequence help to reduce
pests.
(iv) Biological pest control by using natural predators and
bio-pesticides protects crops without harmful
chemicals.
(v) Practice crop rotation to increase productivity of soil.
(vi) Integrating Drip irrigation.
(vii) Mulching.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
Any two points to be explained.

17. (A) “Energy saved is energy produced.” Justify the 55 5x1=5
statement with suitable arguments.

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(i) When we save electricity, it reducesathe need to
generate more power in power plants. Therefore, saving
energy works like producing new energy.
(ii) Energy resources such as coal, petroleum, and natural
gas are exhaustible. By saving energy, we conserve
these valuable natural resources for the future.
(iii) Energy conservation reduces the cost of electricity
generation and helps the country save money.
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(iv) Saving energy also reduces pressure on power stations
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and prevents electricity shortages.
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(v) Simple habits like switching off lights, fans, and
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electrical appliances when not in use can save a large
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a (vi) Energy conservation is very important because every
unit of energy saved is equal to a unit of energy
produced.
(vii) Some other measures to save energies are
a) Use power saving device.
b) Using public transport.
c) Use car-pooling.
(viii) We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious
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use of our limited energy resources.
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(ix) Shift to non-conventional sources of energy will lead to
sustainable development. s e
(x) Any other relevant point.
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Any five points to be justified.

OR

(B) “Electricity has a wide range of applications in today’s
world that its per capita consumption is considered as an 52 5x1=5
index of development.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.
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(i) Electricity is widely used to run machines and
m equipment in industries such as iron and steel, textiles, s e
s e chemicals and engineering for industrial development.
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a agricultural machinery, which helps increase
agricultural production.
(iii) Electricity is used in households for lighting, heating,
cooling, cooking and running electrical appliances.
(iv) Many modern transport systems such as electric trains
and metro railways depend on electricity.
(v) Electricity is essential for telecommunication networks,
television, radio, computers and internet services.
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(vi) Commercial activities like offices, markets, banks,
hotels and shopping centres require electricity for daily
operations.
(vii) Schools, colleges, hospitals and laboratories depend on
electricity for lighting, equipment and technology.
(viii) Greater availability and use of electricity improve
people’s comfort, productivity and quality of life.
(ix) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be justified.

18. Read the given source carefully and answer the questions 25 1+1+2=
that follow: 4
FLOODS
Basic safety precautions to be taken:
 Listen to radio/TV for the latest weather bulletins and flood warnings. Pass on
the information to others.
 Make a family emergency kit which should include, a portable radio/transistor,
torch, spare batteries, a first aid box along with essential medicines, ORS, dry
food items, drinking water, matchboxes, candles and other essential items.
 Keep hurricane lamp, ropes, rubber tubes, umbrella and bamboo stick in your
house. These could be useful.
 Keep your cash, jewellery, valuables, important documents etc. in a safe place.
 If there is a flood, move along with your family members and cattle to safe
areas like relief camps, evacuation cents, elevated grounds where you can take
shelter.
 Turn off power and gas connections before leaving your house.
During Floods
 Don’t enter into flood waters; it could be dangerous.
 Don’t allow children to play in or near flood waters.
 Stay away from sewerage line, gutters, drains, culverts etc.
 Be careful of snakes; snakebites are common during floods.
 Stay away from electric poles and fallen power-lines to avoid electrocution.
 Don’t use wet electrical appliances, get them checked before use.
 Eat freshly cooked and dry food. Always keep your food covered.
 Use boiled and filtered drinking water.
 Keep all drains, gutters and around your house clean.
 Stagnation of water can breed vector/water-borne diseases. In case of
sickness, seek medical assistance.
 Use bleaching powder and lime to disinfect the surroundings.

18.1 Suggest one precaution before using water after
floods. 1
(i) Boil the water before drinking.
(ii) Drink filtered water.
(iii) Disinfect the water.
(iv) Use clean and covered containers.
(v) Any other relevant point.

Any one point to be mentioned.

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18.2 Mention any two measures related to protection of
food items during floods. ½+½=1

(i) Eat freshly cooked and dry food.
(ii) Always keep your food covered.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
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Any two points to be mentioned.
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. two actions to be taken before leaving the
18.3 Suggest
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housesduring 2x1=2 l a
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a and flood warnings.
(ii) Make a family emergency kit.
(iii) Pass on the information to others.
(iv) Keep your cash, jewellery, valuables, important
documents etc. in a safe place.
(v) If there is a flood, move along with your family
members and cattle to safe areas like relief camps,
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evacuation cents, elevated grounds where you can
take shelter.
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(vi) Turn off power and gas connections before leaving
your house. las
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(vii) Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained.

