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Entrance Exam
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
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Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Tech. in Electronics & Communication
Engineering (P24)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )
Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours
Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________
Date of Examination : _______________________________________
Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.
5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.
6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.
7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.
8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /119- A
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PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. The determinant of matrix A is 5 and 5. The trigonometric Fourier series of an
the determinant of matrix B is 40. The even function does not have the
determinant of matrix AB is
[A] dc term
[A] 8
[B] sine terms
[B] 200
[C] 45 [C] cosine terms
[D] 35 [D] odd harmonic terms
2. Let X be a random variable which is
6. Which one of the following is a
uniformly chosen from the set of
property of the solutions to the
positive odd numbers less than 100.
Laplace equation ∇2f = 0?
The expectation E[X] is
[A] 50 [A] The solutions have neither
maxima nor minima anywhere
[B] 30
except at the boundaries
[C] 1
[B] The solutions are not separable
[D] 100 in the coordinates
3. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What is [C] The solutions are not continuous
the probability that only the first two
tosses will yield heads? [D] The solutions are not dependent
on the boundary conditions
2
[A] (12 ) 7. The divergence of the vector field
12
[B] 10 C2
2 () A = x a^x + y a^y + z a^z is
10 [A] 0
[C] (12 ) [B] 1/3
10
[D] 10C2
1
2 () [C] 1
[D] 3
4. If the characteristic equation of the
differential equation
8. Drift current in the semiconductors
d 2y dy depends upon
+ 2α +y =0
2 dx
dx [A] only the electric field
has two equal roots, then the values of [B] only the carrier concentration
α are gradient
[A] ± j
[C] both the electric field and the
[B] 0, 0 carrier concentration
[C] ± 1
[D] both the electric field and carrier
[D] ± 1/2 concentration gradient
AUAT-2024 /119- A 2
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9. The ratio of the mobility to the 13. Match the following and choose the
diffusion coefficient in a correct combination :
semiconductor has the unit
Group—1 Group—2
[A] V–1 E. Continuous and 1. Fourier
aperiodic signal representation
[B] V-sec is continuous
and aperiodic
[C] cm.V–1
F. Continuous and 2. Fourier
aperiodic signal representation
[D] V.cm–1
is discrete and
aperiodic
10. The band gap of silicon at room
G. Discrete and 3. Fourier
temperature is
aperiodic signal representation
is continuous
[A] 1·3 eV
and periodic
[B] 0·7 eV H. Discrete and 4. Fourier
periodic signal representation
[C] 1·4 eV is discrete and
periodic
[D] 1·1 eV
[A] E – 3, F – 2, G – 4, H – 1
[B] E – 1, F – 3, G – 2, H – 4
11. Norton’s theorem states that a
complex network connected to a load [C] E – 1, F – 2, G – 3, H – 4
can be replaced with an equivalent
[D] E – 2, F – 1, G – 4, H – 3
impedance
14. If the unit step response of a network
[A] in parallel with a voltage source
is (1 – e –αt), then its unit impulse
response is
[B] in parallel with a current source
[A] αe αt
[C] in series with a current source
[B] α –1e –αt
[D] in series with a voltage source [C] (1–α–1)e–αt
[D] (1–α)e–αt
12. Generally, the gain of a transistor
amplifier falls at high frequencies due 15. Two systems with impulse responses
to the h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in
cascade. Then the overall impulse
[A] internal capacitances of the device response of the cascaded system is
[A] product of h1(t) and h2(t)
[B] coupling capacitor at the input
[B] sum of h1(t) and h2(t)
[C] skin effect
[C] convolution of h1(t) and h2(t)
[D] coupling capacitor at the output [D] subtraction of h1(t) and h2(t)
AUAT-2024 /119- A 3 [ P.T.O.
