HPCET 2023 Question Paper for B.Tech B.Pharm

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Common Entrance Examination-2023
(Admission for B. Tech/B. Pharmacy)
Time : 3:15 Hrs. Booklet No.
Maximum Marks : 600

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Do not open the seal of the question booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. OMR answer-sheet will be supplied by the Centre Superintendent for answering the questions.
3. USE blue/black ink ball pen only to darken the appropriate circle/oval in the OMR answer-sheet.
No sophisticated pens are allowed.
4. Darken one circle/oval deeply for each question in the OMR answer-sheet, as faintly darkened
circle might be rejected by the scanner.
5. This question booklet contains 40 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator
on duty.
6. Out of total of 180 questions, 150 are to be attempted which shall carry 600 marks. All these
questions are of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Each question has only one correct answer.
7. Examination Pattern: -
Subjects Section -A Section-B
(All 20 Questions are compulsory) (Attempt 30 Questions out of 40 Questions)
PHYSICS Question 1 to 20 Questions 21 to 60
CHEMISTRY Questions 61 to 80 Questions 81 to 120
MATHEMATCS/BIOLOGY Questions 121 to 140 Questions 141 to 180
8. Question 1 to 60 pertain to Physics, questions 61 to 120 pertain to Chemistry, questions 121 to
180 pertain to Mathematics or Biology and each question carries 4 marks. You are advised to
attempt questions from one subject, either Mathematics or Biology. The question belonging to
Physics and Chemistry subjects are compulsory for all. However, Mathematics is also compulsory
for B. Tech course.
9. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question booklet for rough work.
10. Do not fold the OMR answer-sheet and don’t put any mark on it to avoid rejection by the scanner.
11. Write your roll number carefully on the OMR answer-sheet and darken the appropriate circle/oval
properly.
12. Before opening the question booklet, fill-up the required information with blue/black ball pen
correctly both in the question booklet and the OMR answer-sheet.
13. Mobile phones/electronic devices etc. are not allowed inside the examination hall.
14. The question booklet may be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
15. Four (+4) marks shall be awarded for each correct answer and one (–1) mark shall be deducted
for each wrong answer. Un-answered/ un-marked question will be given no marks (0).
16. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a blue/black ink ball point pen.

Name
Registration
Number

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 1

PHYSICS-Part A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
1. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between
them
(A) Is doubled (B) Becomes four times
(C) Is reduced to half (D) Is reduced to a quarter
2. If the Kinetic energy of a particle in linear motion is doubled, then its momentum will

(A) Remain unchanged (B) Increase 2 times
(C) Be quadrupled (D) Be doubled
3. Rate of doing work is called
(A) Force (B) Acceleration
(C) Power (D) Displacement
4. SI unit of angular momentum is
(A) rad/s2 (B) kg.m2.s
(C) kg.m2/s (D) rad/s
5. A concave lens is kept in contact with a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The
combination acts as a convex focal length of 50 cm. The power of concave lens is
(A) –3D (B) +3D
(C) 5D (D) 6D

6. What is the critical angle for a material for refractive index 2.
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
7. Focal length (F) and power (P) of plane glass plate is
(A) F=0, P=  (B) F=  , P=0
(C) 4 F=1, P=1 (D) F=0, P=0
8. Which color deviates (i) most (ii) least, on passing through a prism
(A) Most for red and least for violet
(B) Most for violet and least for red
(C) same for both
(D) None for above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 2

9. Ratio of slit width, when amplitude of light waves emanates from them have a ratio of
7 : 3 , is

(A) 3:7 (B) 7 :3

(C) 7:3 (D) 7: 3
10. When a wave undergoes a reflection from rarer to denser medium, the phase changes
by
(A) 0° (B) 
(C)  /2 (D) –
11. Distance covered by a missile fired with initial velocity of 300 m/s at an angle of 45°
(take g=10m/s2) is
(A) 90 km (B) 9 km
(C) 81 km (D) 30 km
12. Dielectric constant of a medium is 10. Its permittivity will be
(A) 8.854×10–12C2N–1m–² (B) 88.54×10–12C2N–1m–²
(C) 0.8854×10–12C2N–1m–² (D) None of the above
13. The Kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. will be equal,
when displacement is (amplitude = a)

(A) a² / 2 (B) a/ 2

(C) a² / 2 (D) a² / 4
14. A simple pendulum when placed on a different planet with its acceleration due to gravity
(gP) equal to 0.01 times that of earth i.e gP = (1/100) gE, then the time period of pendulum
will become
(A) 100 times (b) 10 times
(C) 1/10 times (d) 1/100 times
15. The equation of wave is y = 2 sin  (0.5x –200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and
t in sec. The wave velocity is
(A) 100 cm/sec (B) 200 cm/sec
(C) 300 cm/sec (D) 400 cm/sec
16. Work done in moving the test charge from one point of equipotential surface to other is
(A) infinite (  ) (B) zero
(C) Unity (D) None of these

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 3

17. Which of following has maximum penetrating power?
(A) UV radiation (B) Microwaves
(C) Gamma rays (D) Radio waves
18. A voltage of 200V is applied across a color-coded carbon resistor with first, second and
third ring of blue, black and yellow colors. The current flowing through the resistor is
(A) 0.333×10–4 A (B) 3.33×10–4 A
(C) 33.3×10–4 A (D) 333×10–4 A

