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AUAT 2024 Question Paper M.Tech in Computer Science & Engineering

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Page 1

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Page 2

Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Tech. in Computer Science & Engineering (P25)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )

Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours

Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Date of Examination : _______________________________________

Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.

1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.

2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).

3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.

4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.

5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.

6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.

7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.

8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024/120- A

Page 3

PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. The curvature of a function f (x) is 5. I f W  xy  yz  z , f i n d d i r e c t i o n a l
zero. Which of the following functions derivative of W at 1, 2,0 in the
could be f (x)? direction towards the point (3, 6, 9).

[A] ax + b
[A] – 0·6
[B] ax 2  bx  c
[B] – 0·7
[C] sin(x )

[D] cos(x ) [C] – 0·8

2. A fair dice is rolled 6 times. What is [D] – 0·9
the probability of seeing 4?

[A] 4/6 6. In C language, FILE is of which data
type?
[B] 3/6

[C] 0 [A] int

[D] 1/6 [B] char *

3. If the critical region is evenly [C] struct
distributed, then the test is referred as

[A] two-tailed [D] None of the mentioned

[B] one-tailed
7. Which is the correct way to generate
[C] three-tailed numbers between minimum and
maximum (inclusive)?
[D] zero-tailed
[A] Minimum + (rand()% (maximum –
4. Which of the following is the minimum)/1)
advantage of using the Gauss Jordan
method? [B] Minimum + (rand()% (maximum –
minimum) + 1)
[A] Additional calculations

[B] No labor of back substitution [C] Minimum * (rand()% (maximum –
minimum))
[C] More operations involved
[D] Minimum – (rand()% (maximum
[D] Elimination is easier + minimum))
AUAT-2024/120- A 2

Page 4

8. Which of the following data structures 11. Which of these adjacency matrices
is more appropriate for implementing represents a simple graph?
quick sort iteratively?

[A] 1,0,0, 0,1,0,0,1,1
[A] Deque

[B] 1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1,1
[B] Queue

[C] 0,0,1,0,0,0,0,0,1
[C] Stack

[D] 0,0,1,1,0,1,1,0,0
[D] Priority queue

12. Which one of the following is the
9. What is the maximum number of keys correct formulae to find the parent
that a B+-tree of order 3 and of height node at index I?
3 have?

[A] (I  1)/ K
[A] 3

[B] (I  1)/K
[B] 80

[C] (I *1)/K
[C] 27

[D] (I  2)/K
[D] 26

13. What are two exception classes in
10. What is the hash function used in hierarchy of Java exceptions class?
linear probing?

[A] Runtime exceptions only
[A] H(x) = key mod table size

[B] Compile-time exceptions only
[B] H(x) = (key + F(i2)) mod table size

[C] Runtime exceptions and other
[C] H(x) = (key + F(i )) mod table size exceptions

[D] H(x) = X mod 17 [D] Other exceptions

AUAT-2024/120- A 3 [ P.T.O.

Page 5

14. Which of the following is a 17. Consider that the page fault service
characteristic of an object? time in a computer is 10 ms and the
average money access time is 20 ns.
If, in case, it generates a page fault
[A] Encapsulation every 106 memory accesses, then
what would be the effective access
time for this memory?
[B] Inheritance

[A] 30 ns
[C] Polymorphism
[B] 21 ns

[D] Identity [C] 35 ns

[D] 23 ns
15. A software system’s performance
suffers because it creates too many
heavy-weight objects. Which design 18. A process executes the following code :
pattern could be implemented to ‘‘for (i = 0; i < n; i++) fork();’’. The total
reduce the number of objects and number of child processes created is
improve performance?
[A] n

[A] Singleton
[B] 2 n – 1

[B] Flyweight [C] 2 n

[C] Prototype [D] 2(n1)  1

[D] Builder 19. A multilevel page table is preferred in
comparison to a single level page
table for translating virtual address to
physical address because
16. What does the Liskov Substitution
Principle (LSP) state?
[A] it reduces the memory access
time to read or write a memory
[A] Subclasses should be location
substitutable for their base
classes [B] it helps to reduce the size of page
table needed to implement the
virtual address space of a process
[B] Objects should be replaceable
with instances of their subtypes [C] it is required by the translation
lookaside buffer
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] it helps to reduce the number of
page faults in page replacement
[D] Neither [A] nor [B] algorithms

AUAT-2024/120- A 4

Page 6

20. Assume a relation X (M, N, O, P, Q) that 24. If a multivalued dependency holds
has the following functional and is not implied by the
dependencies : MNO  PQ and corresponding functional
dependency, it usually arises from
P  MN . The total number of
which one of the following sources?
superkeys of X would be

[A] 12 [A] A many-to-many relationship set

[B] 10
[B] A multivalued attribute of an
[C] 7 entity set

[D] 2
[C] A one-to-many relationship set

21. _____ command is used in SQL to [D] Both a many-to-many relationship
issue multiple CREATE TABLE, set and a multivalued attribute of
CREATE VIEW and GRANT statements an entity set
in a single transaction.

