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AUAT 2024 Question Paper M.Tech in Electrical Engineering

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Page 1

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Page 2

Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Tech. in Electrical Engineering (P23)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )

Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours

Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Date of Examination : _______________________________________

Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.

1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.

2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).

3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.

4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.

5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.

6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.

7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.
8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /118 -A

Page 3

PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. The line A to neutral voltage is 4. A non-ideal voltage source Vs has an
10 ∠15° V for a balanced three-phase internal impedance of Zs. If a purely
star connected load with phase resistive load is to be chosen that
sequence ABC. The voltage in line B maximizes the power transferred to the
with respect to line A is given by load, its values must be

[A] 0
[A] 10 3∠105° V
[B] real part of Zs
[B] 10∠105° V
[C] magnitude of Zs
[C] 10 3∠ − 75° V
[D] complex conjugate of Zs

[D] −10 3∠90° V
5. An ideal capacitor is charged to a
voltage V 0 and connected at t = 0
2. Consider an LTI system with impulse across an ideal inductor L (The circuit
response h(t) = e–5tu(t). If the output of now consists of a capacitor and
the system is y(t) = e–3tu(t) – e–5tu(t), 1
then the input, x(t) is given by inductor alone). If we let ω0 = ,
LC
[A] e–3tu(t) the voltage across the capacitor at
time t > 0 is given by
[B] 2e–3tu(t)
[A] V 0
[C] e–5tu(t)
[B] V0 cos(ω 0t )
[D] 2e–5tu(t)
[C] V0 sin(ω 0t )
3. A circuit with a resistor, inductor and
capacitor in series is resonant at [D] V0e −ω0 t cos(w0t )
f0 Hz. If all the component values are
now doubled, the new resonant
frequency is 6. The transfer function is having
symmetric pole and zero about the
[A] 2f 0 imaginary axis, then the system is
called
[B] still f0
[A] minimum phase
f0
[C] [B] all pass
4
[C] non-minimum phase
f0
[D]
2 [D] None of the above

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 2

Page 4

7. Self-loop is a term related to 11. The primary of a two winding
transformer is supplied with 60 Hz
[A] signal flow graph frequency. The maximum flux of the
[B] block diagram core is 10 m.wb. Find the e.m.f. per
turn in the secondary.
[C] transient response
[A] 0·64 V
[D] None of the above
[B] 2·66 V

8. High power efficiency of the push pull [C] 2·2 V
amplifier is due to the fact that
[D] None of the above
[A] each transistor conducts on
different cycle of the input
12. By keeping frequency constant and
[B] transistors are placed in CE increasing the supply voltage by 4
configuration times, eddy current loss
[C] there is zero collector current [A] remains constant
under no signal condition
[B] decreases by 16 times
[D] low forward biasing voltage is
required [C] increases by 8 times

[D] increases by 16 times
9. Two coil having equal resistances but
different inductances are connected
in series. The time constant of the 13. Wave winding is employed in a DC
series combination is machine of

[A] sum of the time constants of the [A] high current and low voltage
individual coils rating
[B] average of the time constants of [B] low current and high voltage
the individual coils rating
[C] geometric mean of the time [C] high current and high voltage
constants of the individual coils rating
[D] products of the time constant of
[D] low current and low voltage
the individual coils
rating

10. The fault which causes a greater
electro-magnetic interference 14. When a synchronous motor is
running at synchronous speed, the
between the power line and a nearby
damper winding produces
communication line is called

[A] three-phase fault [A] damping torque

[B] L-L-G fault [B] eddy current torque

[C] L-L fault [C] synchronizing torque

[D] L-G fault [D] no torque

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 3 [ P.T.O.