19. (Please see attached map.) 1+1+1=
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 3
Candidates only in lieu of question number 19.
Attempt any three questions: m
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m 19.1 Name the dam which is located on Mahanadi river.
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Hirakud dam
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g la in Uttar Pradesh.
Narora a
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is located in Maharashtra.
Pune / Mumbai
19.4 Name the place where major sea port is located in 1
Gujarat.
Kandla

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Section – C 20
Political Science
20. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 2 1
21. (C) Multitasking and Dedication 31 1
(For Visually Impaired Candidates only.)
(C) Feminism 32 1

22. (A) Indian National Congress and Communist Party of 54 -56 1
India (M)
23. (B) I, III and IV are correct. 24 1
24. Explain any two features of federalism. 15 2x1=2

(i) There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
(ii) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens,
but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters
of legislation, taxation and administration.
(iii) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of
government are specified in the constitution. So, the
existence and authority of each tier of government is
constitutionally guaranteed.
(iv) The fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot
be unilaterally changed by one level of government.
Such changes require the consent of both the levels of
government.
(v) Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and
the powers of different levels of government.
(vi) Sources of revenue for each level of government are
clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
(vii) The federal system has dual objectives: to safeguard
and promote unity of the country, while at the same
time accommodate regional diversity.
(viii) Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained.

25. Explain any two Constitutional provisions that make India 37, 38 2x1=2
a secular nation.

(i) There is no official religion for the Indian state.
(ii) The Constitution provides to all individuals and
communities freedom to profess, practice and
propagate any religion.
(iii) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on
grounds of religion.

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(iv) a
The Constitution allows the state to intervene in
the matters of religion in order to ensure equality
within religious communities. For example, it bans
untouchability.
(v) Any other relevant point.

Any two points to be explained.
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"Political parties perform a series of functions in the 48, 49 3x1=3 .co
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democracy." Explain the statement with examples.
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(i) a Parties contest elections.
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a(iii) They group a variety of public opinions into a few
(ii)

basic positions, providing direction for government
policy-making.
(iv) Parties play a decisive role in making laws.
(v) Parties recruit leaders, train them, and make them
ministers to run the government.
(vi) Parties that lose elections act as the opposition. They
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voice alternative views, criticise government failures
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or wrong policies and mobilise public opinion against
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government decisions when necessary.
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(vii) Parties raise and highlight issues, often launching
movement. They help to crystallise societal opinions
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along the lines parties support.
(viii) Parties help people access government machinery and
benefit from welfare schemes implemented by the
government.
(ix) Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

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. 66 5x1=5
c. o 27. (A) "The blend of accountability, responsiveness and m65,
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a g
ag (i) Democracy ensures that citizens have the power to
elect their representatives and control the rulers
through participation in elections.
(ii) A basic outcome of democracy is that the government
is accountable to the citizens.
(iii) Citizens can question decisions and procedures are
followed before decisions are made.
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(iv) Democratic governments aim to be responsive to the
needs and expectations of the people.
(v) Citizens have the right and means to examine how
decisions are taken, ensuring that government actions
are transparent.
(vi) Democracy develops institutions and processes that
allow citizens to participate in decision-making.
(vii) Democracy is considered a legitimate government
because it is people’s own government, chosen by
them.
(viii) Practices such as free and fair elections, open public
debate, and citizens’ right to information strengthen
the accountability, responsiveness and legitimacy of
the government.
(ix) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be examined.

OR
(B) "Dignity and freedom of the citizens are the essence of 71, 72 5x1=5
democracy." Examine the statement.

(i) Democracy promotes dignity and freedom of the
individual.
(ii) The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of
democracy.
(iii) Respect to and equal treatment of women are
necessary ingredients of a democratic society.
(iv) Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the
disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal
status and equal opportunity.
(v) It makes ordinary citizens value their democratic
rights.
(vi) It transforms people from the status of a subject into
that of a citizen.
(vii) It provides a method to resolve conflict.
(viii) It promotes equality among citizens.
(ix) Democracy guarantees rights of citizens.
(x) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be examined.

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28. Read the given source carefully and answer a
the questions 9 1+1+2=
that follow: 4
POWER SHARING
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties,
pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy,
the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power. In
contemporary democracies, this takes the form of competition among different parties.
Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand. In the long run,

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power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies

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and social groups. Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or more

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parties form an alliance to contest elections. If their alliance is elected, they form a

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coalition government and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest groups,
such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers.
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They also will have a share in governmental power, either through participation in
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governmental committees or bringing influence on the decision-making process.

