Goa Board Class 12 Sample Paper 2023 History

Sample Paper
&
Question Paper Pattern
2022
2023

GOA BOARD

Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Porvorim-Goa

S. No. Class Page No.

1. XIIth History 1 to 38
2. XIIth History (CWSN) 39 to 72
3. XIth History (General / CWSN) 73 to 91

HISTORY (4501)
Class - XII
Academic year 2022-2023

Weightage to Units/ Themes in History XII

Instructions:
 There will be two terms in the academic year 2022-2023
 First term is of 40 Marks and Final Examinations of 40 Marks.
 First term paper consist of 40 multiple type questions (MCQ) - 1 Mark for each
question.
 Second term is of 40 Marks, totally subjective. No MCQ, type of questions to be
tested. 1 Mark (VSA-Very Short answer), 2 Mark (SA-I), 3 Mark (SA-II), and 4 Mark
(Long answer type) questions.
 There will be two internal test of 20 Marks to be conducted. First test before First term
and Second test before Final Exam. After First term. Both tests Subjective. 1 Mark
(MCQ), 2 Mark (VSA-I), 3 Mark (VSA-II), and 4 Mark (Long answer type) questions
to be tested.
 Third Internal test or Innovative Assignment of 20 Marks

1

Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Book/Part-I
1. Bricks, Beads and Bones:
The Harappan Civilisation 10
2. Early States Kings, Farmers and Towns
Early States and Economies 05
3. Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings
Cultural Development (c. 600 BCE-600 CE) 05
Book/Part-II
4. Bhakti- Sufi Traditions:
Changes in Religious beliefs and Devotional texts
(c. eight to eighteenth centuries) 05
5. An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara
(c. fourteenth to sixteenth centuries) 10
6. Peasants, Zamindars and the States:
Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire
(c. sixteenth-seventeenth centuries) 05
7. Kings and Chronicles:
The Mughal Courts (c. sixteenth-seventeenth centuries) 05
Goa Board Booklet
8. History of Goa 15
9. Book/Part-III
Rebels and the Raj:
1857 Revolt and its Representation 10
10. Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement:
Civil Disobedience and Beyond 10

Total Marks 80

A- First Formative Test
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 08 40
2. Understanding 12 60
Total 20 100

2

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units/Themes Marks

1. Bricks, Beads and Bones
The Harappan Civilisation 10
2. Kings, Farmers and Towns
Early States and Economies 05
3. Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings
Cultural Development (c. 600 BCE-600 CE) 05

Total 20

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. No. Forms of Questions Marks
1. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 2
2. Short Answer Type (SA-I) 4
3. Short Answer Type (SA-II) 6
4. Long Answer Type (LA) 8
Total 20

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
1. Long Answer Type (LA) 14 02 28

2. Short Answer Type (SA- 10 02 20
II)
3. Short Answer Type (SA- 04 02 08
I)
4. Objective Type (MCQ) 02 02 04
Total 08 60

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

3

5. Weightage to type of Questions First Formative Test (20 Marks)
S.No. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 2 2 10% 4 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 2 4 20% 8 mins
3. Short Answer Type II 2 6 30% 20 mins
4. Long Answer Type 2 8 40% 28 mins
8 20 100% 60 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in Q.7. 4 marks
question.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:
S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage
questions
1. Easy 04 20
2. Average 12 60
3. Difficult 04 20

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

4

8. Blue Print
First Formative Test

Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area VSA SA-I SA LA VSA SA-I SA- LA TOTAL
-II II
1. Bricks, Beads
and Bones
The Harappan 1(1) 1(2) 1(3) 1(4)* 10 4 (10)
Civilisation
2. Kings, Farmers
and Towns 1(2) 1(3) 05 2 (5)
Early States and
Economies
3. Thinkers, Beliefs
and Buildings 1(1) 1(4) 05 2 (5)
Cultural
Development (c.
600 BCE-600 CE)
2(2) 1(2) 1(4) 1(2) 2(6) 1 (4) 20 8 (20)

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. * Choice question, internal choice is provided in question number 7 of 4 marks each

5

9. Model Question Paper

First Formative Test - 2022
Model Question Paper
Sub : History Std.- XII
Marks : 20 Duration : 1 Hrs.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instructions:
1) This paper consists of 8 questions divided into 4 sections i,e A,B,C,D.
2) All questions are Compulsory.
3) Section A contains 2 questions of MCQ for 1 mark each.
4) Section B contains 2 questions of 2 marks each and to be answered in 20 words each.
5) Section C contains 2 questions of 3 marks each and to be answerd in 50 words each.
6) Section D contains 2 questions of 4 marks each and to be answered in 80 words each.
7) There is overall choice in the paper. However, internal choice is provided in question
number 7 of 4 marks each.

SECTION – A
1) The Harappan procured lapis lazuli from ____________. (1)
A) Rajasthan
B) Lothal
C) Shortughai
D) Kalibangan

2) Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment at _________________. (1)
A) Bodh Gaya
B) Sarnath
C) Lumbini
D) Patliputra

6

SECTION -B
3) Write a short note on Harappan drainage system. (2)
4) What are the sources to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan Empire? (2)
SECTION-C
5) How were the residential houses constructed in the Harappan Civilisation? (3)
6) Why was the 6th century BCE often regarded as a major turning point in the early Indian
history? (3)
SECTION-D
7) Explain the religious practices and beliefs of the people of the Harappan Civilisation.(3)
OR
Explain the bead making industry in the Harappan Civilisation.
8) Explain the principles of Jainism. (3)

----------The End--------

7

First Formative Test - 2022
Model Question Paper
Answer Key
Sub : History Std.- XII
Marks : 20 Duration : 1 Hr

SECTION – A
1) C) Shortughai (1)
2) B) Bodh Gaya (1)

SECTION -B
3) Harappan Drainage System. (2)
Ans. The roads and the streets were laid out along an approximate 'grid'pattern,
intersecting right angles.
Streets with drains were laid out first and then houses were built along them.
Domestic waste water had to flow into the street drains.
Every house needed to have at least one wall along a street.

4) The sources to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan Empire? (2)
Ans. Historians have used a variety of sources to reconstruct the history of the
Mauryan empire. Megasthenes ( a Greek) ambassador to the court of
Chandragupta Maurya which survives in fragment.
Another sources that if often used is the Arthashastra, parts of which were
probably composed by Kautilya or Chanakya, traditional believed to the
ministers of Chandragupta. The Mauryas are mentioned in later Buddhist,
Jain and Puranic literature, as well as in sanskrit literature. The
inscriptions of Ashoka on roads and pillars are often regarded as amongst the
most valuable sources.
SECTION-C
5) The residential houses constructed in the Harappan civilisation? (3)
Ans. The lower town at Mohenjodaro provides examples of residential buildings.
Many were centred on a courtyard, with rooms on all sides. The courtyard was
probably the centre of activities such as cooking and weaving, particularly during
hot and dry weather. There were no windows in the walls along the ground level.
Besides, the main entrance does not give a direct view of the interior or the courtyard.
Every house had its own bathroom paved with bricks, with drains connected
through the wall to the street drains. Some houses have remains of staircases to reach a

second storey or the roof. Many houses had wells, often in a room that could be
reached from the outside and perhaps used by passers-by. Scholars estimated around
700 wells in Mohenjodero.

8

6) The 6th century BCE often regarded as a major turning point in the early Indian
history? (3)
Ans. It is an era associated with early states and cities.
Growing use of iron,
the development of coinage etc.
It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of thought including Buddhism and
Jainism.
SECTION-D
7) The religious practices and beliefs of the people of the Harappan Civilisation.(4)
Ans. Terracotta figurines of women, heavily jewelled with elaborate head-dresses-mother
goddesses.
Rare stone statuary of men in almost standardised, posture, seated with one hand
on the knee- 'Priest King'.
Ritual significances like the great bath and fire altars.
Seals depict ritual scenes others with plant motifs indicate nature worship.
Animal worship such as the one-horned animal unicorn
Some seals shown a figure seated cross legged in a "yogic" posture, surrounded by
animals depicted as "proto-shiva".
Conical stone objects have been classified as lingas.
OR
The bead making industry in the Harappan Civilisation.
Ans. Variety of material used- carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite, metals like
copper, bronze and gold and shell, terracotta etc.
Shapes-disc shaped, cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped and segmented.
Techniques- differed according to materials. e.g. steatite was easily worked with or
beads were moulded out of a paste of steatite powder. Geometrical shapes of beads were
made of harder stones.
8) The principles of Jainism. (4)
Ans. The entire world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have life. Non-injury to
living beings, especially to humans, animals, plants and insects is central to Jain
philosophy. Principle of Ahimsa emphasised within Jainism. Cycle of birth and
rebirth is shaped through Karma. Asceticism and Penance are required to free
oneself from the cycle of karma. Jain monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain from
killing, stealing and lying, to observe celibacy and to abstain from possessing property.