[A] CREATE CLUSTER 25. _____ which increases the number of
I/O operations needed to write a
[B] CREATE PACKAGE single logical block, pays a
significant time penalty in terms of
[C] CREATE SCHEMA write performance.

[D] All of the mentioned
[A] RAID level 1

22. Which of the following represents a [B] RAID level 2
query in the tuple relational calculus?

[A]  P(t)|t [C] RAID level 5

[B] t|P(t) [D] RAID level 3

[C] t|P   |t
26. A sorting technique is called stable, if
[D] All of the mentioned
[A] it takes O (n log n) time
23. Which JDBC driver Type(s) can be
used in either applet or servlet code? [B] it maintains the relative order of
occurrence of non-distinct
[A] Both Type 1 and Type 2 elements

[B] Both Type 1 and Type 3 [C] it uses divide and conquers
paradigm
[C] Both Type 3 and Type 4
[D] it takes O (n) space
[D] Type 4 only

AUAT-2024/120- A 5 [ P.T.O.

Page 7

27. Consider the following array of 30. What is the running time of an
elements : unweighted shortest path algorithm
89,19, 50, 17,12,15, 2, 5, whose augmenting path is the path
7, 11, 6, 9, 100. with the least number of edges?
The minimum number of
interchanges needed to convert it
into a max-heap is [A] O E 

[A] 4 [B] O E V 

[B] 5 [C] O E 2 V 

[C] 2 [D] O  E log V 

[D] 3
31. Which of the following states that
work expands to fill the time
available?
28. Which of the following is an NP
complete problem?
[A] CASE tools

[A] Hamiltonian cycle
[B] Pricing to win

[B] Travelling salesman problem
[C] Parkinson’s law

[C] Calculating chromatic number of
graph [D] Expert judgement

[D] Finding maximum element in an
array 32. Function Point Computation is given
by the formula

29. Which of the following is similar to [A] FP = [count total * 0·65] + 0·01 *
Euclidean distance? sum(Fi)

[A] Manhattan distance [B] FP = count total * [0·65 + 0·01 *
sum(Fi)]

[B] Pythagoras metric
[C] FP = count total * [0·65 + 0·01] *
sum(Fi)
[C] Chebyshev distance

[D] FP = [count total * 0·65 + 0·01] *
[D] Heuristic distance sum(Fi)

AUAT-2024/120- A 6

Page 8

33. Which grammar rules violate(s) an 36. Given the following expression
operator grammar’s requirements? grammar: E  E * F F  E F,F  F  F id.
Which of the following is true?
I. P  Q R

II. P  QsR [A] * has higher precedence than +

III. P  
[B] – has higher precedence than *
IV. P  Q t R r

here P, Q, R are non-terminals, while [C] + and – have same precedence
r, s, t are terminals.

[A] I only [D] + has higher precedence than *

[B] I and III only
37. If a link transmits 4000 frames per
[C] II and III only second, and each slot has 8 bits, what
is the transmission rate of the circuit
[D] III and IV only using Time Division Multiplexing
(TDM)?
34. Which one of the following represents
the strings in X0?
[A] 500 kbps


[A] 10 0  (10) 1 
[B] 32 kbps
[B] 1 0   (10)  1


[C] 10 0  (10)  1

[C] 32 bps

[D] 10  0  10   1  110 0  10   1
[D] 500 bps

35. In the context of abstract-syntax-tree
and control-flow-graph, which one of
38. In IPv4 Addresses, classful
the following is true?
addressing is replaced with
[A] In both AST and CFG if node N2
be the successor of node N1
[A] Classless Addressing
[B] For any input program, neither
AST nor CFG will contain a cycle
[B] Classful Addressing
[C] The max number of successors of
a node in an AST and a CFG [C] Classful Advertising
depends on the input program

[D] None of the mentioned [D] Classless Advertising

AUAT-2024/120- A 7 [ P.T.O.

