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Sample Paper
&
Question Paper Pattern
2022
2023
GOA BOARD
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BANKING SYLLABUS FOR STANDARD XII COMMERCE
UNIT I
A) FINAL ACCOUNTS OF BANKS AS REQUIRED BY THE BANKING REGULATION ACT
1. Proforma of the Profit and Loss Account and details of all the schedules appearing therein
2. Proforma of the Balance Sheet and details of all the schedules appearing therein
B) BANKING REGULATION ACT
Some important sections of the Act relating to:
1. Objectives of passing the Act
2. Definition of banks
3. Functions of banks
4. Activities prohibited for banks
5. Various returns to be submitted by the banks to the RBI
6. Inspection by the RBI
7. Directives issued by the RBI
8. Licensing of banks
9. Capital Requirements
10. Opening of branches
11. Provisions regarding Cash Reserves, Liquidity Ratio
12. Management of banks
13. Winding Up of banks
UNIT II: INTERNATIONAL TRADE
A) Need for international trade, International division of labour, advantages and disadvantages of international trade,
comparison of domestic trade with international trade
B) Banks and foreign trade
1. Methods of payment used in international trade
2. Letters of Credit:
Meaning, definition, types of LC, parties to LC, Procedure of opening LC, importance of documents in LC transactions,
negotiation of Bills under LC
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3. Various shipping documents: Bills of Lading, Billof Exchange, Commercial and Consular Invoice, Certificate of
Origin, Packing List, Health Certificate, Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary LC, International Commercial
Terms
4. Issuing and encashment of traveler’s cheques, purchase and sale of foreign currency notes and coins, currencies of
various countries
5. Role of ECGC and EXIM Bank in financing international trade
6. Recent trends in liberalization of trade
UNIT III: GENERAL BANKING BUSINESS
A)
1. General relationship between banker and customer- debtor- creditor, agent- principal, bailee- bailor, trustee-beneficiary
relationship
2. Banker’s obligation to honour cheques
3. Garnishee Order- Meaning, Steps in the issue of a garnishee order
4. Banker’s obligation to maintain secrecy of customer’s accounts- exceptions to the rule of secrecy
5. Banker’s Rights- Right of general lien, Right of set-off, Right of appropriation of accounts, Right of charging
compound interest and Right of charging commission
B) Ancillary services rendered by banks:
Executor, Administrator, Trustee, References given by banks, Standing instructions, Credit cards, Debit cards, Buying
and selling securities on behalf of customers.
UNIT IV: LOANS AND ADVANCES AND PRIORITY SECTOR ADVANCES
A) LOANS AND ADVANCES
1. Principles of good lending- safety, liquidity, profitability, security, spread, national interest, liquidity v/s profitability of
banks
2. Borrower study and status report- character, capacity, capital, personal interview of the borrower
3. Secured Loans-
Characteristics of good security
Margin- Meaning, Need, basis of charging margin
4. Methods of creating charge over securities- Lien, Pledge, Hypothecation, Mortgage and Assignment (meaning, features
and differences)
5. Various securities accepted by banks-
-Stock exchange securities: Government securities, Shares and debentures issued by joint stock companies, others- NSC,
KVP
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-Land and building
-Life insurance policies
- Goods and commodities
- Documents of title to goods
- Fixed deposit receipts
- Gold
(Precautions to be taken by banks, advantages and disadvantages to the banker)
B) PRIORITY SECTOR LENDING TO:
1. Agriculture
2. Small Scale Industries
3. Transport operators
4. Self-employed/ educated unemployed
5. Small traders
6. Travel and Tourism
(Precautions to be taken by bankers while lending, for prompt recovery of loans advanced to these sectors)
Reference books: Banking Theory Law and Practice- B.S. Raman,
Banking Law and Practice- P.N. Varshney and H.C Agarval
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BANKING SYLLABUS (PRACTICALA) FOR STANDARD XII COMMERCE
A) PROBLEMS
1. Disclosure to the police
2. Safe custody of articles- Power of attorney
3. Safe deposit locker- Death of the renter
4. Arrest of a customer
5. Advances against shares
6. Garnishee order
7. Set-off against the account of a partnership firm
8. Letter of credit
9. Remittance of funds- Telegraphic transfer
10. Limitation period
