NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper

FOR NEET MDS EXAM PREPARATION

NEET MDS 2024
Question Paper
EXAM YEAR TYPE

NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper with
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Time Allowed :3 Hours 20 minutes Maximum Marks :720 Total Questions :240

General Instructions
1. The NEET MDS Exam will be structured with a total of 720 marks.
2. The total duration of the exam is 3 Hours 20 Minutes.
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3. The exam will be divided into 3 sections:
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• 1. General. Anatomy, Physiology, and Biochemistry. s e
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• 2. General Pathology, Microbiology, and Pharmacology.
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a 3. Dental and Oral Pathology
4. Each section will contain multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with four options.
5. Negative marking will apply for incorrect answers. For each incorrect answer, 1
mark will be deducted.
6. Ensure that you read each question carefully before answering.
7. No electronic devices, including calculators or mobile phones, are allowed inside the
examination hall.
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.and valid ID proof to the examination
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8. Candidates must carry their Admit Cardsm
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1. Winterbottom’s sign of trypanosomiasis
(A) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck
refers to?

(B) Bilateral swelling of the feet
(C) Presence of fever and chills
(D) Skin rash on the abdomen
Correct Answer: (A) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck

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Winterbottom’s sign is a key clinical indicator of the early, or hemolymphatic, stage of African
trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness).
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ag posterior cervical triangle, particularly those along the neck.

This lymphadenopathy signifies the multiplication and spread of the Trypanosoma parasites
within the lymphatic system.

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Winterbottom’s sign is specific for African trypanosomiasis caused by T rypanosoma
brucei gambiense.

2. Which sinus opening is not present in the middle meatus?
(A) Maxillary sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Ethmoidal sinus
(D) Sphenoid sinus
Correct Answer: (D) Sphenoid sinus

The middle meatus is the drainage site for the anterior group of paranasal sinuses.

The Maxillary sinus, Frontal sinus, and the Anterior and Middle Ethmoidal air cells all open
into the middle meatus.

The Sphenoid sinus drains posteriorly into the sphenoethmoidal recess, which lies above and
behind the superior nasal concha.

The superior meatus receives drainage from the Posterior Ethmoidal cells, and the
Sphenoid sinus drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess.

3. How is age estimation from an OPG (Orthopantomogram) of a child done?
(A) By the eruption sequence of teeth
(B) By the development of the root apex
(C) By the length of the crown
(D) By the shape of the jaw
Correct Answer: (B) By the development of the root apex

Age estimation methods like Nolla’s and Demirjian’s rely on assessing the stages of tooth cal-
cification and formation.

The most reliable, quantifiable part of this process involves tracking the closure and maturation
of the root apex.

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A fully formed root apex (closed apical foramen) indicates dental
opment stage a strong correlate for chronological age. a

While eruption sequence is used, the radiographic assessment of root apex formation is
a more biologically precise and internationally accepted method for estimating dental
age.
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4. What is the thick band-like gingiva on the canine called?

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(A) Mucogingival junction
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(B) Gingival recession
(C) Gingival hyperplasia
(D) Gingival collar
Correct Answer: (D) Gingival collar

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The gingival collar is an anatomical term synonymous with the free gingiva or marginal gingiva.

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It is the cuff of tissue that immediately surrounds.the neck of the tooth.
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This tissue is unattached and often appears l a as a defined, band-like structure, particularly
prominent around single-rooted teeth a like the canine.

The gingival collar forms the wall of the gingival sulcus, distinguishing it from the at-
tached gingiva.

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5. Does interproximal wear result in mesial drift?
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s e (A) Yes, it can result in mesial drift
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(D) Yes, but only in molars
Correct Answer: (A) Yes, it can result in mesial drift

Interproximal wear (attrition) results in the loss of mesiodistal tooth substance.

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This loss creates spaces between teeth and compromises arch continuity.

To eliminate these gaps and maintain tight contact, the teeth physiologically drift mesially due
to the Anterior Component of Force (ACF).

This mesial drift is a compensatory mechanism driven by biological forces and the transseptal
fibers.

Mesial drift is a continuous process throughout life, accelerating in response to proxi-
mal wear to ensure the integrity of the dental arch.