Page 9

39. How many octets are dedicated to OUI 42. In outcode can have _____ bits for two-
(Organizationally Unique Identifier) dimensional clipping and _____ bits
in 48 MAC address space? for three-dimensional clipping.

[A] 5 [A] 4, 6

[B] 3 [B] 6, 8

[C] 2
[C] 2, 4

[D] 4
[D] 1, 3

40. When can we detect a collision, if the
hash values are same for two inputs, 43. The two-dimensional rotation
equation in the matrix form is
that is H(x)  H(y) ?

[A] P’ = P + T
[A] When x < y

[B] When x > y [B] P’ = R * P

[C] When x = y [C] P’ = P * P

[D] When x ! = y [D] P’ = R + P

41. Which of the following operations can 44. Which gray-level transformation
be used to zoom in or out around any increases the dynamic range of gray-
axis on a three-dimensional object level in the image?
from its original position?

[A] Negative transformations
[A] Rotation

[B] Contrast stretching
[B] Shearing

[C] Power-law transformations
[C] Scaling

[D] Translation [D] None of the mentioned

AUAT-2024/120- A 8

Page 10

45. Which of the following facts is correct 48. A 3-input neuron is trained to output
for an image? a zero when the input is 110 and a
one when the input is 111. After
generalization, the output will be zero
[A] An image is the multiplication of
when and only when the input is
illumination component and
reflectance component
[A] 000 or 110 or 011 or 101
[B] An image is the subtraction of
reflectance component from
illumination component [B] 010 or 100 or 110 or 101

[C] An image is the subtraction of [C] 000 or 010 or 110 or 100
illumination component from
reflectance component
[D] 100 or 111 or 101 or 001
[D] An image is the addition of
illumination component and
reflectance component 49. An IoT network is a collection of _____
devices.

46. Region of Interest (ROI) operations is
generally known as [A] signal

[A] masking
[B] machine to machine

[B] dilation
[C] interconnected

[C] shading correction
[D] network to network
[D] None of the mentioned

50. Which of the following protocols does
47. Which type of machine learning the secure digital card application use?
algorithm falls under the category of
‘unsupervised learning’?
[A] XMPP
[A] Linear Regression
[B] SPI
[B] K-means Clustering

[C] MQTT
[C] Decision Trees

[D] Random Forest [D] HTTPS

AUAT-2024/120- A 9 [ P.T.O.

Page 11

51. Which of the following stages of 54. The coefficient of slack\surplus
cryptography are the readable non- variables in the objective function are
encrypted data? always assumed to be

[A] Plain text [A] 0

[B] Encryption [B] 1

[C] Cipher text [C] M

[D] Decryption [D] –M

52. Which of the following is/are 55. Priority queue discipline may be
symmetric based algorithms? classified as

[A] Block [A] pre-emptive or non-pre-emptive

[B] Block cipher [B] limited

[C] Blowfish [C] unlimited

[D] All of the above [D] finite

53. For any primal problem and its dual, 56. Which of the following standard
algorithms is not Dynamic
Programming based?
[A] optimal value of objective
function is same
[A] Bellman-Ford Algorithm for
single source shortest path
[B] dual will have an optimal
solution if primal does too
[B] Floyd Warshall Algorithm for all
pairs shortest paths
[C] primal will have an optimal
solution iff dual does too
[C] 0-1 Knapsack problem

[D] Both primal and dual cannot be
infeasible [D] Prim's Minimum Spanning Tree

AUAT-2024/120- A 10

Page 12

57. We can show that the clique problem 60. Which of the following options is
is NP-hard by proving that incorrect?

[A] A language L is regular if and
[A] CLIQUE  P 3  CNF_SAT
only if  L has finite number of
equivalent classes
[B] CLIQUE  P VERTEX_COVER
[B] Let L be a regular language. If
 L has k equivalent classes,
[C] CLIQUE  P SUBSET_SUM then any DFA that recognizes L
must have atmost k states

[D] None of the above
[C] A language L is NFA-regular if
and only if it is DFA-regular

58. The total numbers of states and
[D] None of the mentioned
transitions required to form a moore
machine that will produce residue
mod 3 are
61. Input to Lexical Analyser is

[A] 3 and 6 [A] Source code

[B] 3 and 5 [B] Object code

[C] Lexeme
[C] 2 and 4

[D] None of the mentioned
[D] 2 and 5

62. If a node is locked in _____ the subtree
rooted by that node is locked explicitly
59. Which of the following can accept in shared mode, and that explicit
even palindrome over {a, b}? locking is being done at a lower level
with exclusive-mode locks.

