NEET MDS 2023 Question Paper
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Page 1
NEET MDS 2023
QUESTION PAPER
QUESTION PAPER
Page 2
1. Drug of choice for absence seizures:
Q . Dentin dysplasia
3
1. Valproate 4. Turner’s hypoplasia
2. Phenytoin
3. Diazepam 7. A patient was operated for thyroid
Q
4. Carbamazepine disorder (thyroidectomy). Parameters
were normal on monitoring. On the same
2. Drug of choice for PSVT:
Q day, around evening, the patient
1. Adenosine developed pain and swelling over the
2. Verapamil neck. On exploration of the surgical site
3. Esmolol bouts of clots were found. What would
4. Propranolol have happened to the patient?
1. Primary hemorrhage
Q3. True Yeast is: 2. Reactionary hemorrhage
1. Candida albicans 3. Secondary hemorrhage
2. Cryptococcus Neoformans 4. Malignancy
3. Histoplasma
4. Aspergillus niger 8. A 6-year-old male child had a 1-week
Q
history of swelling in the extremities and
4. Allopurinol and xanthine oxidase
Q around the eyes. His mother observed
inhibition is a type of: blood in his urine. The child is suffering
1. Suicidal inhibition from:
2. Competitive 1. Nephritic syndrome
3. Uncompetitive 2. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Non - Competitive 3. Acute renal failure
4. Renal calculi
5. A 7 year old male child reported to
Q
the fever clinic. He had step ladder 9. A 32 year old obese woman had
Q
pattern fever, frequent stomach pain and polyphagia, polydipsia and polyurea.
vomiting for five days. Enteric fever was She was on irregular diabetic treatment
suspected. Which of the following would for 3 months. Her FBS was found to be
be the best investigation that needs to 140 mg/dl and PPBS 240 mg/dl. Which of
be evaluated immediately? the following investigations would
1. Blood culture ideally suit this patient’s follow up?
2. Widal 1. Glucagon levels
3. Stool culture 2. HbA1c
4. Urine culture 3. Insulin levels
4. GTT
6. A 8 year old male child reported with
Q
brownish discoloration of teeth. He had a 10. A 60 year old male, chronic
Q
history of trauma a few years back. No smoker(smoking history– 20 years ) had
hereditary history elicited. Probable dyspnoea, non productive cough, pursed
diagnosis would be: lip breathing with tightness of chest ,
1. Amelogénesis imperfecta normal wheeze. Diagnosis of this
2. Tetracycline toxicity patient?
Q . Dentin dysplasia
3
1. Valproate 4. Turner’s hypoplasia
2. Phenytoin
3. Diazepam 7. A patient was operated for thyroid
Q
4. Carbamazepine disorder (thyroidectomy). Parameters
were normal on monitoring. On the same
2. Drug of choice for PSVT:
Q day, around evening, the patient
1. Adenosine developed pain and swelling over the
2. Verapamil neck. On exploration of the surgical site
3. Esmolol bouts of clots were found. What would
4. Propranolol have happened to the patient?
1. Primary hemorrhage
Q3. True Yeast is: 2. Reactionary hemorrhage
1. Candida albicans 3. Secondary hemorrhage
2. Cryptococcus Neoformans 4. Malignancy
3. Histoplasma
4. Aspergillus niger 8. A 6-year-old male child had a 1-week
Q
history of swelling in the extremities and
4. Allopurinol and xanthine oxidase
Q around the eyes. His mother observed
inhibition is a type of: blood in his urine. The child is suffering
1. Suicidal inhibition from:
2. Competitive 1. Nephritic syndrome
3. Uncompetitive 2. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Non - Competitive 3. Acute renal failure
4. Renal calculi
5. A 7 year old male child reported to
Q
the fever clinic. He had step ladder 9. A 32 year old obese woman had
Q
pattern fever, frequent stomach pain and polyphagia, polydipsia and polyurea.
vomiting for five days. Enteric fever was She was on irregular diabetic treatment
suspected. Which of the following would for 3 months. Her FBS was found to be
be the best investigation that needs to 140 mg/dl and PPBS 240 mg/dl. Which of
be evaluated immediately? the following investigations would
1. Blood culture ideally suit this patient’s follow up?
2. Widal 1. Glucagon levels
3. Stool culture 2. HbA1c
4. Urine culture 3. Insulin levels
4. GTT
6. A 8 year old male child reported with
Q
brownish discoloration of teeth. He had a 10. A 60 year old male, chronic
Q
history of trauma a few years back. No smoker(smoking history– 20 years ) had
hereditary history elicited. Probable dyspnoea, non productive cough, pursed
diagnosis would be: lip breathing with tightness of chest ,
1. Amelogénesis imperfecta normal wheeze. Diagnosis of this
2. Tetracycline toxicity patient?
Page 3
. Interstitial lung disease
1
2. Bronchogenic carcinoma
3. Asthma
4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
11. A female had elbow trauma, came
Q
with injury to brachial artery. She was
scheduled for vascular anastomosis
surgery. Ideal suture material for this . Hereditary spherocytosis
1
case would be 2. Iron deficiency anemia
1. Polyglactin 3. Thalassemia
2. Catgut 4. Sickle cell anemia
3. Polypropylene
4. Silk 15. Myasthenia gravis is an
Q
autoimmune disease of the
12. Revised trauma score includes all,
Q neuromuscular junction (NMJ) caused by
except: antibodies that attack
1. Pulse rate 1. Nicotinic receptors
2. Respiratory rate 2. Muscarinic receptors
3. Glasgow coma scale 3. Alpha receptors
4. Systolic blood pressure 4. Beta receptors
13. A 39 year old patient had trauma 10
Q 16. A 46 year old female had cardiac
Q
years back and came with a complaint of manifestations. Her blood gas analysis
discoloration of tooth. No response on reveals potassium - 6.5 mmol , uric acid
vitality testing. Elicit the type of fracture – 9 mg/dl blood urea nitrogen – 30 mg/
for the given case: dl. Which of the following diets would
have caused increased levels?
1. Meat, ham, chicken
2. Potato crisps, tomato, banana
3. Tomato, spinach, eggs
4. Milk, peanut, dates
17. Antibiotic prophylaxis is
Q
recommended in:
1. Repaired congenital heart disease
. Class IV
1 2. Repaired cyanotic heart disease
2. Class V 3. Prosthetic valve replacement
3. Class III 4. MI
4. Class VI
18. Dog and bell experiment is a part
Q
14. A 10 year old female child reported
Q of:
episodes of hypoxia. Her hemoglobin 1. Psychoanalytic theory
levels were found to be low. Histology 2. Classical conditioning
shows:
1
2. Bronchogenic carcinoma
3. Asthma
4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
11. A female had elbow trauma, came
Q
with injury to brachial artery. She was
scheduled for vascular anastomosis
surgery. Ideal suture material for this . Hereditary spherocytosis
1
case would be 2. Iron deficiency anemia
1. Polyglactin 3. Thalassemia
2. Catgut 4. Sickle cell anemia
3. Polypropylene
4. Silk 15. Myasthenia gravis is an
Q
autoimmune disease of the
12. Revised trauma score includes all,
Q neuromuscular junction (NMJ) caused by
except: antibodies that attack
1. Pulse rate 1. Nicotinic receptors
2. Respiratory rate 2. Muscarinic receptors
3. Glasgow coma scale 3. Alpha receptors
4. Systolic blood pressure 4. Beta receptors
13. A 39 year old patient had trauma 10
Q 16. A 46 year old female had cardiac
Q
years back and came with a complaint of manifestations. Her blood gas analysis
discoloration of tooth. No response on reveals potassium - 6.5 mmol , uric acid
vitality testing. Elicit the type of fracture – 9 mg/dl blood urea nitrogen – 30 mg/
for the given case: dl. Which of the following diets would
have caused increased levels?
1. Meat, ham, chicken
2. Potato crisps, tomato, banana
3. Tomato, spinach, eggs
4. Milk, peanut, dates
17. Antibiotic prophylaxis is
Q
recommended in:
1. Repaired congenital heart disease
. Class IV
1 2. Repaired cyanotic heart disease
2. Class V 3. Prosthetic valve replacement
3. Class III 4. MI
4. Class VI
18. Dog and bell experiment is a part
Q
14. A 10 year old female child reported
Q of:
episodes of hypoxia. Her hemoglobin 1. Psychoanalytic theory
levels were found to be low. Histology 2. Classical conditioning
shows:
Page 4
. Operant conditioning
3 eneralized weakness. She noticed
g
4. Cognitive development theory purpuric spots on her fingers as an
incidental finding. She reported to the
19. Composition of Gutta-percha in GP
Q physician who asked for lab diagnosis
is: for further evaluation. CBC showed
1. 66% decreased hemoglobin levels. Diagnosis
2. 20% would be:
3. 11% 1. Aplastic anemia
4. 4% 2. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
3. Folate deficiency anemia
20. A 43 years old female was
Q 4. Iron deficiency anemia
diagnosed with a necrosed limb for
which she was operated on. After the 25. A patient presented with fever. The
Q
operation the patient developed a sweet RBC count is 1.5 million cells/ mm3,
smelling discharge from the site of WBC count is 4000 cells/ mm3 and
operation followed by crepitus from the platelet count is 40000 cells/ mm3.