Page 5

15. In cylindrical rotor synchronous 19. If I a = 18 ∠0° A, I b = 10 ∠ − 30° A and
machine, the stator and rotor mmf
I c = 10 ∠30° A . Find positive sequence
[A] are rotating in opposite directions
current.
[B] are rotating in same direction at
different speeds [A] 6∠0° A
[C] are stationary with respect to
[B] 8 ∠ 0° A
each other
[D] None of the above [C] 10∠0° A

16. If 3 MW power is to be transmitted [D] 12∠0° A
over a distance of 30 km, the desirable
transmission voltage will be 20. The critical clearing time of a fault in
[A] 11 kV power system is related to
[B] 66 kV [A] reactive power limit
[C] 33 kV
[B] short circuit limit
[D] 3·3 kV
[C] steady state stability limit
17. Shunt compensation in an EVH line
[D] transient stability limit
is used to improve
[A] stability and fault level
21. Equal area criterion gives information
[B] fault level and voltage profile regarding
[C] voltage profile and stability
[A] stability region
[D] stability fault level and voltage
profile [B] absolute stability

[C] relative stability
18. Consider the following statements :
I. Transposition of unsymmetrical [D] swing curve
transmission line will decrease
the inductance and
22. Unified power flow controller is a
communication line interference.
combination of
II. The bundle conductors will
decrease the surge impedance of [A] static synchronous compensator
the line. and inter phase controller
III. The corona loss increases with [B] static series synchronous
the frequency. compensator and interphase
Which of the above statements are controller
correct?
[C] static synchronous compensator
[A] I and II and static series synchronous
[B] II and III compensator

[C] I and III [D] static phase shifter and static
[D] I, II and III VAR compensator

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 4

Page 6

23. The pressure coil of an induction type 27. In a three-phase half wave rectifier,
energy meter is the range of gating delay is between

[A] highly resistive [A] 0 and 120 degrees

[B] 0 and 180 degrees
[B] highly inductive
[C] 0 and 90 degrees
[C] purely resistive
[D] 0 and 360 degrees
[D] purely inductive

28. In a transformer, zero voltage
24. Wire wound resistors are unsuitable regulation at full load is
for use of high frequencies, because
[A] possible at unity power factor load
[A] they are likely to melt under
[B] possible at leading power factor
excessive eddy current
load
[B] they exhibit unwanted inductive [C] possible at lagging power factor
and capacitive effects load

[C] they create more electrical noise [D] not possible

[D] they consume more power
29. In transformer, which of the following
statements is valid?
25. Which type of MOSFET remains on at
[A] In an oc test, current is drawn at
zero gate voltage?
high power factor
[A] Enhancement type of MOSFET [B] In an oc test, copper losses are
obtained, while in short-circuit
[B] Depletion type of MOSFET test core losses are obtained

[C] Both [A] and [B] [C] In a sc test, current is drawn at
zero power factor
[D] None of the above
[D] In an oc test, current is drawn at
low power factor
26. In a three-phase half wave rectifier,
the firing angle is measured
30. Iron loss and full load copper loss in
[A] from the crossing point between a transformer are 40.5 kW and 50 kW.
the phase supply voltages Efficiency is maximum at load fraction
equal to
[B] from the initial point or zero point
[A] 0·57
of the input waveform
[B] 0·8
[C] from the movement the thyristor
starts conduction [C] 0·9

[D] between any instants [D] 0·75

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 5 [ P.T.O.

Page 7

31. A 4-pole generator with 24 conductors 35. A voltmeter gives 120 oscillation per
has a two-layer lap winding. The pole minute when connected to the rotor
pitch is of an Induction Motor. The stator
frequency is 50 Hz. Calculate the slip
[A] 24 of the motor?
[B] 12 [A] 0 %

[C] 6 [B] 2 %

[D] 4 [C] 4 %

[D] 8 %
32. The value of torque produced by
armature of 4-pole motor having 774
36. An 8-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase slip-ring
conductors, two paths in parallel,
Induction Motor has effective rotor
24 mWb flux per pole, when the total
resistance of 0·8 Ω/ph. Stalling speed
armature current is 50 A, is
is 650 rpm. The resistance required
[A] 350 Nm in the rotor phase to obtain the
maximum torque at starting is
[B] 373 Nm
[A] 0·42 Ω
[C] 295·35 Nm
[B] 0·52 Ω
[D] 420 Nm [C] 0·48 Ω