B) SPECIMENS OF
1. Demand Draft
2. Demand Promissory Note
3. Travelers cheque
C) APPLICATION FORM FOR
1. Travelers cheques
2. Loan against term deposits
3. Documentary credit
4. House loan
Reference books: Banking Theory Law and Practice- B.S. Raman,
Banking Law and Practice- P.N. Varshney and H.C Agarval
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DISTRIBUTION OF UNITS AND MARKS AS PER THE EXAMINATION TO BE HELD DURING THE
ACADEMIC YEAR 2022-2023
I. FIRST INTERNAL TEST/ FIRST FORMATIVE EXAMINATION
Duration: 1 hour Max. Marks: 20
Unit No. Name of the Unit Marks
Unit 1 A. Final accounts of banks 06
B. Banking Regulation Act 14
Total 20
II. SECOND INTERNAL TEST/ SECOND FORMATIVE EXAMINATION
Duration: 1 hour Max. Marks: 20
Unit No. Name of the Unit Marks
Unit II International Trade 10
Unit IV A) Loans and Advances 07
B) Priority sector advances 03
Total 20
III. THIRD INTERNAL TEST/ INOVATIVE TEST (As per GBSHSE Circular No. 39 dated 02/08/2021)
Max. Marks: 20
A. Any innovative form/forms of testing students may be used. Topics for testing to be assigned from the syllabus only
…….. 10 marks
B. Internal Practical……… 10 marks
Problems Garnishee order Any one problem
Set-off against the account of a partnership firm for 4 marks
Letter of credit
Remittance of funds- Telegraphic transfer
Limitation period
Specimens Demand Promissory Note Any one Specimen
Travelers Cheque for 2 marks
Application Loan against term deposits Any one Form for
forms Documentary credit 4 marks
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IV. FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION (MCQ form)
Duration: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 40
Unit No. Name of the Unit Marks
Unit I A. Final accounts of banks 08
B. Banking Regulation Act 15
Unit II International trade 17
Total 40
V. SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION (Subjective questions)
Duration: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 30
Unit No. Name of the Unit Marks
Unit III A. Banker Customer Relationship 09
B. Ancillary Services rendered by banks 04
Unit IV A. Loans and Advances 13
B. Priority Sector Lending 04
Total 30
VI. FINAL PRACTICAL EXAMINATION
Duration: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 20
Q. No. Topic Marks
1 Problem 4
2 A. Specimen 3
B. Specimen 3
3 Problem 4
4 Application form 4
Journal 2
Total 20
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MODEL QUESTION PAPER, FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION
To be implemented from the academic year 2022-23 onwards
Time: 90 minutes BANKING (COMMERCE)
Subject Code
4 6 0 1
Total No. of Questions: 40 Maximum marks: 40
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This question paper contains 40 questions.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Every question has four choices for its answer- A) B) C) and D) and only one of them is
the correct answer.
4. On the OMR sheet, for each question number, darken with a ball point pen ONLY ONE
bubble corresponding to what you consider to be the most appropriate answer from
among the four choices provided.
5. Please note that it is not possible to change the answer once you have filled up the
bubble with the ball point pen. Hence, sufficient care must be taken while darkening
the bubbles.
6. For each question, you will be awarded ONE MARK if you have darkened only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer. In all other cases, you will get zero mark.
There is no negative marking.
7. Only ONE OMR SHEET will be provided to each candidate.
8. Use only Black or Blue Ball Point Pen.
9. Figures to the right indicate the maximum marks allotted to each question.
Q.1 The final accounts of a banking company include _________
A) Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet
B) Balance Sheet
C) Ledger Accounts
(1)
D) Profit and Loss Account
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Q.2 Under which schedule does the item ‘interest accrued’ appear, in the Final Accountsof the
Banking Companies?
A) Other income
B) Fixed assets
C) Interest earned (1)
D) Other assets
Q.3 Which of the following will not appear under the ‘schedule: 12’ of the Balance Sheetof the
Banking Company?
A) advances to the public sector
B) claims against the Bank not acknowledged as debts
C) guarantees given by the Bank on behalf of its customers in India and abroad
D) acceptances, endorsements and other obligations of the Bank. (1)
Q.4 In which schedule does the detail ‘Share Premium Fund’ feature?