same area. What is the possible Differential leukocyte count showed
causative organism? decreased levels of monocytes and
1. Klebsiella pneumoniae lymphocytes and elevation of the
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa remaining three cell types and vice
3. Clostridium perfringens versa. Diagnosis is:
4. Staphylococcus aureus 1. Agranulocytosis
2. Aplastic anemia
21. Angle former is a modification of
Q 3. Cyclic neutropenia
1. Chisel 4. Chediak Higashi syndrome
2. Hoe
3. Excavator 26. Intranasal antrostomy is done
Q
4. Knife through:
1. Superior meatus
22. Cross infection in hospital is best
Q 2. Inferior meatus
prevented by: 3. Middle meatus
1. Fumigation 4. Combination of middle and inferior
2. Proper hand hygiene meatus
3. Antibiotic prophylaxis
4. Disinfection with sodium hypochlorite 27. A patient with symptoms of
Q
inflamed tongue, photosensitivity,
23. Penicillamine is an antidote for:
Q anxiety, diarrhea and headache
1. Copper presented to the clinic for treatment. A
2. Bismuth characteristic feature seen in this
3. Arsenic condition is attached for your reference.
4. Iron Diagnosis is:
24. An otherwise normal female
Q . Thiamin deficiency
1
complains of fatigue and malaise and 2. Niacin deficiency
3 eneralized weakness. She noticed
g
4. Cognitive development theory purpuric spots on her fingers as an
incidental finding. She reported to the
19. Composition of Gutta-percha in GP
Q physician who asked for lab diagnosis
is: for further evaluation. CBC showed
1. 66% decreased hemoglobin levels. Diagnosis
2. 20% would be:
3. 11% 1. Aplastic anemia
4. 4% 2. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
3. Folate deficiency anemia
20. A 43 years old female was
Q 4. Iron deficiency anemia
diagnosed with a necrosed limb for
which she was operated on. After the 25. A patient presented with fever. The
Q
operation the patient developed a sweet RBC count is 1.5 million cells/ mm3,
smelling discharge from the site of WBC count is 4000 cells/ mm3 and
operation followed by crepitus from the platelet count is 40000 cells/ mm3.
same area. What is the possible Differential leukocyte count showed
causative organism? decreased levels of monocytes and
1. Klebsiella pneumoniae lymphocytes and elevation of the
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa remaining three cell types and vice
3. Clostridium perfringens versa. Diagnosis is:
4. Staphylococcus aureus 1. Agranulocytosis
2. Aplastic anemia
21. Angle former is a modification of
Q 3. Cyclic neutropenia
1. Chisel 4. Chediak Higashi syndrome
2. Hoe
3. Excavator 26. Intranasal antrostomy is done
Q
4. Knife through:
1. Superior meatus
22. Cross infection in hospital is best
Q 2. Inferior meatus
prevented by: 3. Middle meatus
1. Fumigation 4. Combination of middle and inferior
2. Proper hand hygiene meatus
3. Antibiotic prophylaxis
4. Disinfection with sodium hypochlorite 27. A patient with symptoms of
Q
inflamed tongue, photosensitivity,
23. Penicillamine is an antidote for:
Q anxiety, diarrhea and headache
1. Copper presented to the clinic for treatment. A
2. Bismuth characteristic feature seen in this
3. Arsenic condition is attached for your reference.
4. Iron Diagnosis is:
24. An otherwise normal female
Q . Thiamin deficiency
1
complains of fatigue and malaise and 2. Niacin deficiency
Page 5
. Riboflavin deficiency
3 32. A 7 years old patient with wide
Q
4. Folate deficiency intergonial distance, increased
mucopolysaccharides and obtuse gonial
angle with large mandible is diagnostic
of:
1. Hurler syndrome
2. Gaucher’s disease
3. Niemann pick disease
4. Hunter syndrome
28. A mentally retarded patient with
Q
medication for epilepsy presents with 33. Which of the following appliances
Q
gingival enlargement with pigmentation. would be recommended in a patient in
Identify the diagnosis: the mixed dentition stage with bilateral
1. Tuberous sclerosis loss of primary mandibular molars?
2. Elephantiasis gingivostomatitis 1. Nance space maintainer
3. Sturge – weber syndrome 2. Lingual arch maintainer
4. Inflammatory gingival enlargement 3. Band and loop space maintainer
4. Distal shoe
29. Sequence of polymerization is:
Q
1. Initiation – propagation– termination – 34. In a patient with unilateral swelling
Q
chain transfer of the left parotid gland which is painless
2. Initiation– chain transfer – termination – and slowly growing, histopathology
propagation specimens were taken. Microscopic
3. Chain transfer – termination – examination revealed satellite cells
propagation –Initiation dispersed in a chondromyxoid stroma
4. propagation – chain transfer – along with some hyaline tissue. The cells
termination --Initiation were arranged in islands as well as a
duct like pattern.Diagnose the condition:
30. How is the 1st number in a 4 digit
Q 1. Pleomorphic adenoma
instrument formula denoted? 2. Warthin tumor
1. Tenth 3. Oncocytic carcinoma
2. One tenths of millimeters 4. Acinic cell carcinoma
3. One hundredths of millimeters
4. Millimeters 35. A female child with fever, cough
Q
and throat pain revealed a gray
31. A patient with diarrhea, abdominal
Q pseudomembrane which was easily
pain, weight loss and non caseating scraped off. The diagnosis is:
granulomas is diagnostic of: 1. Diphtheria
1. Crohn’s disease 2. Scarlet fever
2. Ulcerative colitis 3. Gonorrhea
3. Sarcoidosis 4. Candida
4. Cholecystitis
36. A surgeon was suspicious during a
Q
biopsy procedure about the involvement
3 32. A 7 years old patient with wide
Q
4. Folate deficiency intergonial distance, increased
mucopolysaccharides and obtuse gonial
angle with large mandible is diagnostic
of:
1. Hurler syndrome
2. Gaucher’s disease
3. Niemann pick disease
4. Hunter syndrome
28. A mentally retarded patient with
Q
medication for epilepsy presents with 33. Which of the following appliances
Q
gingival enlargement with pigmentation. would be recommended in a patient in
Identify the diagnosis: the mixed dentition stage with bilateral
1. Tuberous sclerosis loss of primary mandibular molars?
2. Elephantiasis gingivostomatitis 1. Nance space maintainer
3. Sturge – weber syndrome 2. Lingual arch maintainer
4. Inflammatory gingival enlargement 3. Band and loop space maintainer
4. Distal shoe
29. Sequence of polymerization is:
Q
1. Initiation – propagation– termination – 34. In a patient with unilateral swelling
Q
chain transfer of the left parotid gland which is painless
2. Initiation– chain transfer – termination – and slowly growing, histopathology
propagation specimens were taken. Microscopic
3. Chain transfer – termination – examination revealed satellite cells
propagation –Initiation dispersed in a chondromyxoid stroma
4. propagation – chain transfer – along with some hyaline tissue. The cells
termination --Initiation were arranged in islands as well as a
duct like pattern.Diagnose the condition:
30. How is the 1st number in a 4 digit
Q 1. Pleomorphic adenoma
instrument formula denoted? 2. Warthin tumor
1. Tenth 3. Oncocytic carcinoma
2. One tenths of millimeters 4. Acinic cell carcinoma
3. One hundredths of millimeters
4. Millimeters 35. A female child with fever, cough
Q
and throat pain revealed a gray
31. A patient with diarrhea, abdominal
Q pseudomembrane which was easily
pain, weight loss and non caseating scraped off. The diagnosis is:
granulomas is diagnostic of: 1. Diphtheria
1. Crohn’s disease 2. Scarlet fever
2. Ulcerative colitis 3. Gonorrhea
3. Sarcoidosis 4. Candida
4. Cholecystitis
36. A surgeon was suspicious during a
Q
biopsy procedure about the involvement
Page 6
f surrounding cells whether it's
o . Mantle dentin
2
malignant or not. Which of the following 3. Secondary dentin
would aid in quickest diagnosis? 4. Circumpulpal dentin
1. Frozen section
2. Punch biopsy 43. Presence of bifurcation in a single
Q
3. Excisional biopsy rooted teeth is most commonly seen in:
4. Incisional biopsy 1. Maxillary central incisors
2. Maxillary lateral incisors
37. Laminin and fibronectin are
Q 3. Mandibular first premolar
1. Glycosaminoglycans 4. Mandibular canine
2. Glycoprotein
3. Cytokeratin 44. IgE mediated histamine release is
Q
4. Gingival zenith protein an example of :
1. Atopy
38. Parathyroid develops from
Q 2. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
1. First branchial pouch 3. Serum sickness
2. Second branchial pouch 4. Allergic dermatitis
3. Fourth branchial pouch
4. Branchial cleft 45. First heart sound is due to the
Q
concomitant closure of:
39. Le fort I fracture involves
Q 1. Tricuspid and aortic
1. Nasal 2. Tricuspid and mitral
2. Maxilla 3. Aortic and pulmonary
3. Mandible 4. Aortic only
4. Vomer
46. Modified pedodontic triangle
Q
40. In epidemiological study, first case
Q involves
that comes to the investigator is known 1. Father
as 2. Sibling
1. Index case 3. Society
2. Primary case 4. Dental nurse
3. Secondary case
4. Confirmed case 47. Keyes triad of dental caries
Q
describes
41. In a two-digit tooth numbering
Q 1. Initiation of gingivitis
system, 33 refers to: 2. Caries activity
1. Left upper canine 3. Caries risk assessment
2. Left lower canine 4. Nutritional Habit
3. Right upper canine
4. Right lower canine 48. Diagnose the given image:
Q
1. Fordyce granules
42. Dentin that is freshly laid over the
Q 2. Koplik spots
pulp is: 3. Herpangina
1. Predentin 4. Molluscum contagiosum
o . Mantle dentin
2
malignant or not. Which of the following 3. Secondary dentin
would aid in quickest diagnosis? 4. Circumpulpal dentin
1. Frozen section
2. Punch biopsy 43. Presence of bifurcation in a single
Q
3. Excisional biopsy rooted teeth is most commonly seen in:
4. Incisional biopsy 1. Maxillary central incisors
2. Maxillary lateral incisors
37. Laminin and fibronectin are
Q 3. Mandibular first premolar
1. Glycosaminoglycans 4. Mandibular canine
2. Glycoprotein
3. Cytokeratin 44. IgE mediated histamine release is
Q
4. Gingival zenith protein an example of :
1. Atopy
38. Parathyroid develops from
Q 2. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia
1. First branchial pouch 3. Serum sickness
2. Second branchial pouch 4. Allergic dermatitis
3. Fourth branchial pouch
4. Branchial cleft 45. First heart sound is due to the
Q
concomitant closure of:
39. Le fort I fracture involves
Q 1. Tricuspid and aortic
1. Nasal 2. Tricuspid and mitral
2. Maxilla 3. Aortic and pulmonary
3. Mandible 4. Aortic only
4. Vomer
46. Modified pedodontic triangle
Q
40. In epidemiological study, first case
Q involves
that comes to the investigator is known 1. Father
as 2. Sibling
1. Index case 3. Society
2. Primary case 4. Dental nurse
3. Secondary case
4. Confirmed case 47. Keyes triad of dental caries
Q
describes
41. In a two-digit tooth numbering
Q 1. Initiation of gingivitis
system, 33 refers to: 2. Caries activity
1. Left upper canine 3. Caries risk assessment
2. Left lower canine 4. Nutritional Habit
3. Right upper canine
4. Right lower canine 48. Diagnose the given image:
Q
1. Fordyce granules
42. Dentin that is freshly laid over the
Q 2. Koplik spots
pulp is: 3. Herpangina
1. Predentin 4. Molluscum contagiosum
Page 7
lcers at the commissaries of the lips.