[D] 0·58 Ω
33. A 4-point starter is used to start and
control the speed of a
37. A three-phase slip-ring induction
[A] DC shunt motor with armature motor is fed from the rotor side with
resistance control stator winding short-circuited. The
frequency of the currents flowing in
[B] DC shunt motor with field the short-circuited stator winding is
weakening control
[A] zero
[C] DC series motor
[B] slip frequency
[D] DC compound motor
[C] supply frequency

34. In a DC series motor with linear [D] Frequency corresponding to rotor
magnetization and negligible speed
armature resistance, the motor speed
is 38. A 3-phase, 16-pole alternator has 144
slots, What is the distribution factor?
[A] inversely proportional to T
[A] 0·92
[B] directly proportional to T
[B] 0·94
[C] directly proportional to T
[C] 0·96
[D] inversely proportional to T [D] 0·98
AUAT-2024 /118 -A 6

Page 8

39. A three-phase synchronous motor 43. The load factor and capacity factor of
connected to AC main is running at a plant are equal if
full-load unity power factor. If the load [A] peak load is equal to capacity of
is reduced by half, excitation plant
unaltered, its new power factor will
[B] average load is half the capacity
be
of the plant
[A] leading [C] average load is same as the peak
[B] lagging load of the plant
[D] group diversity factor is equal to
[C] unity peak diversity factor
[D] zero
44. Suppose the conductors are dead
ended and there is a change in the
40. A synchronous generator is feeding a
direction of transmission line,
zero power factor (lagging) load at
insulators used are
rated current. The armature reaction
is [A] strain type
[B] pin type
[A] magnetizing
[C] shackle type
[B] demagnetizing
[D] suspension type
[C] cross-magnetizing
45. For enhancing the power transmission
[D] ineffective
in a long EHV transmission line, the
most preferred method is to connect
41. A 275 kV transmission line has the a
following line constant A = 0 .85 ∠5°, [A] series inductive compensator in
B = 200∠75° . The power that can be the line
received at unity p.f. if voltage profile [B] shunt inductive compensator at
at each end is to be maintained at the receiving end
275 kV is
[C] series capacitive compensator in
[A] 118 MW the line
[B] 218 MW [D] shunt capacitive compensator at
the sending end
[C] 98 MW
[D] None of the above 46. For a line-to-line fault analysis using
symmetrical components
42. If bundled conductors are used [A] the positive-, negative- and zero-
instead of single conductors, then sequence networks at the fault
point are connected in parallel
[A] inductance and capacitance [B] the positive-, and negative-
increase sequence networks at the fault
[B] inductance and capacitance point are connected in series
decrease [C] the positive-, negative- and zero-
sequence networks at the fault
[C] inductance decreases and
point are connected in series
capacitance increases
[D] the positive-, and negative-
[D] inductance increases and sequence networks at the fault
capacitance decreases point are connected in parallel
AUAT-2024 /118 -A 7 [ P.T.O.

Page 9

47. The numbers of iteration required for 51. What are the even and odd
solving load flow problems in Gauss-
components of the signal f (t ) = e jt ?
Seidel method and Newton -Raphson
method are
[A] cost, j sint
[A] both directly proportional to the
number of buses [B] cost, –j sint

[B] directly proportional to the [C] sint, j cost
number of buses and
independent of number of buses, [D] –cost, j sint
respectively

[C] independent of number of buses 52. Consider a continuous-time system
and directly proportional to the with input x(t ) and output y(t) is given
number of buses, respectively by y(t) = x(t) cos(t). The system is
[D] both independent of number of [A] linear and time-invariant
buses
[B] non-linear and time-invariant
48. For a relay, the operating speed
depends upon, [C] linear and time-varying

[A] spring tension [D] non-linear and time-varying

[B] armature core air gap

[C] rate of flux build-up  −2 
53. X (s ) = e −s   . What are initial
 s(s + 2) 
[D] All of the above
and final values of x(t)?