6. What is the common feature in McCune-Albright syndrome, Fanconi anemia,
and Noonan’s syndrome?
(A) Bone marrow failure
(B) Developmental delays
(C) Cardiovascular defects
(D) Endocrine disorders
Correct Answer: (C) Cardiovascular defects

Noonan’s syndrome is characterized by a high incidence of cardiac issues, particularly pul-
monary stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Fanconi anemia is primarily a bone marrow failure syndrome, but it is also a developmental
disorder frequently associated with congenital heart defects (e.g., VSD, PDA).

McCune-Albright syndrome, while known for fibrous dysplasia and endocrine issues, can sec-
ondarily affect the cardiovascular system due to associated endocrine hyperfunction (e.g., hy-
pertension or rapid heart rate from hyperthyroidism).

Cardiovascular defects represent a significant systemic morbidity shared or potentially shared
across these three syndromes.

When faced with overlapping syndrome questions, recall the systems most commonly
affected. Cardiac anomalies are highly characteristic of Noonan’s syndrome.

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se 7. How is OPG used to identify the age of a child?
(A) By assessing the shape of the teeth ag l
(B) By evaluating the eruption of the teeth
(C) By measuring the length of the jaw
(D) By identifying calcification stages of teeth
Correct Answer: (D) By identifying calcification stages of teeth

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Dental age estimation systems (e.g., Demirjian, Nolla) utilize the progressive mineralization of
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the developing teeth.
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This mineralization
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is divided into specific calcification stages, ranging from crypt formation
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to apical closure.

Identifying which stage each tooth has reached on the OPG provides the most reliable index of
the child’s developmental age.

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Calcification stages provide a robust and less variable measure of dental development
compared to the timing of tooth eruption.

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a grade?
8. What is tumor staging classification
(A) TNM Classification
(B) FIGO Classification
(C) Breslow Classification
(D) Ann Arbor Classification
Correct Answer: (C) Breslow Classification

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Tumor systems are typically categorized into staging (extent of spread) and grading (degree of
s differentiation/aggressiveness).
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a or pathological STAGING.

The Breslow Classification specifically measures the depth of invasion in millimeters for melanoma,
which directly correlates with the histological GRADE and prognosis of the tumor.

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TNM is the universal system for staging solid tumors; Breslow is used specifically to
grade the depth of invasion in melanoma.

9. What should be done for a premature baby with breathing difficulty and
cyanosis?
(A) Immediate intubation
(B) Oxygen therapy
(C) Intravenous fluids
(D) Monitor and wait
Correct Answer: (A) Immediate intubation

Breathing difficulty and cyanosis in a premature baby indicate severe respiratory failure, most
commonly due to Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS).

This condition involves alveolar collapse due to surfactant deficiency, leading to severe hypox-
emia.

Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation are necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation
and to deliver exogenous surfactant, which is the definitive treatment.

Simple oxygen therapy is insufficient for severe cyanotic distress where the underlying issue is
lung collapse.

Cyanosis is a sign of extreme emergency; definitive airway management (intubation)
precedes simple supportive measures in severe respiratory distress.

10. What are border movement and neutral zone while recording muscles?
(A) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral zone refers to the
position where muscles have equal force.
(B) Border movement refers to the limits of tooth movement, and neutral zone refers to the
natural resting position.
(C) Border movement refers to the position of teeth during occlusion, and neutral zone refers
to the area of the tongue’s influence.
(D) Border movement refers to the jaw’s occlusal position, and neutral zone refers to the teeth’s
contact.
Correct Answer: (A) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral

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se zone refers to the position where muscles have equal force.
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Border movement defines the maximum possible range of motion of the mandible in any direc-
tion (sagittal, frontal, or horizontal planes).

The Neutral Zone (or zone of minimum conflict) is the potential space in the mouth where the
tongue, cheeks, and lips exert equal and opposing forces.
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Optimal prosthesis stability is achieved by placing artificial teeth within this zone of muscular
equilibrium.
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° Quicka Tip
Border movements are anatomical limits determined by the TMJ and ligaments (Pos-
selt’s envelope), while the Neutral Zone is a dynamic limit determined by muscle func-
tion.

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11. Which organisms are involved in ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gin-
givitis)?
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(A) T reponema denticola, P revotella intermedia, F usobacterium nucleatum

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(B) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Candida albicans

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(C) Escherichia coli, P seudomonas aeruginosa, Streptococcus mutans
(D) Actinomyces israelii, Lactobacillus acidophilus, Helicobacter pylori
Correct Answer: (A) T reponema denticola, P revotella intermedia, F usobacterium nucleatum

ANUG is associated with a specific polymicrobial infection dominated by anaerobic bacteria,

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historically called the fusospirochetal complex.