u
She revealed that she has had such
ulcers in the past and it is a frequent
affair. The ulcers are painful in nature.
Identify the condition:
49. Ovate pontic is indicated in:
Q
1. Knife edged ridges
2. Well rounded ridges
3. Recently extracted socket
. Herpes Zoster
1
4. Flat ridges
2. Recrudescent Herpes Simplex
3. Herpangina
50. Type B Merin’s classification is
Q
4. Erythema Multiforme
recalled at an interval of:
1. 1-3 months
53. A fair skinned female patient
Q
2. 4-6 months
presents with painless warty growths on
3. 6 months – 1 year
the skin of the face and hands. These
4. 3- 4 months
swellings are painless in nature. Clinical
examination revealed a well-defined,
firm, sessile, non-tender, ulcers on the
51. A newborn baby has suddenly
Q
lower lip. What is the diagnosis?
developed fever and is continuously
1. Neurofibromatosis
crying with difficulty in feeding. The
2. Keratoacanthoma
mother presented this child to the clinic
3. Xeroderma pigmentosum
with ulcers on the tongue. What is the
4. Melanoma
diagnosis?
54. A patient in their last stages of
Q
cancer chemotherapy presented with
acute renal failure. Which of the
following drugs would have helped
prevent this situation?
1. N Acetyl Cysteine
2. Cyclophosphamide
. Minor aphthous ulcer
1 3. Prednisolone
2. Exanthematous fever 4. Allopurinol
3. Riga fede disease
4. Hand, foot and mouth disease 55. A patient presented with unilateral
Q
atrophy of the skin involving the muscle,
52. A female patient who is otherwise
Q cartilage and bone. Diagnosis is:
healthy visited the clinic for a skin 1. Scleroderma
treatment. The dermatologist observed 2. Parry Romberg syndrome
u
She revealed that she has had such
ulcers in the past and it is a frequent
affair. The ulcers are painful in nature.
Identify the condition:
49. Ovate pontic is indicated in:
Q
1. Knife edged ridges
2. Well rounded ridges
3. Recently extracted socket
. Herpes Zoster
1
4. Flat ridges
2. Recrudescent Herpes Simplex
3. Herpangina
50. Type B Merin’s classification is
Q
4. Erythema Multiforme
recalled at an interval of:
1. 1-3 months
53. A fair skinned female patient
Q
2. 4-6 months
presents with painless warty growths on
3. 6 months – 1 year
the skin of the face and hands. These
4. 3- 4 months
swellings are painless in nature. Clinical
examination revealed a well-defined,
firm, sessile, non-tender, ulcers on the
51. A newborn baby has suddenly
Q
lower lip. What is the diagnosis?
developed fever and is continuously
1. Neurofibromatosis
crying with difficulty in feeding. The
2. Keratoacanthoma
mother presented this child to the clinic
3. Xeroderma pigmentosum
with ulcers on the tongue. What is the
4. Melanoma
diagnosis?
54. A patient in their last stages of
Q
cancer chemotherapy presented with
acute renal failure. Which of the
following drugs would have helped
prevent this situation?
1. N Acetyl Cysteine
2. Cyclophosphamide
. Minor aphthous ulcer
1 3. Prednisolone
2. Exanthematous fever 4. Allopurinol
3. Riga fede disease
4. Hand, foot and mouth disease 55. A patient presented with unilateral
Q
atrophy of the skin involving the muscle,
52. A female patient who is otherwise
Q cartilage and bone. Diagnosis is:
healthy visited the clinic for a skin 1. Scleroderma
treatment. The dermatologist observed 2. Parry Romberg syndrome
Page 8
. Facial hemiatrophy
3
4. Parkinsonism 59. The only diuretic which exhibits
Q
ototoxicity is:
56. A paraplegic patient was suffering
Q 1. Spironolactone
from a hip trauma. Post surgery, she was 2. Metolazone
bedridden for 3 months and developed 3. Furosemide
severe ulcers in the back as shown in 4. Mannitol
the figure. Diagnosis would be:
60. Depicted figure shows:
Q
1. Munsell system
2. CIELAB system
3. 3D Chromatism
4. Saturation system
61. Fournier molars are manifestations
Q
of:
1. Congenital Syphilis
. Arterial ulcer
1 2. Gumma
2. Pressure ulcer 3. Turner hypoplasia
3. Malignant ulcer 4. Klinefelter syndrome
4. Traumatic ulcer
62. Filler in alginate is composed of:
Q
57. A 17 years old male patient with
Q 1. Sodium phosphate
proclined anterior teeth reported to the 2. Diatomaceous earth
dentist with a history of trauma in the 3. Potassium alginate
upper front region a few mins ago. He 4. Calcium sulfate
was playing football with his friends
when he fell down. Intraoral examination 63. Excretory duct of submandibular
Q
revealed laceration of the labial mucosa gland is known as Duct of :
and absence of tooth #21. Radiograph 1. Rivinus
revealed missing #21 with intact laminate 2. Wharton
dura. The diagnosis is: 3. Stenson
1. Class IV 4. Blandin and Nuhn
2. Class V
3. Class III 64. Least anti- inflammatory among the
Q
4. Class VI following:
1. Naproxen
58. Kim’s isthmus classification type 3
Q 2. Paracetamol
is: 3. Aspirin
1. Incomplete isthmus between 2 canals. 4. Celecoxib
2. Complete isthmus between 2 canals.
3. Faint communication between 2 canals 65. A patient with symptoms of peri
Q
4. Very short , complete isthmus between 2 oral lesions, tremors, carpopedal spasm,
canals
3
4. Parkinsonism 59. The only diuretic which exhibits
Q
ototoxicity is:
56. A paraplegic patient was suffering
Q 1. Spironolactone
from a hip trauma. Post surgery, she was 2. Metolazone
bedridden for 3 months and developed 3. Furosemide
severe ulcers in the back as shown in 4. Mannitol
the figure. Diagnosis would be:
60. Depicted figure shows:
Q
1. Munsell system
2. CIELAB system
3. 3D Chromatism
4. Saturation system
61. Fournier molars are manifestations
Q
of:
1. Congenital Syphilis
. Arterial ulcer
1 2. Gumma
2. Pressure ulcer 3. Turner hypoplasia
3. Malignant ulcer 4. Klinefelter syndrome
4. Traumatic ulcer
62. Filler in alginate is composed of:
Q
57. A 17 years old male patient with
Q 1. Sodium phosphate
proclined anterior teeth reported to the 2. Diatomaceous earth
dentist with a history of trauma in the 3. Potassium alginate
upper front region a few mins ago. He 4. Calcium sulfate
was playing football with his friends
when he fell down. Intraoral examination 63. Excretory duct of submandibular
Q
revealed laceration of the labial mucosa gland is known as Duct of :
and absence of tooth #21. Radiograph 1. Rivinus
revealed missing #21 with intact laminate 2. Wharton
dura. The diagnosis is: 3. Stenson
1. Class IV 4. Blandin and Nuhn
2. Class V
3. Class III 64. Least anti- inflammatory among the
Q
4. Class VI following:
1. Naproxen
58. Kim’s isthmus classification type 3
Q 2. Paracetamol
is: 3. Aspirin
1. Incomplete isthmus between 2 canals. 4. Celecoxib
2. Complete isthmus between 2 canals.
3. Faint communication between 2 canals 65. A patient with symptoms of peri
Q
4. Very short , complete isthmus between 2 oral lesions, tremors, carpopedal spasm,
canals
Page 9
t achycardia and adrenal insufficiency is 71. Heat energy required in conversion
Q
suggestive of: of solid to liquid is termed as:
1. Hyperventilation syndrome 1. Melting temperature
2. Hypocalcemia 2. Latent heat of Fusion
3. Acute adrenal crisis 3. Latent heat of Vaporization
4. Belladonna poisoning 4. Sublimation
66. Generalized oedema is seen in a
Q 72. Which of the following structures is
Q
malnourished four-year-old child. Which not attached to modiolus?