49. The relay which is operated [A] –1 and 0
depending on the ratio of applied
voltage to current is [B] 0 and –1

[A] distance relay [C] 0 and +1
[B] impedance relay
[D] 1 and 1
[C] induction type overcurrent relay

[D] Both [A] and [B] 2
54. For a system (s + 1) , the approximate

50. It is preferred to transmit bulk power time taken for a step response to reach
over long distance using high-voltage 98% of its final value is
DC system. This is due to
[A] 2 sec
[A] reduced harmonics
[B] 4 sec
[B] protection system being simple

[C] low cost of HVDC terminals [C] 8 sec

[D] minimum line power losses [D] 10 sec

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 8

Page 10

55. In a bipolar junction transistor, the 59. A resistance of 10 k-ohms with a
collector cut off current I CB reduces tolerance of 5% is connected with a
0
5 k-ohms resistor of 10% tolerance.
considerably by doping the What is the tolerance limit for the
[A] collector with high level of parallel network?
impurity
[A] 3·22%
[B] base with high level of impurity
[C] emitter with low level of impurity [B] 5·33%
[D] emitter with high level of
[C] 6·43%
impurity
[D] 8·33%
56. If each branch of a delta circuit has
impedance 3Z , then each branch of
60. CRO uses
the equivalent Wye circuit has
impedance
[A] electrostatic focusing
Z
[A] [B] electromagnetic focusing
3
[B] 3Z [C] both focusing techniques

[C] 3 3Z [D] no-focusing technique

Z
[D]
3 61. A very accurate voltmeter gives
inaccurate reading when used to
57. The voltage (V ) and current (A) across measure voltage across a low
a load are as follows : resistance because

v (t ) = 100 sin(ωt ), i(t) = 10 sin (ωt –60°) [A] the sensitivity of the meter is high
+ 2 sin (3ωt) + 5 sin (5ωt). The average
power consumed by the load, in W is [B] the sensitivity of the meter is too
low
[A] 250
[B] 500 [C] the higher scale has been
selected
[C] 1000

[D] 1000 2 [D] the voltmeter is drawing too low
current

58. The magnetic properties of cold rolled
grain-oriented silicon steel are 62. A Kaplan turbine is
excellent
[A] inward flow, impulse turbine
[A] against the direction of rolling
[B] along the direction of rolling [B] outward flow, reaction turbine
[C] at the right angles to the
direction of rolling [C] high head mixed flow turbine

[D] None of the above [D] low head axial flow turbine

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 9 [ P.T.O.

Page 11

63. 2’s complement of 7 is 67. A cut set has

[A] only one tree branch
[A] 1,1001
[B] always more than one tree branch
[B] 1,1000
[C] only one tree link
[C] 1,0111 [D] None of the above

[D] 0,0111
68. The resistance across terminals ‘a’
and ‘b’ in the circuit shown will be
64. A NAND circuit with positive logic
will operate as

[A] NOR with negative logic

[B] AND with negative logic

[C] OR with negative logic input

[D] AND with negative logic output [A] 0·5 Ω

[B] 1·5 Ω
65. In force-current analogy, [C] 2·5 Ω
displacement is analogous to
[D] 3·5 Ω
[A] magnetic flux linkage
69. The CB and EB junctions of an
[B] capacitance transistor get forward biased, then the
transistor is said to be
[C] voltage
[A] active
[D] inductance [B] saturated