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Keyospecies .
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e mand Gram-negative anaerobes (P revotella intermedia).
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a gnecrotizing lesions of the
ag gingiva.

The presence of T reponema (spirochetes) and F usobacterium (fusiform rods) in large
numbers is pathognomonic for necrotizing periodontal diseases.

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12. Given the mean and standard deviation value, how is the standard error cal-
culated?
(A) Standard error = Standard deviation / square root of sample size
(B) Standard error = Mean / sample size
(C) Standard error = Standard deviation ∗ sample size
(D) Standard error = Standard deviation / sample size
Correct Answer: (A) Standard error = Standard deviation / square root of sample size

The Standard Error of the Mean (SEM) is a measure of how far the sample mean is likely to
be from the true population mean.

It relates the variability within the sample (Standard Deviation, SD) to the size of the sample
(N ).

SD
The mathematical formula is SEM = √ .
N

The Standard Error (SEM) decreases as the sample size (N ) increases, meaning larger
samples yield more precise estimates of the population mean.

13. Which precancerous lesions were identified in 2005 by the WHO?
(A) Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia
(B) Lichen planus, Actinic keratosis
(C) Oral submucous fibrosis, Candidiasis
(D) Basal cell carcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: (A) Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia

In 2005, the World Health Organization (WHO) redefined ”precancerous lesions” as ”Poten-
tially Malignant Disorders” (PMDs).

Leukoplakia (white patches) and Erythroplakia (red patches) are historically and currently the
most significant PMDs due to their high transformation rates.

Erythroplakia, in particular, has the highest malignant transformation potential among oral
PMDs.

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The WHO PMD classification includes Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia, Oral Submucous
Fibrosis (OSMF), and certain types of Chronic Hyperplastic Candidiasis. Option (A)
lists the two most common and high-risk lesions.

14. What is the best treatment option for an avulsion that happened 10 minutes
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ago?
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(A) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth
(B) Use of an ice pack and waiting for dental intervention
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(C) Preservation in milk and reimplantation
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(D) No treatment necessary
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Correct Answer: (A) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth

For an avulsed tooth, the success of healing depends crucially on the viability of the periodontal
ligament (PDL) cells.

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When the extra-oral time is short (10 minutes), the PDL cells are viable.

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. the patient or parent) provides the best
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Immediate reimplantation at the site of injury (by
e successful healing.
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chance for maintaining PDL vitality and achieving
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agl storage medium (C) is the next best step, but
If immediate reimplantation is not possible,
immediate reimplantation takes precedence.

The golden time for avulsion is < 30 minutes of dry time. If the tooth is clean and
intact, immediate reimplantation is the standard of care for optimal prognosis.
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s em15. Unilateral cleft lip occurs due to?
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(C) Both genetic and environmental factors
(D) Nutritional deficiency
Correct Answer: (C) Both genetic and environmental factors

Cleft lip and palate (CL/P) are classical examples of multifactorial inheritance congenital
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anomalies.

The etiology involves the interaction between underlying genetic susceptibility (multiple genes)
and external environmental triggers.

Environmental factors include maternal exposure to teratogens (smoking, alcohol, certain med-
ications) during critical stages of palatal and lip formation (weeks 4 − 12).

Multifactorial inheritance indicates that the disorder results from the combination of a
genetic predisposition and environmental influences.

16. If anterior teeth are periodontally compromised, what is the major connector
in partial denture construction?
(A) Lingual bar
(B) Palatal bar
(C) Kennedy bar
(D) Lingual plate
Correct Answer: (D) Lingual plate

A Lingual plate (or linguoplate) major connector is a thin plate of metal covering the lingual
surfaces of the anterior teeth and the marginal gingiva (if necessary).

This design provides splinting and stabilization for periodontally weakened or compromised
mandibular anterior teeth.

A Lingual bar, by contrast, provides rigidity but no stabilization, as it must be positioned clear
of the teeth and gingiva.

The Lingual plate is the major connector of choice in mandibular RPDs when maxi-
mum rigidity and stabilization of anterior teeth are required.