19. Two equations of two S.H.M. are x = a sin (t –  ) and y = b cos (t – ) . The phase
differene between the two is
(A) 0° (B) 
(C) 90° (D) 180°
20. Two satellites S1 and S2 following Kepler's laws are revolving around a planet in coplanar
circular orbits in same sense. Their periods of revolutions are one hour and 8 hours
respectively. If radius of S1 is 10000 km, then radius of second satellite is
(A) 4 × 104 km (B) 0.4 × 104 km
(C) 40 × 104 km (D) 4 × 104 m

PHYSICS - Part-B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
21. Out of speed (c), frequency (  ) and wavelength (  ) on reflection
(A) Speed varies while frequency and wavelength remain same
(B) frequency and wavelength vary while Speed remains same
(C) frequency varies while Speed and wavelength remain same
(d) All remain same
22. In simple harmonic motion, which of following is true
(A) Kinetic energy is maximum at mean position and minimum at extreme positions
(B) Potential energy is maximum at extreme positions and minimum at mean position
(C) Total energy always remains constant.
(D) All of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 4

23. If the radius of a planet is R, and its density is  , then escape velocity will be proportional

(A) R (B) R 

(C) /R (D) 1 / R
24. The force between two free electrons spaced 1Å apart is
(A) 2.3×10–8 N (B) 0.23×10–8 N
(C) 4.6×10–8 N (D) 230×10–8 N
 
25. A surface element ds  5iˆ is placed in an electric field E  4iˆ  4ˆj  4k.
ˆ The electric
flux emanating from the surface is
(A) 40 units (B) 200 units
(C) 20 units (D) 400 units
26. If 20 J of work has to be done to move an electric charge of 4C from a point where
potential is 10 V to another point, where potential is V volt. The value of V is
(A) 40 V (B) 200 V
(C) 15 V (D) 400 V
27. If charge Q is placed at a distance a/2 above the center of a horizontal square, then the
flux of the electric field through the square surface is

5Q 7Q
(A) 6 0 (B) 6 0

11Q Q
(C) 60 (D) 6 0

28. A sphere S1 of radius r1 encloses a total charge Q. There is another concentric sphere S 2
of radius r2 (>r1) and there are no additional charges between S1 and S2. The ratio of
electric flux through S1 and S2 is
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1
(C) 1:2 (C) 2:2
29. When 1.0×1012 electrons are transferred from one conductor to another, a potential
difference of 10 V appears between the conductors. The capacitance of the conductor
system is
(A) 16×10–8 F (B) 0.16×10–8 F
(C) 1.6×10–8 F (D) None of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 5

30. What is the color code for a resistor of resistance 5.3 k with 5% tolerance?
(A) Green, Orange, Red-gold (B) Orange, Green, Red-silver
(C) Red, Green, Red-gold (D) Orange, yellow, Red-gold
31. Bernoulli's theorem is applicable in the case of
(a) The compressible liquid in a turbulent flow
(b) The incompressible liquid in a turbulent flow
(c) The compressible liquid in a streamline flow
(d) The incompressible liquid in a streamline flow
32. The current in mA if 2×1020 electrons pass through a lamp in one minute is
(A) 0.533 mA (B) 5.33 mA
(C) 533 mA (D) 53.3 mA
33. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the electron revolving around the nucleus in a circular
orbit of radius 5.1×10–11m at a frequency of 6.8×1015 revolution per second. The equivalent
current at any point on the orbit of the electron is
(A) 1.088×10–3 A (B) 1.088×10–4 A
(C) 1.088×10–5 A (D) 1.088×10–6 A
34. A bulb of 100W is operated for 6 hours a day. The units of energy consumed in 7 days
are
(A) 4.2 unit (B) 42 unit
(C) 420 unit (D) none of the above
35. If the mass of proton is approx. 1840 times mass of electron, then the ratio of their radius
of path (Re/Rp) followed in a direction perpendicular to 'B' will be
(A) 1:1840 (B) 1840:1
(C) 2:1840 (D) 1840:2
36. When distance between two given magnetic poles is halved, force between them become
'k' times, where 'k’ is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) ¼
37. Magnetic moment of a current loop becomes k times when diameter of the loop is made
twice and number of turns is made three-fold, where ‘k=’
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 12

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 6

38. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is
4. The maximum current that can be drawn from the battery is
(A) 300 A (B) 0.3 A
(C) 30 A (D) 60 A
39. Which of the following characteristics of electrons determine the current in a conductor?
(A) Drift velocity alone (B) Thermal velocity alone
(C) Both drift and thermal velocities (D) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
40. In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c, component of the wave is
(A) equal to d.c. value (B) more than d.c. value
(C) less than d.c. value (D) zero
41. CP and CV denote the molar specific heats of a gas at constant pressure and at constant
CP
volume respectively. If   and CP – CV = R. then CV is equal to
CV
R 1
(A) (B)
1 R
R R
(C) (D)
 1  1

42. For a common base amplifier, the values of resistance gain and voltage gain are 3000
and 2800 respectively. The current gain will be
(A) 1.1 (B) 0.98
(C) 0.93 (D) 0.83
43. The gate for which output is high if at least one input is low
(A) NAND (B) NOR
(C) OR (D) AND
44. The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of them will have the
largest extension when the same tension is applied?
(A) Length=100 cm, diameter=1 mm
(B) Length=200 cm, diameter=2 mm
(C) Length=50 cm, diameter=0.5 mm
(D) Length=300 cm, diameter=3 mm