[C] cut-off
66. Two lamps of rating 150 W, 100 V and
[D] unsaturated
60 W, 100 V are connected in series
across 200 V supply. Across which
you will connect a shunt so that both 70. Triac is equivalent to
the lamps will take their rated power?
[A] two SCRs connected in parallel
[A] Across 60 W lamp [B] two SCRs connected in anti-
parallel
[B] Across 150 W lamp
[C] one SCR and one diode
connected in parallel
[C] Across both lamps
[D] one SCR and one diode
[D] None of the above connected in anti-parallel

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 10

Page 12

PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. As-salamu alaykum means 76. One who receives revelation in the form
of message but not book is called a
"àÎ-Îàºà³å "àºàÒüA塳-&¹ "=¢
[A] How are you? ¤àt¢¡à "àA¡àì¹ [™[> 'Åã šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, "=W¡ Kø”‚àA¡àì¹
[B] Peace be upon you >Ú, [t¡[> Òìº> &A¡\>
[C] Wish you good luck [A] Prophet but not messenger
[B] messenger but not Prophet
[D] Glory be to Allah
[C] Prophet as well as messenger
72. Which of the following is/are true?
[D] neither Prophet nor messenger
[>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡/ëA¡à>P¡[º Î[k¡A¡?
[A] Muhammad (PBUH) is the last 77. The name of the second last Prophet is
Prophet of Islam
[‡t¡ãÚ ëÅÈ >¤ã¹ >à³ Òº
[B] Islam existed since the
beginning [A] David
[C] All Prophets practiced and [B] Moses
propagated Islam [C] Jesus
[D] All of the above [D] Ahmad

73. The Holy Qur’an can be read by 78. Who is called the ‘Father of Kitten’?
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ šØl¡ìt¡ šàì¹> ‘ëáài¡ [¤Øl¡à캹 [št¡à’ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] only scholars [A] Abu Hurairah
[B] only rich people [B] Abu Ubaida
[C] only men [C] Talha
[D] everybody [D] Zubair
74. The prayer at the evening is called
79. The first martyr in Islam is
ÎÞ꡸à줺๠>à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ
Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asr
[A] Hasan
[B] Maghrib
[B] Husain
[C] Tahajjud
[C] Sumayya
[D] None of the above
[D] Yasir
75. The number of most notable
companions of Prophet Muhammad 80. The meal taken for breaking the fast is
(PBUH) is called
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.)-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJì™àK¸ ë¹à™à Î³àœ¡ A¡¹ìt¡ ë™ Jà¤à¹ Jà*Úà ÒÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà
ÎàÒà¤ã¹ Î}J¸à Òº ÒÚ
[A] 1 [A] Shari
[B] 4 [B] Iftar
[C] 40 [C] Lunch
[D] 313 [D] Dinner
AUAT-2024 /118 -A 11 [ P.T.O.

Page 13

81. A Prophet is called _____ in Arabic. 86. The Islamic Calendar is based on the
&A¡\> >¤ãìA¡ "๤ãìt¡ _____ ¤ºà ÒÚ¡ú _____.

[A] Nabi Òüκà[³A¡ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ _____-&¹ l¡üš¹ [®¡[v¡ A¡ì¹¡ú
[B] Rasul [A] planets
[C] Wahi [B] solar
[D] None of the above [C] moon
[D] sun
82. Which gates are opened during the
month of Ramadan?
87. When will the Day of Judgement
¹³\à> ³àìÎ ëA¡à>ô ƒ¹\àP¡ìºà ëJàºà ÒÚ? occur?
[A] Gates of Hell
[¤W¡à¹ [ƒ¤Î A¡J> Qi¡ì¤?
[B] Gates of Heaven
[A] Year 7000
[C] Gates of Light
[B] Year 2050
[D] Gates of Mosque
[C] Year 2060
83. What Muslims must perform before [D] Only Allah knows
offering salah (prayers)?
Îàºàt¡ (>à³à™) šØl¡à¹ "àìK ³åκ³à>샹 [A¡ A¡¹ìt¡ 88. What is dry ablution called?
ÒÚ? Ç¡A¡ì>à *™åìA¡ [A¡ ¤ìº?
[A] Wearing of skull-cap
[A] Wudhu
[B] Wearing of perfume
[B] Tayammum
[C] Wudu (ablution)
[C] Ghusl
[D] Clipping of nails
[D] None of the above
84. Allah (s.w.t.) has ______.
89. What is one unit of prayer called?
"àÀàÒ (Îå¤Òà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà)-&¹ ______ "àìá¡ú
[A] a son >à³à왹 &A¡A¡ìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] a partner [A] Fard
[C] no partner [B] Rakah