17. What is the Merin classification?
(A) Classification of periodontal disease
(B) Classification of malocclusion
(C) Classification of fractures

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Correct Answer: (D) Classification of cleft lips and palates
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The Merin Classification system is a standardized method used in orthodontics and surgery for
describing the anatomical extent and severity of cleft lip and palate deformities.

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It provides detailed descriptors necessary for surgical planning and comparative studies.
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Other prominent
LAHSHAL

18. What is the dose of adrenaline in Angina Pectoris?
(A) 1 mg
(B) 0.5 mg

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(C) 0.3 mg

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(D) 0.2 mg
Correct Answer: (C) 0.3 mg
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Solution: ag
Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is generally contraindicated in Angina Pectoris because its cardiovas-
cular stimulating effects increase myocardial oxygen demand, potentially worsening ischemia.

However, if a patient with Angina Pectoris experiences a life-threatening acute emergency like
anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction during dental treatment, adrenaline must be adminis-
tered.

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The standard adult dose for intramuscular administration of 1 : 1000 epinephrine in such emer-
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gencies is 0.3 mg.
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In dental settings, the 0.3 mg dose (1 : 1000 IM) is used for anaphylaxis, even in car-
diac patients, as the risk of anaphylactic death outweighs the cardiac risk.

19. There was an image-based question on Cherubism. What is Cherubism?
(A) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face
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(B) A type of cranial deformity due to birth trauma
(C) A rare soft tissue disorder of the mouth
(D) A vascular malformation in the skull
Correct Answer: (A) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face

Cherubism is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the bone affecting the jaws and facial
skeleton.

It causes bilateral, symmetric, painless enlargement of the mandible and sometimes the maxilla.

Radiographically, it presents as multilocular radiolucencies containing giant cells, resembling
giant cell granulomas.

Cherubism is characterized by progressive mandibular and maxillary swelling in child-
hood, often giving the child an upward gaze (cherubic look) due to displacement of the
orbital contents.

20. Which drug is given in ACLS (Advanced Cardiac Life Support) for Ventricular
Tachycardia?
(A) Amiodarone
(B) Atropine
(C) Adrenaline
(D) Lidocaine
Correct Answer: (A) Amiodarone

In the ACLS algorithm for pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) or Ventricular Fibrillation
(VF), the priority drugs are epinephrine (adrenaline) and antiarrhythmics.

Amiodarone is the first-line antiarrhythmic drug administered after initial defibrillation at-
tempts and epinephrine have failed.

It is used to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further life-threatening arrhythmias.

Lidocaine is considered an acceptable second-line alternative.

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Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic in cardiac arrest (VT/VF). Atropine is
used for bradycardia, and Adrenaline is the primary vasoconstrictor/pressor.

21. A girl was having a problem with her eye. She could not see the whiteboard
from a distance but she could see the textbook. What is it?
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(A) Hypermetropia
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(B) Myopia
(C) Astigmatism
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(D) Presbyopia

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Correct Answer: (B) Myopia
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The patient can see objects clearly near her (textbook) but has difficulty seeing distant objects
(whiteboard).

This condition is known as Myopia (nearsightedness).
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In myopia, the focal point falls in front of the retina, making distant objects appear blurry.
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Myopia is corrected using concave (diverging) lenses, while Hypermetropia (farsighted-
ness) is corrected using convex (converging) lenses.

22. What is the level of the Thyroid Cartilage?
(A) C4
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(B) C5
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(C) C6
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(D) C3
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Correct Answer: (A) C4

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The superior border of the thyroid cartilage is typically located opposite the fourth cervical
vertebra (C4).

Its inferior border is generally opposite the lower part of C5.

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Since C4 is the highest and most precise single option representing the main bulk/superior
margin, it is the best answer.

The cricoid cartilage is reliably located opposite C6, a landmark used for performing
tracheotomy.

23. What is the antidote for Morphine?
(A) Naloxone
(B) Flumazenil
(C) Atropine
(D) Protamine
Correct Answer: (A) Naloxone

Morphine is a powerful opioid analgesic, and overdose leads to respiratory depression.

Naloxone is a pure opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid drugs,
serving as the specific antidote.

Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.

Naloxone has a short half-life, often requiring repeat doses to counteract the effects of
long-acting opioids like morphine.

24. Wallerian degeneration is seen in?
(A) Peripheral nervous system
(B) Central nervous system
(C) Muscular system
(D) Endocrine system
Correct Answer: (A) Peripheral nervous system

Wallerian degeneration is the process that occurs when a nerve axon is severed or crushed.