of the following statements holds true in 1. Quadratus Labii Inferioris
this condition? 2. Depressor Anguli Oris
1. Low calcium 3. Zygomaticus Major
2. Raised alpha -2 macroglobulin 4. Zygomaticus Minor
3. Low serum albumin
4. Low vitamin – D 73. Eight film survey consists of:
Q
1. 4 posterior IOPAs , 2 anterior occlusal
67. Pulpal vasculature is measured
Q and 2 bitewing radiographs.
using: 2. 4 IOPAs for posterior teeth, 4 canine
1. Laser doppler flowmetry IOPAs, 2 incisor IOPAs and 2 bitewing
2. Pulse oximetry radiographs.
3. Ultrasound 3. 2 anterior occlusal and 2 bitewing
4. Thermal tests radiographs + 2 posterior occlusals + 2
molars IOPA
68. Prognosis is worst in:
Q 4. 4 permanent molar radiographs
1. Coronal third fracture additional to the 12 film survey
2. Apical third fracture
3. Middle third fracture 74. Masseteric notch is:
Q
4. Crown fracture 1. Action of buccinator and masseter
2. Action of masseter on buccinator
69. Crystal growth in orthodontics
Q 3. Palatoglossus on buccinator
refers to: 4. Inferior constrictor on masseter
1. Lateral condylar growth
2. Remodeling of basal bone 75. Main causative organism in
Q
3. Appositional growth localized Aggressive periodontitis is:
4. Bonding of brackets 1. Fusobacterium nucleatum.
2. Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans.
70. In Stobie’s extraction, elevator used
Q 3. Pseudomonas
is: 4. Prevotella
1. Straight elevator
2. Cryer elevator 76. Keystone pathogen in periodontitis:
Q
3. Winter elevator 1. Porphyromonas gingivalis
4. Apexo elevator 2. Treponema denticola
3. Campylobacter rectus
4. Eikenella corrodens
Q
suggestive of: of solid to liquid is termed as:
1. Hyperventilation syndrome 1. Melting temperature
2. Hypocalcemia 2. Latent heat of Fusion
3. Acute adrenal crisis 3. Latent heat of Vaporization
4. Belladonna poisoning 4. Sublimation
66. Generalized oedema is seen in a
Q 72. Which of the following structures is
Q
malnourished four-year-old child. Which not attached to modiolus?
of the following statements holds true in 1. Quadratus Labii Inferioris
this condition? 2. Depressor Anguli Oris
1. Low calcium 3. Zygomaticus Major
2. Raised alpha -2 macroglobulin 4. Zygomaticus Minor
3. Low serum albumin
4. Low vitamin – D 73. Eight film survey consists of:
Q
1. 4 posterior IOPAs , 2 anterior occlusal
67. Pulpal vasculature is measured
Q and 2 bitewing radiographs.
using: 2. 4 IOPAs for posterior teeth, 4 canine
1. Laser doppler flowmetry IOPAs, 2 incisor IOPAs and 2 bitewing
2. Pulse oximetry radiographs.
3. Ultrasound 3. 2 anterior occlusal and 2 bitewing
4. Thermal tests radiographs + 2 posterior occlusals + 2
molars IOPA
68. Prognosis is worst in:
Q 4. 4 permanent molar radiographs
1. Coronal third fracture additional to the 12 film survey
2. Apical third fracture
3. Middle third fracture 74. Masseteric notch is:
Q
4. Crown fracture 1. Action of buccinator and masseter
2. Action of masseter on buccinator
69. Crystal growth in orthodontics
Q 3. Palatoglossus on buccinator
refers to: 4. Inferior constrictor on masseter
1. Lateral condylar growth
2. Remodeling of basal bone 75. Main causative organism in
Q
3. Appositional growth localized Aggressive periodontitis is:
4. Bonding of brackets 1. Fusobacterium nucleatum.
2. Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans.
70. In Stobie’s extraction, elevator used
Q 3. Pseudomonas
is: 4. Prevotella
1. Straight elevator
2. Cryer elevator 76. Keystone pathogen in periodontitis:
Q
3. Winter elevator 1. Porphyromonas gingivalis
4. Apexo elevator 2. Treponema denticola
3. Campylobacter rectus
4. Eikenella corrodens
Page 10
77. The characteristic feature of
Q . Accurate fit of prosthesis
3
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis: 4. Maintenance of good oral health
1. Punched-out, crater-like depressions at
the crest of the interdental papillae 84. A patient has completely lost his
Q
2. Linear erythema of gingiva vision on the left side due to trauma.
3. Deep pocket along with pus discharge Which of the following would have been
4. Intense erythema, desquamation, and involved?
ulceration. 1. Optic tract
2. Optic chiasma
78. Pustules are initial lesions in:
Q 3. Optic nerve
1. Verruca Vulgaris 4. Visual cortex
2. Acne Vulgaris
3. Pemphigus Vegetans- Hallopeau Type 85. A substance which travel down its
Q
4. Lichen Planus concentration gradient is known as:
1. Primary active transport
79. Ameloblasts are originated from:
Q 2. Secondary active transport
1. Ectoderm 3. Endocytosis
2. Ectomesenchyme 4. Facilitated diffusion
3. Endoderm
4. Mesoderm 86. Mini aesthetics in orthodontics
Q
refers to examination of:
80. Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by:
Q 1. Tooth proportion
1. CMV 2. Soft tissue analysis
2. EBV 3. Profile analysis
3. HSV- 2 4. Inciso – gingival display
4. Papilloma
87. Dental stone which exhibits least
Q
81. First pharyngeal pouch gives rise
Q expansion:
to: 1. Type II
1. Epiglottis 2. Type IV
2. Auditory tube 3. Type III
3. Thyroid 4. Type V
4. Tonsil
88. Flux is primarily used to:
Q
82. Kuttner’s tumor mostly involves:
Q 1. Remove oxides
1. Minor salivary glands 2. Increase the strength
2. Submandibular gland 3. Polishing of the restoration
3. Sublingual gland 4. Accelerates the burning process
4. Parotid gland
89. Injury to pterion affects :
Q
83. Advantage of giving a subgingival
Q 1. Deep cerebral vein
finish line is: 2. Middle meningeal artery
1. Superior aesthetics 3. Anterior cerebral vein
2. Easier to record impression 4. Middle meningeal nerve
Q . Accurate fit of prosthesis
3
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis: 4. Maintenance of good oral health
1. Punched-out, crater-like depressions at
the crest of the interdental papillae 84. A patient has completely lost his
Q
2. Linear erythema of gingiva vision on the left side due to trauma.
3. Deep pocket along with pus discharge Which of the following would have been
4. Intense erythema, desquamation, and involved?
ulceration. 1. Optic tract
2. Optic chiasma
78. Pustules are initial lesions in:
Q 3. Optic nerve
1. Verruca Vulgaris 4. Visual cortex
2. Acne Vulgaris
3. Pemphigus Vegetans- Hallopeau Type 85. A substance which travel down its
Q
4. Lichen Planus concentration gradient is known as:
1. Primary active transport
79. Ameloblasts are originated from:
Q 2. Secondary active transport
1. Ectoderm 3. Endocytosis
2. Ectomesenchyme 4. Facilitated diffusion
3. Endoderm
4. Mesoderm 86. Mini aesthetics in orthodontics
Q
refers to examination of:
80. Oral hairy leukoplakia is caused by:
Q 1. Tooth proportion
1. CMV 2. Soft tissue analysis
2. EBV 3. Profile analysis
3. HSV- 2 4. Inciso – gingival display
4. Papilloma
87. Dental stone which exhibits least
Q
81. First pharyngeal pouch gives rise
Q expansion:
to: 1. Type II
1. Epiglottis 2. Type IV
2. Auditory tube 3. Type III
3. Thyroid 4. Type V
4. Tonsil
88. Flux is primarily used to:
Q
82. Kuttner’s tumor mostly involves:
Q 1. Remove oxides
1. Minor salivary glands 2. Increase the strength
2. Submandibular gland 3. Polishing of the restoration
3. Sublingual gland 4. Accelerates the burning process
4. Parotid gland
89. Injury to pterion affects :
Q
83. Advantage of giving a subgingival
Q 1. Deep cerebral vein
finish line is: 2. Middle meningeal artery
1. Superior aesthetics 3. Anterior cerebral vein
2. Easier to record impression 4. Middle meningeal nerve
Page 11
95. Which is not a feature of Down’s
Q
90. Skin over the angle of mandible is
Q syndrome?
supplied by: 1. Flat nose
1. Greater auricular nerve 2. Downward slanting of palpebral fissures
2. Lesser occipital nerve 3. Hypoplasia of facial bone
3. Posterior auricular nerve 4. Macroglossia
4. Marginal mandibular nerve
Q96. Identify A,B,C in the given image
91. Hyaline ring is an histological
Q
finding seen in which pathology?
