HPCET 2024 Question Paper for B.Tech B.Pharmacy

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Common Entrance Examination-2024
(Admission for B. Tech/B. Pharmacy)
Time : 3:15 Hrs. Booklet No.
Maximum Marks : 600

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
1. Do not open the seal of the question booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. OMR answer-sheet will be supplied by the Centre Superintendent for answering the questions.
3. USE blue/black ink ball pen only to darken the appropriate circle/oval in the OMR answer-sheet.
No sophisticated pens are allowed.
4. Darken one circle/oval deeply for each question in the OMR answer-sheet, as faintly darkened
circle might be rejected by the scanner.
5. This question booklet contains 40 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator
on duty.
6. Out of total of 180 questions, 150 are to be attempted which shall carry 600 marks. All these
questions are of Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Each question has only one correct answer.
7. Examination Pattern: -
Subjects Section -A Section-B
(All 20 Questions are compulsory) (Attempt 30 Questions out of 40 Questions)
PHYSICS Question 1 to 20 Questions 21 to 60
CHEMISTRY Questions 61 to 80 Questions 81 to 120
MATHEMATCS/BIOLOGY Questions 121 to 140 Questions 141 to 180
8. a. Question 1 to 60 pertain to Physics, questions 61 to 120 pertain to Chemistry, questions 121
to 180 pertain to Mathematics or Biology and each question carries 4 marks. You are advised
to attempt questions from one subject, either Mathematics or Biology. The question belonging
to Physics and Chemistry subjects are compulsory for all. However, Mathematics is also
compulsory for B. Tech course.
b. For Section B (MCQs): Candidates need to attempt any 30 Questions out of 40 Questions given. In the
event of a candidate has attempted more than 30 questions, only the first 30 attempted questions will be
considered for evaluation.
9. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question booklet for rough work.
10. Do not fold the OMR answer-sheet and don’t put any mark on it to avoid rejection by the scanner.
11. Write your roll number carefully on the OMR answer-sheet and darken the appropriate circle/oval
properly.
12. Before opening the question booklet, fill-up the required information with blue/black ball pen
correctly both in the question booklet and the OMR answer-sheet.
13. Mobile phones/electronic devices etc. are not allowed inside the examination hall.
14. The question booklet may be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
15. Four (+4) marks shall be awarded for each correct answer and one (–1) mark shall be deducted
for each wrong answer. Un-answered/ un-marked question will be given no marks (0).
16. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a blue/black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration
Number

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 1

PHYSICS-Section A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
1. Number of Fundamental Forces in Nature are
(A) infinite (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
2. One Fermi unit is equal to
(A) 1015 m (B) 10–18 m
(C) 10–15 m (D) 1018 m
3. Water moves up a straw because of
(A) Capillary Action of water (B) Cohesion of water
(C) Adhesion of water (D) None of these
4. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does
(A) Negative work (B) positive but not maximum work
(C) No work at all (D) Maximum work
5. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) In elastic collisions, the momentum is conserved but not in inelastic collision.
(B) Both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved in inelastic as well as elastic
collision.
(C) Total kinetic energy is not conserved but momentum is conserved in inelastic
collision.
(D) Total kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collision but momentum is not
conserved in elastic collision.
6. When work of 1000 J is done in 2 seconds, the power utilized is
(A) 100 W (B) 200 W
(C) 500 W (D) 20 W
7. An object is placed at 0.06 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.10 m. The position
of image is
(A) 15 cm (B) –15 cm
(C) 4/15 m (D) –4/15 m

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 2

8. Velocity of light in liquid is 1.5×108 m/s and in air is 3×l08 m/s. If a ray of light passes
from liquid into air, the critical angle is
(A) 90° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 30°
9. Time taken by light to travel 10 cm thick glass of  = l.5 is
(A) 0.5×10–10 s (B) 5×10–10 s
(C) 50×10–10s (D) 0.05×10–10 s

10. Work done by force F(N)  2iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ on an object carried through a displacement of