[D] a daughter [C] Juz’
[D] Sunnah
85. What did the Prophet Muhammad
(SAW) mention about the status of a
90. What is the name of the cloth worn by
Mother?
men for Hajj and Umrah?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.) ³àìÚ샹 ³™¢àƒà δšìA¢¡ A¡ã l¡üìÀJ
Ò\ * *³¹à¹ \>¸ šå¹ç¡È샹 š[¹‹à> A¡¹à A¡àšìØl¡¹
A¡ì¹ìá>?
>à³ A¡ã?
[A] Mothers are not important at all
[A] Haram
[B] Paradise is beneath the feet of a
mother [B] Ihram
[C] Mothers are bad women [C] Qamis
[D] None of the above [D] Izaar
AUAT-2024 /118 -A 12

Page 14

91. Choose the correct alternative : 96. Which State is called the ‘Rice Bowl of
India’?
[A] Oats is a healthier alternative
ëA¡à>ô ¹à\¸ìA¡ ‘®¡à¹ìt¡¹ W¡à캹 ¤à[i¡’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Oats is a healthier alternatives
[A] Kerala
[C] Oats is healthier alternatives
[B] Karnataka
[D] Oats are healthier alternatives [C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
92. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative.
97. When was the Battle of Haldighati
The ____ young neighbour greeted my fought?
parents.
Òº[ƒQà[i¡¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ ÒìÚ[áº?
[A] amicable
[A] 1550
[B] amiable [B] 1576
[C] inimical [C] 1650
[D] 1701
[D] enviable

93. Identify the antonym of the word 98. Which among the following is the first
‘GARRULOUS’. national park in India?

[A] Innocuous [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ \àt¡ãÚ l¡üƒ¸à>?
[A] Dachigam National Park
[B] Loquacious
[B] Rohila National Park
[C] Jabbering [C] Pench National Park
[D] Reticent [D] Jim Corbett National Park

94. Choose the noun form of the word 99. Which of the following is the highest
‘GLORIOUS’. award for literature in West Bengal?
[A] Glory [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ š[ÆW¡³¤ìU¹ Îà[Òìt¡¸¹ Î줢àZW¡ šå¹ÑHþà¹?
[B] Glorify [A] Rabindra Puraskar
[C] Glorified [B] Nazrul Puraskar
[C] Bankim Puraskar
[D] Glorifying
[D] Ananda Puraskar

95. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative. 100. Who was the first Chief Justice of the
Calcutta High Court?
The boys failed to achieve a _____
victory in the match. A¡ºA¡àt¡à ÒàÒüìA¡àìi¢¡¹ šø=³ šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡ ëA¡
[A] decided
[áìº>?
[A] Phani Bhushan Chakravartti
[B] decisive
[B] William Hunter
[C] deceived
[C] Barnes Peacock
[D] divisive [D] Romesh Chandra Mitra
AUAT-2024 /118 -A 13 [ P.T.O.

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AUAT-2024 /118 -A 14

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AUAT-2024 /118 -A 15 [ P.T.O.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

AUAT-2024 /118 -A 16 NNN24(141)—24×4

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Board / OrgDefault
ExamAUAT
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages18
Updated30 Apr 2026