1. AOT
2. CEOT
3. COC
4. SOT
92. Vertical growth phase exists in
Q
which type of malignant melanoma
1. A- Fissure Sealant, B- GIC, C- Base
1. Lentigo Maligna Type
A
2. Superficial Spreading Type
2. A- Fissure Sealant, B- Composite Resin,
3. Nodular Type
C- Base B
4. Acral Lentiginous Type
3. A- Fissure Sealant, B- GIC, C- Varnish
C
93. Oncocytes are signs of aging.
Q
4. A- Fissure Sealant, B-Base , C- Liner
These oncocytes are indicative of :
1. Canalicular Adenoma
97. A 46 year old patient had a severe
Q
2. Pleomorphic Adenoma
cramping pain in his lower leg after
3. Acinic Cell Tumor
strenuous exercise. He felt numbness on
4. Oxyphilic Adenoma
the same site. He was diagnosed with
Compartment Syndrome. The advised
94. A female patient presented with
Q
treatment of the condition would be:
multiple organ failure. Skin examination
revealed a rash on the face across the
bridge of the nose. The patient also
presents with atypical endocarditis. A
skin smear was sent for histopathology
and routine blood work was
non-specific. Anti smith antibodies were
detected on further investigation.
Diagnosis is:
1. SLE . Fasciotomy
1
2. DLE 2. Incision and drainage
3. Steven Johnson Syndrome 3. Abscess drainage followed by
4. Systemic Sclerosis gastrocnemius insertion
4. Split thickness skin grafting
Q
90. Skin over the angle of mandible is
Q syndrome?
supplied by: 1. Flat nose
1. Greater auricular nerve 2. Downward slanting of palpebral fissures
2. Lesser occipital nerve 3. Hypoplasia of facial bone
3. Posterior auricular nerve 4. Macroglossia
4. Marginal mandibular nerve
Q96. Identify A,B,C in the given image
91. Hyaline ring is an histological
Q
finding seen in which pathology?
1. AOT
2. CEOT
3. COC
4. SOT
92. Vertical growth phase exists in
Q
which type of malignant melanoma
1. A- Fissure Sealant, B- GIC, C- Base
1. Lentigo Maligna Type
A
2. Superficial Spreading Type
2. A- Fissure Sealant, B- Composite Resin,
3. Nodular Type
C- Base B
4. Acral Lentiginous Type
3. A- Fissure Sealant, B- GIC, C- Varnish
C
93. Oncocytes are signs of aging.
Q
4. A- Fissure Sealant, B-Base , C- Liner
These oncocytes are indicative of :
1. Canalicular Adenoma
97. A 46 year old patient had a severe
Q
2. Pleomorphic Adenoma
cramping pain in his lower leg after
3. Acinic Cell Tumor
strenuous exercise. He felt numbness on
4. Oxyphilic Adenoma
the same site. He was diagnosed with
Compartment Syndrome. The advised
94. A female patient presented with
Q
treatment of the condition would be:
multiple organ failure. Skin examination
revealed a rash on the face across the
bridge of the nose. The patient also
presents with atypical endocarditis. A
skin smear was sent for histopathology
and routine blood work was
non-specific. Anti smith antibodies were
detected on further investigation.
Diagnosis is:
1. SLE . Fasciotomy
1
2. DLE 2. Incision and drainage
3. Steven Johnson Syndrome 3. Abscess drainage followed by
4. Systemic Sclerosis gastrocnemius insertion
4. Split thickness skin grafting
Page 12
Q98. The given tooth is: . Becquerel
1
2. Gray
3. Sievert
4. Curie
103. Tongue thrusting is diagnosed by:
Q
1. Placing paper between the lips
2. Pull the lower lip and ask the patient to
. Permanent maxillary right first molar
1 drink/swallow water
2. Permanent mandibular right first molar 3. Postural rest position
3. Permanent maxillary left first molar 4. Path of closure
4. Permanent mandibular left first molar
104. Type of bias avoided in double
Q
99. Identify the given instrument and its
Q blinding is:
use: 1. Reasoning bias
1. Electric pulp tester used for nerve 2. Interviewer bias
stimulation 3. Recall bias
2. Electric pulp tester used for pulp vitality 4. Confirmation bias
3. Apex locator for estimating the apex
4. Infrared thermometer for corona 105. A 7-year-old currently presents
Q
screening with a lopsided chin to the left side and
gives a history of trauma for which he
100. True about Klinefelter syndrome:
Q underwent a surgery for the same in the
1. Genotype: 47 XO past.
2. Short statured What is the right treatment of choice?
3. Causes infertility in males 1. Condylectomy
4. Mental retardation 2. Gap arthroplasty with costochondral graft
3. Interpositional arthroplasty with
101. A 46 year old male was diagnosed
Q costochondral graft
with Ludwig’s Angina. He had swelling 4. Interpositional arthroplasty with
involving submandibular, sublingual and temporalis fascia
submental spaces. Associated
symptoms like fever, tachycardia and 106. Which of the following H1
Q
hypoxemia were evident. Characteristic antihistamines have more antihistamine
board-like consistency involving the and least anticholinergic property?
tongue is seen with no pus discharge. 1. Fexofenadine
This stage of Ludwig’s Angina is: 2. Diphenhydramine
1. Cellulitis 3. Promethazine
2. Abscess 4. Hydroxyzine
3. Oedema
4. Resolution 107. Which is systemically injected to
Q
control bleeding in the extraction site?
102. Radiation in cancer radiotherapy
Q 1. 1% adrenaline
is measured in: 2. Oxidized cellulose
1
2. Gray
3. Sievert
4. Curie
103. Tongue thrusting is diagnosed by:
Q
1. Placing paper between the lips
2. Pull the lower lip and ask the patient to
. Permanent maxillary right first molar
1 drink/swallow water
2. Permanent mandibular right first molar 3. Postural rest position
3. Permanent maxillary left first molar 4. Path of closure
4. Permanent mandibular left first molar
104. Type of bias avoided in double
Q
99. Identify the given instrument and its
Q blinding is:
use: 1. Reasoning bias
1. Electric pulp tester used for nerve 2. Interviewer bias
stimulation 3. Recall bias
2. Electric pulp tester used for pulp vitality 4. Confirmation bias
3. Apex locator for estimating the apex
4. Infrared thermometer for corona 105. A 7-year-old currently presents
Q
screening with a lopsided chin to the left side and
gives a history of trauma for which he
100. True about Klinefelter syndrome:
Q underwent a surgery for the same in the
1. Genotype: 47 XO past.
2. Short statured What is the right treatment of choice?
3. Causes infertility in males 1. Condylectomy
4. Mental retardation 2. Gap arthroplasty with costochondral graft
3. Interpositional arthroplasty with
101. A 46 year old male was diagnosed
Q costochondral graft
with Ludwig’s Angina. He had swelling 4. Interpositional arthroplasty with
involving submandibular, sublingual and temporalis fascia
submental spaces. Associated
symptoms like fever, tachycardia and 106. Which of the following H1
Q
hypoxemia were evident. Characteristic antihistamines have more antihistamine
board-like consistency involving the and least anticholinergic property?
tongue is seen with no pus discharge. 1. Fexofenadine
This stage of Ludwig’s Angina is: 2. Diphenhydramine
1. Cellulitis 3. Promethazine
2. Abscess 4. Hydroxyzine
3. Oedema
4. Resolution 107. Which is systemically injected to
Q
control bleeding in the extraction site?
102. Radiation in cancer radiotherapy
Q 1. 1% adrenaline
is measured in: 2. Oxidized cellulose
Page 13
. Collagen foam
3 111. Identify the age from the image
Q
4. Etamsylate given:
108. A child present with
Q
breathlessness and retarded growth. The
skin is pale, and history is positive for
fatigue. Skull radiograph revealed hair
on end appearance and peripheral blood
smear shows target cells. The cause of
this condition is most likely due to:
1. Deletion of beta chains
. 5 years
1
2. Presence of HbS
2. 8 years
3. α chains of valine are substituted by
3. 11 years
glutamine
4. 3 years
4. Point mutation
112. Concentric dark band/ lines
Q
109. A 33-year-old female patient
Q
present in the enamel are:
presented with a painless swelling on
the palate that has grown to the current
size rapidly. There is displacement of the
teeth and no pus discharge is seen.
What is the diagnosis?
. Striae of Retzius
1
2. Hunter Schreger bands
3. Imbrication lines
4. Neonatal lines
113. Sclerotic dentin under reflected
Q
. Metastasizing ameloblastoma
1 light appears as:
2. Malignant Melanoma 1. Light
3. Desmoplastic ameloblastoma 2. Dark
4. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Opaque
4. Transparent
110. Which of the following is an
Q
excretory duct tumor? 114. A child presented with
Q
1. Warthin’s tumor anti-mongoloid features and palpebral
2. Acinic cell tumor fissures. Hypoplasia of the facial bones
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma was noticed showing a bird-like face.