[A] Push down Automata
[A] intention lock modes

[B] Turning machine [B] shared and intention-exclusive
(SIX) mode

[C] NDFA
[C] intention-exclusive (IX) mode

[D] All of the mentioned [D] intention-shared (IS) mode

AUAT-2024/120- A 11 [ P.T.O.

Page 13

63. How many AND gates are required to 67. Both the CISC and RISC architectures
construct a 4-bit parallel multiplier, if have been developed to reduce the
four 4-bit parallel binary address are
given? [A] cost

[A] Four 2 – input AND gates [B] time delay

[C] semantic gap
[B] Eight 2 – input AND gates
[D] All of the mentioned
[C] Sixteen 2 – input AND gates

[D] Two 2 – input AND gates 68. In a game, a fair coin is tossed 6 times.
Each time the coin comes up tails, A
will pay 15 but if each time heads
64. BCD adder can be constructed with come up, A will pay nothing.
3 IC packages each of Determine the probability that A will
win 45 by playing the game?
[A] 2 bits
[A] 5/16
[B] 3 bits
[B] 4/31
[C] 4 bits
[C] 3/7
[D] 5 bits
[D] 12/65

65. If the instruction Add R1, R2, R3 is
69. Which of the following techniques is
executed in any system which is
an analysis of the relationship
pipelined, then the value of S is
between two variables to help provide
(where S is term of the basic
the prediction mechanism?
performance equation)
[A] Standard error
[A] 2
[B] Correlation
[B] 1
[C] Regression
[C] 7
[D] None of the above
[D] 2
70. Let G be simple undirected planar
graph on 10 vertices with 15 edges. If
66. The number successful accesses to G is a connected graph. Then the
memory stated as a fraction is called number of bounded faces in any
as embedding of G on the plane is equal
to right is
[A] access rate
[A] 6
[B] success rate
[B] 5
[C] hit rate
[C] 4
[D] miss rate
[D] 3
AUAT-2024/120- A 12

Page 14

PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. As-salamu alaykum means 76. One who receives revelation in the form
of message but not book is called a
"àÎ-Îàºà³å "àºàÒüA塳-&¹ "=¢
[A] How are you? ¤àt¢¡à "àA¡àì¹ [™[> 'Åã šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, "=W¡ Kø”‚àA¡àì¹
[B] Peace be upon you >Ú, [t¡[> Òìº> &A¡\>
[C] Wish you good luck [A] Prophet but not messenger
[B] messenger but not Prophet
[D] Glory be to Allah
[C] Prophet as well as messenger
72. Which of the following is/are true?
[D] neither Prophet nor messenger
[>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡/ëA¡à>P¡[º Î[k¡A¡?
[A] Muhammad (PBUH) is the last 77. The name of the second last Prophet is
Prophet of Islam
[‡t¡ãÚ ëÅÈ >¤ã¹ >à³ Òº
[B] Islam existed since the
beginning [A] David
[C] All Prophets practiced and [B] Moses
propagated Islam [C] Jesus
[D] All of the above [D] Ahmad

73. The Holy Qur’an can be read by 78. Who is called the ‘Father of Kitten’?
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ šØl¡ìt¡ šàì¹> ‘ëáài¡ [¤Øl¡à캹 [št¡à’ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] only scholars [A] Abu Hurairah
[B] only rich people [B] Abu Ubaida
[C] only men [C] Talha
[D] everybody [D] Zubair
74. The prayer at the evening is called
79. The first martyr in Islam is
ÎÞ꡸à줺๠>à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ
Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asr
[A] Hasan
[B] Maghrib
[B] Husain
[C] Tahajjud
[C] Sumayya
[D] None of the above
[D] Yasir
75. The number of most notable
companions of Prophet Muhammad 80. The meal taken for breaking the fast is
(PBUH) is called
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.)-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJì™àK¸ ë¹à™à Î³àœ¡ A¡¹ìt¡ ë™ Jà¤à¹ Jà*Úà ÒÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà
ÎàÒà¤ã¹ Î}J¸à Òº ÒÚ
[A] 1 [A] Shari
[B] 4 [B] Iftar
[C] 40 [C] Lunch
[D] 313 [D] Dinner
AUAT-2024/120- A 13 [ P.T.O.

Page 15

81. A Prophet is called _____ in Arabic. 86. The Islamic Calendar is based on the
&A¡\> >¤ãìA¡ "๤ãìt¡ _____ ¤ºà ÒÚ¡ú _____.

