NEET MDS 2025 Question Paper

FOR NEET MDS EXAM PREPARATION

NEET MDS 2025
Question Paper
EXAM YEAR TYPE

NEET MDS 2025 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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NEET MDS 2025 Question Paper with
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Time Allowed :3 Hours 20 Minutes Maximum Marks :800 Total Questions :240

General Instructions
1. The NEET MDS 2025 examination is conducted in Computer-Based Test
(CBT) mode by the National Board of Examinations (NBE).
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2. The duration of the examination is 3 hours.
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3. The question paper consists of 240 multiple-choice questions (MCQs).
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4. Each question carries 4 marks.
5. For g
a every incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted.
6. The medium of the question paper is English only.
7. Candidates must report at the test center at least 90 minutes before the com-
mencement of the examination.
8. Candidates must carry the following items:
• NEET MDS 2025 Admit Card
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. in the admit card instructions.
• Valid Photo ID Proof (Aadhaar, Passport, PAN Card, Driving Licence, etc.)
• Any other documents as mentioned m
eprovided rough sheets. Additional sheets will
9. Rough work must be done only on a
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not be issued.
10. Use of calculators, mobile phones, smart watches, or any electronic devices
is strictly prohibited.
11. Follow all instructions displayed on the computer screen and those given by the
invigilator carefully.
12. Any use of unfair means, impersonation, or malpractice will result in can-
cellation of candidature.
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1. Which cells in the lungs give rise to heart failure cells?
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(A) Macrophages

las (B) Lymphocytes
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(D) Endothelial cells

2. Which bacterium is primarily responsible for initiating root caries?
(A) Streptococcus mutans
(B) Actinomyces viscosus
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
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(D) Lactobacillus acidophilus

3. Casal’s necklace is a clinical sign associated with the deficiency of which
vitamin?
(A) Cyanocobalamin
(B) Pyridoxine
(C) Riboflavin
(D) Niacin

4. Which of the following cellular organelles is chiefly responsible for packaging
and sorting proteins and lipids into vesicles for transport to their final
destinations within or outside the cell?
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(B) Lysosome
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Ribosome

5. The Galagan and Vermillion formula for determining optimal fluoride
concentration in drinking water takes into account body weight and which of the
following factors?
(A) Age
(B) Height
(C) Climatic conditions
(D) Gender

6. Which hepatitis virus is associated with the highest mortality rate during
pregnancy?
(A) Hepatitis E
(B) Hepatitis A
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis C

7. A patient taking low-dose aspirin (75 mg) for angina is scheduled for
endodontic treatment. What should be done regarding aspirin therapy?
(A) Stop 3-4 days before
(B) No need to stop
(C) Stop 1 hour before
(D) Stop 1 day before

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8. What is the recommended working force applied when
(A) Less than 20 grams a
(B) Less than 10 grams
(C) Less than 5 grams
(D) Less than 15 grams

9. Which of the following values best represents the proportion of data within 2
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standard deviations in a normal distribution?
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(A) 0.90
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(B) 0.68
(C) 0.95
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(D) 0.93
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10. Which of the following materials exhibits the lowest thermal expansion at
high temperatures?
(A) Fused silica
(B) Quartz
(C) Cristobalite
(D) Tridymite
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11. Which of the following is considered a caries-promoting mineral?

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(A) Selenium
(B) Vanadium
(C) Lead
(D) Molybdenum

12. What is the most likely causative agent of this condition (oral hairy
leukoplakia)?
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(A) Candida
(B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Epstein-Barr Virus
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(D) Human Papillomavirus

13. An 8-year-old patient has a combined mesiodistal width of 19.5 mm for the
four mandibular incisors. Using the Tanaka-Johnston analysis, what is the
predicted width of the unerupted mandibular canine and premolars on one side?
(A) 20.5 mm
(B) 20.25 mm
(C) 20.75 mm
(D) 20 mm

14. What is the minimum recommended distance between two dental implants
placed in an edentulous ridge to ensure optimal bone health and implant success?
(A) 3 mm
(B) 2 mm
(C) 1.5 mm
(D) 1 mm