A) Capital
B) Reserves and Surplus
C) Advances
D) Fixed Assets (1)
Q.5 ‘Demand Deposits’ form a part of ------------- schedule.
A) Cash and balance with the RBI
B) Fixed Assets
C) Other liabilities and provisions
D) Deposits (1)
Q.6 Under which schedule does the item ‘commission and brokerage’ appear, in theProfit
and Loss Account of the Banking Company functioning in India?
A) interest earned
B) operating expenses
C) other income (1)
D) interest expended
Q.7 As per the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, under which schedule does the item
‘advertising and publicity’ appear?
A) Schedule No. 13
B) Schedule No. 14
C) Schedule No. 15 (1)
D) Schedule No. 16
Q.8 Which of the following will not appear under the schedule ‘borrowing’ of the Balance
Sheet of the Banking Company?
A) Borrowing from the public
B) Borrowing from the Banks
C) Borrowing from the RBI (1)
D) Borrowing from the financial Institutions
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Q.9 ‘Banks need to function as per the directives specified by the higher authority’. In thelight
of this statement, identify the authority.
A) RBI
B) SBI
C) IDBI
D) ICICI (1)
Q.10 The minimum Cash Reserve Ratio prescribed for Banks in India is .
A) 15% of the liquid assets
B) 3% of the time and demand liabilities
C) 10% of the time liabilities (1)
D) 4% of the time and demand liabilities.
Q.11 A bank account in-operative for how many years is considered as an ‘unclaimed
deposit’ according to the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act?
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years (1)
Q.12 ‘Every Bank, has to send its details of those accounts that have not been operated for
more than ten years along with their Final Accounts to the RBI’. In the context tothis
phrase, identify the ‘statement’ to be submitted by the Bank.
A) Unclaimed deposit statement
B) quarterly deposit statement
C) half yearly deposit statement (1)
D) monthly statement
Q.13 The Certificate that is considered compulsory for the closure of the Banking
Company in India is called .
A) Certificate of Winding Up
B) Certificate of Origin
C) Health Certificate (1)
D) Certificate of Analysis
Q.14 The maximum percentage of SLR that can be fixed by the RBI for Banking
Companies in India is .
A) 40% of time and demand liabilities
B) 25% of time and demand liabilities
C) 3% of time and demand liabilities
D) 20% of time and demand liabilities (1)
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Q.15 Under what circumstances can a Bank license be cancelled?
A) When the Bank fails to follow the terms and conditions set by the RBI.
B) When the Bank is found to have been carrying on business other than Banking.
C) When the Banking Company does not carry on its business in the interest of its
depositors as well as the general public.
D) All the above (1)
The closure of a Bank according to a resolution taken by its Board of Directors and
Q.16 Shareholders is called as _________
A) Compulsory winding up
B) Own account winding up
C) Voluntary winding up
D) Winding up by investors (1)
Q.17 ‘BB Bank, London has applied to the RBI for a license to set up a branch office in
Kolkata, India. What is the minimum capital and reserve required to be maintained by the
said Banking Company to operate in this area?
A) 5 lakhs
B) 15 lakhs
C) 10 lakhs (1)
D) 20 lakhs
Q.18 Under what circumstance can the Banking Company be asked by the High Court to
compulsorily liquidate its business activities?
A) When the Bank is able to pay its debts.
B) When the Banking Company has followed the norms for capital requirements.
C) When the Banking Company is not prohibited from receiving fresh deposits.
D) When it is not operating in the interests of its depositors. (1)
Q.19 ‘Banking perform significant primary and secondary functions’. In view of this
statement, which of the following is not a function of a bank?
A) bartering of goods
B) accepting deposits
C) allowing withdrawals from Bank accounts (1)
D) investment of surplus funds
Q.20 ‘Checking the books of accounts and finding out the facts concerning the functioning of the
Bank by interviewing the Bank employees is done by the RBI officials’.Which section of the
Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is applicable in this case?