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It involves the disintegration and degeneration of the axon segment
neuronal cell body. a
While it can occur in both the CNS and PNS, the term is predominantly associated with the
Peripheral Nervous System, where the degeneration is faster and followed by more effective
potential regeneration due to the presence of Schwann cells.

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Axonal regeneration is generally successful in the PNS following Wallerian degenera-
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tion, but regeneration in the CNS is typically inhibited by myelin-associated inhibitors
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and glial scarring.
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25. A patient came with painless swelling on the posterior jaw. On aspiration, only
a drop of blood is obtained. What is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Hemangioma
(B) Odontogenic cyst
(C) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(D) Malignant tumor
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Correct Answer: (C) Aneurysmal bone cyst

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Painless swelling in the posterior jaw a
is a common presentation for benign bony lesions.

Aspiration that yields only a small drop of blood, or is described as ”empty,” is highly charac-
teristic of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC).

The ABC consists of blood-filled, sinusoidal spaces that often fail to fill a syringe due to their
high viscosity or rapid collapse upon needle entry.
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A Hemangioma (A) would typically yield massive, non-clotting blood due to its high-flow na-
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ture.
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The ”drop of blood” or ”empty aspiration” sign helps differentiate ABC from high-
flow vascular lesions like central hemangioma, which bleed profusely upon attempted
aspiration.

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26. What is the characteristic feature of Wispy Septa?
(A) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions
(B) Thickening of the bony cortex
(C) Presence of calcifications
(D) Bony spicules radiating from the lesion
Correct Answer: (A) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions

”Wispy septa” is a descriptive radiographic term referring to thin, fine internal bony partitions.

These septa create a multilocular or honeycombed internal pattern within a radiolucent lesion.

This appearance is often noted in large, aggressive cystic lesions or benign tumors of the jaw,
such as Odontogenic Keratocysts or Ameloblastomas.

Therefore, it describes the internal radiographic appearance within certain cystic/tumor lesions.

Wispy septa should be contrasted with thick, coarse septa, which may suggest a more
slowly growing or aggressive solid tumor. Radiating spicules (D) are characteristic of
malignancy (e.g., sunburst appearance in osteosarcoma).

27. Gas gangrene is caused by?
(A) Clostridium perf ringens
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Escherichia coli
(D) P seudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: (A) Clostridium perf ringens

Gas gangrene (myonecrosis) is a severe bacterial infection characterized by muscle death and
gas production within tissues.

It is primarily caused by Clostridium perf ringens, an anaerobic, spore-forming, Gram-positive
rod.

The organism produces toxins that cause rapid tissue destruction and fermentation, leading to
gas accumulation.

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Gas gangrene is a medical emergency requiring aggressive surgical debridement and
hyperbaric oxygen therapy, in addition to high-dose penicillin.

28. Which fungi is commonly associated with urinary tract infections in catheter-
ized patients?
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(A) Candida albicans
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(B) Aspergillus f umigatus
(C) Cryptococcus neof ormans
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(D) Histoplasma capsulatum
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Correct Answer: (A) Candida albicans
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Candida species, particularly Candida albicans, are the most frequent fungal pathogens asso-
ciated with hospital-acquired infections (nosocomial infections).

In catheterized patients, C. albicans commonly colonizes the urinary tract and forms biofilms

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on the catheter surface, leading to candiduria and sometimes invasive fungal urinary tract in-
fections.
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Candida is a leading cause of UTIs and bloodstream infections in immunocompromised
and catheterized hospital patients.

29. What is the National Pathfinder Survey related to?

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(A) Educational achievement in the United States

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(B) Nutritional habits of adolescents

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(C) Global health initiatives

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The National Pathfinder Survey (specifically referring to the U.S. National Institute of Dental
Research surveys of the 1980s) was a major epidemiological study.

These surveys focused on the oral health status of children and adolescents, collecting vast data
on dental caries, periodontal disease, and crucially, the influence of habits, diet, and fluoride
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exposure.

Among the given options, nutritional habits are a key component of dental health epidemiology
studied in such surveys.

Pathfinder surveys are foundational in dental public health, often setting baseline data
for national health goals (like monitoring trends in caries prevalence).

30. What is the type of Ameloblastoma?
(A) Unicystic
(B) Multicystic
(C) Peripheral
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Ameloblastoma, the most common clinically significant odontogenic tumor, is categorized into
four main clinicoradiographic types.