15. The ”brush heap” appearance is characteristic of which of the following
dental materials?
(A) Condensation silicone
(B) Alginate
(C) Addition silicone
(D) Agar

16. Von Ebner’s glands are classified as which type of salivary gland?
(A) Mixed
(B) Mucous
(C) Serous
(D) Submandibular

17. Trismus is most commonly due to spasm or involvement of which muscle?
(A) Lateral pterygoid
(B) Medial pterygoid
(C) Masseter
(D) Temporalis

18. Which of the following changes will increase both glomerular filtration rate
(GFR) and filtration fraction?

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(B) Constriction of the efferent arteriole ag l
(C) Dilation of the afferent arteriole
(D) Dilation of the efferent arteriole

19. While cementing an all-ceramic bridge, the chair side assistant was
accidentally exposed to hydrofluoric etchant. Which of the following should be
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used as an antidote?
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(A) Sodium bicarbonate gel
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(B) Potassium hydroxide gel
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(C) Calcium hydroxide gel
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(D) Calcium gluconate gel
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20. Which of the following nerves is the pretrematic branch associated with the
first pharyngeal (mandibular) arch?
(A) Facial nerve
(B) Recurrent laryngeal
(C) External laryngeal
(D) Chorda tympani
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21. Which of the following oral potentially malignant disorders carries the highest
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risk of malignant transformation?
(A) Oral Submucous Fibrosis
(B) Leukoplakia
(C) Erythroplakia
(D) Lichen Planus

22. A patient presents after consuming 10 tablets of paracetamol in a suspected
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overdose. Which of the following is the appropriate antidote?
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(A) Naloxone
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(B) N-acetylcysteine
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23. A clinician is rehabilitating the lower left quadrant with a 3-unit
metal-ceramic bridge and the patient exhibits a pronounced gag reflex. Which
elastomeric impression material would be most appropriate to minimize
discomfort?
(A) Addition silicone
(B) Condensation silicone
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(C) Polyether
(D) Polysulfide

24. During forceps extraction, which part of the following is used as a dilating
instrument?
(A) Alveolar socket
(B) Handle of the forceps
(C) Beak of the forceps
(D) Tooth

25. In which of the following clinical situations is the Vazirani-Akinosi technique
most appropriately indicated?
(A) Extraction of multiple teeth across quadrants
(B) Limited mouth opening / Mouth opening is less than 4 cm
(C) Inadequate anesthesia with conventional inferior alveolar nerve block
(D) For maxillary molar extraction

26. What is the primary function of pulmonary surfactant?
(A) Facilitates gas exchange
(B) Increases surface tension in alveoli
(C) Prevents alveolar collapse
(D) Promotes mucociliary clearance

27. Cri du chat syndrome is associated with a deletion on which part of a
chromosome?
(A) Chromosome 5q arm
(B) Chromosome 15p arm
(C) Chromosome 15q arm
(D) Chromosome 5p arm

28. Which of the following orthodontic appliances generates a one-couple system
of force?
(A) Cantilever spring
(B) Utility arch wire
(C) Headgear
(D) Transpalatal arch

29. A dentist bonded a composite resin restoration on a maxillary anterior tooth.

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(A) Rubber
(B) Resin
(C) Sintered
(D) Vitreous

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30. The buccopharyngeal membrane is formed by the junction of which two
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embryonic layers?
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(A) Foregut ectoderm and oral endoderm
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(B) Oral ectoderm and foregut endoderm
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(C) Neural ectoderm and foregut endoderm
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(D) Oral ectoderm and hindgut endoderm

31. Which of the following materials require a hardening solution?
(A) Agar
(B) ZOE paste
(C) Impression plaster
(D) Impression compound
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32. In the provided image, which stages of amelogenesis are represented by the

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regions labeled as 5 and 6?