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16. In a forward biased p-n junction 20. If for a silicon n-p-n transistor, the
diode, the sequence of events that base-to-emitter voltage (VBE ) is 0·7 V
best describes the mechanism of and the collector-to-base voltage (VCB )
current flow is is 0·2 V, then the transistor is
operating in the
[A] injection, subsequent diffusion
and recombination of minority [A] normal active mode
carries
[B] saturation mode
[B] injection, subsequent drift and
generation of minority carries [C] inverse active mode
[C] extraction, subsequent diffusion
and generation of minority carries [D] cutoff mode
[D] extraction, subsequent drift and
recombination of minority carries 21. The full form of the abbreviations TTL
and CMOS in reference to logic
families are
17. A Zener diode, when used in voltage
stabilization circuits, is biased in [A] Triple Transistor Logic and Chip
[A] reverse bias region below the Metal Oxide Semiconductor
breakdown voltage
[B] Tristate Transistor Logic and
[B] forward bias region Chip Metal Oxide Semiconductor
[C] forward bias constant current mode [C] Transistor Transistor Logic and
[D] reverse breakdown region Complementary Metal Oxide
Semiconductor
18. A silicon PN junction is forward biased [D] Tristate Transistor Logic and
with a constant current at room Complementary Metal Oxide
temperature. When the temperature is Silicon
increased by 10 °C, the forward bias
voltage across the PN junction
22. An ideal op-amp is an ideal
[A] decreases by 60 mV
[B] increases by 60 mV [A] voltage controlled current source
[C] decreases by 25 mV [B] voltage controlled voltage source
[D] increases by 25 mV [C] current controlled current source
19. The effect of current shunt feedback [D] current controlled voltage source
in an amplifier is to
23. An increase in the base recombination
[A] increase the input resistance and of a BJT will increase
decrease the output resistance
[A] the common emitter dc current
[B] increase both input and output
gain β
resistances
[C] decrease both input and output [B] the transconductance gm
resistances
[C] the unity-gain cut-off frequency fr
[D] decrease the input resistance and
increase the output resistance [D] the breakdown voltage BVCEO
AUAT-2024 /119- A 4
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24. The drain current of MOSFET in 26. In the circuit shown below the op-
saturation is given by amps are ideal. The Vout in volts is
I D = K (VGS − VT )2 where K is a
constant. The magnitude of the
transconductance gm is
K (VGS − VT )2
[A]
VDS
[B] 2K (VGS − VT )
Id [A] 4
[C]
VGS − VDS [B] 8
[C] 6
[D] 10
K (VGS − VT )2
[D]
VGS
27. The minimum number of comparators
required to build an 8-bit flash ADC is
[A] 8
25. The op-amp circuit shown in the
[B] 63
figure is filter. The type of filter and its
cut-off frequency are respectively [C] 255
[D] 256
28. Consider a two-port network with the
A B
transmission matrix T = . If
C D
the network is reciprocal, then
[A] T −1 = T
[B] T 2 = T
[C] Determinant (T ) = 0
[D] Determinant (T ) = 1
29. Consider the Amplitude Modulated
[A] high pass, 1000 rad/sec (AM) signal Ac cos ωc t + 2cos ωmt cos ωc t
For demodulating the signal using
envelope detector, the minimum
[B] low pass, 1000 rad/sec
value of Ac should be
[A] 2
[C] high pass, 10000 rad/sec
[B] 1
[C] 0·5
[D] low pass, 10000 rad/sec [D] 0
AUAT-2024 /119- A 5 [ P.T.O.
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30. A transmission line of characteristic 34. For a message signal m(t) = cos(2πfmt)
impedance 50 W is terminated in a and carrier of frequency fc, which of
load impedance ZL. The VSWR of the the following represents a Single-
line is measured as 5 and the first of Side-Band (SSB) signal?
the voltage maxima in the line is
λ
observed at a distance of from the [A] cos(2πfm t )cos(2πfc t )
4
load. The value of ZL is
[A] 250 W [B] cos(2πf c t )
[B] 10 W
[C] cos[2π( f c + f m )t ]
[C] (19·23 + j46·15)W
[D] (19·23 – j46·15)W [D] [1 + cos(2πfm t )cos(2πfc t )]
31. Assuming VCEsat = 0·2 V and β = 50,
the minimum base current (IB) 35. The Column—I lists the attributes and
required to drive the transistor in the the Column—II lists the modulation
figure to saturation is systems. Match the attribute to the
modulation system that best meets it.