These types are: Solid/Multicystic, Unicystic, Peripheral (extraosseous), and Malignant.

Options (A), (B), and (C) list the three major benign variants based on their presentation and
biological behavior.

The Solid/Multicystic Ameloblastoma is the most common and aggressive type, while
the Peripheral Ameloblastoma is the least aggressive, presenting as a soft tissue mass.

31. What is the treatment for Mandibular Angle Fracture?
(A) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
(B) Closed reduction with wiring
(C) Conservative management
(D) No treatment required
Correct Answer: (A) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)

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a fragment (ramus) is pulled
Mandibular angle fractures are often unstable because the proximal
superiorly and medially by the powerful elevator muscles (masseter, medial pterygoid, tempo-
ralis).

Due to this muscular displacement, achieving and maintaining adequate reduction requires sta-
ble fixation.

Open Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF) using miniplates (usually a two-plate technique
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The majority of mandibular fractures are treated with ORIF to ensure anatomical re-
duction and prompt return to function without long periods of maxillomandibular fixa-
tion.

32. Costochondral graft to a child aged 8 years after treatment: why does the
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mouth deviate to the unoperated site while opening?
(A) Unilateral condylar growth
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(B) Malposition of the graft
(C) Neuromuscular imbalance
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(D) Abnormal growth of the temporomandibular joint
Correct Answer: (C) Neuromuscular imbalance

The typical deviation upon opening is toward the side of restriction (the operated side), indi-
cating failure of translation on that side.

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Deviation to the *unoperated* side implies that the range of movement is severely restricted
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on the *unoperated* (healthy) side, or that the operated side is hypermobile.
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Neuromuscular imbalance (C), particularly related to the function of the lateral pterygoid mus-
cle, best explains the disturbance in controlled mandibular movement following complex joint
surgery.

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Mandibular deviation is often the result of lateral pterygoid muscle dysfunction,
whether due to scarring, nerve damage, or altered mechanics of the neo-condyle/graft.

33. What is Stellate granuloma?
(A) A type of benign skin tumor
(B) A granulomatous lesion in the oral cavity
(C) A form of infectious granuloma
(D) A non-neoplastic lesion affecting the bones
Correct Answer: (C) A form of infectious granuloma

The term ”stellate granuloma” is often used histologically to describe the star-shaped, central
necrosis or arrangement of epithelioid cells and microabscesses.

This specific pattern is a pathognomonic feature of infectious lymphadenitis, most famously
seen in Cat-Scratch Disease caused by Bartonella henselae.

Therefore, it refers to a specific morphological structure seen within an infectious granuloma
of the lymph nodes.

Stellate microabscesses/granulomas are highly characteristic features of granulomatous
infections involving lymph nodes, differentiating them from other types of granulomas
(e.g., foreign body or sarcoidosis).

34. What is the role of retention after orthodontic movement?
(A) To maintain tooth position after active treatment
(B) To prevent relapse of tooth movement
(C) To improve facial aesthetics
(D) To reduce pain after treatment
Correct Answer: (A) To maintain tooth position after active treatment

Orthodontic retention is the period following the removal of active appliances, during which
retainers are worn.

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The primary biological role of retention is to allow the reorganization
periodontal ligament, gingival fibers, and adjacent alveolar abone around the newly positioned
teeth.

This stabilization achieves the fundamental goal: maintenance of the corrected tooth position.

Prevention of relapse (B) is the direct clinical consequence of successful maintenance (A).

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35. What is the stochastic effect of radiographs?
(A) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
(B) Immediate tissue damage from radiation
(C) Loss of tooth enamel due to repeated exposure
(D) Long-term bone density loss
Correct Answer: (A) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
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Stochastic effects of radiation are probabilistic, random effects that have no threshold dose.

The severity of the effect is independent of the dose received; only the probability of occurrence
increases with dose.

The main examples of stochastic effects are carcinogenesis (cancer) and heritable (genetic) mu-
tations.

Immediate tissue damage (B) is a deterministic effect, which has a dose threshold.
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Deterministic effects (like erythema, tissue necrosis) have a threshold
a increases with dose, unlike stochastic effects.

36. Ductility test is not relevant for?
(A) Metals
(B) Polymers
(C) Glasses
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(D) Ceramics
Correct Answer: (D) Ceramics

Ductility is the ability of a material to deform plastically under tensile stress without fracturing.

