AUAT 2024 Question Paper M.Tech in Civil Engineering

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Tech. in Civil Engineering (P21)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )

Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours

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Date of Examination : _______________________________________

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contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).

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AUAT-2024 /116 -A

PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. The figure is a pin jointed plane truss 3. If at section away from the ends of the
loaded at point C by hanging a weight beam, M represents the bending
of 1200 kN. The member DB of the moment, V the shear force, w the
truss is subjected to a load of intensity of loading and y represents
the deflection of the beam at the
section, then

dM
(i) V
dx

dV
(ii) w
dx

dw
(iii) y
dx
[A] zero
Choose the correct option from the
above statements.
[B] 500 kN in compression
[A] (i) and (ii) are correct
[C] 1200 kN in compression
[B] (i) and (iii) are correct

[D] 1200 kN intension [C] (ii) and (iii) are correct

[D] (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
2. A steel pipe is to be used to support
a load of 150 kN. Pipes having outside 4. What is the height of centroid from
diameter of 101·6 mm are available the base of a solid hemisphere with
in different thickness of 3 mm, radius R ?
3·5 mm, 3·65 mm and 3·85 mm.
Assuming a factor of safety of 1·8,
choose the most economical R
[A]
thickness. (Yield stress = 205 N/mm2) 8

[A] 3 mm 3R
[B]
8

[B] 3·5 mm
R
[C]
4
[C] 3·65 mm
R
[D]
[D] 3·85 mm 3

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 2

5. For a triangular section of a beam, the 7. For the simple supported beam loaded
maximum shear stress occurs at the as shown in the given figure,
determine slope at B and deflection at
C by area moment method. (Flexural
rigidity = EI ).
[A] one-fourth height of the mid

[B] neutral axis of the beam section

[C] mid height of the beam section

[D] base of the beam section PL3
[A] Slope at B  , deflection at
48EI

PL2
C
16EI

6. A closed thin-walled tube has
thickness t, mean enclosed area
PL4
within the boundary of the centerline [B] Slope at B  , deflection at
48EI
of tube’s thickness Am and shear stress
. Torsional moment of resistance T, of PL3
the section would be C
16EI

[A] 2Amt
PL2
[C] Slope at B  , deflection at
16EI

PL3
C
[B] 4Amt 48EI

[C]  Amt
PL3
[D] Slope at B  , deflection at
16EI

PL4
[D] 0·5Amt C
48EI
AUAT-2024 /116 -A 3 [ P.T.O.

8. Euler’s critical buckling load for a 10. The state of stress represented by
column fixed at one end and free at Mohr’s circle shown in figure is
the other end is

2EI
[A]
L2

2EI
[B]
2L2

[A] uniaxial section
2
 EI [B] pure shear
[C] 2
4L [C] biaxial tension of equal
magnitude
[D] hydrostatic stress
42EI
[D]
L2 11. A weightless cantilever beam of span
L is loaded as shown in figure. For the
entire beam, the material properties
9. A beam with flexural rigidity EI is are identical and the cross-section is
loaded as shown in the following figure : rectangular with constant width.

From the flexure-critical perspective, the
most economical longitudinal profile of
the beam to carry the given loads
Stain energy stored in the beam is amongst the options given below, is

2P 2L3
[A] [A]
3EI

5P 2L3
[B] [B]
6EI

4P 2L3
[C] [C]
3EI

7P 2L3
[D]
6EI [D]

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 4

12. A prismatic beam is shown in the figure 15. A symmetrical three-hinged parabolic
given below : arch of span L and rise h is hinged at
springing and crown. It is subjected to
a UDL w throughout the span. What is
the bending moment at a section L/4
from the left support?

WL2
[A]
8
Relate the figure with following options
and choose the correct answer : WL2
[B]
[A] The structure is unstable 16
[B] The structure is stable and
determinate WL3
[C]
[C] The structure is unstable but 8h
determinate [D] 0
[D] The structure is stable and
indeterminate 16. The given figure shows a portal frame
with one end fixed and other hinged.
13. A perfect plane frame having m number The ratio of the fixed and moments
of members and j number of joints
M BA
should satisfy the relation due to side sway will be
M CD
[A] m < 2j – 3
[B] m = 2j – 3
[C] m > 2j – 3
[D] m = 3 – 2j

14. Members AB and BC in the figure
shown are identical. Due to a moment
2M applied at B, what is the value of
axial force in the member AB?