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 7

45. A unit mass of solid is converted to liquid at its melting point. Heat required for this
process is
(A) Specific heat (B) Latent heat of vaporization
(C) External latent heat (D) Latent heat of fusion
46. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic
semiconductor. Then
(A) nh > ne (B) nh = n e
(C) nh < ne (D) n h  ne
47. For a diamagnetic material, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Magnetic susceptibility > 0 (B) Magnetic susceptibility < 0
(C) Magnetic susceptibility = 0 (D) Magnetic susceptibility = 1
48. Two nuclei have their masses in the ratio of 1:3. The ratio of their nuclear densities
would be

(A) 1:3 (B) 1: 3
(C) 1:1 (D) 3:1
49. Bohr's atomic model explains the
(A) spectrum of hydrogen atom only
(B) spectrum of an atom and/or ions of one electron only
(C) spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(D) none of these
50. The radius of the Bohr orbit depends on which of the following?
(A) 1/n (B) n
(C) 1/n² (D) n2
51. The smallest de-Broglie wavelength among the Four particles moving with same velocity
is
(A) N2 molecule (B) O2 molecule
(C) Electron (D) Proton
52. According to de Broglie's relation if velocity of particle is infinite, wavelength will be
(A) infinite (B) small
(C) large (D) zero

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 8

53. The number of ejected photoelectrons from a metal surface increase when
(A) the energy of incident photon increases
(B) the frequency of incident radiation increases
(C) the intensity of incident radiation increases
(D) the stopping potential for ejected electrons increases
54. The minimum energy required for a photoelectron to escape from a metal surface in a
photocell is called
(A) Stopping voltage (B) Planck's constant
(C) Threshold wavelength (D) Work function
55. Which of the following is a state function in thermodynamics?
(A) Work (B) Heat
(C) Enthalpy (D) None of the above
56. Which of the following statements about the first law of thermodynamics is true?
(A) lt gives the law of conservation of energy
(B) It gives the direction of flow of heat
(C) lt introduces the concept of entropy
(D) It gives the concept of temperature
57. Which of the following is a measure of a material's resistance to deformation under a
load?
(A) Hardness (B) Elasticity
(C) Toughness (D) Ductility
58. What is the average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas?
(A) Infinity (B) Constant
(C) Zero (D) Unstable
59. A rod of radius 10 cm and length one meter is held by a clamp at one end and the force
of 100 kN stretches it along its length, then the stress on the rod is
(A) 3.18×106 Nm–2 (B) 318×106 Nm–2
(C) 3.18×10–6 Nm–2 (D) 318×10–6 Nm–2
60. Energy associated with a one kilogram of matter is
(A) 9×10–16 J (B) 9×1016 J
(C) 90×1016 J (D) 0.9 ×1016 J

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 9

Values
c velocity of light in vacuum 2.997 924 58 108 m/s
h Planck's constant 6.626 069  10 –34 J/s

 (=h/2  ) 1.054 571  10 –34 J/s
e electronic charge 1.602 176  10 –19 C
e electron magnetic moment –928.476 362  10 –26 J/T
B Bohr magneton 927.400 899  10 –26 J/T
N nuclear magneton 5.050 783 17  10 –27 J/T
me electron mass 9.109 381 88  10 –31 kg
mp proton mass 1.672 621 58  10 –27 kg
mN neutron mass 1.674 927 16  10 –27 kg
kB Boltzmann's constant 1.380 650  10–23 J/K
NA Avogadro's constant 6.022 142  1023
R molar gas constant N A  k B = 8.314 472 J/mol  K
F Faraday constant 96 485.3415 C/mol

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 10

CHEMISTRY-Part A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
61. In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of
(A) atomic number (B) atomic mass
(C) principal quantum number (D) azimuthal quantum number.
62. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(A) Na2O (B) SO2
(C) B 2O 3 (D) ZnO
63. Determine the total number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
64. The synonym for water gas, when used in the production of methanol, is
(A) fuel gas (B) natural gas
(C) laughing gas (D) syn gas
65. Which of the alkali metal is having least melting point?
(A) Na (B) K
(C) Rb (D) Cs
66. Calculate the number of atoms in 52 moles of Ar
(A) 52 (B) 3.131×1025
(C) 31.31×1025 (D) 1
67. Calculate the molar mass of H2O in g/mol
(A) 18 (B) 32
(C) 34 (D) 16
68. Which one of the following is temperature independent unit of concentration?
(A) Molality (B) Molarity
(C) Normality (D) All of the above
69. Number of unpaired electrons in Mn3+ ion is/are:
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 11

70 Magnetic moment shown by Cr2+ is:
(A) 4.80 (B) 3.90
(C) 0 (D) 2.70
71. In the structure of diborane the terminal B—H bonds are:
(A) 3-centre-2-electron bond (B) 2-centre-2-electron bond
(C) 3-centre-4-electron bond (D) 2-centre-4-electron bond
72. Which one of the following is the correct IUPAC nomenclature of the compound:

(A) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaminobenzene
(B 1-Methyl-3-ethyl-6-aminobenzene
(C) 1-Methyl-2-amino-5-ethylbenzene
(D) 4-Ethyl-6-methyl-aniline
73. Which one of the following compounds will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate?
(A) Benzene sulphonic acid (B) Benzoic acid
(C) o-Nitrophenol (D) 2, 4, 6 – Trinitrophenol
74. In the hydroboration-oxidation reaction of propene with diborane, H 2O2 and NaOH, the
organic compound formed is
(A) (CH3) 3COH (B) CH3CHOHCH3
(C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH3CH2CH2OH
75. Basicity of H3PO4 is:
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 1
76. Which of the following has the second highest electronegativity in the periodic table:
(A) F (B) O
(C) N (D) C

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 12

77. Highest positive oxidation state of lodine is:
(A) +3 (B) +5
(C) +7 (D) +9
78. Which one has the highest boiling point?
(A) Kr (B) Xe
(C) He (D) Ne
79. Which of the following is an intensive property?
(A) Mass (B) Volume
(C) Enthalpy (D) Temperature
80. Molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) in 75 g of benzene.
(A) 0.556 mol kg–1 (B) 55.6 mol kg–1
(C) 0.227 mol kg–1 (D) 2.5 mol kg–1

CHEMISTRY-Part B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
81. Which one of the following alkali metals has the highest tendency of formation of hydrated
salts?
(A) Li (B) Na
(C) K (D) Cs
82. Which alkaline earth metal ion has the highest hydration enthalpy?
(A) Be2+ (B) Mg2+
(C) Ca2+ (D) Sr2+
83. Which of the following is called Caustic Soda ?
(A) NaOH (B) NaCl
(C) Na2CO3.10H2O (D) CaSO4
84. Value of gas constant R is
(A) 0.082 L atm (B) 0.987 cal mol–1K–1
(C) 8.3 J mol–1K–1 (D) 83 erg mol–1K–1

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 13

85. Which one of the following is the wrong assumption of the kinetic theory of gases?
(A) All the molecules move in a straight line between collision and with the same
velocity.
(B) Molecules are separated by great distances compared to their sizes.
(C) Pressure is the result of the elastic collision of molecules with the container's
wall.
(D) Momentum and energy always remain conserved.
86. How many electrons an atom may have if the quantum numbers are: n = 3, l = 0
(A) 6 (B) 10
(C) 2 (D) 3
87. In the spectrum of electromagnetic radiation which one have the longest wavelength:
(A) gamma-rays (B) visible rays
(C) radio waves (D) UV rays
88. Which statement is incorrect about the Rutherford Nuclear Model of the atom?
(A) most of the  -particles passed through the gold foil undeflected.
(B) a small fraction of the  -particles were deflected by small angles.
(C) Most of the  -particles bounced back, that is, were deflected by nearly 180°.
(D) The thin foil used in the experiment was made up of gold.
89. Geometry of the Molecule CHCl3 will be:
(A) Bent (B) T-shape
(C) Tetrahedral (D) Square-Pyramidal
90. Using MO theory, predict which of the following species has the longest bond length?
(A) O2– (B) O22–
(C) O22+ (D) O 2+
91. On treating phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a –CHO group
is introduced at the ortho position of the benzene ring. This reaction is known as:
(A) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction (B) Kolbe's Reaction
(C) Aldol- Condensation (D) Wurtz Reaction
92. In Victor-Meyer's test, the colour given by 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols are respectively:
(A) Red, blue, colourless (B) Colourless, red, blue
(C) Red, blue, violet (D) Red, colourless, blue

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 14

93. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due
to:
(A) alcohols having resonance structures
(B) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
(C) dipolar character of ether
(D) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
94. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy has increased and also
the magnetic behaviour has changed from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?

(A) NO  NO (B) O2  O2

(C) N2  N2 (D) C2  C2
95. The full form of VSEPR Theory is:
(A) Valence shell electron pair rate theory
(B) Valence shell electron proton rate theory
(C) Valence shell electron pair repulsion theory
(D) Valence shell electronegative pair repulsion theory
96. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is:
(A) T  0 (B) p  0
(C) q=0 (D) W=0
97. Which of the following has the highest bond enthalpy?
(A) C—C (B) Si—Si
(C) Ge—Ge (D) Sn—Sn
98. An aqueous solution of borax is
(A) neutral (B) amphoteric
(C) basic (D) acidic
99. The pH of a sample of vinegar is 3.76. Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ion in it;
(A) 1.7 × 10–4 M (B) 2.7 × 10–4 M
(C) 3.76 × 10–4 M (D) 2.3 × 10–8 M

100. The reaction 3ClO (aq)  ClO3 (aq)  2Cl  (aq) is an example of
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Disproportionation (D) Decomposition reaction