---------- THE END----------

9

B- Second Formative Test

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 08 40
2. Understanding 12 60
Total 20 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units/Themes Marks

1. Kings and Chronicles:
The Mughal Courts (c. sixteenth-seventeenth centuries) 05
2. History of Goa 15

Total 20

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. No. Forms of Questions Marks
1. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 2
2. Short Answer Type (SA-I) 4
3. Short Answer Type (SA-II) 6
4. Long Answer Type (LA) 8
Total 20

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S. No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
1. Long Answer Type (LA) 14 02 28

2. Short Answer Type (SA- 10 02 20
II)
3. Short Answer Type (SA- 04 02 08
I)
4. Very Short Answer Type 02 02 04
(VSA)

Total 08 60

10

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

5. Weightage to type of Questions Second Formative Test (20 Marks)
S. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
No. Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 2 2 10% 4 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 2 4 20% 8 mins
3. Short Answer Type II 2 6 30% 20 mins
4. Long Answer Type 2 8 40% 28 mins
8 20 100% 60 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in Question No. 7 for 4
mark question.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage
questions
1. Easy 04 20
2. Average 12 60
3. Difficult 04 20

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

11

8. Blue Print
Second Formative Test
Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area VSA SA-I SA- LA VSA SA-I SA- LA TOTAL
II II
1. Kings and
Chronicles:The
Mughal Courts (c. 1 (1) 2(2) 05 3 (05)
sixteenth-
seventeenth
centuries)

2. History of Goa 1 (1) 2(3) 1(4)*
1(4) 15 05(15)
2 (2) 2(6) 2(4) 2 (8) 20 8 (20)

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. * Choice question is Q. No. 7 for 4 Marks.

12

History
Model Question Paper
2nd Formative Test – 2022-23
Duration: 1 Hour Max. Marks: 20

Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 8 questions divided into 4 sections, i.e., A, B, C and D.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice in the paper, however internal choice is provided in Q. No.
7.

SECTION A
Contains 02 questions of 01 mark each for multiple choice questions.
Q. 1. Abdul Hamid Lahori was the author of the ___________. (1)
A) Badshah Nama.
B) Akbar Nama.
C) Alamgir Nama.
D) Shahjahan Nama.

Q.2. The Editor of ‘O Ultramar’ was ____________. (1)
A) Luis de Menezes Braganca.
B) Constancio Roque da Costa.
C) Dr. Jose Inacio de Loyola.
D) Fr. Antonio Francisco Xavier Alvares.

SECTION B
Contains 02 questions of 02 marks each and to be answered in about 40 words each.
Q.3. How did sovereignty function as a social contract in the Mughal Empire? (2)
Q.4. Explain the administration of the districts under the Mughals. (2)

13

SECTION C
Contains 02 questions 0f 03 marks each and to be answered in about 60 words each.
Q.5. Mention any three provisions of the Anglo-Portuguese Treaty of 1878. (3)
Q.6. What did the Portuguese authorities do to disrupt the Satyagraha of 1954? (3)
SECTION D
Contains 02 questions of 04 marks each and to be answered in about 80 words each.
Q.7. Explain the features of the ‘Opinion Poll’ in Goa. (4)
OR
Explain the features of ‘Operation Vijay’.
Q.8. Explain the age of communication in Goa during the late 19 th century. (4)

14

2nd formative Test 2022-23
History Model Paper Answer key
Q 1. A Badshah Nama 1 mk.
Q 2. B Constancio Roque da Costa. 1 mk.
Q.3. Sovereignty function as a social contract in the Mughal 2
Empire: (any two points can be considered) mks.
a) The emperor protected the four essences of his subjects,
namely, life (jan), property (mal), honour (namus) and faith
(din) and in return demands obedience and a share of
c) resources,
Only just resources were taught to honour the contract with
d) power and divine guidance.
A number of symbols represented this. E.g. Lion and Lamb.
Q.4 District administration under the Mughals: 2
mks.
a) Subas (provinces) were divided into Sarkars (districts).
b) At the head of each district there was an office known as
Faujdar (district Collector).
c) Districts were sub-divided into Parganas.

Q5 Provisions of Anglo-Portuguese Treaty: (any three points 3
can be considered) mks.
a) Customs barriers between the two dominions were got rid
off and a custom union was created.
b) Absolute freedom of commerce and free movement of
goods across frontiers.
c) Common system of currency, weights and measures.
d) Operation for the enhancement of the port of Marmugao
and the construction of railway line from Marmugao to
New Hubli.
Q 6. Disrupt the Satyagraha of 1954: (any three points can be 3
a) considered) mks.
b) They called for reinforcement and sealed the borders.
c) Troops were issued orders to shoot at site.
d) Bridges were blasted and trenches were dug.
Rail and ferry services were stopped.
Q 7. Opinion Poll in Goa: (any four points can be considered) 4
a) The movement for merger of Goa into Maharashtra, mks.
b) Anti-merger leaders like Dr. Jack Sequeira and other Goans

were against the merger.
c)

15

The Central Government acted as it became explosive in
d) nature with the opinion poll in Goa on 16th January 1967.
e) The merger symbol was flower and anti-merger symbol was
two leaves.
The two leaves polled 56% votes and flower polled 44%.
a) OR
b) Operation Vijay: (any four points can be considered)
The Government of India planned to liberate Goa in 1961.
c) General Chaudhari was kept in charge to carry out this
d) Operation Vijay,
e) Major General K. P. Candeth directed the plan.
The day fixed for the attack was 18th December 1961.
f) All land and water routes connecting Goa and India were
blocked and the Indian army moved into Goa.
g) Salazar had ordered scorched-earth policy, but his orders
were disobeyed by the governor General M. A. Vassalo e
h) Silva.
With hardly any resistance and loss of life, the Indian army
liberated Goa on 19th December 1961.
The instrument of surrender was signed by Vassalo e Silva
and submitted to Brigadier K. S. Dhilion at Vasc0-da-
Gama.
Q 8. Age of Communication in late 19th Century: (any four 4
points can be considered) mks.
st
a) 1 Telegraph line connected Goa with Belgaum in 1859.
b) Telephone network in 1886 joining main towns of Goa.
c) System of roads and bridges, facilitating mobility and
communication was improving.
d) Marmugao port developed and laid railway line from
Marmugao to Londa.
e) It provided a vital link with the rest of India.

16

C- First Terminal Examination

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 40 100
2. Understanding - -
Total 40 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Book/Part-I
1. Bricks, Beads and Bones 10
The Harappan Civilisation
2. Kings, Farmers and Towns
Early States and Economies 05
3. Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings
Cultural Development (c. 600 BCE-600 CE) 05
Book/Part-II
4. Bhakti- Sufi Traditions: 05
Changes in Religious beliefs and Devotional texts
(c. eight to eighteenth centuries)
5. An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara
(c. fourteenth to sixteenth centuries) 10
6. Peasants, Zamindars and the States:
Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire 05
(c. sixteenth-seventeenth centuries)

Total 40

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. Forms of Questions Marks for Number of Total
No. each Questions Marks
Question

1. Objective Type Question (MCQ) 01 40 40
2. Short Answer Type (SA-I)
3. Short Answer Type (SA-II)
4. Long Answer Type (LA)

Total 40 40

17

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
1. Objective Type (MCQ) 2.25 40 90 mins
2. Short Answer Type (SA-I) - - -
3. Short Answer Type (SA-II) - - -
4. Long Answer Type (LA) - - -
Total 40 90 mins

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

5. Weightage to type of Questions First Terminal Examination (40 Marks)
S.No. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 40 40 100 90 mins
2. Short Answer Type I
3. Short Answer Type II
4. Long Answer Type
40 40 100% 90 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. All Questions are compulsory.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:
S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage
questions
1. Easy 40 100%
2. Average - -
3. Difficult - -

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper

balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

18

8. Blue Print First Term

Objectives/content Area KNOWLEDGE TOTAL
VSA SA-I SA-II LA
Book/Part-I
1. Bricks, Beads and Bones
The Harappan Civilisation 10 (10) 10
2. Kings, Farmers and Towns
Early States and Economies 05 (05) 05
3. Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings
Cultural Development (c. 600
BCE-600 CE) 05 (05) 05
Book/Part-II
4. Bhakti- Sufi Traditions:
Changes in Religious beliefs
and Devotional texts
(c. eight to eighteenth centuries) 05 (05) 05
5. An Imperial Capital:
Vijayanagara (c. fourteenth to
sixteenth centuries) 10 (10) 10
6. Peasants, Zamindars and the
States: Agrarian Society and
the Mughal Empire (c.
sixteenth-seventeenth centuries) 05 (05) 05

Total Marks 40
Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. All questions are compulsory.