[A] 1·0
[B] 0·5
[C] 2
[D] 0·25

17. The probability of completion of any
activity within its expected time is
[A] M/2L [A] 50%
[B] M/L [B] 84%
[C] 2M/L [C] 99·9%
[D] 1·5M/L [D] 100%

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 5 [ P.T.O.

18. In limit state design method of 22. The contribution of bent up bars
concrete structures, the recommended towards shear resistance shall not be
partial factor of safety  m for steel more than
according to IS 456 : 2000 is [A] 50% of the total shear resistance
[A] 1·5 [B] 40% of the total shear resistance
[C] 55% of the total shear resistance
[B] 1·15
[D] 30% of the total shear resistance
[C] 1·00
23. For M20 grade concrete, the maximum
[D] 0·87 shear stress shall not exceed

[A] 1·6 N/mm2
19. The maximum percentage of moment
distribution in RCC beams is [B] 1·9 N/mm2

[A] 10% [C] 2·8 N/mm2

[D] 2·2 N/mm2
[B] 20%

[C] 30% 24. The diameter of main reinforcement in
concrete column should never be less
[D] 40% than

[A] 6 mm
20. In case of 2-way slab, the limiting
deflection of the slab is [B] 8 mm

[A] primarily a function of the long [C] 10 mm
span
[D] 12 mm
[B] primarily a function of the short
span 25. IS 1343 : 1980 limits the minimum
characteristic strength of pre stressed
[C] independent of long and short
concrete for post-tension work and pre-
spans
tension work as
[D] dependent on both long and short [A] 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively
spans
[B] 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively

21. If a beam of cross-section 400 mm × [C] 30 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
500 mm is subjected to torsional
[D] 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively
moment of 50 kNm, then equivalent
shear will be
26. Prestress loss due to friction occurs
[A] 129 kN
[A] only in pre-tensioned beams
[B] 200 kN
[B] only in post-tensioned beams
[C] 329 kN
[C] in both
[D] zero
[D] None of the above
AUAT-2024 /116 -A 6

27. Bolts are most suitable to carry 31. Inglis formula for the calculation of
peak drainage discharge is applicable
[A] shear to
[B] bending [A] circular shaped catchments in old
Bombay State
[C] axial tension [B] fan shaped catchments in
Hyderabad Deccan regions
[D] shear and bending
[C] fan shaped catchments in old
Bombay State
28. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars
[D] circular shaped catchments in
should not exceed
Hyderabad Deccan regions
[A] 100
32. In an irrigated field, the net irrigation
[B] 120 requirement is 15 cm, the application
efficiency is 80% and water
[C] 145 conveyance efficiency is 60%. What is
the gross irrigation requirement
[D] 180
(in cm)?
[A] 11·25
29. The plastic hinges formed in a collapse
[B] 18·75
mechanism are 4 and the
indeterminacy is 3. The collapse is [C] 25
[D] 31·25
[A] partial

[B] complete 33. The rise of liquid of specific weight 
in a capillary tube of radius r is given
[C] over complete by

[D] under complete 
[A] 2r 
30. The plastic section of modulus for a
2
rectangular section of width b and [B]
r
depth d is
2
bd2 [C] r
[A]
3

[D]
2r
bd 2
[B] Where,  is liquid surface tension.
4
34. The self-cleansing velocity for all
bd 2 sewers in India is usually
[C]
6 [A] less than 1·0 m/sec
[B] 1·0 m/sec to 1·2 m/sec
bd 2 [C] 1·5 m/sec to 2·0 m/sec
[D]
12 [D] 3·0 m/sec to 3·5 m/sec

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 7 [ P.T.O.

35. What is the sum total of organic 39. Undisturbed samples are obtained by
nitrogen and ammonia nitrogen called
as? [A] direct excavations

[A] Nitrate nitrogen [B] thin walled samplers

[B] Nitrite nitrogen [C] thick walled samplers

[C] Kjeldahl nitrogen [D] augers

[D] All of the above
40. For a sandy soil, the angle of internal
friction is 30°. If the major principal
36. The pipe joint commonly used in
stress is 50 kN/m2 at failure, then the
pumping station
corresponding minor principal stress
[A] flanged joint (in kN/m2) will be

[B] flexible joint [A] 12·2

[C] spigot and socket joints [B] 16·66

[D] expansion joint [C] 20·8

[D] 27·2
37. If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected
to a vertical compressive load, the
inclination of the cracks to the 41. If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be
horizontal is tested for finding out the portion of
elongated aggregates using length
[A] 90° gauge, then the slot of the gauge
should be
[B] 45°
[A] 81 mm
[C] 22·5°
[B] 45 mm
[D] 0°
[C] 53 mm
38. A 600 mm square bearing plate settles
[D] 90 mm
by 15 mm in plate load test on a
cohesion less soil under an intensity
of loading of 0·2 N/mm 2 . The 42. What will be the theoretical maximum
settlement of a prototype shallow capacity (to nearest 10 units) for a
footing 1 m square under the same single lane of highway given that the
intensity of loading is speed of the traffic stream is 40 kmph?