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 15

101. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is:
(A) MnO2, FeCl3 (B) [MnO4]–, CrO2Cl2
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)3] (D) [NiCl4]2–, [CoCl4]–
102. EMF of a cell in terms of the reduction potential of its left and right electrodes is
(A) E = Eleft – Eright (B) E = Eleft + Eright
(C) E = Eright – Eleft (D) E = – (Eright + Eleft)
103. Which of the following is the chemical formula of sulphurous acid:
(A) H2SO3 (B) H2SO4
(C) H 2S2O 7 (D) H 2S2O 8
104. Which of the following are Lewis acids?
(A) AlCl3 and SiCl4 (B) PH3 and SiCl4
(C) BCl3 and AlCl3 (D) PH3 and BCl3
105. Which one of the following types of drugs reduces fever?
(A) Analgesic (B) Antipyretic
(C) Antibiotic (D) Tranquiliser
106. Which one of the following is the sweetest artificial sweetner?
(A) Aspartame (B) Saccharin
(C) Sucralose (D) Alitame
107. Units of a first-order reaction is:
(A) mol L–1 s–1 (B s–1
(C) mol–1 L s–1 (D) unitless
108. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of cations in the interstitial sites?
(A) Vacancy defect (B) Frenkel defect
(C) Metal deficiency defect (D) Schottky defect
109. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(A) CH3CH2C  CCH2CH3
(B) CH3CH2CH2C  CCH2CH2CH3
(C) CH3CH2C  CH
(D) CH3CH  CHCH3

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 16

110. The reaction: CH3CH2I + KOH(aq)  CH3CH2OH + KI is classified as :
(A) electrophilic substitution (B) nucleophilic substitution
(C) elimination (D) addition
111. The bond order in the molecule NO+ will be:
(A) 2 (B) 1.5
(C) 2.5 (D) 3
112. The compound with two lone pairs of electrons on the central atom is:
(A) BrF5 (B) ClF3
(C) CH4 (D) SF4
113. Which one of the following compounds is polar:
(A) O2 (B) CCl4
(C) Benzene (D) NH3
114. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H 2SO4 the initiation
step is
(A) formation of carbocation
(B) elimination of water
(C) formation of an ester
(D) protonation of the alcohol molecule
115. In the presence of a small amount of phosphorous, aliphatic carboxylic acids react with
chlorine or bromine to yield a compound in which   hydrogen has been replaced by
halogen. This reaction is known as:
(A) Etard reaction
(B) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
(C) Wolff-Kishner reaction
(D) Rosenmund reaction
116. Which of the following is not an example of a heterogeneous catalytic reaction?
(A) Haber's process
(B) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils
(C) Combustion of coal
(D) Ostwald's process

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 17

117. Which of the following forms the most acidic dioxide?
(A) Si (B) C
(C) Ge (D) Pb
118. Which one of the following antibiotic is bacteriostatic ?
(A) Penicillin
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Aminoglycosides
(D) Ofloxacin
119. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains:
(A) ribose sugar and thymine
(B) ribose sugar and uracil
(C) deoxyribose sugar and thymine
(D) deoxyribose sugar and uracil
120. Nylon threads are made of
(A) Polyester polymer
(B) Polyamide polymer
(C) Polyethylene polymer
(D) Polyvinyl polymer

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 18

MATHEMATICS-Part A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)

121. The contrapositive of the statement: "If p then q" is
(A) If ~p then q (B) If p then ~p
(C) If q then p (D) If ~q then ~p

2 x
122. The range of the function f ( x)  , x  2 is
2 x

(A) R (B) R-{-1}
(C R-{1} (D) R-{2}

123. The function f :    given by f ( x)  – | x –1| is

(A) continuous as well as differentiable at x = 1
(B) not continuous but differentiable at x = 1
(C) continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(D) neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1
124. If A is a 3×3 matrix such that | A | = 8, then |3A| equals
(A) 8 (B) 24
(C) 72 (D) 216
125. The maximum number of equivalence relations on the set A= {1,2,3) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5

126. lim5  x  is
x
2

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5/2 (D) 5

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 19

1
127. In the arithmetic progression – 3,  , 2, ..., the 111th term is
2

(A) 40 (B) – 12
(C) 22 (D) 42

 
128. If  and  are roots of x² + px + q = 0 then the value of 
 

p 2  2q 2q  p 2
(A) (B)
q q

( p 2  2q )
(C) (D) None of these
q

129. Let A = {x : x   , x < 10} and B = {x : x   , x > 9}

Then A  B equals to
(A) (9, 10] (B) (9, 10)
(C) [9, 10) (D) [9, 10]
130. At point x = 0, the function f (x) = | x | has
(A) Neither minimum nor maximum (B) A maxima
(C) Point of inflexion (D) A minima
3
d 2 y  dy 
131. The degree of the differential equation x 2 2
  x  y  is
dx  dx 
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 6
132. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
(A) Mean (B) Median
(C) Standard Deviation (D) Mode
133. If q is the inclination of a line from x-axis, then its slope is
(A) tan q (B) cot q
(C) cos q (D) sin q

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 20

134. Solution of the differential equation xdy – ydx = 0 represents a
(A) parabola (B) circle
(C) hyperbola (D) straight line
135. The point which does not lie in the half plane 2x + 3y – 12  0 is
(A) (1, 2) (B) (2, 1)
(C) (2, 3) (D) (–3, 2)
136. A die is thrown once. Let A be the event that the number obtained is greater than 3. Let
B be the event that the number obtained is less than 5. Then P( A  B) is

(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5
(C) 0 (D) 1
3
137.  x 2e x dx equals
1 x3 1 x4
(A) e C (B) e C
3 3