19

Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Education
Alto Betim Goa.
MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
YEAR - 2022 - 2023
Std: XII Arts Sub: History Time: 1 Hr.
INSTRUACTION: (i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Select the most appropriate answer.
(iii) All questions carry one mark each.
________________________________________________________________
1. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in___________. (1)
A) Cholistan
B) Kalibangan
C) Harappa
D) Dholavira
2. Recent archeological finds suggest that copper was also probably brought
from _________. (1)
A) Dilmun
B) Meluhha
C) Bahrain
D) Oman
3. The system of weights in Harappan Civilization usually made of a stone
called _________. (1)
A) chert
B) lapis lazuli
C) steatite
D) jasper
4. A stone statue which was labelled by the Archaeologists of Harappan culture
is to be known as the___________. (1)
A) King
B) Priest king
C) Rajas
D) Guru

5. Water reservoirs in Harappan culture found in _________. (1)

A) Lothal
B) Dholavira

20

C) Bharuch
D) Khetri
6. In Harappan Culture, specialized drills have been found at _______. (1)
A) Mohenjodaro
B) Nageshwar
C) Chanudaro
D) Harappa.
7. At burials in Harappan sites the dead was generally laid in ________. (1)
A) Vault
B) Cave
C) Pits
D) Trench
8. At Harappan culture a large rectangular tank in a courtyard surrounded by
corridor on all four side was called as__________. (1)
A) Granary
B) Warehouse
C) Altar
D) Great Bath
9. The Director-General of the ASI who announced discovery of Indus valley
civilisation was __________. (1)
A) Cunningham
B) John Marshall
C) Rakhal Das Banerji
D) Daya Ram Sahni
10. Traces of canals have been found at the Harappan site of ________. (1)
A) Lothal
B) Mohenjodaro
C) Shortughai
D) Sind
11. Between the 6th and 4th century BCE the most powerful Mahajanapada
was__________. (1)
A) Vajji
B) Magadha
C) Mauryas
D) Kuru

12. The first capital of Magadha was _________. (1)
A) Kalinga
21

B) Taxila
C) Rajagaha
D) Tosali

13. The minister of Chandragupta, Kautilya or Chankya composed_______. (1)
A) Dhamma
B) Dharmasutras
C) Arthashastra
D) Vedas
14. The Mauryan Empire was founded by __________. (1)
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Ashoka
C) Kanikshaka
D) Rudradaman
15. The first gold coins were issued in the 1st Century CE by the _______. (1)
A) Yaudheyas
B) Gupta
C) Mauryas
D) Kushanas
16. According to Jain tradition 23rd thirthakara of Jain was __________. (1)
A) Mahavira
B) Gautham Budha
C) Guru Nanak
D) Anannda

17. Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at _________. (1)
A) Lumbini
B) Bodhgaya
C) Kusinagara
D) Sarnath
18. The symbol of worship Buddhist that indicate meditation of Buddha
was__________. (1)
A) The empty seat
B) Stupa
C) Tree

D) Wheel

22

19. A tall structure which was built over the central shrine of a temple known as
the_________. (1)
A) Garbhgirha
B) Stupa
C) Shikhara
D) Chhatri
20. Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment at__________. (1)
A) Lumbini
B) Bodhgaya
C) Sanchi
D) Amaravati
21. In Orissa, Lord Jagannath was identified as a form of _________. (1)
A) Lord Vishnu
B) Lord Shiva
C) Lord Ganesh
D) Lord Mahadeva
22. In Tamilnadu the devotees of Lord Shiva was known as _________. (1)
A) Alvars
B) Nayanars
C) Lingayats
D) Yogis
23. A woman Alvar who was also great composer was _________. (1)
A) Amina
B) Kavaikkal Ammaiyar
C) Mirabai
D) Andal
24. Verses ascribed to Kabir have been compiled in three distinct but
overlapping tradition called _________. (1)
A) Sant bhasha
B) Ulatbansi
C) Kabir Bijak
D) nam- stmaran
25. Mirabai was a devotee of _________. (1)
A) Lord Shiva

B) Lord Krishna
C) Lord Ganesha

23

D) Lord Vithal
26. The military commanders who were given territories to govern by the rayas
was called as __________. (1)
A) amar- nayakas
B) nayakas
C) rayas
D) Sultan
27. The first dynasty that ruled over Vijayanagar was _________. (1)
A) Tuluvas
B) Aravidu
C) Sangama
D) Saluva
28. The Vijayanagara rulers took themselves the title as __________. (1)
A) Devputra
B) Hindu Suratrana
C) Sultan
D) Suratrana
29. In 1556, Rama Raya was defeated by the combined forces in the battle
of __________. (1)
A) Plassey
B) Rakshasi Tangadi
C) Panipat
D) Bijapur
30. The ruins of Hampi was brought to light in 1800 by _________. (1)
A) Sir James Principe
B) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
C) Sir John Marshall
D) Cunningham
31. The Hiriya Canal was built by the kings of the __________. (1)
A) Sangama Dynasty
B) Aravidu Dynasty
C) Saluva Dynasty
D) Tuluva Dynasty
32. The local trading communities in Vijaynagara were known as ______.(1)

A) wazir
B) nayakas
C) amar nayakas
24

D) Kudirai chettis
33. The Vijayanagara kings displayed their prestige, power and suzerainty on
the occasion of __________. (1)
A) Diwali
B) Mahanavami
C) Holi
D) Gudi Padwa

34. In the Vijayanagara the presence of a temple from a distance was noticed
due to the __________. (1)
A) Gopurams
B) Garbhagriha
C) Mandapas
D) Halls
35. In 16th century, the Portuguese traveller, who visit in the
Vijyanagara was__________. (1)
A) Abul Fazl
B) Abdur Razzaq
C) Duarte Barbosa
D) Afanasi Nikitin
36. In the 17th century the farmers who were residents of the village in which
they held lands were called as ___________. (1)
A) pahi kashta
B) khud kashta
C) kisaan
D) amil juzar
37. In the Mughal Empire the Forest dwellers were termed as ________. (1)
A) mawas
B) daftar
C) jangli
D) sawar
38. The Zamindar held extensive personal land in the Mughal Empire
termed as___________. (1)
A) Milkiyat
B) Pargana

C) Subha
D) Jagirs

25

39. The person who was responsible for supervising the fiscal system of the
Mughal Empire was called ________. (1)
A) amil guzar
B) mansabdar
C) umara
D) diwan
40. In the Mughal Empire the forest was a subversive place of refugee who
were called as __________. (1)
A) jangali
B) pahikasta
C) mawas
D) Kharbandi

---------- THE END ----------

26

ANSWER KEY
MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
YEAR - 2022 - 2023
Std: XII Arts Sub: History Time: 1 Hr.
1. A. Cholistan
2. D. Oman
3. A. chert
4. B. Priest king
5. B. Dholavira
6. C. Chanudaro
7. C. Pits
8. D. Great Bath
9. A. Cunningham
10. C. Shortughai
11. B. Magadha
12. C. Rajagaha
13. C. Arthashastra
14. A. Chandragupta Maurya
15. D. Kushanas
16. A. Mahavira
17. D. Sarnath
18. A. The empty seat
19. C. Shikhara
20. B. Bodhgaya
21. A. Lord Vishnu
22. B. Nayanars
23. D. Andal
24. C. Kabir Bijak
25. B. Lord Krishna
26. A. amar- nayakas
27. C. Sangama
28. B. Hindu Suratrana
29. B. Rakshasi Tangadi
30. B. Colonel Colin Mackenzie
31. A. Sangama Dynasty

32. D. Kudirai chettis
33. B. Mahanavami

27

34. A. Gopurams
35. C. Duarte Barbosa
36. B. khud kashta
37 C. jangli.
38. A. Milkiyat
39. D. diwan
40. C. mawas

28

Second Terminal Examination (Final Examination): 40 Marks

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes

S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 16 40
2. Understanding 24 60
Total 40 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units/Theme Total