[A] 56 µA
[B] 140 mA Column—I Column—II
[C] 60 mA P. Power efficient 1. Conventional
[D] 3 mA transmission of AM
signals
32. Consider sinusoidal modulation in
an AM system. Assuming no Q. Most bandwidth 2. FM
overmodulation, the modulation efficient transmission
index (µ) when the maximum and of voice signals
minimum values of the envelope,
respectively, are 3 V and 1 V is R. Simplest receiver 3. VSB
structure
[A] 0·7
[B] 0·5 S. Bandwidth 4. SSB-SC
efficient transmission
[C] 0·2
of signals with
[D] 1 significant dc
component
33. For a periodic signal v(t) = 30 sin 100t
+ 10 cos 300t + 6 sin (500t + π/4), the [A] P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3
fundamental frequency in rad/s is
[A] 100 [B] P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
[B] 300
[C] P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 4
[C] 500
[D] 1000 [D] P – 2, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 1
AUAT-2024 /119- A 6
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36. In the following a stable multivibrator 39. Let x [n ] = x [ −n ] . Let X(z) be the
circuit, which properties of v0(t) z-transform of x[n]. If 0·5 + j 0·25 is a
depend on R2? zero of X(z), which one of the following
must also be a zero of X(z)?
[A] 05 − j 025
1
[B] 05 + j 025
1
[C] 05 − j 025
[D] 2 + j 4
40. The natural frequency of an
undamped second-order system is
40 rad/s. If the system is damped with
[A] Only the frequency
a damping ratio 0·3, the damped
[B] Only the amplitude natural frequency in rad/s is
[C] Both the amplitude and the [A] 40·15
frequency
[B] 25
[D] Neither the amplitude nor the
frequency [C] 15·25
[D] 38·15
37. A band-limited signal with a
maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be
41. Figure shows the Nyquist plot of the
sampled. According to the sampling
open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s) of
theorem, the sampling frequency
a system. If G(s)H(s) has one right-hand
which is not valid, is
pole, then the closed-loop system is
[A] 20 kHz
[B] 12 kHz
[C] 15 kHz
[D] 5 kHz
38. A 0 to 6 counter consists of 3 flip-flops
and a combination circuit of 2 input [A] always stable
gates. The common circuit consists of
[B] unstable with one closed-loop
[A] one AND gate hand pole
[B] one OR gate [C] unstable with two closed-loop
right-hand poles
[C] one AND gate and one OR gate
[D] unstable with three closed-loop
[D] two AND gates right-hand poles
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42. For parallel R-L-C circuit, which one 45. Which of the following analog
of the following statements is not modulation schemes requires the
correct? minimum transmitted power and
minimum channel bandwidth?
[A] The bandwidth of the circuit
decreases if R is increased [A] VSB
[B] DSB-SC
[B] The bandwidth of the circuit
remains same if L is increased [C] AM
[C] At resonance, input impedance [D] SSB
is a real quantity
46. A closed-loop control system is stable
[D] At resonance, the magnitude of if the Nyquist plot of the corresponding
input impedance attains its open-loop transfer function
minimum values
[A] encircles the s-plane point
43. In the circuit shown below, the value (−1 + j 0) in the counterclockwise
of RL such that the power transferred direction as many times as the
RL is maximum, is number of right-half s-plane poles
[B] encircles the s-plane point (0 − j1)
in the clockwise direction as
many times as the number of
right-half s-plane poles
[C] encircles the s-plane point
(−1 + j 0) in the counterclockwise
direction as many times as the
number of left-half s-plane poles
[D] encircles the s-plane point
[A] 5 W (−1 + j 0) in the counterclockwise
direction as many times as the
[B] 10 W number of right-half s-plane zeros
[C] 15 W
47. The output of the combinational
[D] 20 W circuit given below is
44. Calculate the Nyquist rate for
sampling when a continuous time
signal is given by
x (t ) = 5 cos100πt + 10 cos 200πt − 15 cos 300πt
[A] 100 Hz
[A] A(B + C)
[B] 150 Hz
[B] A + B + C
[C] 300 Hz [C] B(C + A)
[D] 600 Hz [D] C(A + B)
AUAT-2024 /119- A 8
