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Entrance Exam
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
Page 2
Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
2-Year M. Tech. in Mechanical Engineering (P22)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )
Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours
Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________
Date of Examination : _______________________________________
Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
allowed to keep the Question Booklet with them.
5. OMR Answer Sheet will be processed by electronic means. Any untoward/irrelevant remarks,
folding or putting stray notes on the answer sheet, any damage to the answer sheet will lead to
the rejection of the same and the sole liability shall remain with the candidate.
6. Rough Work may be done at the end of the Question Booklet.
7. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before completion of the examination.
8. Use of any Electronic device like Mobile, Programmable Calculator etc. is strictly prohibited.
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /117 -A
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PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. Drilling is an example of 6. Continuity equation relates
[A] conservation of mass and
[A] orthogonal cutting
momentum
[B] oblique cutting [B] energy and work
[C] frictional losses
[C] simple cutting
[D] mass rate of flow along a
[D] uniform cutting streamline
7. The factor considered for evaluation
2. Property of a fluid by which its own of machinability is
molecules are attracted is called [A] cutting forces and power
consumption
[A] adhesion
[B] tool life
[B] cohesion [C] type of chips and shear angle
[D] All of the above
[C] viscosity
8. What does a positive displacement
[D] surface tension
pump do?
[A] Increases fluid velocity
3. Kinematic viscosity is dependent [B] Generates fluid pressure through
upon centrifugal force
[A] pressure [C] Transfers a fixed volume of fluid
per cycle
[B] distance
[D] Converts fluid kinetic energy into
[C] density potential energy
[D] flow 9. Which type of turbine is typically used
for low head and high flow rate
applications?
4. Surface tension has the units of
[A] Pelton turbine
[A] Newtowns/m2 [B] Kaplan turbine
[B] Newtowns/m [C] Wind turbine
[D] Crossflow turbine
[C] Newtowns
10. What is the purpose of a draft tube in
[D] Newtown-m a reaction turbine?
[A] To increase the rotational speed
5. Rotameter is used to measure of the turbine
[B] To convert fluid kinetic energy
[A] viscosity
into electrical energy
[B] flow [C] To direct the flow of fluid away
from the turbine
[C] pressure
[D] To recover pressure energy from
[D] velocity the fluid exiting the turbine
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 2
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11. What is stand alone data acquisition 16. Which law of thermodynamics states
system often called? that energy cannot be created or
destroyed, only transformed from one
[A] Data Blogger
form to another?
[B] Data Logger
[A] Zeroth law
[C] Data Vlogger
[B] First law
[D] Digital Blogger
[C] Second law
12. Which type of pump is commonly used [D] Third law
for oil extraction in the petroleum
industry? 17. Which property of a substance
[A] Centrifugal pump remains constant during an
isentropic process?
[B] Diaphragm pump
[A] Temperature
[C] Reciprocating pump
[B] Pressure
[D] Gear pump
[C] Entropy
13. Which equation is used to describe [D] Specific volume
the relationship between pressure,
velocity and elevation in fluid flow?
18. Which process is characterized by
[A] Bernoulli’s equation constant pressure in a closed system?
[B] Pascal’s principle [A] Isochoric process
[C] Archimedes’ principle [B] Isobaric process
[D] Boyle’s law [C] Isothermal process
[D] Adiabatic process
14. Which type of flow is characterized by
irregular fluctuations in velocity and
pressure? 19. Which cycle is used as an ideal
standard for comparison with real heat
[A] Laminar flow engines?
[B] Transitional flow [A] Rankine cycle
[C] Turbulent flow [B] Otto cycle
[D] Compressible flow [C] Brayton cycle
[D] Carnot cycle
15. Which law states that the buoyant
force on an object is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the 20. What does the term ‘adiabatic’ mean
object? in thermodynamics?
[A] Bernoulli’s principle [A] Constant temperature
[B] Pascal’s law [B] Constant pressure
[C] Archimedes’ principle [C] No heat transfer
[D] Newton’s law of viscosity [D] No work transfer
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 3 [ P.T.O.
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21. Which mode of heat transfer does not 26. Which material property determines
require a medium for propagation? the ability of a material to store and
release heat?