4. Ductal papilloma The image is attached for your reference.
What could be the diagnosis?
3 111. Identify the age from the image
Q
4. Etamsylate given:
108. A child present with
Q
breathlessness and retarded growth. The
skin is pale, and history is positive for
fatigue. Skull radiograph revealed hair
on end appearance and peripheral blood
smear shows target cells. The cause of
this condition is most likely due to:
1. Deletion of beta chains
. 5 years
1
2. Presence of HbS
2. 8 years
3. α chains of valine are substituted by
3. 11 years
glutamine
4. 3 years
4. Point mutation
112. Concentric dark band/ lines
Q
109. A 33-year-old female patient
Q
present in the enamel are:
presented with a painless swelling on
the palate that has grown to the current
size rapidly. There is displacement of the
teeth and no pus discharge is seen.
What is the diagnosis?
. Striae of Retzius
1
2. Hunter Schreger bands
3. Imbrication lines
4. Neonatal lines
113. Sclerotic dentin under reflected
Q
. Metastasizing ameloblastoma
1 light appears as:
2. Malignant Melanoma 1. Light
3. Desmoplastic ameloblastoma 2. Dark
4. Basal cell carcinoma 3. Opaque
4. Transparent
110. Which of the following is an
Q
excretory duct tumor? 114. A child presented with
Q
1. Warthin’s tumor anti-mongoloid features and palpebral
2. Acinic cell tumor fissures. Hypoplasia of the facial bones
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma was noticed showing a bird-like face.
4. Ductal papilloma The image is attached for your reference.
What could be the diagnosis?
Page 14
117. Viral symmetry features like
Q
icosahedral, polyhedral, box shaped are
part of?
1. Envelope
. Pierre Robin Syndrome
1 2. Capsid
2. Treacher Collins Syndrome 3. Nucleic acid
3. Ehler Danlos Syndrome 4. Peplomer
4. Down Syndrome
118. Find the correct statement of the
Q
115. A 12 year old patient presented
Q following cements arranged in
with calcification of falx cerebri, ascending order of solubility
palmoplantar keratosis, widened nasal 1. Zinc polycarboxylate > zinc phosphate >
bridge , rib anomalies and multiple GIC
radiolucencies jaw cysts as seen in the 2. Zinc phosphate > zinc polycarboxylate >
given radiograph. Identify the diagnosis: GIC
3. GIC > Zinc polycarboxylate > zinc
phosphate
4. GIC > Zinc phosphate > zinc
polycarboxylate
119. Disinfection with chlorine based
Q
compounds is not possible in:
. Papillon Lefèvre Syndrome
1 1. Polysulfide impression material
2. Gardner Syndrome 2. Polyether impression material
3. Jaw cyst Basal Cell Nevus syndrome 3. Zinc oxide eugenol impression material
4. Chediak Higashi Syndrome 4. Impression compound
116. A 12-year-old patient is getting
Q 120. Treatment for nephrotic syndrome:
Q
treatment in dermatology for 1. Cyclophosphamide
hyperkeratosis on hands and feet. She 2. Chlorambucil
also complains of loosening and pain in 3. Prednisolone
teeth. Identify the condition: 4. Methotrexate
1. Basal cell nevus syndrome
2. Papillon–Lefèvre syndrome 121. Which of the following drugs are
Q
3. Chediak Higashi syndrome used to dilate cerebral vessels?
4. Meischer syndrome 1. Verapamil
Q
icosahedral, polyhedral, box shaped are
part of?
1. Envelope
. Pierre Robin Syndrome
1 2. Capsid
2. Treacher Collins Syndrome 3. Nucleic acid
3. Ehler Danlos Syndrome 4. Peplomer
4. Down Syndrome
118. Find the correct statement of the
Q
115. A 12 year old patient presented
Q following cements arranged in
with calcification of falx cerebri, ascending order of solubility
palmoplantar keratosis, widened nasal 1. Zinc polycarboxylate > zinc phosphate >
bridge , rib anomalies and multiple GIC
radiolucencies jaw cysts as seen in the 2. Zinc phosphate > zinc polycarboxylate >
given radiograph. Identify the diagnosis: GIC
3. GIC > Zinc polycarboxylate > zinc
phosphate
4. GIC > Zinc phosphate > zinc
polycarboxylate
119. Disinfection with chlorine based
Q
compounds is not possible in:
. Papillon Lefèvre Syndrome
1 1. Polysulfide impression material
2. Gardner Syndrome 2. Polyether impression material
3. Jaw cyst Basal Cell Nevus syndrome 3. Zinc oxide eugenol impression material
4. Chediak Higashi Syndrome 4. Impression compound
116. A 12-year-old patient is getting
Q 120. Treatment for nephrotic syndrome:
Q
treatment in dermatology for 1. Cyclophosphamide
hyperkeratosis on hands and feet. She 2. Chlorambucil
also complains of loosening and pain in 3. Prednisolone
teeth. Identify the condition: 4. Methotrexate
1. Basal cell nevus syndrome
2. Papillon–Lefèvre syndrome 121. Which of the following drugs are
Q
3. Chediak Higashi syndrome used to dilate cerebral vessels?
4. Meischer syndrome 1. Verapamil
Page 15
. Diltiazem
2 127. Areas of light and dark appear as
Q
3. Nifedipine dark in a radiographic film due to:
4. Nimodipine 1. High contrast
2. Low contrast
122. Fraction of EDV ejected with every
Q 3. High density
stroke is called: 4. Low density
1. Ejection fraction
2. End systolic volume 128. A female patient reported to the
Q
3. End diastolic volume clinic with a history of ulcer in the nasal
4. Stroke volume fold with rolled out edges, with no
further symptoms. The best diagnosis
123. Passivity of stainless steel is due
Q would be:
to the formation of 1. Basal Cell Carcinoma
1. Chromium carbide 2. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
2. Chromium oxide 3. Melanocytic Nevus
3. Fluoride 4. Psoriasis
4. Iron oxide
129. Patient reported a chief complaint
Q
124. Lead time in public health is?
Q of swelling of the upper lip on both
1. Time between first possible point to final sides. Intra oral finding reveals
critical diagnosis obliteration of nasolabial fold. Patient
2. Time between disease onset deduction gives a history of slow growing swelling
to usual time of diagnosis . The condition is:
3. Time between first possible point to 1. Nasolabial cyst
usual time of diagnosis 2. Incisive canal cyst
4. Time between disease onset deduction 3. Mucocele
to final critical diagnosis 4. OKC
125. Bone marrow aspiration biopsy for
Q 130. Level of prevention which aims to
Q
anemia is taken from which of the reduce the incidence of disease is:
following sites? 1. Primary prevention
1. Anterior iliac crest 2. Secondary prevention
2. Rib 3. Tertiary prevention
3. Posterior iliac crest 4. Primordial prevention
4. Tibial tuberosity
131. Type 2 and 4 gold fuse with which
Q
126. Prevention of Diabetes, Cancer,
Q type of ceramic alloys?
HTN comes under which of the following 1. Ultra low fusing
phases? 2. Low fusing
1. Disease control phase 3. Medium fusing
2. Health promotional phase 4. High fusing
3. Social engineering phase
4. Health for all phase 132. To check ABO incompatibility, the
Q
pathologist mixes:
2 127. Areas of light and dark appear as
Q
3. Nifedipine dark in a radiographic film due to:
4. Nimodipine 1. High contrast
2. Low contrast
122. Fraction of EDV ejected with every
Q 3. High density
stroke is called: 4. Low density
1. Ejection fraction
2. End systolic volume 128. A female patient reported to the
Q
3. End diastolic volume clinic with a history of ulcer in the nasal
4. Stroke volume fold with rolled out edges, with no
further symptoms. The best diagnosis
123. Passivity of stainless steel is due
Q would be:
to the formation of 1. Basal Cell Carcinoma
1. Chromium carbide 2. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
2. Chromium oxide 3. Melanocytic Nevus
3. Fluoride 4. Psoriasis
4. Iron oxide
129. Patient reported a chief complaint
Q
124. Lead time in public health is?
Q of swelling of the upper lip on both
1. Time between first possible point to final sides. Intra oral finding reveals
critical diagnosis obliteration of nasolabial fold. Patient
2. Time between disease onset deduction gives a history of slow growing swelling
to usual time of diagnosis . The condition is:
3. Time between first possible point to 1. Nasolabial cyst
usual time of diagnosis 2. Incisive canal cyst
4. Time between disease onset deduction 3. Mucocele
to final critical diagnosis 4. OKC
125. Bone marrow aspiration biopsy for
Q 130. Level of prevention which aims to
Q
anemia is taken from which of the reduce the incidence of disease is:
following sites? 1. Primary prevention
1. Anterior iliac crest 2. Secondary prevention
2. Rib 3. Tertiary prevention
3. Posterior iliac crest 4. Primordial prevention
4. Tibial tuberosity
131. Type 2 and 4 gold fuse with which
Q
126. Prevention of Diabetes, Cancer,
Q type of ceramic alloys?