Book/Part-II 05
1. Kings and Chronicles:
The Mughal Courts (c. sixteenth-seventeenth centuries)
Goa Board Booklet 15
2. History of Goa
Book/Part-III
3. Rebels and the Raj: 10
1857 Revolt and its Representation
4. Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement: 10
Civil Disobedience and Beyond

Total 40

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions

S. No. Forms of Questions Marks
1. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) 4
2. Short Answer Type (SA-I) 8
3. Short Answer Type (SA-II) 12

4. Long Answer Type (LA) 16
Total 40

29

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
1. Very Short Answer Type 02 04 08
(VSA)
2. Short Answer Type (SA- 04 04 16
I)
3. Short Answer Type (SA- 6.5 04 26
II)
4. Long Answer Type (LA) 10 04 40

Total 16 90

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

5. Weightage to type of Questions First and Second Terminal Examination (40 Marks)
S. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
No. Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 4 4 10% 8 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 4 8 20% 16 mins
3. Short Answer Type II 4 12 30% 26 mins
4. Long Answer Type 4 16 40% 40 mins
16 40 100% 90 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in 4 marks questions, Q.
No. 14 and Q. No. 16.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage

questions
1. Easy 08 20
2. Average 24 60

30

3. Difficult 08 20

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

8. Blue Print:
Second Term/ Final Examination
Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOT
Area AL
VSA SA-I SA-II LA VS SA-I SA-II LA
A
Book/Part-II
1. Kings and
Chronicles: 1 (1) 1(4) 5
The Mughal
Courts (c.
sixteenth-
seventeenth
centuries)
Goa Board Booklet
2. History of Goa 1 (1) 2(6) 2(4) 1(4)* 15

Book/Part-III
3. Rebels and the
Raj: 1857 Revolt 1 (1) 1 (4) 1(2) 1(3) 10
and its
Representation
4. Mahatma Gandhi
and the
Nationalist
Movement: 1 (1) 1(2) 1 (3) 1(4)* 10
Civil
Disobedience and
Beyond

Total Marks 4 (4) 1(2) 2(6) 1(4) 3(6) 2(6) 3(12) 40

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. * Choice question. Question No. 14 and Question No. 16.

31

Question Paper of Final Examination has four Section:
Section A: MCQ (1 Marks)
Section B: Short Answer –I (2 Marks)
Section C: Short Answer – II (3Marks)
Section D: Long Answer (4 Marks)

There is no MCQ in the paper, in place of that there is short answer question.

Options provided for 4 Marks Questions No. 14 (History Of Goa) and Q. No. 16 (Mahatma
Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement: Civil Disobedience and Beyond)

32

9. Model Question Paper

Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim -Goa

Second Terminal Examination 2022-23
Model Question Paper
Std.: XII Subject: HISTORY
Time: 2 Hrs. Max. Marks: 40
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instructions:
1. All questions are Compulsory.
2. This question paper consist of 4 (four) Sections: A, B, C & D.
a) Section A - Questions 1- 4 are very Short answer question and is of 1 mark each.
b) Section B - Questions 5- 8 to be answered in about 40 words each and is of 2 marks
each (Minimum two points).
c) Section C - Questions 9- 12 to be answered in about 60 words each and is of 3 marks
each (Minimum three points).
d) Section D - Questions 13- 16 to be answered in about 100 words each and is of 4
marks each (Minimum four points).
3. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however there is internal choice
provided in Question no’s 14 & 16.
4. Write the number of each question clearly.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Section A
Q.1. Who defined sovereignty as a social contract? (1)
Q.2. Name the leader of the Movement of 1946 in Goa. (1)
Q.3. Who described the kingdom of Awadh as “a cherry that will drop into our mouth
one day” (1)
Q.4. Name the leader of Muslim League who called for a “Direct Action Day” (1)
Section B
Q.5. How did the Indian government impose an economic blockade on Goa in 1955 ? (2)
Q.6. Write a short note on “Azad Gomantak Dal”. (2)
Q.7. Explain the Significance of the Revolt of 1857. (2)

Q.8. What was the importance of Lahore Session of the Congres,1929? (2)

33

Section C
Q.9. Which main event had taken place during Satyagraha of 1955 ? (3)
Q.10. Mention any three provisions of the Uniform Civil Code of 1867. (3)
Q.11. Explain the impact of dispossessions of taluqdars. (3)
Q.12. Why Gandhiji called as Peoples leader? (3)
Section D
Q.13. How was the ideal of Sulh-i-kul implemented through state policies in the
Mughal Empire? (4)
Q.14. Explain the features of 'Operation Vijay' of Goa. (4)
OR
Explain the Opinion Poll in Goa.
Q.15. What are the reasons for Discontent among Sepoy’s ? (4)
Q.16. Explain the main features of Civil Disobedience movement. (4)

OR

Explain the main features of Non-Co-operation Movement

34

Answer Key
Model Question Paper
Second Terminal Examination 2022-2023

Section A
Q.1. Abu’l Fazl (1)
Q.2. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia (1)
Q.3. Lord Dalhousie (1)
Q.4. Muhammad Jinnha (1)
Section B
Q.5. Economic blockade on Goa in 1955 (Any two Points) (2)
- Restrictions were imposed on money export to Goa .
- Trade and commerce between Goa and India came to standstill .
- The remittances of Goan emigrants in India were prevented from entering Goa .
- Transhipments of arms and ammunition of Goa via India was prohibited .
- The export of food stuffs and other essential commodities from India was also
prohibited
- Roads linking Goa with India were blocked .
- Rails links were also cut off .
- No ship carrying cargo to Goa could touch ports
Q.6. “Azad Gomantak Dal” (2)
- Some members of National Congress formed a separate organization in April 1947.
- It organized underground movement .
- Volunteers of this organization would attack police stations, disturb road traffics,
cut wires etc .
- In 1954 the Azad Goa Radio was set up in border areas .
- In July 1954 Volunteers of the Azad Gomantak Dal entered Dadra and Nagar
Haveli .
- Silvesa capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was liberated in August 1954 .

Q.7. The Significance of the Revolt of 1857. (2)
- The national movement in the 20th century drew its inspiration from the events
of 1857.
- It was celebrated as first war of independence in which all sections of the people of
India came together to fight against imperial rule.
- Art and literature as much as the writing of history have helped in keeping alive the
memory of 1857.
- The leaders of the revolt were presented as heroic figures leading the country into

battle.

35

Q.8. Importance of the Lahore session of the Congress. (2)
- The election of Jawaharlal Nehru as President, signifying the passing of the baton of
leadership to the younger generation.
- The proclamation of commitment to “Purna Swaraj” or complete Independence.
- On 26 January 1930, “Independence Day” was observed.

Section C
Q.9. Satyagraha of 1955 (3)
- The Goa Vimochan Samiti with its headquarters at Pune was set up in 1954 to free
Goa from foreign rule .
- On 18th May 1955 a group of volunteers led by Senapati Bapat and N.G. Gore .
- Goa Vimochan Samiti decided to launch mass movement on 15 th August,1955.
- About 4000 people including women participator in this movement.
- At Patradevi on the Banda border more than 500 satyagrahis tried to enter Goa.
- Karnal Singh fell victim to the Portuguese bullets.
- Other groups of satyagrahis crossed Goa border at Terekhol and Castle Rock.

Q.10. The provision of the Uniform Civil Code of 1867 (3)
- Minimum age of marriage was fixed (16 years) .
- Compulsory registration of marriages was introduced .
- Women’s had the right to acquire , inherit and bequeath property
- Marriage and divorce laws underwent or radical change .

Q.11. The impact of dispossessions of taluqdars. (3)
- It meant the break of an entire social order. In pre-British the taluqdars were
oppressors, they extracted dues from the peasants but often were considerate in times
of need.
- Under the British the peasants were directly exposed to over assessment of revenue
and inflexible methods of collection.
- There was no guarantee in times of hardship or crop failure, that the revenue demand
would be reduced or collection postponed.

Q.12. Gandhiji called as Peoples leader (3)
- Many people venerated Gandhiji, referring to him as their “Mahatma”.
- They appreciated the fact that he dressed like them, lived like them, and spoke their
language.
- Unlike other leaders he did not stand apart from the common folk, but empathised and
even identified with them.
- The act of spinning allowed Gandhiji to break the boundaries that prevailed within the
traditional caste system, between mental labour and manual labour.
Section D
Q.13. The Sulh-i-kul or religious tolerance was implemented by the following way- (4)

- All religions had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the
authority of the rulers.
- Nobles were appointed on the basis of their ability rather than religion.