[A] Conduction
[A] Thermal conductivity
[B] Convection [B] Density
[C] Radiation [C] Specific heat capacity
[D] None of the above [D] Thermal diffusivity
27. Which fuel is commonly used in
22. What is the primary mode of heat combined cycle power plants?
transfer in a vacuum?
[A] Coal
[A] Conduction [B] Natural gas
[B] Convection [C] Uranium
[C] Radiation [D] Wood
[D] Advection 28. Which component in a coal-fired
power plant removes impurities and
23. What is the unit of thermal pollutants from the flue gas?
conductivity? [A] Boiler
[A] Watts per square meter (W/m2) [B] Turbine
[C] Electrostatic precipitator
[B] Watts per meter-Kelvin ( W/(m.K)) [D] Condenser
[C] Joules per kilogram-Kelvin
29. Which type of power plant uses heat
( J/(kg.K)) from the Earth’s interior to generate
electricity?
[D] Newtons per meter (N/m)
[A] Nuclear power plant
[B] Geothermal power plant
24. Which principle states that the total
[C] Wind power plant
heat gained by a system must equal
the total heat lost by the [D] Tidal power plant
surroundings?
30. Which type of power plant operates
[A] Newton’s law of cooling based on the Rankine cycle?
[B] Fourier’s law [A] Steam power plant
[B] Gas turbine power plant
[C] Kirchhoff’s law
[C] Diesel power plant
[D] First law of thermodynamics
[D] Hydroelectric power plant.
25. What type of surface is a good emitter
31. Which term describes the ability of a
of thermal radiation?
material to resist deformation under
[A] White, reflective surface the elastic limit?
[B] Smooth, shiny surface [A] Strain
[B] Stress
[C] Black, matte surface
[C] Stiffness
[D] Transparent surface [D] Poisson’s ratio
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 4
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32. Which is an example of zero Poisson’s 37. Which type of gear is used to change
ratio material? the speed and direction of rotation in
[A] Rubber machinery?
[B] Steel [A] Spur gear
[C] Acrylic [B] Helical gear
[D] Cork [C] Bevel gear
33. Which type of failure occurs in a [D] Worm gear
material when it is subjected to
repeated or fluctuating loads below 38. What is the primary purpose of a riser
its ultimate strength? in casting?
[A] Yield failure [A] To provide a pathway for molten
[B] Creep failure metal to flow into the mold cavity
[C] Fatigue failure [B] To prevent shrinkage defects by
[D] Brittle failure supplying additional molten
metal during solidification
34. What does the term “modulus of
[C] To remove impurities from the
resilience” represent in solid
molten metal
mechanics?
[D] To control the cooling rate of the
[A] The ability of a material to resist
casting
permanent deformation
[B] The ability of a material to absorb
39. Which casting process involves
energy up to fracture
injecting molten metal under high
[C] The ability of a material to recover pressure into a mold cavity?
its original shape after
deformation [A] Sand casting
[D] The maximum strain energy a [B] Investment casting
material can absorb per unit [C] Die casting
volume without plastic [D] Centrifugal casting
deformation
35. Which property of a material is 40. What type of pattern is used in
determined by the area under the investment casting to create complex
stress-strain curve? metal parts with fine details?
[A] Ultimate tensile strength [A] Wooden pattern
[B] Modulus of elasticity [B] Plastic pattern
[C] Toughness [C] Wax pattern
[D] Yield strength [D] Metal pattern
36. Which type of welding process uses a
consumable electrode and a shielding 41. Which defect in casting is caused by
gas to protect the weld pool? the improper alignment of mold
sections?
[A] Gas metal arc welding (GMAW)
[B] Shielded metal arc welding [A] Shrinkage defect
(SMAW) [B] Blowhole
[C] Gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW) [C] Misrun
[D] Flux-Corred (Plasma) arc welding [D] Mismatch
(FCAW)
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 5 [ P.T.O.
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42. In sand casting, what is the purpose 47. Which type of material undergoes
of a core? significant plastic deformation during
[A] To provide additional support to the forming process without fracture?
the mold cavity [A] Brittle material
[B] To reduce the weight of the [B] Ductile material
casting [C] Composite material
[C] To create hollow sections in the [D] Ceramic material
casting
48. Which forming process is used to
[D] To improve the surface finish of
create cylindrical parts by forcing a
the casting
billet through a die?