A) Section 24
B) Section 26
C) Section 30
D) Section 35 (1)
Q.21 SD Bank Austria, has applied for a license to the RBI to set up a branch office in Goa. The
RBI will refuse this request if ________
A) The bank satisfies the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
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B) The bank carries on operations in the interest of depositors
C) The government of Austria restricts the setting up of Indian banks in Austria
D) The bank has fulfilled the provisions of the minimum capital requirement
(1)
BCA Ltd. an Indian banking company has applied to the RBI for the issue of a license to set
Q.22 up a new branch office in a village in Nagaland. What is the minimum capital required to be
maintained by the bank in this case?
A) 5 lakhs
B) 10 lakhs
C) 15 lakhs (1)
D) 20 lakhs
Q.23 Mr. Prakash has instructed his banker to transfer Rs. 15,000/- to his landlord as monthly rent.
Identify the type of function performed by the bank in this case.
A) Agency function
B) Investment function
C) Function of accepting deposits
D) Function of lending funds (1)
Q.24 The concept of International division of labour and specialization denotes _______
A) each country specializing in the production of a few products on a large scale
B) each country dividing its human resource and assigning certain work
C) assigning of sub-activities to a particular person
D) dividing labour on the basis of their language, religion etc. (1)
Q.25 The most widely used mode of settling international trade is _______
A) Advance payment
B) Value Payable by Post
C) Letter of Credit
(1)
D) International Cheque
Q.26 Identify the type of letter of credit that covers multiple transactions over a specific period of
time.
A) Documentary letter of credit
B) Rotating letter of credit
C) Revolutionary letter of credit (1)
D) Revolving letter of credit
Q.27 A set of rules on the issuance and use of letters of credit is __________
A) Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits
B) Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credit
C) Common Code for Documentary Credit (1)
D) Uniform Practices and Customs for Documentary Credit
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Q.28 J & S Electronics, Germany manufactures and exports washing machines to Brazil.
Identify the document that needs to be obtained for the purpose of Customs Clearance.
A) Health certificate
B) Certificate of origin
C) Certificate of Winding Up
D) Mate’s Receipt (1)
Q.29 Which of the following is not an advantage of international trade?
A) Specialization
B) exhaustion of resources
C) Earning Foreign Reserves
D) Employment Opportunities (1)
Q.30 ‘Apart from policies issued by Insurance Companies, importers and exporters look for
additional support in terms of coverage of risks ’.Which authority can provide to these
traders, such kind of a support in International trade?
A) EXIM
B) ECGC
C) IDBI
D) ICICI (1)
Q.31 ‘There are many Price Quotations used in the conduct of international trade’. Which one
of the following is considered to have the highest costs factor involved in it?
A) Loco
B) FOB
C) CIF
D) Franco (1)
Q.32 The Certificate issued by government authorities confirming that the quality of the products
being exported meet international standards of safety for consumption is______.
A) Certificate of origin
B) Health Certificate
C) Packing list
(1)
D) Commercial Invoice
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Q.33 ‘The importer from London has ordered 4,000 ‘bags of spices’ from India’. Which of the
following document will help him to verify the quantity and type of goods, once the
consignment is delivered to him by the Shipping Company?
A) Certificate of origin
B) Packing List
C) Inspection Certificate
D) Certificate of Analysis (1)
Q.34 ‘Mr. D has submitted the ‘Marine Insurance Policy’ for negotiation under a Letter of Credit’
transaction to the bank. As a banker what aspects will you consider while examining the
document?
A) the goods being exported are sufficiently insured
B) the value of the policy is at least 10% more than the actual value of the goods
C) that the policy covers the entire voyage
D) all of the above (1)
Q.35 ‘AKL Bank issues a Letter of Credit to M/S Wolf Traders on behalf of Mr. G’.What is the
position of the ‘AKL Bank’ in the above case?
A) Importer
B) Opening Bank
C) Exporter
D) Negotiating Bank
(1)
Q.36 ‘GHL Shipping Company, London has accepted a consignment of goods from its customer
for the purpose for carriage to the Philippines’. Identify the document issued by the shipping
company acknowledging the receipt of goods.
A) Bill of Lading
B) Mate’s Receipt
C) Consular invoice (1)
D) Commercial invoice
Q.37 Mr. A has exported a consignment of goods to Mr. Z in America. Payment has been made
through a letter of credit arrangement with XYZ Bank Ltd. America. Identify the beneficiary
of the letter of credit in this case.