36

- Appointed officers belonging to all religions.
- Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage and Jiziya as the two were based on religious
discrimination.
- Grants were given to support building and maintenance of places of worship.
- Mughals had good relationship with other religious men and conducted debates.

Q.14. ‘Operation Vijay’ (4)
- The government of India formulated a plan called ‘Operation Vijay’ to liberate
Portuguese colonies in India .
- General Chaudhari was kept in charge of carrying out this operation .
- By December 11, 1961 Indian forces were stationed at Belgaum ,Vapi and Una for
attacks on Goa ,Daman and Diu .
- The operations against Goa were directed by major general K.P.Candeth .
- 18th December 1961 was a day fixed for the attack .
- People of Goa welcomed the liberation army with great enthusiasm .
- United Arab republics refuse to passage through the Suez Canal to Portuguese
ship .
- Ceylon closed all its ports and airports .
- To prevent the transport of troops , ammunitions and supplies to Portuguese .
- Operation in Goa came to an end on the evening of 1961 .
OR
Opinion Poll in Goa
- The MGP party led the movement for a merger of Goa into Maharashtra .
- Opposing this move were those who wanted to preserve Goa as a separate entity
with Konkani as their distinct linguistic identity .
- The anti merger leaders were Dr. Jack Sequeira ,Shri Purushottam Kakodkar , Shri
Udai Bhembre etc.
- The chief minister of Karnataka , shri Nijalingappa and the people of Karnataka and
Kerala residing in Goa strongly supported anti merger movement .
- The central government headed by smt. Indira Gandhi decided yo act in the matter .
- An Opinion Poll was suggested by Jack Sequeira was held by Central election
commission in Goa on 16th January 1967 .
- The Merger symbol was flower and anti merger symbol was two leaves .
- Majority of Goans voted against the merger of Goa into Maharashtra .

Q.15. The reasons for Discontent among Sepoy’s (4)
- Sepoys were given low salary
- There was a change in relations between Sepoys and their superiors.
- Officers ill-treated Sepoys and physical violence was used by British officers.
- Grievances of peasants was transferred to Sepoys as most of them were originally
farmers from Awadh.
- Fears of Sepoys about new cartridges, racial abuse was communicated to villagers.
- Policy of racial superiority had created hatred among Sepoy’s.

Q.16. Main features of Civil Disobedience Movement (4)
- On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards the

ocean. He reached his destination three weeks later, making a fistful of salt as he did
and thereby making himself a criminal in the eyes of the law.

37

- Across large parts of India, peasants breached the hated colonial forest laws that kept
them and their cattle out of the woods in which they had once roamed freely.
- In some towns factory workers went on strike.
- Lawyers boycotted British courts.
- Students refused to attend government-run educational institutions.

OR

Main features of Non-Co-operation Movement
- Gandhiji hoped that by coupling non-co-operation with Khilafat, India’s two religious
communities, Hindus and Muslims, could collectively bring an end to colonial rule.
- Students stopped going to school and colleges run by the government.
- Lawyers refused to attend court.
- The working class went on strike in many towns and cities.
- Hill tribes in Northern violated the forest laws.
- Farmers in Awadh did not pay taxes.
- Peasants in Kumaun refused to carry loads for colonial officers.
- The non-co-operation Movement the British Raj was shaken to its foundation for the
first time since the Revolt of 1857.

Text Books
1. Themes in Indian History (Part-I) - NCERT-New Delhi
2. Themes in Indian History (Part-II) - NCERT-New Delhi
3. Themes in Indian History (Part III) - NCERT-New Delhi
4. History of Goa (Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Booklet)

Assignment Topics: XIIth History
1. Visit to Museums of Goa and prepare report
2. Visit to any ancient historical Monument in Goa and prepare report.
3. History of your Village
4. Life and role of any one revolutionaries in Goa’s Freedom struggle.
5. Hero’s of First war of India’s Independence.

38

XII-History
(CWSN) Paper
First Formative Test (CWSN)
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 10 50
2. Understanding 10 50
3. Application - -
Total 20 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Book/Part-I
1. Bricks, Beads and Bones:
The Harappan Civilisation 20
Total Marks 20

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. Forms of Questions Questions Marks Percentage
No.
1. Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) 10 10 50
2. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) True or 10 10 50
False
Total 20 20 100

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
3. Multiple Choice Question 3 10 30
(MCQ)
4. Very Short Answer Type 6 10 60
(VSA) True or False
Total 20 90
As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected

time limits.

39

5. Weightage to type of Questions First Formative Test (CWSN) (20 Marks)
S. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The allotted
No. Questions (%) (minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 10 10 50% 30 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 10 10 50% 60 mins
(True or False)
3. Short Answer Type II - - - -
4. Long Answer Type - - - -
20 20 100% 90 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in 4 marks question.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage
questions
1. Easy 10 50
2. Average 10 50

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

8. Blue Print
First Formative Test (CWSN)
Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area VSA S SA- LA VSA SA- S LA
A- II I A-
I II
1 Mark 2 3 4 1 Mark 2 3 4
1. Bricks, Beads and
Bones The
Harappan 10 (10) 10(10) 20 (20)
Civilisation
10 (10) 10(10) 20 (20)

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate

questions.

40

9. Model Question Paper
First Formative Test-2022-23

Sub : History (CWSN) Std.- XII
Marks : 20 Duration : 1 Hr.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instructions :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) This question paper consists of 20 questions.
3) Question 1 to 10 are MCQ.
4) Question 11 to 20 are True or False.

1) The Harappan Civilisation is also called ____________. (1)
A) Mohenjodaro Civilisation
B) Indus Valley Civilisation
C) Lothal Civilisation
D) Chanhudaro Civilisation.

2) Evidence of a ploughed field in the Harappan Civilisation have been found at
_________. (1)
A) Kalibangan
B) Dholavira
C) Shortughai
D) Chanhudaro

3) In the Harappan Civilisation archaeologist finds suggest that Oman supplied
___________. (1)
A) Tin
B) Gold
C Copper

D) Silver

41

4) In the Harappan Civilisation water reservoirs were found at __________. (1)
A) Balakot
B) Lothal
C) Dholavira
D) Nageshwar

5) The first Director General of the Archaeological Survey of India was _______.(1)
A) Sir John Marshall
B) Cunningham
C) Daya Ram Sahani
D) Rakhaldas Banerji

6) The settlement exclusively devoted to craft production was __________. (1)
A) Chanhudaro
B) Mohenjodaro
C) Lothal
D) Shortughai

7) In Mesopotamian texts, the Harappan region is known as ___________. (1)
A) Dilmun
B) Meluhha
C) Magan
D) Turan

8) A beautiful red colour stone used in bead making in the Harappan Civilisation was
_____________. (1)
A) Steatite
B) Carnelian
C) Crystal

D) Quartz

42

9) An important centre of bead making in the Harappan Civilization was _____. (1)
A) Kalibangan
B) Shortughai
C) Harappa
D) Chanhudaro

10) One of the major deities of Hinduism found on Harappan Seals is ________. (1)
A) Vishnu
B) Indra
C) Soma
D) Shiva
SECTION B

TRUE/FALSE

11) At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits. (1)
(True/False)
12) Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Dholavira. (1)
(True/False)
13) The most distinctive features of Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage
system. (1)
(True/False)
14) Seals and sealing were used to facilitate long distance communication. (1)
(True/False)
15) Mesopotamian sites also contains traces of coal. (1)
(True/False)
16) Nageshwar and Balakot were the specialised centres for making shell objects. (1)
(True/False)
17) Archaeologist assumes that objects were luxuries if they were made from costly non
local materials. (1)
(True/False)
18) Finds of rice are relatively rare at Harappan sites. (1)
(True/False)
19) The best source of Lapis Lazuli in the Harappan Civilization was Dholavira. (1)
(True/False)
20) Kalibangan was the most well known site of Harappan Civilization. (1)
(True/False)

THE END

43

First Formative Test-2022-23
Answer Key
Sub : History (CWSN) Std.- XII
Marks : 20 Duration : 1 Hr

1) B) Indus Valley Civilisation (1)
2) A) Kalibangan (1)
3) C) Copper (1)
4) C) Dholavira (1)
5) B) Cunningham (1)
6) A) Chanhudaro (1)
7) A) Dilmun (1)
8) B) Carnelian (1)
9) D) Chanhudaro (1)
10) D) Shiva (1)
SECTION B
TRUE/FALSE
11) True (1)
12) False (1)
13) True (1)
14) True (1)
15) False (1)
16) True (1)
17) True (1)
18) True (1)
19) False (1)
20) False (1)

THE END

44

Second Test (CWSN)
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 10 50
2. Understanding 10 50
Total 20 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Goa Board Booklet
1. History of Goa 20

Total Marks 20

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. Forms of Questions Marks Percentage
No.
1. Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) 10 50%
2. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) True or 10 50%
False
Total 20 100%

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
3. Multiple Choice Question 03 10 30
(MCQ)
4. Very Short Answer Type 06 10 60
(VSA) True or False
Total 20 90

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

45

5. Weightage to type of Questions Second Formative Test (CWSN) (20 Marks)
S.No. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 10 10 50% 30 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 10 10 50% 60 mins
3. Short Answer Type II - - - -
4. Long Answer Type - - - -
20 20 100% 90 mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. All Questions are compulsory.