Metals are highly ductile, and polymers can exhibit ductility.

Ceramics (and glasses, which are non-crystalline ceramics) are inherently brittle materials.

Since they fracture before significant plastic deformation occurs, testing for ductility is not
relevant to their mechanical characterization.

Brittleness is the opposite of ductility. Ceramics are brittle materials favored for their
hardness and aesthetic properties, not their capacity for deformation.

37. There was a question related to Dentigerous cyst. What is it?
(A) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
(B) A cyst that occurs in the alveolar bone
(C) A cyst caused by impacted wisdom teeth
(D) A cyst in the soft tissue surrounding the tooth
Correct Answer: (A) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth

A Dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) develops by the accumulation of fluid between the crown
of an unerupted tooth and the reduced enamel epithelium.

It is defined by its association with the crown of an impacted or unerupted tooth.

This cyst is attached at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).

The Dentigerous cyst is the second most common odontogenic cyst (after periapical
cyst) and has a risk of transformation into an Ameloblastoma.

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38. What is the tooth shedding sequence in primary teeth?
(A) Incisors, molars, canines a
(B) Molars, incisors, canines
(C) Canines, incisors, molars
(D) Molars, canines, incisors
Correct Answer: (A) Incisors, molars, canines

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The exfoliation sequence of primary teeth generally follows the sequence of eruption, starting
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around age 6.
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The generalizedas a g→
sequence is: Incisors (Central and Lateral) → First Molars → Canines
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Second Molars.

Option (A) Incisors, molars, canines, lists the tooth types in the correct chronological order of
shedding.

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The primary mandibular central incisors are typically the first teeth to exfoliate, mark-
ing the beginning of the mixed dentition period.
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39. What is the HIV prophylaxis?
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(A) Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
(B) Zidovudine
(C) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
(D) Combination of antiretroviral drugs
Correct Answer: (C) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

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HIV prophylaxis refers to preventing HIV infection, often following a known exposure event
s (e.g., needlestick injury).
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a after potential exposure to HIV to reduce the risk of infection.

PEP typically involves a combination of antiretroviral drugs, fitting the definition of prophy-
laxis.

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PEP must be started as soon as possible, ideally within hours, and no later than 72
hours after exposure, and usually involves a course of 28 days of antiretroviral medica-
tion.

40. Which drug is used to relax muscles in maxillofacial surgery?
(A) Midazolam
(B) Propofol
(C) Succinylcholine
(D) Ketamine
Correct Answer: (C) Succinylcholine

Maxillofacial surgery often requires complete muscle relaxation to facilitate intubation and sur-
gical access.

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent (muscle relaxant) used in anes-
thesia to induce rapid and profound paralysis.

Midazolam is a sedative, Propofol is a general anesthetic, and Ketamine is a dissociative anes-
thetic; none are primary muscle relaxants.

Succinylcholine is known for its rapid onset but short duration of action, making it
ideal for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) prior to surgery.

41. There was a question related to Shrugging off the Shoulder in Neck Surgery.
What is it related to?
(A) Accessory nerve damage
(B) Spinal cord injury
(C) Shoulder dislocation
(D) Thoracic outlet syndrome
Correct Answer: (A) Accessory nerve damage

The shrugging motion of the shoulder (elevation and retraction) is controlled primarily by the
Trapezius muscle.

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m . c s em
se g la (CN XI).
The Trapezius muscle is innervated by the Spinal Accessory Nerve
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This nerve is highly vulnerable during surgeries in the posterior triangle of the neck (e.g., rad-
ical neck dissection or lymph node biopsy).

Damage to the Accessory nerve leads to paralysis of the trapezius, resulting in drooping of the
shoulder and an inability to shrug.

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The Accessory Nerve is the most common nerve injury associated with head and neck

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42. What are nosocomial infections in a hospital setting?
(1) Infections acquired from hospital staff
(2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
(3) Infections acquired from visitors
(4) Infections acquired during surgery only
Correct Answer: (2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
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Nosocomial infections, also known as Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs), are infections
acquired while receiving care in a healthcare facility.

By definition, the patient must have been admitted for a condition other than the infection and
develop the infection typically 48 hours or more after admission.

This encompasses infections from various sources, including staff, instruments, environment,
and other patients.