A) XYZ Bank
B) Mr. A
C) Mr. Z
(1)
D) None
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Q.38 Which of the following is considered as a merit of international trade?
A) High standard of living
B) Rivalry among nations
C) Over dependence on Imports (1)
D) Differences in currencies used
Q.39 ‘Letter of Credit’ is considered as one of the important forms of credit payment,
usedin international trade’. Which of the following is an advantage of the same?
A) certainty of payment
B) trade credit
C) obtain advance payment (1)
D) All of the above
Q.40 The premier export finance institution of the country that seeks to build value by
integrating foreign trade and investment with the economic rise of India is ____
A) EXIM
B) ECGC
C) NABARD (1)
D) HSBC Bank
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DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER- FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION
(XII COMMERCE)
I. Weightage to learning out comes and difficulty levels:
Sr. Learning Marks Percentage Difficulty Marks Percentage
No. outcomes levels
1 Knowledge 12 30% Easy 12 30 %
2 Understanding 20 50% Average 16 40%
3 Application 08 20% Difficult 12 30 %
Total 40 100 % Total 40 100 %
II. Weightage to content:
Sr. Units/ Sub Unit Marks
No.
Unit 1:
A: Final Accounts of banking companies 08
B: Banking Regulation Act 15
Unit II: International trade 17
Total 40
III. Weightage to forms of questions and expected time to answer the questions:
Sr. Form of Marks for Number of Total marks Max. time
No. questions each questions
question
1 Very short 01 40 40 90 mins.
answer type
(VSA)
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BLUE PRINT- FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION, XII COMMERCE, BANKING
DURATION: 1 ½ HOUR MAX. MARKS: 40
OBJECTIVES Knowledge Understanding Application Total Marks
Content Area VSA VSA VSA
Unit I
Final acc. Of Q. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 08
banks 6, 7, 8
Banking Reg. Act Q. 10, 13, 14 Q. 9, 11, 12, 15, Q. 17, 19, 22 15
16, 18, 20, 21,
23
Unit II
International Q. 27 Q. 24, 25, 26, 28, Q. 33, 34, 35, 17
Trade 29, 30, 31, 32, 37, 40
36, 38, 39
Total 12 Marks 20 Marks 08 Marks 40 Marks
Knowledge: 12 marks (30 %)
Understanding: 20 marks (50 %)
Application: 08 marks (20 %)
Total: 40 marks (100 %)
Easy: = 12 marks (30 %) (Q.1, 5, 8, 10, 11, 13, 15, 19, 21, 23, 25, 39)
Average: 16 marks (40 %) (Q4, 6, 7, 9, 12, 14, 16, 17, 18, 20, 22, 28, 29, 31, 32, 38)
Difficult: 12 marks (30 %) (Q. 2, 3, 24, 26, 27, 30, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 40)
Total: 40 marks (100 %)
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MODEL QUESTION PAPER, SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION
To be implemented from the academic year 2022-23 onwards
Time: 1 ½ hours SECOND TERM BANKING
Subject Code
H 4 6 0 1
Total No. of Questions: 14 Maximum marks: 30
INSTRUCTIONS:
i. This question paper contains 14 questions.
ii. All questions are compulsory.
iii. There is no overall choice for questions. However, there is an internal choice for
Question No. 14.
iv. Marks for each question are indicated against it.
v. Answer each ‘PART’ on a fresh page.
vi. PART-A, Very short answer type question.
PART-B, Questions should be answered in about 30 words each.
PART-C, Questions should be answered in about 60 words each.
PART-D, Questions should be answered in about 100 words each.