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. No. Estimated difficulty level of Marks Percentage
questions
1. Easy 10 50
2. Average 10 50

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.
8. Blue Print
Second Formative Test (CWSN) (20 Marks)
Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area
VSA S SA- LA VSA SA-I SA- LA
A- II II
I
1 Mark 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 20
Goa Board Booklet

1. History of Goa 20 (20) 20 (20)

20 (20) 20(20)

46

History (CWSN)
Model Question Paper
Second Test 2022-23
Duration: 1 Hour Max. Marks: 20
Instructions:
1. This question paper consists of 20 questions divided into 2 sections, i.e.,
A and B.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice in the paper.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION A
Contains 10 questions of 01 mark each for multiple choice questions.
Q. 1. The first elected Member of Parliament to be sent to Lisbon from Goa in
1822 was __________. (1)
A) Bemardo Peres da Silva.
B) A. J. de Lima Leitao.
C) Constancio Roque da Costa.
D) Roque Correia Afonso.

Q.2. The Editor of ‘A India Portuguesa’ was ____________. (1)
A) Luis de Menezes Braganca.
B) Dr. Jose Inacio de Loyola.
C) Constancio Roque da Costa.
D) Fr. Antonio Francisco Xavier Alvares.

47

Q.3. The leader of the Rane Revolt in 1852 was __________. (1)
A) Kushtoba Rane.
B) Dada Rane Advaikar.
C) Dipaji Rane.
D) Santoba Rane.

Q.4. The first telegraph line in 1859 connected Goa with _________. (1)
A) Pune.
B) New Hubli.
C) Dharwar.
D) Belgaum.

Q.5. The home of Dr. Juliao Menezes, a Goan patriot was situated
in___________. (1)
A) Assolna.
B) Velim.
C) Cuncolim.
D) Margao.

Q.6. The President of Azad Gomantak Dal was __________. (1)
A) Dr. Ram Hegde.
B) Vishwanath Lawande.
C) Balaraya Mapari.
D) Mohan Ranade.

Q.7. The Goa Vimochan Samati had its headquarters at __________. (1)
A) Londa.
B) Naroli.
C) Pune.

D) Bombay.

48

Q.8. Peter Alvares was the president of __________. (1)
A) Azad Gomantak Dal.
B) The Goa Action Committee.
C) The Goa Vimochan Samati.
D) The National Congress (Goa).

Q.9. A plan called ‘Operation Vijay’ to liberate Goa was formulated by
the __________. (1)
A) Government of India.
B) Government of Indonesia.
C) Government of Malayasia.
D) Government of Singapore.

Q.10. Goa became the 25th state of India on __________. (1)
A) 19th December 1961.
B) 30th May 1987.
C) 16th January 1967.
D) 20th August 1992.
SECTION B

Contains 10 questions of 01 marks each for True or False statement.
Q 11. The ‘Partido indiano’ was headed by Constancio Roque da Costa. (1)
(True/False)
Q 12. Portugal witnessed the establishment of the Republic on 5th October, (1)
1910.
(True/False)

Q 13. The Rane Revolt of 1852 was led by Kushtoba Rane. (1)

49

(True/False)
Q 14. The Bombay Abkari Act of 1878, prohibited the manufacture, sale and
consumption liquors. (1)
(True/False)
Q 15. The Uniform Civil Code of 1867, was a milestone development for
Goan men. (1)
(True/False)
Q 16. The Movement of 1946 was led by Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia. (1)
(True/False)
Q 17. The Goa Action Committee was formed under the Chairmanship of
Luis de Menezes Branganca. (1)
(True/False)
Q 18. The Goa Vimochan Samati decided to launch a mass movement on 15th
August 1954. (1)
(True/False)
Q 19. Goa was liberated from the Portuguese rule on 19th December 1961. (1)
(True/False)
Q. 20. During the Opinion poll, the ‘two leaves’ polled about 56% votes. (1)
(True/False)

50

Answer Key for History CWSN Model question paper
2nd Formative Test 2022-23
Section A (MCQ)
Q1 A Bemardo Peres da Silva 1 mk
Q2 B Dr. Jose Inacio de Loyola 1 mk
Q3 C Dipaji Rane 1 mk
Q4 D Belgaum 1 mk
Q5 A Assolna 1 mk
Q6 B Vishwanath Lawande 1 mk
Q7 C Pune 1 mk
Q8 D National Congress (Goa) 1 mk
Q9 A Government of India 1 mk
Q10 B 30th May 1987 1 mk

Section B (TRUE/FALSE)
Q 11. False 1 mk
Q 12. True 1 mk
Q 13. False 1 mk
Q 14. True 1 mk
Q 15. False 1 mk
Q 16. True 1 mk
Q 17. False 1 mk
Q 18. False 1 mk
Q 19. True 1 mk
Q 20. True 1 mk

51

First Terminal Examination 2022-23 (CWSN)
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes
S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 40 100
2. Understanding - -
3. Application - -
Total 40 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Book/Part-I
1. Bricks, Beads and Bones:
The Harappan Civilisation 20
2. Book/Part-II
An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara 20
(c. fourteenth to sixteenth centuries)
Total Marks 40

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions
S. Forms of Questions Marks Percentage
No.
1. Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) 20 50%
2. Very Short Answer Type (VSA) True or 20 50%
False
Total 40 100%

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:
S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
3. Multiple Choice Question 02 20 40
(MCQ)
4. Very Short Answer Type 04 20 80
(VSA) True or False
Total 40 120

52

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

5. Weightage to type of Questions First Terminal Examination (CWSN) (40 Marks)

S.No. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 20 20 50% 40 mins
2. Short Answer Type I 20 20 50% 80 mins
3. Short Answer Type II - - - -
4. Long Answer Type - - - -
40 40 100% 120mins

6. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. Estimated difficulty level Questions Marks Percentage
No. of questions
1. Easy 20 20 50%
2. Average 20 20 50%

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

7. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. All Questions are compulsory.

53

8. Blue Print
First Terminal Examination (CWSN)

Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area VSA S SA- LA VSA SA- SA- LA TOTAL
A- II I II
I
1. Bricks, Beads and
Bones The
Harappan 20(20) 20(20)
Civilisation
2. An Imperial
Capital: 20(20) 20(20)
Vijayanagara (c.
fourteenth to
sixteenth
centuries)
40 (40) 40(40)

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. There will be no overall choice. All Questions are compulsory.

54

MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
YEAR 2022 – 2023
Std: XII Arts Sub: History (CWSN) Marks 40 Time: 2 Hr.
INSTRUACTION: (i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper consist of 40 questions.
a) Question 1-20 are multiple choice questions.
Select the most appropriate answer.
b) Question 21-40 are true or false.
(iii) All questions carry one mark each.
_______________________________________________________________
1. The Harappan Culture is also called as ___________. (1)
A) Mesopotamian Civilization
B) Egyptian Civilization
C) Indus Valley Civilization
D) Byzantine Civilization
2. At Harappan culture grains like Millets are found from sites in ________. (1)
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Kerala
D) Gujarat
3. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in_________. (1)
A) Cholistan
B) Kalibangan
C) Harappa
D) Dholavira
4. In Harappan culture the settlement which is smaller in size, but higher is
called__________. (1)
A) lower town
B) citadel
C) higher town
D) city state

5. A large rectangular tank in a courtyard surrounded by corridor on all four
sides was called as__________. (1)
A) Granary
B) Warehouse

C) Altar
D) Great Bath

55

6. At burials in Harappan sites the dead was generally laid in ________. (1)
A) Vault
B) Cave
C) Pits
D) Trench

7. In the Harappan sites the courtyard of residential building were centered of
activities like _________. (1)
A) playing
B) dancing
C) meeting
D) cooking

8. In Harappan culture, conical stone object have been classified as
____________. (1)
A) weights
B) lingas
C) toys
D) precious stone