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48. In a half-subtractor circuit with X and 52. If X = 1 in logic equation
Y as inputs, the Borrow (M) and [ X + Z {Y + (Z + XY )}][{ X + Z (X + Y )}] = 1
Difference (N = X – Y) are
then
[A] M = X ⊕ Y , N = XY
[A] Y = Z
[B] M = XY , N = X ⊕ Y
[B] Y = Z
[C] M = XY , N = X ⊕ Y
[C] Z = 1
[D] M = XY , N = X ⊕ Y
[D] Z = 0
49. For the output F to be 0 in the logic
circuit shown, the input combination 53. A system is defined by its impulse
should be response h(n) = 2nu(n – 2). The system
is
[A] stable and causal
[B] causal but not stable
[C] stable but not causal
[D] unstable and non-causal
[A] A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
54. A sequence x(n) with the z – transform
[B] A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 X (z ) = z 4 + z 2 − 2z + 2 − 3z − 4 is
applied as an input to a linear, time-
[C] A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
invariant system with the impulse
[D] A = 0, B = 0, C = 1 response h (n ) = 2δ(n − 3) where
1, n = 0
δ(n ) =
50. Decimal 43 in Hexadecimal and BCD 0, otherwise
number system is respectively The output at n = 4 is
[A] B2, 0100 011
[A] –6
[B] 2B, 0100 0011
[B] 0
[C] 2B, 0011 0100
[C] 2
[D] B2, 0100 0100
[D] –4
51. What are the minimum number of
2-to-1 multiplexers required to 55. The 4-point Discrete Fourier Transform
generate a 2-input AND gate and (DFT) of a discrete time sequence
a-2-input Ex-OR gate? {1, 0, 2, 3} is
[A] 1 and 2 [A] [0, –2 + 2j, 2, –2 –2j]
[B] 1 and 3 [B] [2, 2 + 2j, 6, 2 – 2j]
[C] 1 and 1 [C] [6, 1 – 3j, 2, 1 + 3j]
[D] 2 and 2 [D] [6, –1 + 3j, 0, –1 –3j]
AUAT-2024 /119- A 9 [ P.T.O.
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56. The unit of ∇ × H is 60. For 8085 microprocessor, the
following program is executed
[A] ampere
MVI A, 05H;
[B] ampere/meter MVIB, 05H;
PRT: ADD B;
[C] ampere/meter2 DCR B;
JNZ PTR;
[D] ampere-meter
ADI 03H;
HLT;
57. Match items in Group—1 with items
At the end of program, accumulator
in Group—2, most suitably.
contains
Group—1 Group—2
[A] 17 H
P. LED 1. Heavy doping [B] 20 H
Q. Avalanche photo 2. Coherent [C] 23 H
diode radiation
[D] 05 H
R. Tunnel diode 3. Spontaneous
emission 61. An analog voltage is in the range of 0 to
8 V is divided in eight equal intervals
S. LASER 4. Current gain for conversion to 3-bit digital output.
[A] P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 The maximum quantization error is
[B] P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 4 [A] 0 V
[C] P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2 [B] 0·5 V
[C] 1 V
[D] P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
[D] 2 V
58. In an 8085 microprocessor, which one 62. For a Hertz dipole antenna, the Half
of the following instructions changes Power Beam Width (HPBW) in the
the content of the accumulator? E-plane is
[A] MOV B, M [A] 360°
[B] 180°
[B] PCHL
[C] 90°
[C] RNZ
[D] 45°
[D] SBI BEH →
63. If a vector field V is related to another
→ → →
vector field A through V = ∇ × A ,
59. In a microprocessor, the service
routine for a certain interrupt starts which of the following is true?
from a fixed location of memory which (Note : C and S refer to any closed
cannot be externally set, but the contour and any surface whose
interrupt can be delayed or rejected. boundary is C)
Such an interrupt is
→→ →→
[A] non-maskable and non-vectored
[A] C V d l = S C A d S
→→ →→
[B] maskable and non-vectored
[B] C ∆ × V d l = S C ∆ × A d S
→→ →→
[C] non-maskable and vectored
[C] C A d l = S C V d S
→→ →→
[D] maskable and vectored [D] C ∆ × V d l = S C V d S
AUAT-2024 /119- A 10
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64. The modes in a rectangular 67. LASER is
TEmn
waveguide are denoted by TM mn
[A] a light source
where m and n are the eigen numbers
along the larger and smaller
dimensions of the waveguide [B] a light detector
respectively. Which one of the
following statements is true? [C] both light source and light detector
[A] The TM10 mode of the waveguide [D] None of the above
does not exist
[B] The TE10 mode of the waveguide 68. If a wave is having group velocity of
does not exist 2 × 108 m/s, then what is phase
velocity?