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(B) Organizing
(C) Protective
(D) Maturative

33. Which vessel passes between the roots of the auriculotemporal nerve?
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(A) Lingual nerve
(B) Inferior alveolar artery
(C) Maxillary vein
(D) Middle meningeal artery

34. In dentistry, oxidized cellulose is primarily used for which of the following
purposes?
(A) Styptic agent
(B) Antibacterial agent
(C) Local anesthetic
(D) Tissue adhesive

35. A clinician observes that the addition silicone impression material is not
setting properly. Upon inquiry, it is found that the assistant handled the material
while wearing latex gloves. Which of the following statements is true regarding
this situation?
(A) Hydroxyl ions which are released retard the reaction
(B) Sulfur released from gloves, acts as poison to platinum, slowing the reaction
(C) Water powder ratio is incorrect
(D) Alcohol is released which changes the setting time

36. A study reports different hospital admission rates for various diseases,
potentially affecting the observed association. What type of bias does this
represent?
(A) Confounding bias
(B) Recall bias
(C) Berkesonian bias
(D) Selection bias

37. In electroforming process, to obtain an electroformed die, what is the
rationale for metallizing using silver?
(A) Make the die abrasion resistant
(B) Make the die hard
(C) Promote conduction of electric current
(D) Make the die smooth

38. Which of the following is an example of discrete data?
(A) Hemoglobin level in blood
(B) Age in years
(C) Temperature in degrees Fahrenheit

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39. Which of the following has the lowest modulus of elasticity?
(A) Co Cr
(B) M NiTi
(C) SS
(D) Beta titanium
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40. ”Tram-line” intracranial calcifications seen on imaging are characteristic of
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which of the following conditions?
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(A) Treacher Collins syndrome
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(B) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Neurofibromatosis type 1

41. A 50 year old patient with Kennedy’s Class III partially edentulous span
needs a cast partial denture. What will be the nature of support for this

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prosthesis?

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(A) Tooth supported
(B) Bilateral distal extension
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(C) Tooth tissue supported
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(D) Unilateral distal extension

42. A 45-year-old female is missing teeth 14-18 and 24-28. Which special
impression technique will be used for this Kennedy’s Class I situation?
(A) Mucocompressive
(B) Open mouth
(C) Close mouth
(D) Altered cast technique
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s em43. A 60 year-old controlled diabetic patient visits your officeafor implant
prostheses. What should be the most importantglgoverning factor
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(B) Medication history
(C) Dietary habits
(D) Density of bone

44. Resin bonded FPD (Maryland & Virginia) are not indicated in patients with:
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(A) Open bite
(B) Deep bite
(C) Cross bite
(D) Bilateral cross bite

45. Prior to cementing an all ceramic crown, the prepared tooth should be
cleaned with:
(A) Glycerin based pumice
(B) Water based pumice
(C) Fluoridated pumice
(D) Non-fluoridated pumice

46. Which of the following is correct with regards to finishing and polishing of
ceramic restorations:
(A) Apply overglaze or natural glaze before contouring and finishing
(B) Apply overglaze or natural glaze before contouring, finishing and polishing
(C) Apply overglaze or natural glaze after contouring, finishing and polishing
(D) Apply overglaze on natural glaze after contouring

47. While treating a patient for caries the dentist switched from air rotor to
spoon excavator. This is an example of:
(A) Desensitisation
(B) Omission
(C) Negative reinforcement
(D) Positive reinforcement

48. A 30-year-old male patient received an all-ceramic crown on a maxillary
anterior tooth. He returns the next day reporting that his family noticed the
crown appears bluish. What is the most likely reason for this?
(A) Dentist did shade selection in natural sunlight
(B) Shade selection in fluorescent light with red-yellow intensity
(C) Shade selection in fluorescent light with blue-green intensity
(D) Shade selection done in incandescent blue-green light

49. A 5 year old child has his primary second molar missing bilaterally. Which
space maintainer would be indicated in this case?
(A) Unilateral band and loop
(B) Bilateral band and loop
(C) Lingual arch
(D) Removable acrylic space maintainer

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50. Cusp capping is considered when the extension of the cavity preparation
reaches which of the following?
(A) More than half of the primary groove to the central groove
(B) More than two-thirds or half of the primary groove to the central groove
(C) More than half of the secondary groove to the central groove
(D) Extension is limited to the marginal ridge only