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a28.1 How do pressure groups influence the government?
1
(i) Pressure groups represent different ideologies and
social groups in governmental committees.
(ii) They create awareness among public about certain
programs.
(iii) They influence decision making process.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
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Any one point to be explained.
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28.2 How do social groups benefit from power sharing? 1
s
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(i)
a
Protection of interests
such as linguistic and cultural groups.
(ii) Fair representation of minors.
(iii)Reduces conflict.
(iv) Ensures stability.
(v) Socially weaker section and women are represented
in the legislature and administration.
(vi) The system of reserved constituencies in the State
Assemblies and the Parliament of our country give m
m space to diverse social groups in the government. .co
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s e m
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g l a
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a sharing process. (2x1=2)

(i) Participate in governmental committees and branches.
(ii) Influence the decision-making process.
(iii) Participation in interest groups or civil society
organizations.
(iv) Monitor government actions.
(v) Any other relevant point.
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Any two point to be explained.

Section – D 20
Economics
29. (C) 82 12 1
30. (C) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) 33, 34 1
31. (B) Nearest nationalised bank 43 1
32. (C) Removal of restriction on trade 64 1
33. (D) United Nations Development Program 13 1
34. (A) 7 years 10 1
35. "New technology has helped the world to become 62, 63 3x1=3
connected." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

(i) Rapid improvement in technology has stimulated the
globalisation process.
(ii) Improvements in transportation technology made
much faster delivery of goods across long distances
possible at lower costs.
(iii) Developments in information and communication
technology especially in telecommunications,
computers, and the Internet help to access information
instantly.
(iv) It is used to contact one another around the world, to
access information and to communicate from remote
areas.
(v) Satellite communication devices have facilitated
global communication and information sharing.
(vi) Computers have now entered almost every field of
activity, making information management and
communication easier.
(vii) The Internet allows us to obtain and share information
on almost anything, send instant electronic mail (e-
mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at
negligible costs.
(viii) Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be justified.

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a sources of 48, 49
36. Differentiate between formal and informal 3x1=3
credit.

Formal sources of credit Informal sources of credit
(i) The Reserve Bank (i) There is no
of India supervises organisation which
the functioning supervises the
of formal sources informal credit m
of loans.
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(ii) These sources
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(ii) These sources charge
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s echarge a minimal a much higher
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(iii) Low cost of
interest on loans.
(iii) High cost of
ag
a borrowing. borrowing.
(iv) Chances of debt (iv) May lead to debt trap.
trap is low.
(v) The formal sources (v) The informal sources
are loans from are moneylenders,
banks and traders, employers,
cooperatives. relatives and friends.
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(vi) Any other relevant (vi) Any other relevant
point.
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point.
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Any three points of difference
a
37. Why is sustainable development essential? Explain with 14, 15, 3x1=3
examples. 16

(i) Sustainable development is environment friendly
economic development.
(ii) It is essential to conserve resources for future
generation.
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m (iii) Resources are to be utilized in consonance with their
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availability.
m (iv) Present requirements are to be managed in sustainable s e
s e and judicious manner.
g l a
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a scientists are working together for sustainable
development.
(vi) Groundwater is an example of renewable resources.
These resources are replenished by nature as in the
case of crops and plants.
(vii) Our future is linked with essential resources are
getting depleted at a fast rate.

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(viii) Any other relevant point.

Any three points to be explained.

38. (A) Describe the efforts done by the Indian government to 29 5x1=5
increase employment in rural areas.

(i) The central government in India made a law
implementing the Right to Work.
(ii) It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005).
Now it is known as Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika
to Mission (Gramin) or VB-GRAM G ACT,2025.
(iii) Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and
are in need of, work in rural areas are guaranteed 100
days of employment in a year by the government.
(iv) It is the duty of the government to provide
employment, otherwise it will give unemployment
allowances to the people.
(v) The types of work that would in future help to increase
the production from land will be given preference under
the Act.
(vi) Under the Viksit Bharat Guarantee for Rural
Employment and Livelihood Mission Act, 2025 (VB G
RAM G Act, 2025), a guarantee of 125 days of
employment is provided.
(vii) Agricultural development has been done to generate
employment.
(viii) Any other relevant point.

Any five points to be described.

OR
(B) Describe the rising importance of Tertiary Sector in 24, 25 5x1=5
India.

(i) Over the forty-years of period, production grew in all
three sectors, but the tertiary sector experienced the
highest growth.
(ii) The tertiary sector has emerged as the largest sector in
India replacing the primary sector.
(iii) In any country several services such as hospitals,
educational institutions, post and telegraph services,
police stations, courts, village administrative offices,
municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks,

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insurance companies, etc. are required. aThese can be
considered as basic services.
(iv) In a developing country the government has to take
responsibility for the provision of these services.
(v) As income levels rise, certain sections of people start
demanding many more services like eating out,
tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools,
professional training etc.
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(vi) Certain new services such as those based on
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information and communication technology have
s e m
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become important and essential. The production of
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these services has been rising rapidly.
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(vii) Any other relevant point.
a
Any five points to be described.
Note : Please see map for answers to question number 9 and
19 .

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