[A] Nabi Òüκà[³A¡ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ _____-&¹ l¡üš¹ [®¡[v¡ A¡ì¹¡ú
[B] Rasul [A] planets
[C] Wahi [B] solar
[D] None of the above [C] moon
[D] sun
82. Which gates are opened during the
month of Ramadan?
87. When will the Day of Judgement
¹³\à> ³àìÎ ëA¡à>ô ƒ¹\àP¡ìºà ëJàºà ÒÚ? occur?
[A] Gates of Hell
[¤W¡à¹ [ƒ¤Î A¡J> Qi¡ì¤?
[B] Gates of Heaven
[A] Year 7000
[C] Gates of Light
[B] Year 2050
[D] Gates of Mosque
[C] Year 2060
83. What Muslims must perform before [D] Only Allah knows
offering salah (prayers)?
Îàºàt¡ (>à³à™) šØl¡à¹ "àìK ³åκ³à>샹 [A¡ A¡¹ìt¡ 88. What is dry ablution called?
ÒÚ? Ç¡A¡ì>à *™åìA¡ [A¡ ¤ìº?
[A] Wearing of skull-cap [A] Wudhu
[B] Wearing of perfume [B] Tayammum
[C] Wudu (ablution)
[C] Ghusl
[D] Clipping of nails
[D] None of the above

84. Allah (s.w.t.) has ______.
89. What is one unit of prayer called?
"àÀàÒ (Îå¤Òà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà)-&¹ ______ "àìá¡ú
>à³à왹 &A¡A¡ìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] a son
[B] a partner [A] Fard

[C] no partner [B] Rakah

[D] a daughter [C] Juz’
[D] Sunnah
85. What did the Prophet Muhammad
(SAW) mention about the status of a 90. What is the name of the cloth worn by
Mother? men for Hajj and Umrah?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.) ³àìÚ샹 ³™¢àƒà δšìA¢¡ A¡ã l¡üìÀJ Ò\ * *³¹à¹ \>¸ šå¹ç¡È샹 š[¹‹à> A¡¹à A¡àšìØl¡¹
A¡ì¹ìá>? >à³ A¡ã?
[A] Mothers are not important at all
[A] Haram
[B] Paradise is beneath the feet of a
mother [B] Ihram

[C] Mothers are bad women [C] Qamis

[D] None of the above [D] Izaar
AUAT-2024/120- A 14

Page 16

91. Choose the correct alternative : 96. Which State is called the ‘Rice Bowl of
India’?
[A] Oats is a healthier alternative
ëA¡à>ô ¹à\¸ìA¡ ‘®¡à¹ìt¡¹ W¡à캹 ¤à[i¡’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Oats is a healthier alternatives
[A] Kerala
[C] Oats is healthier alternatives
[B] Karnataka
[D] Oats are healthier alternatives [C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
92. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative.
97. When was the Battle of Haldighati
The ____ young neighbour greeted my fought?
parents.
Òº[ƒQà[i¡¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ ÒìÚ[áº?
[A] amicable
[A] 1550
[B] amiable [B] 1576
[C] inimical [C] 1650
[D] 1701
[D] enviable

93. Identify the antonym of the word 98. Which among the following is the first
‘GARRULOUS’. national park in India?

[A] Innocuous [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ \àt¡ãÚ l¡üƒ¸à>?
[A] Dachigam National Park
[B] Loquacious
[B] Rohila National Park
[C] Jabbering [C] Pench National Park
[D] Reticent [D] Jim Corbett National Park

94. Choose the noun form of the word 99. Which of the following is the highest
‘GLORIOUS’. award for literature in West Bengal?
[A] Glory [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ š[ÆW¡³¤ìU¹ Îà[Òìt¡¸¹ Î줢àZW¡ šå¹ÑHþà¹?
[B] Glorify [A] Rabindra Puraskar
[C] Glorified [B] Nazrul Puraskar
[C] Bankim Puraskar
[D] Glorifying
[D] Ananda Puraskar

95. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative. 100. Who was the first Chief Justice of the
Calcutta High Court?
The boys failed to achieve a _____
victory in the match. A¡ºA¡àt¡à ÒàÒüìA¡àìi¢¡¹ šø=³ šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡ ëA¡
[A] decided
[áìº>?
[A] Phani Bhushan Chakravartti
[B] decisive
[B] William Hunter
[C] deceived
[C] Barnes Peacock
[D] divisive [D] Romesh Chandra Mitra
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Board / OrgDefault
ExamAUAT
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Pages22
Updated30 Apr 2026