[A] 3000 veh/h
[A] 15 mm

[B] between 15 mm to 25 mm [B] 2860 veh/h

[C] 25 mm [C] 2010 veh/h

[D] greater than 25 mm [D] 2510 veh/h

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 8

43. Aggregate impact value indicates 47. In an optical square, the two mirrors
which of the following properties of are placed an angle of
aggregates?
[A] 30°
[A] Durability
[B] 45°
[B] Toughness [C] 60°
[C] Hardness [D] 90°
[D] Strength
48. According to Nagpur Plan, Indian
roads have been classified into how
44. Which one of the following tests many categories?
performed in the laboratory to detect
overheated or cracked bitumen and are [A] 4
more sensitive than the other test in
[B] 5
terms of detection of crack?
[C] 6
[A] Softening Point Test
[D] 7
[B] Float Test

[C] Flash and Fire Point Test 49. The ideal form of curve for the summit
curve is
[D] Spot Test
[A] spiral

45. Magnetic bearing of a line AB was N [B] parabolic
59 30  W in the year 1967, when the [C] circular
declination was 410  E. If the present
[D] lemniscate
declination is 3° W. The whole circle
bearing of the line is
50. For a base failure, the depth factor Df
[A] 299 20  is

[B] 307 40  [A] zero

[B] 1
[C] 293 20 
[C] 0 < Df < 1
[D] 301 40 
[D] Df > 1

46. The type of surveying in which the
51. If the uniformity coefficient Cu = 4 and
curvature of the earth is taken into
coefficient of curvature Cc = 1 for a soil,
account is called
then D30/D10 for the soil is
[A] geodetic surveying [A] 4
[B] plane surveying [B] 1/4
[C] preliminary surveying [C] 2

[D] topographical surveying [D] 1/2

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 9 [ P.T.O.

52. Two specimen of clay A and B are 56. _____ are those solids which remain
tested in a consolidation apparatus. floating in sewage.
[A] Settleable solids
If (mv)A = 3·6 × 10–4 m2/kN and
[B] Colloidal solids
(mv)B = 1·8 × 10–4 m2/kN,
[C] Dissolved solids
(CV)A = 3·8 × 10–4 cm2/s, [D] Suspended solids

(CV)B = 1·9 × 10–4 cm2/s,
57. For most economical section using
then the ratio of kA/kB is equal to Chezy’s formula, depth of flow for
maximum discharge through circular
[A] 0·0625 channel of diameter D is
[A] 0·3 D
[B] 0·25
[B] D
[C] 1·0 [C] 0·5 D
[D] 4·0 [D] 0·95 D

58. Centre of buoyancy always
53. _____ is a primary pollutant.
[A] coincides with the centre of gravity
[A] Ozone
[B] coincides with the centroid of the
[B] Sulphur dioxide volume of fluid displaced
[C] remains above the centre of
[C] Sulphuric acid gravity

[D] Formaldehyde [D] remains below the centre of
gravity

54. pH value of fresh sewage is expected 59. Which canal irrigates only on one side
to be because the area on the other side is
higher?
[A] 3·5
[A] Ridge canal
[B] 1
[B] Contour canal
[C] 7 [C] Watershed canal
[D] Side slope canal
[D] 8 to 11

60. The maximum height of a masonry dam
55. By aeration process, dissolved iron of a triangular section, whose base
oxidized into width is B and specific gravity is S, is