[A] Stamping
43. What is the term for the process of
removing excess material from a [B] Extrusion
casting to achieve the final shape and [C] Forging
dimensions? [D] Swaging
[A] Fettling
49. What is the purpose of a filler metal
[B] Drafting in welding?
[C] Pattern making [A] To shield the weld pool
[D] Core making [B] To provide electrical conductivity
[C] To enhance the mechanical
44. Which casting process utilizes a properties of the joint
rotating mold to create cylindrical [D] To fill the gap between the base
metal parts such as pipes or tubes? metals
[A] Sand casting
50. Which type of bonding is predominant
[B] Investment casting in ceramics?
[C] Die casting [A] Metallic bonding
[D] Centrifugal casting [B] Covalent bonding
[C] Ionic bonding
45. Which defect in casting is caused by
[D] Van der Waals bonding
the incomplete filling of the mold
cavity? 51. What property of a material refers to
[A] Shrinkage defect its ability to absorb energy before
[B] Blowhole fracture?
[A] Resilience
[C] Misrun
[B] Toughness
[D] Mismatch
[C] Hardness
46. Which forming process involves [D] Elasticity
stretching a sheet metal over a die
52. External taper can be accurately
cavity to form a desired shape?
measured with the help of
[A] Stamping
[A] sine bar and slip gauges
[B] Deep drawing [B] dividing head
[C] Rolling [C] precision balls and height gauge
[D] Extrusion [D] clinometer
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 6
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53. What type of crystal structure is 57. What is the primary function of a
typically exhibited by metals such as flywheel in a machine?
gold, aluminum and copper? [A] To store energy and smooth out
[A] Face-centered cubic (fcc) fluctuations in speed
[B] Body-centered cubic (bcc) [B] To transmit power between shafts
[C] Hexagonal close packed (hcp) [C] To provide linear motion
[D] Tetragonal [D] To increase the mechanical
advantage of a system
54. Which alloying element is commonly
added to steel to improve its corrosion 58. What is the purpose of a governor in
resistance? a machine system?
[A] Copper [A] To provide rotary motion
[B] To control the speed of an engine
[B] Chromium
or machine
[C] Aluminum
[C] To transmit power between shafts
[D] Zinc
[D] To amplify mechanical force
55. Which material property describes the 59. Which type of bearing is used to
resistance of a material to indentation support radial and axial loads
or scratching? simultaneously?
[A] Ductility [A] Thrust bearing
[B] Toughness [B] Journal bearing
[C] Hardness [C] Tapered roller bearing
[D] Elasticity [D] Spherical roller bearing
56. What is the primary difference 60. What is the primary advantage of
between amorphous and crystalline using robotics in manufacturing
materials? processes?
[A] Amorphous materials have a [A] Lower initial investment cost
regular atomic structure, while [B] Reduced flexibility in production
crystalline materials have a
disordered atomic structure [C] Improved accuracy and
repeatability
[B] Amorphous materials have a
[D] Decreased complexity in
disordered atomic structure,
operations
while crystalline materials have
a regular atomic structure
61. Which machining operation is used
[C] Amorphous materials are ductile, to produce internal threads in a
while crystalline materials are workpiece?
brittle
[A] Tapping
[D] Amorphous materials exhibit
[B] Facing
metallic bonding, while
crystalline materials exhibit [C] Turning
covalent bonding [D] Boring
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 7 [ P.T.O.
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62. Which of the following layouts is 67. What converts physical input into
suited to job production? output, among the basic parts of a
measuring system?
[A] Process layout
[B] Product layout [A] Transducer or sensor
[C] Plant layout [B] Signal conditioning
[D] Functional layout
[C] Intelligence
63. Which technique is used to determine [D] Display
the optimal sequence of tasks in a
project to minimize project duration?
68. What are transducers?
[A] PERT (Program Evaluation and
Review Technique) [A] They convert power from one form
to another
[B] CPM (Critical Path Method)
[C] Queuing theory [B] They convert work from one form
to another
[D] Transportation problem
[C] They convert work to power
64. Which of the following thermocouple
generates highest e.m.f. for a given [D] They convert energy from one
temperature? form to another
[A] Copper-constantan
69. Which type of system uses ‘oil under
[B] Iron-constantan pressure’ means for power
[C] Chromel-alumel transmission?