PART-A
1. SK Bank Ltd. has received a garnishee order attaching the account of one
of its customer. On the appointed date, the bank officials fail to appear
before the Court. Hence, the Court served the Final Order. What is the
specific term used for the Final Order? 01
2. A customer of ANC Bank Ltd. Has died without leaving a will. Hence,
the Court has appointed the banker for the settlement of the estate and the
property of the deceased customer. In what capacity does the banker act in
this situation? 01
3. Name the type of plastic money which has become quite popular in
modern times and can be used even with zero balance in the account. 01
4. Identify the principle of sound lending which is based on the phrase ‘do
not place all eggs in one basket’. 01
5. Mr. A has availed of a loan facility from XYZ Bank Ltd. for the purchase
of a flat. Identify the method that the bank can use to create a charge on
the flat accepted as security. 01
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PART-B
6. What are the conditions to be satisfied by the banker for exercising the
right of set-off? (any two points) 02
7. Mr. J has opened a Recurring Deposit Account in AB Bank Ltd. and has
given written instructions to the banker to transfer Rs. 5,000/- from his
Saving’s Account into the Recurring Deposit Account. As a banker, what
factors will you consider while following the instructions given by Mr. J? 02
8. As a banker how would you judge the ‘character’ and ‘capital’ as two
important aspects while studying the background of the borrower? 02
9. ‘Government Securities are gaining popularity and are usually preferred
as security for bank advances.’ Justify this statement by giving any two
reasons. 02
PART-C
10. ‘The legal position of a banker as a debtor differs from his position as a
trustee.’ Justify this statement by providing any three reasons. 03
11. Why do bankers consider fixed deposit receipts as safe securities for bank
advances? Any three points. 03
12. Though a banker is bound by the clause of secrecy yet, he is permitted to
disclose details of his customer’s account to third parties under certain
circumstances. With reference to this statement, explain any three
circumstances which justify such disclosure by the bank. 03
PART D
13. The Loans and Advances Department of RAV Bank Ltd. has received an
application from TR Transport Agency, Panjim- Goa for a loan of Rs 25
lakhs for the purchase of a new vehicle. As the head of the department,
what precautions will you take while considering the loan application?
04
14. Mr. D a retailer has approached your bank for a loan of Rs. 45,000/- and
has offered a stock of goods as security to cover the loan. As the branch
manager, what precautions will you take before sanctioning the loan? 04
OR
‘Pledge is one of the methods by which banks create a charge on
securities offered for an advance.’ In this regard, explain any four
essential features of Pledge. 04
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DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER-SECOND TERMINAL EXMINATION (XII
COMMERCE)
I. Weightage to learning out comes and difficulty levels:
Sr. Learning Marks Percentage Difficulty Marks Percentage
No. outcomes levels
1 Knowledge 09 30% Easy 09 30 %
2 Understanding 15 50% Average 12 40%
3 Application 06 20% Difficult 09 30 %
Total 30 100 % Total 30 100 %
II. Weightage to content:
Sr. Units/ Sub Unit Marks
No.
1 Unit III: A) Banker-Customer Relationship 09
2 B) Ancillary services rendered by banks 04
3 Unit IV: A) Loans and advances 13
4 B) Priority sector advances 04
Total 30
III. Weightage to forms of questions and expected time to answer the questions:
Sr. Form of Marks for Number of Total marks Approx. time
No. questions each question questions required
1 Very short 01 05 05 10 mins.
answer type
(VSA)
2 Short Answer 02 04 08 25 mins.
Type (SA-I)
3 Short Answer 03 03 09 25 mins
Type (SA-II)
4 Long Answer 04 02 08 30 mins.
Type (LA)
Total 14 30 90 mins
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BLUE PRINT- SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION, XII COMMERCE, BANKING
DURATION: 1 ½ HOUR MAX. MARKS: 30
Objective Knowledge Understanding Application Tota
s l
Content VS SA SA LA VSA SA- SA LA VSA SA- SA - LA
A -I -II I -II I II
Banker- Q6 Q1 Q Q 10 09
customer 12
relations
Ancillary Q2 Q7 04
services Q3
Loans & Q *Q Q5 Q8 Q4 13
advances 11 14 Q9
Priority Q 13 04
sect. adv.
Total 02 03 04 04 04 03 04 01 02 03 30
Marks
*denotes choice in question.
Knowledge: 09 marks (30 %) Easy: = 09 marks (30 %) (Q. 8, 11, 14)
Understanding: 15 marks (50 %) Average: 12 marks (40 %) (Q 1, 6, 7, 12, 13)
Application: 06 marks (20 %) Difficult: 09 marks (30 %) (Q2, 3, 4, 5, 9, 10)
Total: 30 marks (100 %) Total: 30 marks (100 %)