HTN comes under which of the following 1. Ultra low fusing
phases? 2. Low fusing
1. Disease control phase 3. Medium fusing
2. Health promotional phase 4. High fusing
3. Social engineering phase
4. Health for all phase 132. To check ABO incompatibility, the
Q
pathologist mixes:
Page 16
. Donor serum with recipient cell
1 . Winged retainer
2
2. Recipient serum with donor cell 3. Floss tied to the edge of the clamp
3. Donor cell with recipient cell 4. Appropriate punched holes
4. Recipient cell with donor cell
137. A 7 year old lives in an area which
Q
133. Mother of a new born child brings
Q has fluoride levels of 0.35ppm. What is
the child to the hospital with unilateral the recommended fluoride
cleft lip & feeding difficulties. When will supplementation of this patient ?
you advise surgery for this patient? 1. 0.25 mg
1. 12-18 months 2. 1 mg
2. 5-6 months 3. 0.50 mg
3. 6-10 months 4. 0 mg
4. 9- 10 months
138. An edentulous patient was given a
Q
134. Lateral trephination technique is
Q denture with anterior and posterior
advocated mainly in: palatal strap. Where should the posterior
1. Thick lingual plate with buccally palatal strap be placed ?
impacted teeth 1. At the junction of hard and soft palate
2. Thin lingual plate with horizontal 2. Mostly on the soft palate
impacted teeth 3. Entirely on the hard palate
3. Partially impacted 3rd molar 4. Mostly on the hard palate
4. Vertically impacted tooth
139. A 32 year female with uncontrolled
Q
135. A 10 year old patient came with
Q diabetes reported to the clinic with left
the complaint of gingival enlargements eye blindness, blackish discharge from
as shown in the given image. The patient the nose and a large palatal ulcer. What
is a known epileptic. Drug responsible is the most appropriate diagnosis?
for this condition: 1. Actinomycosis
2. Mucormycosis
3. Nocardiosis
4. Candidiasis
140. Difference between periodontal
Q
and pulpal abscess can be elicited by
1. Vitality
2. Sensitivity to percussion
3. Radiograph
. Phenytoin
1
4. Thermal tests
2. Nifedipine
3. Valproate
141. Unilateral cleft lip (harelip) is due
Q
4. Carbamazepine
to non union of
1. Medial Nasal Process And Maxillary
136. Rocking/ tilting movement of the
Q
Process
rubber dam system is prevented by
2. Medial And Lateral Nasal Processes
1. Four point contact of the clamp
1 . Winged retainer
2
2. Recipient serum with donor cell 3. Floss tied to the edge of the clamp
3. Donor cell with recipient cell 4. Appropriate punched holes
4. Recipient cell with donor cell
137. A 7 year old lives in an area which
Q
133. Mother of a new born child brings
Q has fluoride levels of 0.35ppm. What is
the child to the hospital with unilateral the recommended fluoride
cleft lip & feeding difficulties. When will supplementation of this patient ?
you advise surgery for this patient? 1. 0.25 mg
1. 12-18 months 2. 1 mg
2. 5-6 months 3. 0.50 mg
3. 6-10 months 4. 0 mg
4. 9- 10 months
138. An edentulous patient was given a
Q
134. Lateral trephination technique is
Q denture with anterior and posterior
advocated mainly in: palatal strap. Where should the posterior
1. Thick lingual plate with buccally palatal strap be placed ?
impacted teeth 1. At the junction of hard and soft palate
2. Thin lingual plate with horizontal 2. Mostly on the soft palate
impacted teeth 3. Entirely on the hard palate
3. Partially impacted 3rd molar 4. Mostly on the hard palate
4. Vertically impacted tooth
139. A 32 year female with uncontrolled
Q
135. A 10 year old patient came with
Q diabetes reported to the clinic with left
the complaint of gingival enlargements eye blindness, blackish discharge from
as shown in the given image. The patient the nose and a large palatal ulcer. What
is a known epileptic. Drug responsible is the most appropriate diagnosis?
for this condition: 1. Actinomycosis
2. Mucormycosis
3. Nocardiosis
4. Candidiasis
140. Difference between periodontal
Q
and pulpal abscess can be elicited by
1. Vitality
2. Sensitivity to percussion
3. Radiograph
. Phenytoin
1
4. Thermal tests
2. Nifedipine
3. Valproate
141. Unilateral cleft lip (harelip) is due
Q
4. Carbamazepine
to non union of
1. Medial Nasal Process And Maxillary
136. Rocking/ tilting movement of the
Q
Process
rubber dam system is prevented by
2. Medial And Lateral Nasal Processes
1. Four point contact of the clamp
Page 17
. Medial Nasal Processes
3 147. A chronic smoker had episodes of
Q
4. Lateral Nasal Processes And Maxillary coughing and respiratory difficulty. He
Process had been advised to quit smoking and he
is ready to quit the same. This is an
142. Enameloplasty is done when there
Q example of:
is of the thickness of enamel. 1. Contemplation
1. 1/3rd 2. Pre contemplation
2. 1/4th 3. Maintenance
3. 1/10th 4. Action
4. ½
148. DNA helix uncoils and unwinds
Q
143. Gingival bevel in a class II
Q with the help of which of the following
amalgam restoration should be(in enzymes?
degrees): 1. Helicase
1. 10 -15 2. Topoisomerase
2. 15 -20 3. Ligase
3. 20-30 4. DNA polymerase
4. 90
149. Chart with bars representing
Q
144. In normal class I occlusion upper
Q classes subdivided into constituent
first premolar occludes with parts known as
1. Lower canine and first premolar 1. Component bar chart
2. Lower first and second premolar 2. Frequency polygon
3. Lower first molar and second premolar 3. Histogram
4. Lower first molar and second molar 4. Multiple bar chart
145. Kayser-Fleischer rings and
Q 150. A 48 year old male patient has
Q
sunflower cataracts are due to high ALP, increased frequency of
deposition of which of the following? fractures in femur, and radiology reveals
1. Lead generalized loss of lamina dura with
2. Bismuth intact tooth. Identify the condition :
3. Ceruloplasmin 1. Paget’s disease
4. Glycogen 2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Fibrous dysplasia
146. The teacher had demonstrated
Q 4. Rickets
various brushing techniques to a group
of students in a school. This model of
health education is an example of:
1. Soil, Seed and Sower
2. Participation
3. Learning by doing
4. Reinforcement
3 147. A chronic smoker had episodes of
Q
4. Lateral Nasal Processes And Maxillary coughing and respiratory difficulty. He
Process had been advised to quit smoking and he
is ready to quit the same. This is an
142. Enameloplasty is done when there
Q example of:
is of the thickness of enamel. 1. Contemplation
1. 1/3rd 2. Pre contemplation
2. 1/4th 3. Maintenance
3. 1/10th 4. Action
4. ½
148. DNA helix uncoils and unwinds
Q
143. Gingival bevel in a class II
Q with the help of which of the following
amalgam restoration should be(in enzymes?
degrees): 1. Helicase
1. 10 -15 2. Topoisomerase
2. 15 -20 3. Ligase
3. 20-30 4. DNA polymerase
4. 90
149. Chart with bars representing
Q
144. In normal class I occlusion upper
Q classes subdivided into constituent
first premolar occludes with parts known as
1. Lower canine and first premolar 1. Component bar chart
2. Lower first and second premolar 2. Frequency polygon
3. Lower first molar and second premolar 3. Histogram
4. Lower first molar and second molar 4. Multiple bar chart
145. Kayser-Fleischer rings and
Q 150. A 48 year old male patient has
Q
sunflower cataracts are due to high ALP, increased frequency of
deposition of which of the following? fractures in femur, and radiology reveals
1. Lead generalized loss of lamina dura with
2. Bismuth intact tooth. Identify the condition :
3. Ceruloplasmin 1. Paget’s disease
4. Glycogen 2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Fibrous dysplasia
146. The teacher had demonstrated
Q 4. Rickets
various brushing techniques to a group
of students in a school. This model of
health education is an example of:
1. Soil, Seed and Sower
2. Participation
3. Learning by doing
4. Reinforcement
Page 18
NEET MDS 2023 Answer key
Q1. Valproate Q2. Adenosine 3. Cryptococcus
Q 4. Suicidal
Q Q5. Blood culture
neoformans inhibition
Q6. Turner’s hypoplasia 7. Reactionary
Q 8. Nephritic
Q Q9. HbA1c 10. Chronic
Q
hemorrhage syndrome obstructive
pulmonary
disease
Q11. Polypropylene Q12. Pulse rate Q13. Class IV 14. Sickle
Q 15. Nicotinic
Q
cell anemia receptors
16. Potato crisps,
Q 17. Prosthetic
Q 18. Classical
Q Q19. 20% 20. Clostridium
Q
tomato, banana valve replacement conditioning perfringens
Q21. Excavator 22. Proper hand
Q Q23. Copper 24. Aplastic
Q 25.
Q
hygiene anemia Agranulocytosis
Q26. Inferior meatus 27. Niacin
Q 28. Tuberous
Q 29. Initiation
Q 30. One tenths
Q
deficiency sclerosis – of millimeters
propagation–
termination –
chain transfer
Q31. Crohn’s disease 32. Hurler
Q 33. Lingual arch
Q 34.
Q Q35. Diphtheria
syndrome maintainer Pleomorphic
adenoma
Q36. Frozen section Q37. Glycoprotein 38. Fourth
Q Q39. Maxilla Q40. Index case
branchial pouch
Q41. Left lower canine Q42. Predentin 43. Mandibular
Q Q44. Atopy 45. Tricuspid
Q
first premolar and mitral
Q46. Society 47. Caries
Q 48. Fordyce
Q 49. Recently Q50. 3- 4 months
Q
activity granules extracted
socket
Q51. Riga fede disease 52.