1 x3 1 x2
(C) e C (D) e C
2 2

138. If 16 Pr 1 : 15 Pr 1  16 : 7, then r is

(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 8 (D) 7

  1    
139. If a  b  | a | | b |, then the angle between a and b is
2

(A) 0° (B) 30°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
140. The number of tangents that can be drawn from (1,2) to the circle
x² + y² = 5 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) more than 2

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 21

MATHEMATICS-Part B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
141. The relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R= {(1, 2), (2, 1), (1, 1)} is
(A) Symmetric and transitive but not reflexive
(B) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(C) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
(D) An equivalence relation

 1, x  0

142. If g ( x)  1  x   x  and f ( x)   0, x  0 then for all x.
 1, x  0

f  g ( x)  is

(A) x (B) 1

(C) f ( x) (D) g (x)

If X and Y are two sets then X   X  Y  equals
C
143.

(A) X (B) Y
(C)  (D) None of these
144. The least value of n for which [(1 + i)/(1 – i)]n is real is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
145. If the roots of the equation px² + qx + 2 = 0 are reciprocals of each other, then
(A) p=0 (B) p = –2
(C) p = 2 (D) p=2
146. If the complex number z = x + iy satisfies the condition | z + 1 | = 1, then z lies on
(A) x-axis
(B) circle with centre (1,0) and radius 1
(C) circle with centre (–1, 0) and radius 1
(D) y-axis

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 22

147. If n Pr = 3024 and n Cr = 126, then n and r are

(A) 9, 4 (B) 10, 4
(C) 12, 3 (D) 11, 3
148. For every natural number k, which of the following statement is true?
(A) (mn)k = mknk (B) mkn = mnk
(C) (m + n)k = mk + nk (D) (m – n)k = mk – nk
149. The greatest coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x)10 is

10! 10!
(A) (B)
5!  5!  4!
10! 10!
(C) (D)
 5!
2
 4!  4!

150. The principal value of cot –1(– 3) is

 
(A)  (B)
6 6

2 5
(C) (D)
3 6

a dx 
151. If 0  , then the value of a is
1 4x 2
8
(A) 4 (B) 2

1 1
(C) (D)
2 4
 /8
152. 0
tan 2 (2 x ) dx is equal to

4 4
(A) (B)
8 8

4 4
(C) (D)
4 2

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 23

153. The interval in which the function f given by f (x) = x²e–x is strictly increasing is

(A)  ,   (B)  ,0 
(C)  2,  (D)  0, 2
154. An urn contains 6 balls of which two are red and four are black. Two balls are drawn at
random. Probability that they are of different colours is
(A) 2/5 (B) 1/15
(C) 8/15 (D) 4/15

155. If A and B are two events such that P ( A)  0.2, P ( B)  0.4 and P( A  B)  0.5 , then the
value of P(A/B) is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.08

2 3 2
156. If x x x  3  0, then the value of x is
4 9 1

(A) 3 (B) 0
(C) –1 (D) 1
157. If A [aij] is a 2 × 2 matrix where aij = i + j, then A is equal to

1 1  1 2 
(A) 2 2 (B) 1 2 
   

1 2 2 3
(C) 3 4  (D) 3 4
   

cos 2 – sin 2 
158. Inverse of the matrix  sin 2 cos 2  is
 

cos 2 – sin 2  cos 2 sin 2 
(A)  sin 2 cos 2  (B)  sin 2  cos 2 
   

 cos 2  sin 2   cos 2 sin 2 
(C)   sin 2 cos 2  (D)   sin 2 cos 2 
   

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 24

159. The existence of the unique solution of the system of equations

x+y+z= 

5x – y + z = 10

2x + 3y – z = 6

depends on

(A)  only (B)  only

(C) Both  and  (D) Neither  nor 

0 xa x b
160. If f ( x)  x  a 0 x  c , then
xb xc 0

(A) f (a )  0 (B) f (b)  0

(C) f (0)  0 (D) f (1)  0

161. If P(n) is a statement such that P (3) is true. Assuming P (k) is true implies P (k + 1) is
true for any integer k  3, then P(n) is true for

(A) For all n  N (B) For all n  3

(C) For all n  3 (D) For all n > 3

162. 1f f ( x )  
ax  3, x  2
a 2 x  1, x  2
, then the values of a for which f is continuous for all x are

(A) 1 and – 2 (B) 1 and 2

(C) –1 and 2 (D) –1 and –2

 e1/ x  1 
163. lim  1/ x  is
x 0 e
 1

(A) 1 (B) 0

(C) –1 (D) Does not exist

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 25

164. The maximum value of the slope of the curve y = – x3 + 3x2 + 12x – 5 is
(A) 15 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 0
165. The points of discontinuity of tan x are

(A) n, n  I

(B) 2n, n  I


(C)  2n  1 , n I
2
(D) None of these
166. The condition that f (x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d has no extreme value is
(A) b² > 3ac
(B) b² = 4ac
(C) b² = 3ac
(D) b2 < 3ac
167. If the first term of a geometric series is 20 and common ratio is 4, then the fifth term is
(A) 4020 (B) 10240
(C) 2560 (D) 5120

1 1
168. The sum of the series 1    ... upto 6th term is
2 4

63 32
(A) (B)
32 63

26 53
(C) (D)
53 26

5 x
d2y
169. If y  Ae  Be
5x
, then is equal to
dx 2
(A) 25y (B) 5y
(C) –25y (D) 15y