[C] The TM10 and TE10 modes both
exist and have the same cut-off [A] 4·5 × 108 m/s
frequencies
[B] 5·5 × 108 m/s
[D] The TM10 and TE01 modes both
exist and have the same cut-off [C] 9 × 108 m/s
frequencies
[D] 1·5 × 108 m/s
65. The return loss of a device is found to
be 20 dB. The Voltage Standing Wave
69. In QAM, both _____ and _____ of a
Ratio (VSWR) and magnitude of
carrier frequency are varied.
reflection coefficient are respectively
[A] frequency, amplitude
[A] 1·22 and 0·1
[B] 0·81 and 0·1 [B] phase, amplitude
[C] –1·22 and 0·1 [C] phase, frequency
[D] 2·44 and 0·2 [D] None of the above
66. The refractive indices of core and 70. If one of the code words of a Hamming
cladding of an optical fiber are 1·40 (7, 4) code is 0001011, which of the
and 1·14 respectively. What is the following can not be the valid
value of numerical aperture? codeword in the same group?
[A] 0·312 [A] 0011101
[B] 0·812 [B] 0101100
[C] 0·646 [C] 0011010
[D] 0·552
[D] 1110100
AUAT-2024 /119- A 11 [ P.T.O.
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PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. As-salamu alaykum means 76. One who receives revelation in the form
"àÎ-Îàºà³å "àºàÒüA塳-&¹ "=¢ of message but not book is called a
[A] How are you? ¤àt¢¡à "àA¡àì¹ [™[> 'Åã šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, "=W¡ Kø”‚àA¡àì¹
[B] Peace be upon you >Ú, [t¡[> Òìº> &A¡\>
[C] Wish you good luck [A] Prophet but not messenger
[D] Glory be to Allah [B] messenger but not Prophet
[C] Prophet as well as messenger
72. Which of the following is/are true?
[D] neither Prophet nor messenger
[>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡/ëA¡à>P¡[º Î[k¡A¡?
[A] Muhammad (PBUH) is the last 77. The name of the second last Prophet is
Prophet of Islam
[‡t¡ãÚ ëÅÈ >¤ã¹ >à³ Òº
[B] Islam existed since the
beginning [A] David
[C] All Prophets practiced and [B] Moses
propagated Islam [C] Jesus
[D] All of the above [D] Ahmad
73. The Holy Qur’an can be read by 78. Who is called the ‘Father of Kitten’?
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ šØl¡ìt¡ šàì¹> ‘ëáài¡ [¤Øl¡à캹 [št¡à’ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] only scholars [A] Abu Hurairah
[B] only rich people [B] Abu Ubaida
[C] only men [C] Talha
[D] everybody
[D] Zubair
74. The prayer at the evening is called
79. The first martyr in Islam is
ÎÞ꡸à줺๠>à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ
Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asr
[A] Hasan
[B] Maghrib
[B] Husain
[C] Tahajjud
[C] Sumayya
[D] None of the above
[D] Yasir
75. The number of most notable
companions of Prophet Muhammad 80. The meal taken for breaking the fast is
(PBUH) is called
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.)-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJì™àK¸ ë¹à™à Î³àœ¡ A¡¹ìt¡ ë™ Jà¤à¹ Jà*Úà ÒÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà
ÎàÒà¤ã¹ Î}J¸à Òº ÒÚ
[A] 1 [A] Shari
[B] 4
[B] Iftar
[C] 40
[C] Lunch
[D] 313
[D] Dinner
AUAT-2024 /119- A 12
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81. A Prophet is called _____ in Arabic. 86. The Islamic Calendar is based on the
&A¡\> >¤ãìA¡ "๤ãìt¡ _____ ¤ºà ÒÚ¡ú _____.
[A] Nabi Òüκà[³A¡ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ _____-&¹ l¡üš¹ [®¡[v¡ A¡ì¹¡ú
[B] Rasul [A] planets
[C] Wahi [B] solar
[D] None of the above [C] moon
[D] sun
82. Which gates are opened during the
month of Ramadan?
87. When will the Day of Judgement
¹³\à> ³àìÎ ëA¡à>ô ƒ¹\àP¡ìºà ëJàºà ÒÚ? occur?