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51. Identify the structure marked with red in the given image:

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(A) Enamel niche
(B) Enamel knot
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(C) Enamel cord
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(D) Enamel organ

52. Which theory of child psychology is represented by the model shown in the
image?

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(A) Psychosexual theory by Sigmund Freud
(B) Classical conditioning by Ivan Pavlov
(C) Cognitive theory by Jean Piaget
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(D) Hierarchy of needs by Maslow

53. A 3-year-old child presents with jaw pain and swelling, diagnosed as an apical
abscess. The child has a known severe allergy to penicillin. Which antibiotic
should be preferred for treatment in this case?
(A) Cefuroxime
(B) Clindamycin
(C) Amoxicillin
(D) Erythromycin

54. A 40-year-old male presents with recurrent painful oral ulcers, ocular
inflammation, and is found to be HLA-B51 positive on genetic testing. Which of
the following conditions best explains this presentation?
(A) Sweet’s syndrome
(B) Behçet’s syndrome
(C) MAGIC syndrome
(D) Systemic lupus erythematosus

55. Which of the following is effective in restoring enamel bond strength of
composite resin post-bleaching?
(A) Sodium ascorbate
(B) Citric acid
(C) EDTA
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

56. Which type of nerve fibers is primarily responsible for transmitting referred
pain?
(A) A-delta fibers
(B) A-gamma fibers
(C) A-beta fibers
(D) C fibers

57. In which of the following conditions is the use of thermoplasticized obturation
technique contraindicated?
(A) Open apex
(B) Presence of internal resorption
(C) C-shaped canal
(D) During backfilling procedures

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58. A Class II MO restoration placed on a maxillary first
a reason for this?
a cervical overhang. What is the most likely anatomical
(A) Mesial marginal developmental groove
(B) Canine eminence/fossa
(C) Stippling
(D) Mesial concavity

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59. Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of inlay wax?
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(A) High thermal expansion
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(B) Controlled flow
(C) Rigidity
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(D) Specific heat
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60. Which of the following represents the most recently introduced beta titanium
alloy utilized in orthodontic treatment?
(A) TMA
(B) CNA
(C) Double Flex
(D) Beta III Titanium
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61. The concept of specific heat in dental materials is most relevant to which of

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the following processes?
(A) Spruing
(B) Casting
(C) Annealing
(D) Investing

62. Which of the following features helps differentiate Crohn’s disease from
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ulcerative colitis?
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(A) Commonly associated with the colon
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(B) Confined to the colon and rectum
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(D) Presence of skip lesions
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63. Barefoot doctors are an example of which of the following?
(A) Using appropriate technology
(B) Community participation
(C) Creating supportive environment
(D) Developing personal skills

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64. A male patient presented to the clinic complaining of heavy occlusal forces.
On examination, wedge-shaped lesions were observed on the cervical region of the
facial surfaces of the maxillary premolars. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Abfraction
(B) Erosion
(C) Abrasion
(D) GERD

65. Arrange the following elastomeric impression materials in decreasing order of
their linear contraction:
CS = Condensation Silicone, PS = Polysulfide, PE = Polyether, AS = Addition
Silicone
(A) CS > PS > PE > AS
(B) AS > PE > PS > CS
(C) PE > CS > AS > PS
(D) PS > AS > PE > CS

66. A 9-year-old child suffered trauma leading to the avulsion of the upper left
central incisor. Before reaching the dental clinic, in which of the following storage
media should the tooth ideally be kept to preserve periodontal ligament vitality?
(A) Saliva
(B) Saline
(C) Milk
(D) Tap water

67. What is the ideal distance between the X-ray source and the mid-sagittal
plane (MSP) in radiographic imaging?
(A) 5 feet
(B) 6 feet
(C) 7 feet
(D) 8 feet

68. A patient presents with tooth mobility in the mandibular posterior region.
Radiographic examination reveals a mirror-like pattern of bone loss. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
(A) Localized aggressive gingivitis
(B) Generalized aggressive gingivitis
(C) NOMA
(D) ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis)