9. A stone statue, which was labeled by the archeologist of Harappan culture is
to be known as the _________. (1)
A) King
B) Priest king
C) Rajas
D) Guru

10. Water reservoirs in Harappan culture found in ________. (1)
A) Lothal
B) Dholavira
C) Bharuch
D) Khetri

11. The first dynasty that ruled over Vijayanagara was __________. (1)
A) Tulvas
B) Aravidu

C) Sangarna
D) Saluva

56

12. The military chiefs of Vijyanagara were called as _________. (1)
A) Sanapati
B) Sultan
C) Amar nayakas
D) Nayakas
13. A massive platform, located at one of the highest point in the city is
known as __________. (1)
A) Mahanavami dibba
B) Hall
C) Garbhagriha
D) Lotus Mahal
14. The Vijayanagara kings displayed their prestige, power and suzerainty on
the occasion of ___________. (1)
A) Diwali
B) Mahanavami
C) Holi
D) Gudi Padwa
15. In the Vijayanagara, the presence of a temple from a distance was noticed
due to the __________. (1)
A) Gopuramms
B) Garbhagriha
C) Mandapas
D) Halls
16. The halls in the temples of Vijyanagara were used to celebrates the
marriages of __________. (1)
A) Deities
B) Kings
C) Princess
D) Nayakas
17. All Royal orders of Vijyanagara kings were usually signed in the ____.(1)
A) Sanskrit
B) Tamil
C) Telugu
D) Kannada

57

18. The Vijyanagara rulers took the title of ________. (1)
A) Hindu Suratrana
B) Sultan
C) Devputra
D) Suratrana
19. The last dynasty to rule over the Vijyanagara till 1485 was _______. (1)
A) Saluvan
B) Tuluva
C) Aravidu
D) Sangama
20. The military commanders of Vijayanagara were called as ________. (1)
A) Amar nayakas
B) Nayakas
C) Senapati
D) Sultan
21. Traces of canals have been found at Shortughai in Afghanistan. (1)
(True/ False)
22. The first site to be discovered in Harappan culture was Harappa. (1)
(True/ False)
23. Harappan culture does not have planned drainage system. (1)
(True/ False)
24. Seals and sealing were not used to facilitate large
distance communication. (1)
(True/ False)
25. The script in Harappan culture was written from left to right. (1)
(True/ False)
26. Exchange were regulated by a precise system of weights, usually made of a
stone called chert. (1)
(True/ False)
27. A stone statue was labeled and continues to be known as the King. (1)

(True/ False)

58

28. Cunningham was the first Director- General of the ASI. (1)
(True/ False)
29. In Harappan culture on some seals, a figure shown seated cross-legged in a
“yogic” posture. (1)
(True/ False)
30. Fire Altars found at Cholistan. (1)
(True/ False)
31. Harihara and Bukka founded the Vijyanagara Empire. (1)
(True/ False)
32. Local Communities of merchants known as Kudira chettis. (1)
(True/ False)
33. Chiefs or nayakas of Vijayanagara spoke Hindi and Tamil. (1)
(True/ False)
34. In the 16th century German traveler Barbosa described about the houses of
ordinary people of Vijayanagara. (1)
(True/ False)
35. Ritual associated with Mahanavami dibba probably coincided with
Mahanavami. (1)
(True/ False)
36. Rulers of Vijyanagara never encouraged temple building. (1)
(True/ False)
37. The Vijyanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. (1)
(True/ False)
38. One of the most prominent water work to be seen among the ruins in the
Hiriya Cannel. (1)
(True/ False)
39. Mahanavami dibba was also called as Audience Hall. (1)
(True/ False)

40. Granaries were not build by the Vijayanagara Emperors. (1)
(True/ False)

59

MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2022-23
ANSWER KEY
Sub: History (CWSN) Std: XII Arts

1. C) Indus Valley Civilisation
2. D) Gujarat
3. A) Cholistan
4. B) citade.
5. D) Great Bath
6. C) Pits
7. D) cooking
8. B) lingas
9. B) Priest king
10. B) Dholavira
11. C) Sangarna
12. D) nayakas
13. A) Mahanavami dibba
14. B) Mahanavami
15. A) Gopuramms
16. A) deities
17. D) Kannada
18. A) Hindu Suratrana
19. B) Tuluva
20. A) amar nayakas
21. True
22. True
23. False
24. False
25. False

26. True
27. False

60

28. True
29. True
30. False
31. True
32. True
33. False
34. False
35. True
36. False
37. True
38. True
39. False
40. False

61

Second Terminal Examination/ Final Examination (CWSN) 2022-23

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes

S.No. Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
Marks
1. Knowledge 32 80
2. Understanding 08 20
Total 40 100

2. Weightage to content/ Subject Units/Themes

S. No. Units Marks

Goa Board Booklet
1. History of Goa
20
2. Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement: Civil
Disobedience and Beyond 20
Total Marks 40

3. Weightage to Forms of Questions

S. No. Forms of Questions Marks Percentage
1. Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) 10 25%
2. Short Answer Type (VSA-I)- True or False 10 25%
3. Short Answer Type (VSA-II)- Answer in One 08 20%
Sentence
4. Short Answer Type(VSA-III) - Answer in two 12 30%
sentence
Total 40 100%

62

4. The expected time for different types of question would be as follows:

S.No. Form of Questions Approx. time Number of Approx. time
for each questions (n) for each form
Question in of Questions in
mins. (t) mins. (n x t)
1. Multiple Choice Question 02 10 20
(MCQ)
2. Short Answer Type(VSA- 03 10 30
I) - Answer True or False
3. Short Answer Type(VSA- 5 08 40
II) - Answer in one
sentence
4. Short Answer Type(VSA- 10 06 60
III) - Answer in two
sentence
Total 34 150

As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be answered
and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable for the candidates
to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected
time limits.

5. Weightage to type of Questions Second Terminal Examination (CWSN)
(40 Marks)

S.No. Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage The
Questions (%) allotted
(minutes)
1. Objective Type Question 10 10 25% 20 mins
2. Short Answer Type-True or 10 10 25% 30 mins
False
3. Short Answer Type I 8 8 20% 40 mins
(Answer in One sentence)
4. Short Answer Type II 6 12 30% 60 mins
(Answer in two sentence)
34 40 100% 150mins

6. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. There is an internal choice provided in Question no’s
29, 31 & 34. For two mark questions.

63

7. Weightage to Difficulty level of questions:

S. Estimated difficulty level Questions Marks Percentage
No. of questions
1. Easy 30 32 80
2. Average 04 08 20

A question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the assessment
in respect of each question will be made by the paper setter on the basis of general anticipation
from the group as a whole taking the examination. This provision is only to make the paper
balanced in its weightage, rather than to determine the pattern of marking at any stage.

8. Blue Print Second Terminal Examination (CWSN)
Objectives/content KNOWLEDGE UNDERSTANDING TOTAL
Area VSA S SA- LA VSA SA-I S LA
A- II A
I -
I
I

Goa Board Booklet 1(2)
1. History of Goa 14(14) 2*(4) 17(20)

Book/ Part III
2. Mahatma Gandhi 14(14) 2(4) 17(20)
and the Nationalist 1*(2)
Movement: Civil
Disobedience and
Beyond
28(28) 6(12) 34 (40)

Note: 1. Figures in the brackets indicate the marks and figures outside the bracket indicate
questions.
2. * Choice question is Question no’s 29, 31 & 34. for 2 Marks.