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 26

dy
170. If x3 is an integrating factor of the differential equation  Py  Q, then P can be
dx

1 3
(A) (B)
x x

2
(C) 3x (D)
x
dy
171. The solution of e dx  x, when x = 1 and y = 0 is

(A) y  x(log x  1)  4

(B) y  x(log x  1)  3

(C) y  x(log x  1)  2

(D) y  x(log x  1)  1

172. The value of p for which p(iˆ  ˆj  kˆ) is a unit vector is

1
(A) 0 (B)
3

(C) 1 (D) 3
173. The two lines x  ay  b, z  cy  d and x  ay  b, z  cy  d  are perpendicular to
each other, if
a c
(A)  1
a  c
a c
(B)   1
a c 
(C) aa  cc  1
(D) aa  cc  1
   
174. ABCD is a rhombus whose diagonal intersect at E, then EA  EB  EC  ED equals
 
(A) 0 (B) AD
 
(C) 2BC (D) 2AD

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 27

175. If the line 2x – y + a = 0 is a diameter of the circle x² + y² + 6x – 6y + 5 = 0 then a is
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 11 (D) 9
176. The distance of the point (2,3) from the line x + y = 1 is

(A) 2 (B) 2 2

(C) 4 2 (D) 3 2
 
177. If a = 4 and 3    2, then |  a | lies in

(A) [0, 12] (B) [2, 3]
(C) [8, 12] (D) (–12, 8]
178. In an ellipse the distance between the foci is 6 and its minor axis is 8 then its
eccentricity is

4 1
(A) (B)
5 52

3 1
(C) (D)
5 2

179. If the mean of the observations: x, 5, 6, 1, 2 is 4 then x is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 10
180. If  and  are the mean and standard deviation of the set of observations. If each
observation is increased by 5, let the new mean and standard deviation be 1 and 1 ,
then the correct option is

(A)   1 and   1 (B)   1 and   1

(C)   1 and   1 (D) 1  1 and   1

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 28

BIOLOGY-Part A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
121. Basic unit of classification is
(A) Species (B) Genus
(C) Family (D) Phylum
122. Aestivation is
(A) Arrangement of flowers
(B) Arrangement of sepals and petals in flower
(C) Arrangement of leaf on stem
(D) All of the above
123. Wood is
(A) Cambium (B) Phloem
(C) Primary xylem (D) Secondary xylem
124. The presence of large central vacuole and cell wall is the feature of
(A) Animal cell (B) Plant cell
(C) Bacteria (D) Virus
125. Polypeptide chain is made up of following monomer units
(A) Glucose (B) Fatty acids
(C) Amino acids (D) Nitrogenous bases
126. Plasmolysis occurs when cell is placed in
(A) Hypotonic solution
(B) Hypertonic solution
(C) Pure water
(D) Isotonic solution
127. Which of the following have the capacity to fix atmospheric Nitrogen (N 2)?
(A) Angiosperms
(B) Gymnosperms
(C) Bryophytes
(D) Blue Green Algae

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 29

128. Which of the following is considered as a compatible solute in plants?
(A) NaCl (B) Proline
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these
129. Cold treatment required to induce flowering in plants is called
(A) Vernalization
(B) Stratification
(C) Etiolation
(D) None of these
130. Which of the following ion plays major role in the stomatal movement?
(A) Fe++ (B) Na+
(C) K+ (D) Zn++
131. Shivering and sweating are body's way of regulating
(A) Temperature
(B) Water loss
(C) Growth
(D) Metabolism
132. What is the evolutionary benefit of light skin in the northern latitude?
(A) Skin cancer protection
(B) Folate protection
(C) Easier vitamin D production
(D) No evolutionary relationship
133. The chemicals that can cause cancer are called
(A) Neurotoxins (B) Carcinogens
(C) Cytotoxins (D) Poisons
134. Condyloid is an example of which type of joint?
(A) Cartilaginous (B) Synovial
(C) Fibrous (D) None of these

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 30

135. Which of the following will have the maximum heart beat rate?
(A) Human (B) Horse
(C) Elephant (D) Mouse
136. The nature of nerve impulse conduction is
(A) Mechanical (B) Thermal
(C) Electrochemical (D) Chemical
137. Replicate the following strand of DNA: AATCATGGA
(A) UUAGUACCU (B) TTAGTACCT
(C) AATCATGGA (D) GGATAUCUA
138. Following is the example of sex-linked inheritance
(A) Colour blindness (B) Haemophilia
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above
139. Great Himalayan national park and Pin Valley National park are situated at
(A) Kullu and Spitti (B) Lahaul and Shimla
(C) Mandi and Kangra (D) Chamba and Kullu
140. Pyramid of energy of an ecosystem will always be
(A) Upright (B) Inverted
(C) Spindle shaped (D) None of these

BIOLOGY-Part B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)

141. In five kingdom classification system, Monera includes
(A) All unicellular eukaryotes
(B) All prokaryotes
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 31