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69. A child diagnosed with both cleft lip and cleft palate presents to your clinic.
To support ideal speech development, when should the cleft palate surgery ideally
be performed?
(A) At 3 to 6 months of age
(B) After the age of 5 years
(C) Between 2 to 3 years of age
(D) Between 9 to 18 months of age
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70. Which of the following medications is most commonly linked to the
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(A) Nifedipinela
occurrence of fibrous
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(B) Acetaminophen
(C) Amoxicillin
(D) Tranexamic acid

71. Which radiographic view is most appropriate for diagnosing a zygomatic bone
fracture?
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(A) Waters’ view
(B) Submentovertex (SMV) view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Reverse Towne’s view

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72. Benign tumor of gingiva:
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(A) Lymphoma
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(B) SSC

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73. Which of the following is not supplied by the Facial Nerve?
(A) Posterior Auricular
(B) Nerve to Stapedius
(C) Deep Petrosal
(D) Chorda Tympani
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74. A patient requires tooth extraction in an area that has previously received
radiation therapy. What is the most serious complication to be concerned about
in this case?
(A) Pathological fracture
(B) Alveolar osteitis (dry socket)
(C) Osteoradionecrosis
(D) Delayed wound healing

75. A female patient presents with white, curd-like lesions on the buccal mucosa.
A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of oral thrush. Which is the most appropriate
topical antifungal treatment?
(A) Clotrimazole
(B) Neomycin
(C) Fluconazole
(D) Griseofulvin

76. A patient complains of nasal congestion, discharge, and intermittent nasal
bleeding for the past two months. There is also a history of spontaneous
exfoliation of an upper molar tooth. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
(A) Maxillary sinus adenoma
(B) Maxillary sinus malignancy
(C) Chronic maxillary sinusitis
(D) Tubercular sinusitis

77. A patient presents with a combination of the following signs: lower lip
swelling, facial nerve palsy, and a tongue with fissures. Which syndrome is most
likely?
(A) Pierre Robin sequence
(B) Parry-Romberg syndrome
(C) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
(D) Guillain-Barré syndrome

78. A 32-year-old female with a long-standing history of tobacco chewing since
the age of 14 presents with restricted mouth opening. Clinical examination
reveals no oral ulcers. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Oral submucous fibrosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Oral thrush
(D) Carcinoma of the buccal mucosa

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79. A patient presents with a bird-like facial appearance, micrognathia, cleft
palate, and glossoptosis. These clinical features are characteristic of which
syndrome?
(A) Treacher Collins syndrome
(B) Pierre Robin sequence
(C) Parry-Romberg syndrome
(D) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
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. c bed. On examination there is loss of complete vision from em
left eye. Which eofmthe following structure is injured in this case?
80. A patient fell from
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(A) Optic nerve
(B) Optic achiasma
(C) Optic tract
(D) Ciliary body

81. Kuttner tumor, which presents as a benign inflammatory enlargement of the
submandibular salivary gland, is also known as:
(A) Sialometaplasia of the submandibular salivary gland
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(B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma of the submandibular salivary gland

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(D) Myoepithelioma of the submandibular salivary gland
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82. Which radiographic view is most appropriate for evaluating a nasal bone
fracture?
(A) Intra-nasal radiograph
(B) Reverse Towne’s view
(C) Orthopantomogram (OPG)
(D) True lateral view
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83. A 23-year-old male presents with pain and swelling in the floor of the mouth,
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(B) Rhinolithiasis
(C) Sialolithiasis
(D) Sialometaplasia

84. Which of the following rest eliminates the need for the placement of clasp
arm buccally?
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(A) Intracoronal rest
(B) Interproximal rest
(C) Extended occlusal rest
(D) Auxiliary rest

85. After hemimandibulectomy, the mandible deviates on one side. Which of the
following muscles is responsible for this?
(A) Medial Pterygoid
(B) Lateral Pterygoid
(C) Masseter
(D) Temporalis