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s em The most common nosocomial infections involve the urinary tractgl(catheter-associated
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UTI), surgical sites, and the lower respiratory tract (ventilator-associated pneumonia).
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43. Which type of implant has the root piece intact?
(A) Endosteal implant
(B) Subperiosteal implant
(C) Transosteal implant
(D) Root-form implant
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Correct Answer: (D) Root-form implant

This question is phrased ambiguously. No modern implant system uses an ”intact root piece.”

However, a Root-form implant (D), a type of endosteal implant, is designed specifically to
replicate the shape and function of a natural tooth root.

Among the options, Root-form (4) is the type whose structure is based on the anatomy of the
tooth root, providing the closest conceptual fit.

Root-form implants are the most widely used type today, relying on osseointegration
with the surrounding alveolar bone.

44. What is the recommended area for biopsy from ulcers?
(A) The margin of the ulcer
(B) The center of the ulcer
(C) The surrounding normal tissue
(D) The deepest part of the ulcer
Correct Answer: (A) The margin of the ulcer

When performing an incisional biopsy for a suspected malignant ulcer, the sample must include
the junction between the abnormal tissue and the adjacent normal tissue (the margin).

This is crucial because the biopsy must capture the deepest point of invasion or the epithelial
dysplasia transitioning to carcinoma, which is usually concentrated at the perimeter.

Taking tissue only from the center (B) often results in sampling only necrotic tissue.

An adequate incisional biopsy must include both the representative pathological tissue
and a small margin of normal-appearing tissue for comparative histology.

45. Which drug is used for asthma during extraction?
(A) Albuterol

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(C) Atropine ag l
(D) Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: (A) Albuterol

Acute asthma attacks (bronchospasm) during dental treatment are managed primarily with
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short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonists.
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Albuterol (Salbutamol) is the standard rescue inhaler drug, causing rapid smooth muscle re-
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laxation in the bronchioles.
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a (B) is used for anaphylaxis, and Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used later
for prolonged management, not immediate rescue.

Ensure that asthmatic patients bring their rescue inhaler (Albuterol) to every dental
appointment and keep it accessible for immediate use.
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46. What is the most ethical way to study bone growth?
(A) Animal experiments
(B) In vitro studies ag
(C) Human clinical studies
(D) Radiographic analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Radiographic analysis

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Ethical research prioritizes minimizing invasiveness and risk to human and animal subjects.
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Radiographic analysis allows for non-invasive, longitudinal study of growth
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posure), making it the most ethical approach compared to invasive human studies or animal
sacrifices.

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In human growth studies, methods that rely on existing clinical records (like longitudi-
nal cephalometric series) are considered the gold standard for both precision and ethi-
cal considerations.

47. Which tumor shows resistance to radiation?
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Glioblastoma
(C) Squamous cell carcinoma
(D) Melanoma
Correct Answer: (D) Melanoma

Melanoma is classically known for its high intrinsic resistance to conventional fractionated ra-
diation therapy.

This resistance is due to high levels of DNA repair mechanisms and complex cellular defense
pathways.

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (C) is generally radiosensitive, especially at the primary site.

Melanoma is typically managed surgically, with immunotherapy and targeted therapy
playing major roles, due to its poor response to radiotherapy.

48. What is the prenatal period in the human embryological period?
(A) First 2 weeks
(B) 3rd to 8th week
(C) 9th week to birth
(D) 5th month to birth
Correct Answer: (B) 3rd to 8th week

The prenatal period (from conception to birth) is divided into three main stages.

The germinal period is the first 2 weeks (A).

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se a the time of maximal organo-
The Embryological period is defined as weeks 3 through 8. Thislis
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genesis and major congenital anomaly risk. a
The Fetal period begins at the 9th week (C) and continues until birth, characterized by growth
and maturation.

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The embryological period (3rd to 8th week) is the critical window where most organs,
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including the palate and lips, are formed, making it the period of highest susceptibility
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49. What is the best fluoride-releasing agent?
(A) Sodium fluoride
(B) Stannous fluoride
(C) Calcium fluoride
(D) Silver diamine fluoride
Correct Answer: (D) Silver diamine fluoride

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Silver Diamine Fluoride (SDF) is highly regarded as a superior fluoride agent due to its dual
mechanism of action.
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It releases a high concentration of fluoride ions, promoting remineralization, and the silver
component acts as a potent antimicrobial agent against cariogenic bacteria.

This makes it the most effective agent for caries arrest and long-term sustained fluoride release
among the options.

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