64

Model Question Paper
Second Terminal Examination 2022-23
Std.: XII Subject: HISTORY (CWSN)
Time: 2 ½ Hrs. Max. Marks: 40
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instructions:
1. All questions are Compulsory.
2. This question paper consist of 34 questions.
e) Questions 1-10 are Multiple choice question.
f) Questions-11-20 are true or false.
g) Questions 21-28 are to be answered in one sentence.
h) Questions 29-34 are to be answered in two sentences each.
3. There is no overall choice in the question paper, however there is internal choice
provided in Question no’s 29, 31 & 34.
4. Write the number of each question clearly.
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. Complete the following statement, by selecting the correct alternatives from those
given below each Statement.
Q.1. The first President of the National Congress (Goa) was ________. (1)

A) Dr. Francisco Luis Gomes
B) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia

C) Dr. Tristao Braganza Cunha

D) Dr. Ram Hegde

Q.2. The headquarter of Goa Vimochan Samitti formed in 1954 was _________. (1)
A) Bombay
B) Pune
C) Panaji
D) Margao

65

Q.3. Azad Gomantak Dal was formed under the leadership of ___________. (1)
A) Vishwanath Lawande
B) Dr. Pundalik Gaitonde
C) Purrushottam Kakodkar

D) Sudhatai Joshi

Q.4. The newspaper O Progressa da Goa published by ____________. (1)
A) Peter Alvers
B) Jack Sequeir
C) Bernardo Peres da silva
D) Fr. Alvaris

Q.5. Dr. Lohia arrived in Goa in1946 on the invitation of _________. (1)
A) Dr. T.B. Cunha
B) A.J.de Lima Leitao
C) Dr. Juliao Menezes
D) Constancio Roque da Costa

Q.6. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in April 1919 at ________. (1)
A) Bombay
B) Amritsar
C) Kanpur
D) Lahore

Q.7. In 1947 the last Viceroy of British in India was ___________. (1)
A) Lord Mountbatten
B) Lord Curzon
C) Lord Irwin
D) Lord Wavell

66

Q.8. Mahatma Gandhiji’s political mentor was ___________. (1)
A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B) Lala Lajpat Rai
C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D) Bipin Chandra Pal

Q.9. Gandhiji started Dandi March on 12 March 1930 from his ashram at _______. (1)
A) Champaran
B) Banaras
C) Sabarmati
D) Chauri Chaura

Q.10. A second Round table Conference in 1931 was held at __________. (1)
A) Bombay
B) London
C) Lahore
D) Delhi

B. State whether the following statements are True or False:
Q.11. Vijiya Laxmi Pandit raise the Goa issue at United Nation. (1)

(True or False)

Q.12. Major General Choudhari was the first Military Governor of Goa. (1)

(True or False)

Q.13. The newspaper O' ultramar started by ‘Parido Indiano’. (1)

(True or False)

Q.14. Partido Indiano and Partido Ultramarino are the first two parties formed in Goa for election.(1)
(True or False)

Q.15. The Goa Action Committee was formed under the Chairmanship of Senapati Bapat. (1)
(True or False)

67

Q.16. The Muslim League passed a resolution to the creation of the separate state of
Pakistan. (1)

(True or False)

Q.17. Motilal Nehru edited a collection of letters written to him and published A Bunch of
Old Letters. (1)

(True or False)

Q.18. Jinnah called for a “Direct Action Day” (1)

(True or False)

Q.19. Gandhiji had given advance notice of his “Salt March” to the Viceroy Lord
Mountbatten. (1)

(True or False)

Q.20. It was the Rowlatt satyagraha that made Gandhiji a truly national leader. (1)

(True or False)

C. Answer the following questions in one sentence each:
Q.21. Who was the leader of Rane revolt of 1852? (1)

Q.22. Which was the plan Government of India formulated to liberate the Portuguese
colonies in India? (1)

Q.23. Who was the first Chief Minister of Goa ? (1)

Q.24. Who was appointed as the Prefect of Goa in 1935? (1)

Q.25. Name the journal in which Gandhiji published letter written to him by others. (1)

Q.26. Which Movement was called off after signing “Gandhi-Irwin Pact”? (1)

Q.27. Name the historian who remarked, South Africa was “the making of the Mahatma” (1)
Q.28. Which place Gandhiji made his first major public appearance in India? (1)

D. Answer the following questions in two sentences each:
Q.29. How did the condition of Goan Economy lead to the rise of Goan Nationalism ? (2)
OR
What was the effect of the movement of 1946 ?

68

Q.30. What were the main provision of Anglo Portuguese Treaty of 1878 ? (2)
Q.31. How did the Indian government impose an economic blockade on Goa in 1955 ? (2)
OR
Why was the Uniform Civil Code of 1867 considered as an important development
of Goan Women’s ?
Q.32. Why Gandhiji call off the Non-co-operation Movement in 1922? (2)
Q.33. What was the importance of Lahore Session of the Congress,1929 in Indian
National Movement? (2)
Q.34. Why Gandhiji called as Peoples leader? (2)
OR
Why did Quit India Movement of 1942 called as a mass movement?

69

Answer Key History Model Paper
Second Terminal Examination (CWSN)2022-2023

A. Complete the following statement, by selecting the correct alternatives from those
given below each Statement. (10)
Q.1. D) Dr. Ram Hegde
Q.2. B) Pune
Q.3. A) Vishwanath Lawande
Q.4. D) Fr. Alvaris
Q.5. C) Dr. Juliao Menezes
Q.6. B) Amritsar
Q.7. A) Lord Mountbatten
Q.8. C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q.9. C) Sabarmati
Q.10. B) London

B. State whether the following statements are True or False: (10)
Q.11. True
Q.12. True
Q.13. False
Q.14. True
Q.15. False
Q.16. True
Q.17. False
Q.18. True
Q.19. False
Q.20. True

70

C. Answer the following questions in one sentence each (8)
Q.21. Dipaji Rane
Q.22. Operation Vijay
Q.23. Shri Dayanand Bandodkar
Q.24. Bernardo Peres da silva
Q.25. Harijan
Q.26. Civil disobedience Movement
Q.27. Chandran Devanesan
Q.28. Banaras Hindu University

D. Answer the following questions in two sentences each.
Q.29. The condition of Goan Economy lead to the rise of Goan Nationalism (2)
- Goans economy was in doldrums .
- the Portuguese did not promote industrialization, private banking .
- the agricultural sector was backward due to lack of mechanization and irrigation
facilities .
- the fishing and salt industries were dying .
- unemployment was seen widely .
- the economic situation was bound to cause discontent and resentment in the people
- the republic brought about a socio political awakening among the people .

OR
The effect of the movement of 1946
- Through the movement was peaceful the authorities adopted repressive measures to
suppress it .
- About 1500 Goans were arrested in this period .
- Different leaders like Dr. T.B.Cunha, P.P.Shirodkar , Purrushottam Kakodkar,
Divakar Kakodkar etc. were arrested and tried in special court .
- T.B.Cunha and Purushottam Kakodkar were deported to Portugal. P.P.Shirodkar
to Angola and Divakar Kakodkar to Cabo Verde .
- Both hindus and christians joined hands in resisting Portuguese policies and
repression.

Q.30. The main provision of Anglo Portuguese Treaty of 1878 (2)
- Portuguese India was subjected to the Bombay Abkari Act of 1878 which
prohibited under severe penalties the manufacture, sale and consumption of
liquors without the permission of the collector.
- The manufacture of salt in Portuguese India was placed under the control and

supervision of the British government for twelve years.

71

Q.31. Economic blockade on Goa in 1955 (2)
- Restrictions were imposed on money export to Goa .
- Trade and commerce between Goa and India came to standstill .
- The remittances of Goan emigrants in India were prevented from entering Goa .
- Transshipment of arms and ammunition of Goa via India was prohibited .
- The export of food stuffs and other essential commodities from India was also
prohibited
- Roads linking Goa with India were blocked .
- Rails links were also cut off .
- No ship carrying cargo to Goa could touch ports .

OR
The Uniform Civil Code of 1867
- Minimum age of marriage was fixed (16 years) .
- Compulsory registration of marriages was introduced .
- Women’s had the right to acquire , inherit and bequeath property
- Marriage and divorce laws underwent or radical change .

Q.32. Gandhiji call off the Non-co-operation Movement in 1922 (2)
- In February 1922, a group of peasants attacked and torched a police station in the
hamlet of Chauri Chaura, in the United Provinces (Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal)
- Several constables perished in the conflagration. This act of violence prompted
Gandhiji to call off the movement altogether.
Q.33. The importance of Lahore Session of the Congress,1929 (2)
- The election of Jawaharlal Nehru as President, signifying the passing of the
baton of leadership to the younger generation.
- The proclamation of commitment to “Purna Swaraj” or complete Independence.
- On 26 January 1930, “Independence Day” was observed.

Q.34. Gandhiji called as Peoples leader (2)
- Many people venerated Gandhiji, referring to him as their “Mahatma”.
- They appreciated the fact that he dressed like them, lived like them, and spoke
their language.
- Unlike other leaders he did not stand apart from the common folk, but empathised
and even identified with them.
- The act of spinning allowed Gandhiji to break the boundaries that prevailed within
the traditional caste system, between mental labour and manual labour.
OR
The Quit India Movement of 1942 called as a mass movement
- The Quit India movement began in August 1942. Although Gandhiji was jailed at once,
younger activists organised strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
- Large no. of ordinary people joined this movement
- Youths left their colleges to go to jail.
- Underground résistance continued by socialist members of the congress, such as
Jayaprakash Narayan.
- In several districts, as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “Independent”

governments were proclaimed.
- The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the
rebellion.

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