86. While preparing the rest seat for a molar, the marginal ridge is reduced by
2mm to accommodate for the width of rest and the line angles are rounded in
order to
(A) Allow better distribution of vertical forces
(B) Reduce impaction of food
(C) Reduce chances of fracture of metal at rest
(D) Provide better stability to the denture

87. Following a road traffic accident, a patient suffered trauma from a dashboard
impact. Clinical and radiographic investigations revealed damage to the inferior
alveolar nerve at its origin. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be
paralyzed?
(A) Geniohyoid
(B) Mylohyoid
(C) Stylohyoid
(D) Hyoglossus

88. Odland bodies found in the stratum spinosum are modified form of:
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Lamellar bodies
(D) Ribosomes

89. Which of the following is an accessory cusp commonly found on a mandibular
molar?
(A) Cusp of Carabelli
(B) Metacone
(C) Parastylid

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90. A patient presents with signs of acute kidney injury (AKI) following ingestion
of a toxic substance. Which of the following is the most likely chemical
responsible for the renal damage?
(A) Melamine
(B) Methanol
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(C) Ethyl alcohol
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(D) Benzyl alcohol
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g incisor (tooth 51). The child has a history of trauma 6 months
91. A 4.5-year-old
maxillaryacentral
child presents to the dental clinic with a discolored primary

ago and is currently asymptomatic. What is the most appropriate treatment in
this case?
(A) Indirect Pulp Capping (IPC)
(B) Pulpotomy
(C) Extraction
(D) Pulpectomy

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92. A patient presents with neck swellingm
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and pain. Intraoral examination reveals

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diagnosis?
(A) Measles a
(B) Erythema multiforme
(C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
(D) Herpetic gingivostomatitis

93. Which of the following treatment modalities addresses the underlying cause
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of a malocclusion?
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(A) Supracrestal fibrotomy

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94. A patient with a radiographically confirmed chronic oroantral fistula presents
with nasal pus discharge. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?
(A) Administer antibiotics, excise the epithelial lining, and close the defect using a local flap
(B) Use an acrylic plate with antibiotics and monitor for spontaneous healing
(C) Apply titanium mesh with a buccal flap and buccal fat pad for closure

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(D) Perform pus culture, sinus lavage, start empirical antibiotics, and allow spontaneous
closure

95. A patient presents with an infected mandibular angle fracture. Which of the
following bacteria is most commonly associated with infection in such cases?
(A) Streptococcus pyogenes
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Streptococcus mutans

96. Which of the following statements about the use of CPAP (Continuous
Positive Airway Pressure) in Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) is correct?
(A) CPAP increases throat air pressure during sleep
(B) CPAP prevents airway collapse only when used with an oral appliance
(C) CPAP is primarily used for OSA cases requiring invasive treatment
(D) CPAP is not effective in severe cases of OSA

97. Identify the X-ray view shown in the image below, characterized by a 30°
angulation and projection used primarily for visualizing fractures of the
mandibular condyle and ramus.
(A) Waters view
(B) Reverse Towne view
(C) Submentovertex (SMV) view
(D) Anteroposterior (AP) view

98. A 55-year-old male presents with pain and swelling in the lower jaw. On
clinical examination, tenderness is noted over the left angle and body of the
mandible, along with mild bucco-lingual cortical expansion. An
orthopantomogram (OPG) reveals the radiographic findings shown. What is the
most likely diagnosis?

(A) Ossifying fibroma
(B) Ameloblastoma
(C) Osteoblastoma
(D) Odontogenic keratocyst

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99. Which of the following parameters measures the percentage of incisor
visibility relative to the clinical crown height?
(A) Smile Index
(B) Smile Arc
(C) Bolton’s Ratio
(D) Morley’s Ratio

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100. In the Proffit and Ackerman classification of malocclusion, circles labeled 3,
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4, and 5 correspond to which planes of space?
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(A) Transverse, sagittal, vertical

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(B) Sagittal, transverse, vertical
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(C) Vertical, sagittal, transverse
(D) Vertical, transverse, sagittal

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