[A] ferric oxide [A] B S

[B] ferric hydroxide [B] BS

[C] BS
[C] ferrous oxide
[D] S B
[D] ferrous hydroxide

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 10

61. What will be the non-passing sight 66. The method of orientation used, when
distance on highway for design speed the plane table occupies a position not
of 100 kmph when its ascending yet located on the map is called as
gradient is 2%? Assuming coefficient [A] traversing
of friction as 0·7 and brake efficiency
[B] levelling
as 50%.
[C] resection
[A] 176 m
[D] radiation
[B] 200 m
[C] 150 m 67. Phreatic line in an earthen dam is
[D] 185 m [A] straight line
[B] parabolic
62. What is extra widening required (as [C] circular
nearest magnitude) for a pavement of
[D] elliptical
7 m width on a horizontal curve of
radius 200 m, if the longest wheel of
68. According to Rankine’s analysis,
vehicle expected on road is 6·5 m and
minimum depth of foundation is equal
the design speed is 65 km/h.
to
[A] 0·3 m
2
[B] 0·5 m q 1  sin  
[A]
[C] 0·7 m  1  sin  
[D] 0·9 m 2
q 1  sin  
[B]
 1  sin  
63. Over speed and delay studies on pre-
selected section of Highway are q 1  sin  
conducted by [C]  1  sin  
[A] fast moving car method
[B] enoscope q 1  sin  
[C] radar
[D]  1  sin  

[D] traffic contours where, q = intensity of loading; y = unit
weight of soil;  = angle of internal
64. Which of the following failures occurs friction
due to relative movement of flexible
69. The phenolic compounds in public
pavement layer materials?
water supply should not be more than
[A] Map cracking
[A] 0·1 ppm
[B] Shear failure
[B] 0·01 ppm
[C] Frost heaving
[C] 0·001 ppm
[D] Longitudinal cracking [D] 0·0001 ppm

65. Setting out a curve by two theodolite 70. The value of friction factor f for smooth
method, involves pipes for Reynolds number 10 6 is
[A] linear measurements only approximately equal to
[B] angular measurements only [A] 0·1
[C] both linear and angular [B] 0·01
measurements [C] 0·001
[D] None of the above [D] 0·0001
AUAT-2024 /116 -A 11 [ P.T.O.

PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
76. One who receives revelation in the form
71. As-salamu alaykum means
of message but not book is called a
"àÎ-Îàºà³å "àºàÒüA塳-&¹ "=¢
¤àt¢¡à "àA¡àì¹ [™[> 'Åã šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, "=W¡ Kø”‚àA¡àì¹
[A] How are you?
>Ú, [t¡[> Òìº> &A¡\>
[B] Peace be upon you
[A] Prophet but not messenger
[C] Wish you good luck
[B] messenger but not Prophet
[D] Glory be to Allah
[C] Prophet as well as messenger
72. Which of the following is/are true? [D] neither Prophet nor messenger
[>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡/ëA¡à>P¡[º Î[k¡A¡?
[A] Muhammad (PBUH) is the last 77. The name of the second last Prophet is
Prophet of Islam [‡t¡ãÚ ëÅÈ >¤ã¹ >à³ Òº
[B] Islam existed since the [A] David
beginning
[B] Moses
[C] All Prophets practiced and
propagated Islam [C] Jesus

[D] All of the above [D] Ahmad

73. The Holy Qur’an can be read by 78. Who is called the ‘Father of Kitten’?

‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ šØl¡ìt¡ šàì¹> ‘ëáài¡ [¤Øl¡à캹 [št¡à’ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] only scholars [A] Abu Hurairah
[B] only rich people [B] Abu Ubaida
[C] only men [C] Talha
[D] everybody [D] Zubair

74. The prayer at the evening is called 79. The first martyr in Islam is
ÎÞ꡸à줺๠>à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asr [A] Hasan
[B] Maghrib [B] Husain
[C] Tahajjud [C] Sumayya
[D] None of the above
[D] Yasir
75. The number of most notable
companions of Prophet Muhammad 80. The meal taken for breaking the fast is
(PBUH) is called
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.)-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJì™àK¸ ë¹à™à Î³àœ¡ A¡¹ìt¡ ë™ Jà¤à¹ Jà*Úà ÒÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà
ÎàÒà¤ã¹ Î}J¸à Òº ÒÚ
[A] 1 [A] Shari
[B] 4 [B] Iftar
[C] 40 [C] Lunch
[D] 313 [D] Dinner

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 12

81. A Prophet is called _____ in Arabic. 86. The Islamic Calendar is based on the
&A¡\> >¤ãìA¡ "๤ãìt¡ _____ ¤ºà ÒÚ¡ú _____.