[A] Gates of Hell
[¤W¡à¹ [ƒ¤Î A¡J> Qi¡ì¤?
[B] Gates of Heaven
[A] Year 7000
[C] Gates of Light
[B] Year 2050
[D] Gates of Mosque
[C] Year 2060
83. What Muslims must perform before [D] Only Allah knows
offering salah (prayers)?
Îàºàt¡ (>à³à™) šØl¡à¹ "àìK ³åκ³à>샹 [A¡ A¡¹ìt¡ 88. What is dry ablution called?
ÒÚ? Ç¡A¡ì>à *™åìA¡ [A¡ ¤ìº?
[A] Wearing of skull-cap [A] Wudhu
[B] Wearing of perfume [B] Tayammum
[C] Wudu (ablution)
[C] Ghusl
[D] Clipping of nails
[D] None of the above
84. Allah (s.w.t.) has ______.
89. What is one unit of prayer called?
"àÀàÒ (Îå¤Òà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà)-&¹ ______ "àìá¡ú
>à³à왹 &A¡A¡ìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] a son
[B] a partner [A] Fard
[C] no partner [B] Rakah
[D] a daughter [C] Juz’
[D] Sunnah
85. What did the Prophet Muhammad
(SAW) mention about the status of a 90. What is the name of the cloth worn by
Mother? men for Hajj and Umrah?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.) ³àìÚ샹 ³™¢àƒà δšìA¢¡ A¡ã l¡üìÀJ Ò\ * *³¹à¹ \>¸ šå¹ç¡È샹 š[¹‹à> A¡¹à A¡àšìØl¡¹
A¡ì¹ìá>? >à³ A¡ã?
[A] Mothers are not important at all
[A] Haram
[B] Paradise is beneath the feet of a
mother [B] Ihram
[C] Mothers are bad women [C] Qamis
[D] None of the above [D] Izaar
AUAT-2024 /119- A 13 [ P.T.O.
Page 15
91. Choose the correct alternative : 96. Which State is called the ‘Rice Bowl of
India’?
[A] Oats is a healthier alternative
ëA¡à>ô ¹à\¸ìA¡ ‘®¡à¹ìt¡¹ W¡à캹 ¤à[i¡’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Oats is a healthier alternatives
[A] Kerala
[C] Oats is healthier alternatives [B] Karnataka
[D] Oats are healthier alternatives [C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
92. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative.
97. When was the Battle of Haldighati
The ____ young neighbour greeted my fought?
parents.
Òº[ƒQà[i¡¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ ÒìÚ[áº?
[A] amicable [A] 1550
[B] amiable [B] 1576
[C] inimical [C] 1650
[D] 1701
[D] enviable
98. Which among the following is the first
93. Identify the antonym of the word
national park in India?
‘GARRULOUS’.
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ \àt¡ãÚ l¡üƒ¸à>?
[A] Innocuous
[A] Dachigam National Park
[B] Loquacious
[B] Rohila National Park
[C] Jabbering [C] Pench National Park
[D] Reticent [D] Jim Corbett National Park
94. Choose the noun form of the word 99. Which of the following is the highest
‘GLORIOUS’. award for literature in West Bengal?
[A] Glory [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ š[ÆW¡³¤ìU¹ Îà[Òìt¡¸¹ Î줢àZW¡ šå¹ÑHþà¹?
[B] Glorify [A] Rabindra Puraskar
[B] Nazrul Puraskar
[C] Glorified
[C] Bankim Puraskar
[D] Glorifying [D] Ananda Puraskar
95. Fill in the blank with the correct
100. Who was the first Chief Justice of the
alternative.
Calcutta High Court?
The boys failed to achieve a _____ A¡ºA¡àt¡à ÒàÒüìA¡àìi¢¡¹ šø=³ šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡ ëA¡
victory in the match.
[áìº>?
[A] decided
[A] Phani Bhushan Chakravartti
[B] decisive [B] William Hunter
[C] deceived [C] Barnes Peacock
[D] divisive [D] Romesh Chandra Mitra
AUAT-2024 /119- A 14
Page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /119- A 15 [ P.T.O.
Page 17
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /119- A 16 NNN24(141)—24×4
Page 18
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