Q 53.
Q 54. N Acetyl
Q 55.
Q
Recrudescent Keratoacanthoma Cysteine Scleroderma
Herpes Simplex
Q56. Pressure ulcer Q57. Class V 58. Very short ,
Q 59.
Q 60. Munsell
Q
complete isthmus Furosemide system
between 2 canals.
Q61. Congenital Syphilis Q
62. Q63. Wharton 64.
Q 65.
Q
Diatomaceous Paracetamol Hyperventilation
earth syndrome
Q1. Valproate Q2. Adenosine 3. Cryptococcus
Q 4. Suicidal
Q Q5. Blood culture
neoformans inhibition
Q6. Turner’s hypoplasia 7. Reactionary
Q 8. Nephritic
Q Q9. HbA1c 10. Chronic
Q
hemorrhage syndrome obstructive
pulmonary
disease
Q11. Polypropylene Q12. Pulse rate Q13. Class IV 14. Sickle
Q 15. Nicotinic
Q
cell anemia receptors
16. Potato crisps,
Q 17. Prosthetic
Q 18. Classical
Q Q19. 20% 20. Clostridium
Q
tomato, banana valve replacement conditioning perfringens
Q21. Excavator 22. Proper hand
Q Q23. Copper 24. Aplastic
Q 25.
Q
hygiene anemia Agranulocytosis
Q26. Inferior meatus 27. Niacin
Q 28. Tuberous
Q 29. Initiation
Q 30. One tenths
Q
deficiency sclerosis – of millimeters
propagation–
termination –
chain transfer
Q31. Crohn’s disease 32. Hurler
Q 33. Lingual arch
Q 34.
Q Q35. Diphtheria
syndrome maintainer Pleomorphic
adenoma
Q36. Frozen section Q37. Glycoprotein 38. Fourth
Q Q39. Maxilla Q40. Index case
branchial pouch
Q41. Left lower canine Q42. Predentin 43. Mandibular
Q Q44. Atopy 45. Tricuspid
Q
first premolar and mitral
Q46. Society 47. Caries
Q 48. Fordyce
Q 49. Recently Q50. 3- 4 months
Q
activity granules extracted
socket
Q51. Riga fede disease 52.
Q 53.
Q 54. N Acetyl
Q 55.
Q
Recrudescent Keratoacanthoma Cysteine Scleroderma
Herpes Simplex
Q56. Pressure ulcer Q57. Class V 58. Very short ,
Q 59.
Q 60. Munsell
Q
complete isthmus Furosemide system
between 2 canals.
Q61. Congenital Syphilis Q
62. Q63. Wharton 64.
Q 65.
Q
Diatomaceous Paracetamol Hyperventilation
earth syndrome
Page 19
Q66. Low serum albumin Q67. Laser 68. Coronal third
Q 69. Bonding
Q 70. Straight
Q
doppler flowmetry fracture of brackets elevator
71. Latent heat of
Q 72. Zygomaticus
Q 73. 2 anterior
Q 74. Action of Q
Q 75.
Fusion minor occlusal and 2 masseter on Actinomyces
bitewing buccinator actinomycetemco
radiographs + 2 mitans.
posterior occlusal +
2 molars IOPA
76. Porphyromonas
Q 77. Punched-out, Q
Q 78. Pemphigus 79.
Q Q80. EBV
gingivalis crater-like Vegetans- Ectoderm
depressions at the Hallopeau Type
crest of the
interdental papillae
Q81. Auditory tube 82.
Q 83. Superior
Q 84. Optic
Q 85. Facilitated
Q
Submandibular aesthetics nerve diffusion
gland
86. Inciso – gingival
Q Q87. Type IV 88. Remove
Q 89. Middle
Q 90. Greater
Q
display oxides meningeal auricular nerve
artery
Q91. AOT Q92. Nodular Type Q
93. Oxyphilic Q94. SLE 95. Downward
Q
Adenoma slanting of
palpebral fissures
96. A- Fissure Sealant, Q97. Fasciotomy
Q 98. Permanent
Q 99. Electric
Q 100. Causes
Q
B- Composite Resin, C- mandibular left first pulp tester infertility in males
Base molar used for pulp
vitality
Q101. Cellulitis Q102. Gray 103. Pull the lower Q
Q 104. 105. Gap
Q
lip and ask the Interviewer arthroplasty with
patient to bias costochondral
graft
Q106. Fexofenadine Q107. Etamsylate 108. Deletion of
Q 109.
Q 110.
Q
beta chains Malignant Mucoepidermoid
Melanoma carcinoma
Q111. 1. 5 years 112. Striae of
Q Q113. Dark 114.
Q 115. Jaw cyst
Q
Retzius Treacher Basal Cell Nevus
Collins syndrome
Syndrome
116. Papillon–Lefèvre
Q Q117. Capsid 118. Zinc
Q 119. Zinc
Q 120.
Q
syndrome phosphate > zinc oxide eugenol Prednisolone
polycarboxylate > impression
GIC material
Q 69. Bonding
Q 70. Straight
Q
doppler flowmetry fracture of brackets elevator
71. Latent heat of
Q 72. Zygomaticus
Q 73. 2 anterior
Q 74. Action of Q
Q 75.
Fusion minor occlusal and 2 masseter on Actinomyces
bitewing buccinator actinomycetemco
radiographs + 2 mitans.
posterior occlusal +
2 molars IOPA
76. Porphyromonas
Q 77. Punched-out, Q
Q 78. Pemphigus 79.
Q Q80. EBV
gingivalis crater-like Vegetans- Ectoderm
depressions at the Hallopeau Type
crest of the
interdental papillae
Q81. Auditory tube 82.
Q 83. Superior
Q 84. Optic
Q 85. Facilitated
Q
Submandibular aesthetics nerve diffusion
gland
86. Inciso – gingival
Q Q87. Type IV 88. Remove
Q 89. Middle
Q 90. Greater
Q
display oxides meningeal auricular nerve
artery
Q91. AOT Q92. Nodular Type Q
93. Oxyphilic Q94. SLE 95. Downward
Q
Adenoma slanting of
palpebral fissures
96. A- Fissure Sealant, Q97. Fasciotomy
Q 98. Permanent
Q 99. Electric
Q 100. Causes
Q
B- Composite Resin, C- mandibular left first pulp tester infertility in males
Base molar used for pulp
vitality
Q101. Cellulitis Q102. Gray 103. Pull the lower Q
Q 104. 105. Gap
Q
lip and ask the Interviewer arthroplasty with
patient to bias costochondral
graft
Q106. Fexofenadine Q107. Etamsylate 108. Deletion of
Q 109.
Q 110.
Q
beta chains Malignant Mucoepidermoid
Melanoma carcinoma
Q111. 1. 5 years 112. Striae of
Q Q113. Dark 114.
Q 115. Jaw cyst
Q
Retzius Treacher Basal Cell Nevus
Collins syndrome
Syndrome
116. Papillon–Lefèvre
Q Q117. Capsid 118. Zinc
Q 119. Zinc
Q 120.
Q
syndrome phosphate > zinc oxide eugenol Prednisolone
polycarboxylate > impression
GIC material
Page 20
Q121. Nimodipine 122. Ejection
Q 123. Chromium
Q 124. Time
Q 125. Posterior
Q
fraction oxide between first iliac crest
possible point
to usual time
of diagnosis
126. Social
Q 127. High
Q 128. Basal Cell
Q 129.
Q 130. Primary
Q
engineering phase contrast Carcinoma Nasolabial prevention
cyst
Q131. High fusing 132. Recipient
Q Q133. 5-6 months 134.
Q Q135. Phenytoin
serum with donor Partially
cell impacted 3rd
molar
136. Four point contact Q137. 0.50 mg
Q 138. Entirely on
Q 139.
Q Q140. Vitality
of the clamp the hard palate Mucormycosis
141. Medial Nasal
Q Q142. 1. 1/3rd Q143. 15 -20 144. Lower
Q 145.
Q
Process And Maxillary first and Ceruloplasmin
Process second
premolar
Q146. Learning by doing Q
147. Q148. Helicase 149.
Q 150.
Q
Contemplation Component Hyperparathyroidi
bar chart sm
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Q 123. Chromium
Q 124. Time
Q 125. Posterior
Q
fraction oxide between first iliac crest
possible point
to usual time
of diagnosis
126. Social
Q 127. High
Q 128. Basal Cell
Q 129.
Q 130. Primary
Q
engineering phase contrast Carcinoma Nasolabial prevention
cyst
Q131. High fusing 132. Recipient
Q Q133. 5-6 months 134.
Q Q135. Phenytoin
serum with donor Partially
cell impacted 3rd
molar
136. Four point contact Q137. 0.50 mg
Q 138. Entirely on
Q 139.
Q Q140. Vitality
of the clamp the hard palate Mucormycosis
141. Medial Nasal
Q Q142. 1. 1/3rd Q143. 15 -20 144. Lower
Q 145.
Q
Process And Maxillary first and Ceruloplasmin
Process second
premolar
Q146. Learning by doing Q
147. Q148. Helicase 149.
Q 150.
Q
Contemplation Component Hyperparathyroidi
bar chart sm
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Contact: support@
Document Details
| Board / Org | Default |
| Exam | National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (MDS) |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 20 |
| Updated | 09 Jun 2026 |