[A] Nabi Òüκà[³A¡ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ _____-&¹ l¡üš¹ [®¡[v¡ A¡ì¹¡ú
[B] Rasul [A] planets
[C] Wahi [B] solar
[D] None of the above [C] moon
[D] sun
82. Which gates are opened during the
month of Ramadan?
87. When will the Day of Judgement
¹³\à> ³àìÎ ëA¡à>ô ƒ¹\àP¡ìºà ëJàºà ÒÚ? occur?
[A] Gates of Hell
[¤W¡à¹ [ƒ¤Î A¡J> Qi¡ì¤?
[B] Gates of Heaven
[A] Year 7000
[C] Gates of Light
[B] Year 2050
[D] Gates of Mosque
[C] Year 2060
83. What Muslims must perform before [D] Only Allah knows
offering salah (prayers)?
Îàºàt¡ (>à³à™) šØl¡à¹ "àìK ³åκ³à>샹 [A¡ A¡¹ìt¡ 88. What is dry ablution called?
ÒÚ? Ç¡A¡ì>à *™åìA¡ [A¡ ¤ìº?
[A] Wearing of skull-cap [A] Wudhu
[B] Wearing of perfume [B] Tayammum
[C] Wudu (ablution)
[C] Ghusl
[D] Clipping of nails
[D] None of the above
84. Allah (s.w.t.) has ______.
89. What is one unit of prayer called?
"àÀàÒ (Îå¤Òà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà)-&¹ ______ "àìá¡ú
>à³à왹 &A¡A¡ìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] a son
[B] a partner [A] Fard

[C] no partner [B] Rakah

[D] a daughter [C] Juz’
[D] Sunnah
85. What did the Prophet Muhammad
(SAW) mention about the status of a 90. What is the name of the cloth worn by
Mother? men for Hajj and Umrah?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.) ³àìÚ샹 ³™¢àƒà δšìA¢¡ A¡ã l¡üìÀJ Ò\ * *³¹à¹ \>¸ šå¹ç¡È샹 š[¹‹à> A¡¹à A¡àšìØl¡¹
A¡ì¹ìá>? >à³ A¡ã?
[A] Mothers are not important at all
[A] Haram
[B] Paradise is beneath the feet of a
mother [B] Ihram

[C] Mothers are bad women [C] Qamis

[D] None of the above [D] Izaar
AUAT-2024 /116 -A 13 [ P.T.O.

91. Choose the correct alternative : 96. Which State is called the ‘Rice Bowl of
India’?
[A] Oats is a healthier alternative
ëA¡à>ô ¹à\¸ìA¡ ‘®¡à¹ìt¡¹ W¡à캹 ¤à[i¡’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Oats is a healthier alternatives
[A] Kerala
[C] Oats is healthier alternatives
[B] Karnataka
[D] Oats are healthier alternatives [C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
92. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative.
97. When was the Battle of Haldighati
The ____ young neighbour greeted my fought?
parents.
Òº[ƒQà[i¡¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ ÒìÚ[áº?
[A] amicable [A] 1550
[B] amiable [B] 1576
[C] inimical [C] 1650
[D] 1701
[D] enviable

93. Identify the antonym of the word 98. Which among the following is the first
‘GARRULOUS’. national park in India?

[A] Innocuous [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ \àt¡ãÚ l¡üƒ¸à>?
[A] Dachigam National Park
[B] Loquacious
[B] Rohila National Park
[C] Jabbering [C] Pench National Park
[D] Reticent [D] Jim Corbett National Park

94. Choose the noun form of the word 99. Which of the following is the highest
‘GLORIOUS’. award for literature in West Bengal?
[A] Glory [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ š[ÆW¡³¤ìU¹ Îà[Òìt¡¸¹ Î줢àZW¡ šå¹ÑHþà¹?
[B] Glorify [A] Rabindra Puraskar
[C] Glorified [B] Nazrul Puraskar
[C] Bankim Puraskar
[D] Glorifying
[D] Ananda Puraskar

95. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative. 100. Who was the first Chief Justice of the
Calcutta High Court?
The boys failed to achieve a _____
victory in the match. A¡ºA¡àt¡à ÒàÒüìA¡àìi¢¡¹ šø=³ šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡ ëA¡
[A] decided
[áìº>?
[A] Phani Bhushan Chakravartti
[B] decisive
[B] William Hunter
[C] deceived
[C] Barnes Peacock
[D] divisive [D] Romesh Chandra Mitra
AUAT-2024 /116 -A 14

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 15 [ P.T.O.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /116 -A 16 NNN24(141)—36×4

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