[D] Silver-palladium. [A] Fluid power system
65. What does CNC machine use to [B] Hydraulic system
control motion and speed?
[C] Pneumatic system
[A] Numerical
[D] Stepper motors
[B] Programs, as well as computer
keyboard, graphical user
interface 70. Which kind of sensor in mechatronics
can detect the presence or absence
[C] Feedback system
of items or targets within its sensing
[D] GUI range without requiring physical
contact?
66. The main function of actuator is [A] Displacement sensor
[A] to produce motion
[B] Proximity sensor
[B] detect input
[C] Position sensor
[C] detect output
[D] detect the state of the system [D] Velocity sensor
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 8
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PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. As-salamu alaykum means 76. One who receives revelation in the form
of message but not book is called a
"àÎ-Îàºà³å "àºàÒüA塳-&¹ "=¢
[A] How are you? ¤àt¢¡à "àA¡àì¹ [™[> 'Åã šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, "=W¡ Kø”‚àA¡àì¹
[B] Peace be upon you >Ú, [t¡[> Òìº> &A¡\>
[C] Wish you good luck [A] Prophet but not messenger
[B] messenger but not Prophet
[D] Glory be to Allah
[C] Prophet as well as messenger
72. Which of the following is/are true?
[D] neither Prophet nor messenger
[>ì´•¹ ëA¡à>[i¡/ëA¡à>P¡[º Î[k¡A¡?
[A] Muhammad (PBUH) is the last 77. The name of the second last Prophet is
Prophet of Islam
[‡t¡ãÚ ëÅÈ >¤ã¹ >à³ Òº
[B] Islam existed since the
beginning [A] David
[C] All Prophets practiced and [B] Moses
propagated Islam [C] Jesus
[D] All of the above [D] Ahmad
73. The Holy Qur’an can be read by 78. Who is called the ‘Father of Kitten’?
‘š[¤y A塹"à>’ šØl¡ìt¡ šàì¹> ‘ëáài¡ [¤Øl¡à캹 [št¡à’ A¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[A] only scholars [A] Abu Hurairah
[B] only rich people [B] Abu Ubaida
[C] only men [C] Talha
[D] everybody [D] Zubair
74. The prayer at the evening is called
79. The first martyr in Islam is
ÎÞ꡸à줺๠>à³à™ìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ
Òüκàì³¹ šø=³ ÅÒムÒìº>
[A] Asr
[A] Hasan
[B] Maghrib
[B] Husain
[C] Tahajjud
[C] Sumayya
[D] None of the above
[D] Yasir
75. The number of most notable
companions of Prophet Muhammad 80. The meal taken for breaking the fast is
(PBUH) is called
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.)-&¹ [¤ìÅÈ®¡àì¤ l¡üìÀJì™àK¸ ë¹à™à Î³àœ¡ A¡¹ìt¡ ë™ Jà¤à¹ Jà*Úà ÒÚ t¡àìA¡ ¤ºà
ÎàÒà¤ã¹ Î}J¸à Òº ÒÚ
[A] 1 [A] Shari
[B] 4 [B] Iftar
[C] 40 [C] Lunch
[D] 313 [D] Dinner
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 9 [ P.T.O.
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81. A Prophet is called _____ in Arabic. 86. The Islamic Calendar is based on the
&A¡\> >¤ãìA¡ "๤ãìt¡ _____ ¤ºà ÒÚ¡ú _____.
[A] Nabi Òüκà[³A¡ A¡¸à캓¡à¹ _____-&¹ l¡üš¹ [®¡[v¡ A¡ì¹¡ú
[B] Rasul [A] planets
[C] Wahi [B] solar
[D] None of the above [C] moon
[D] sun
82. Which gates are opened during the
month of Ramadan?
87. When will the Day of Judgement
¹³\à> ³àìÎ ëA¡à>ô ƒ¹\àP¡ìºà ëJàºà ÒÚ? occur?