142. Which of the following is called as the amphibian of the plant kingdom?
(A) Algae (B) Bryophytes
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms
143. Lichens are
(A) Bryophytes
(B) Algae
(C) Fungi
(D) An association between algae and fungi
144. Which of the following is an example of "living fossil"?
(A) Gnetum (B) Ginkgo
(C) Pinus (D) Taxus
145. The largest phylum in the kingdom Animalia is
(A) Mollusca (B) Annelida
(C) Nematoda (D) Arthropoda
146 Canal system is present in phylum
(A) Porifera (B) Echinodermata
(C) Protozoa (D) Cnidaria
147. Which of the following is a vertebrate?
(A) Cuttle fish (B) Cray fish
(C) Trout fish (D) Silver fish
148. The edible part of Litchi is
(A) Ovary (B) Thalamus
(C) Aril (D) Cotyledons
149. Cotyledons are main food storing organ in which of the following
(A) Wheat (B) Maize
(C) Bean (D) Barley

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 32

150. Chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis was given by
(A) Robert Hill (B) Calvin
(C) Peter Mitchell (D) Levitt
151. ABA is an example of
(A) Plant Growth regulator
(B) A nti -transpi rant

(C) Pl ant stress hormone

(D ) A l l of the abov e

152. I n ti ssue cul ture ‘ Cal l us’ ref ers to

(A ) M ass of undi f f erenti ated cel l s

(B ) D i f f erenti ated cel l s

(C) Root f ormati on

(D ) Shoot f ormati on

153. Crossi ng ov er occurs betw een

(A ) N on-si ster chromati ds duri ng l eptotene

(B ) N on-si ster chromati ds duri ng Pachytene

(C) Si ster chromati ds duri ng Pachyteni e

(D ) Si ster chromati ds duri ng Z ygotene

154. T he tw o strands of D N A doubl e hel i x are attached to each other through

(A ) Cov al ent bond (B ) H ydrogen bond

(C) I oni c bond (D ) D i sul f i de bond

155. T he concept of Operon model w as gi ven by

(A ) H ershey and Chase

(B ) Jacob and M onod

(C) Ruben and K amen

(D ) L w af f and Went

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 33

156. What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
(A) Nitrogenous base
(B) Deoxyribose
(C) Phosphate
(D) All of above
157. Nobel Prize for the discovery of double helix of DNA molecule was awarded to
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Watson and Wilkins
(C) Wilkins and Crick
(D) Watson, Crick and Wilkins
158. Which of the following is a characteristics of smooth muscle cells?
(A) Voluntary (B) Striated
(C) Non-striated (D) Multinucleate
159. Which of the following is common to aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Krebs cycle
(C) Electron transport chain
(D) All of above
160. Starch is digested by
(A) Protease (B) Amylase
(C) Lipase (D) Catalase
161. Vermiform appendix is a part of
(A) Liver (B) Stomach
(C) Intestine (D) Rectum
162. One molecule of haemoglobin carries how many molecules of oxygen?
(A) Two (B) Four
(C) Six (D) Eight

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 34

163. The end product of ornithine cycle is
(A) Ammonia (B) Urea
(C) Uric acid (D) Ethanol
164. Osmoregulation is the function of
(A) Oxytocin (V) Prolactin
(C) Insulin (D) Vasopressin
165. Which of the following organelle helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum?
(A) Acrosome (B) Zona pellucida
(C) Glyoxysome (D) Ribosome
166. Which of the following process is related to ATP synthesis?
(A) Substrate level phosphorylation
(B) Photophosphorylation
(C) Oxidativephosphorylation
(D) All of these
167. Chiropterophily refers to
(A) Insect pollination (B) Bat pollination
(C) Water pollination (D) Air pollination
168. Which of the following is related to silk production?
(A) Silviculture (B) Tissue culture
(C) Sericulture (D) None of these
169. The theory of 'Natural selection' was given by?
(A) Lamarck (B) Darwin
(C) Wallace (D) Spencer
170. Homologous organs are
(A) Similar in origin but different in function
(B) Dissimilar in origin but similar in function
(C) Similar in structure and function
(D) Dissimilar in origin and function

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 35

171. Individual with Turner's syndrome is

(A) Normal male

(B) Normal female

(C) A male with rudimentary testis and underdeveloped penis

(D) A female with rudimentary ovaries and underdeveloped breasts

172. Which of the following study provides evidences in favour of biological evolution?

(A) Archaeology (B) Paleontology

(C) Phycology (D) Mycology

173. Non-sense codon codes for

(A) Proline (B) Lysine

(C) Tryptophan (D) None of these

174. The strength of linkage depends on the

(A) Distance between linked genes

(B) Length of chromosomes

(C) Size of genes

(D) None of these

175. Minamata disease is caused by

(A) Lead (B) Silver

(C) Mercury (D) Nitrogen

176. Heterocyst is a specialized cell present in

(A) Nostoc (B) Azolla

(C) Cycus (D) Pinus

177. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy are generally used to treat

(A) AIDS (B) Cancer

(C) Haemophilia (D) Tuberculosis

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 36

178. Which of the following gases cause Greenhouse effect?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) All of these
179. Golden rice is a genetically modified rice variety developed to overcome the
deficiency of dietary
(A) Protein (B) Iron
(C) Vitamin A (D) All of the above
180. Which of the following indicates the higher level of population threat status of a
species?
(A) Critically Endangered
(B) Endangered
(C) Vulnerable
(D) Low risk near threatened

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 37

Entrance Exams
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