[A] Gates of Hell
[¤W¡à¹ [ƒ¤Î A¡J> Qi¡ì¤?
[B] Gates of Heaven
[A] Year 7000
[C] Gates of Light
[B] Year 2050
[D] Gates of Mosque
[C] Year 2060
83. What Muslims must perform before [D] Only Allah knows
offering salah (prayers)?
Îàºàt¡ (>à³à™) šØl¡à¹ "àìK ³åκ³à>샹 [A¡ A¡¹ìt¡ 88. What is dry ablution called?
ÒÚ? Ç¡A¡ì>à *™åìA¡ [A¡ ¤ìº?
[A] Wearing of skull-cap
[A] Wudhu
[B] Wearing of perfume
[B] Tayammum
[C] Wudu (ablution)
[C] Ghusl
[D] Clipping of nails
[D] None of the above
84. Allah (s.w.t.) has ______.
89. What is one unit of prayer called?
"àÀàÒ (Îå¤Òà>à× *Úà t¡àÚàºà)-&¹ ______ "àìá¡ú
[A] a son >à³à왹 &A¡A¡ìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] a partner [A] Fard
[C] no partner [B] Rakah
[D] a daughter [C] Juz’
[D] Sunnah
85. What did the Prophet Muhammad
(SAW) mention about the status of a
90. What is the name of the cloth worn by
Mother?
men for Hajj and Umrah?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà.) ³àìÚ샹 ³™¢àƒà δšìA¢¡ A¡ã l¡üìÀJ
Ò\ * *³¹à¹ \>¸ šå¹ç¡È샹 š[¹‹à> A¡¹à A¡àšìØl¡¹
A¡ì¹ìá>?
>à³ A¡ã?
[A] Mothers are not important at all
[A] Haram
[B] Paradise is beneath the feet of a
mother [B] Ihram
[C] Mothers are bad women [C] Qamis
[D] None of the above [D] Izaar
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 10
Page 12
91. Choose the correct alternative : 96. Which State is called the ‘Rice Bowl of
India’?
[A] Oats is a healthier alternative
ëA¡à>ô ¹à\¸ìA¡ ‘®¡à¹ìt¡¹ W¡à캹 ¤à[i¡’ ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[B] Oats is a healthier alternatives
[A] Kerala
[C] Oats is healthier alternatives
[B] Karnataka
[D] Oats are healthier alternatives [C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu
92. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative.
97. When was the Battle of Haldighati
The ____ young neighbour greeted my fought?
parents.
Òº[ƒQà[i¡¹ ™å‡ý¡ A¡ì¤ ÒìÚ[áº?
[A] amicable
[A] 1550
[B] amiable [B] 1576
[C] inimical [C] 1650
[D] 1701
[D] enviable
93. Identify the antonym of the word 98. Which among the following is the first
‘GARRULOUS’. national park in India?
[A] Innocuous [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ šø=³ \àt¡ãÚ l¡üƒ¸à>?
[A] Dachigam National Park
[B] Loquacious
[B] Rohila National Park
[C] Jabbering [C] Pench National Park
[D] Reticent [D] Jim Corbett National Park
94. Choose the noun form of the word 99. Which of the following is the highest
‘GLORIOUS’. award for literature in West Bengal?
[A] Glory [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ š[ÆW¡³¤ìU¹ Îà[Òìt¡¸¹ Î줢àZW¡ šå¹ÑHþà¹?
[B] Glorify [A] Rabindra Puraskar
[C] Glorified [B] Nazrul Puraskar
[C] Bankim Puraskar
[D] Glorifying
[D] Ananda Puraskar
95. Fill in the blank with the correct
alternative. 100. Who was the first Chief Justice of the
Calcutta High Court?
The boys failed to achieve a _____
victory in the match. A¡ºA¡àt¡à ÒàÒüìA¡àìi¢¡¹ šø=³ šø‹à> [¤W¡à¹š[t¡ ëA¡
[A] decided
[áìº>?
[A] Phani Bhushan Chakravartti
[B] decisive
[B] William Hunter
[C] deceived
[C] Barnes Peacock
[D] divisive [D] Romesh Chandra Mitra
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 11 [ P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /117 -A 12 NNN24(141)—24×4
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