10 ˆi  20 ˆj  5kˆ is

(A) 10 unit (B) 50 unit
(C) 100 unit (D) 200 unit
11. Ratio of angular speed of hour-hand of watch and earth’s rotation about its own axis is
(A) 1:2 (B) 1:0.2
(C) 2:1 (D) 0.2:1
12. Which of the following is non-conservative force?
(A) Coulomb Force (B) Gravitational Force
(C) Frictional Force (D) Magnetic Force
13. Force of attraction between two-point charges placed at a distance ‘d’ is ‘F’. What distance
apart should they be kept in the same medium so that force between them is F/3?
(A) 3d (B) 9d

(C) 3 (D) None of the above

14. A body is moving in a room with a velocity of 20 m/s perpendicular to the two walls
separated by 5 meters. There is no friction and the collision with the walls are elastic.
The motion of the body is
(A) Not periodic
(B) Periodic but not simple harmonic
(C) Periodic and simple harmonic
(D) Periodic with variable time period

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 3

15. The potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. at a distance x from the mean position
is proportional to
(A) x (B) x
(C) x2 (D) x3
16. The period of a simple pendulum is doubled when
(A) its length is doubled.
(B) the mass of the bob is doubled.
(C) its length is made four times.
(D) the mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum are doubled.
17. The angular velocity of seconds hand of a wrist watch will be
(A)  /60 rad / sec (B)  /30 rad / sec
(C) 60  rad / sec (D) 30  rad / sec
18. The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking when its length is reduced
to half of its original length, will
(A) be doubled
(B) be half
(C) be four times
(D) remain the same
19. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth and Saturn are gE and gS respectively. The
radius and mass of Saturn is twice as that of the Earth, the ratio of their acceleration
due to gravity is
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:2
(C) 1:4 (D) 4:1
20. Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of ariel velocity of a planet is a consequence
of the law of conservation of
(A) energy
(B) angular momentum
(C) linear momentum
(D) none of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 4

PHYSICS-Section B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
21. For red and violet light, the refractive index (  ) of the material of a prism is
(A) min. for red and max. for violet.
(B) min. for violet and max. for red.
(C) same for both.
(D) none of the above.
22. In Young double slit experiment, out of blue, red and yellow, the fringe width will be
maximum for
(A) Blue (B) Red
(C) Yellow (D) Same for all
23. A body executing S.H.M. has equation y = 0.30 sin (220 t + 0.64) in meter. Then the
frequency and maximum velocity of the body is
(A) 35Hz, 66m/s (B) 45Hz, 66m/s
(C) 58Hz, 113m/s (D) 35Hz, 132m/s
24. For a photosensitive material, the stopping potential is V s when illuminated with red
color of wavelength ~700nm. When the same material is illuminated with violet color of
wavelength ~400nm at constant intensity. The stopping potential will
(A) increase (B) decrease
(C) become zero (D) remain same.
25. Which of the following is true for standing waves?
(A) The disturbance is confined to a particular region between the starting point and
reflecting point of the wave.
(B) The amplitude of vibration of particles varies from zero at nodes to maximum at
antinodes.
(C) The total energy associated with a stationary wave is twice the energy of each of
incident and reflected wave. But there is no flow or transference of energy along
the stationary wave.
(D) All of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 5

26. An electric dipole of dipole moment 4×10–5 cm is placed in a uniform electric field of
10–3 NC–1 making an angle of 30° with the direction of field. The torque exerted by the
electric field on the dipole is
(A) 0.2×10–8 Nm (B) 2×10–10 Nm
(C) 2×10–8 Nm (D) 22×10–8 Nm
27. Work done in moving the test charge from one point of equipotential surface to other is
(A) infinite (  ) (B) zero
(C) unity (D) None of these
28. Magnitude of electric field E, in terms of magnitude of electric potential V is given by

dV dV
(A) E (B) E
dr dr

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
29. If potential difference across a capacitor is doubled, then what happens to charge of the
capacitor and energy stored in the capacitor?
(A) both charge and energy remain same.
(B) both charge and energy doubles.
(C) charge doubles but energy remains same.
(D) charge doubles while energy quadruples.
30. Two charges of magnitude –2Q and Q are located at points (a,0) and (4a,0), respectively.
The electric flux due to charges through a sphere of radius '3a' with its center at the
origin is

Q 3Q
(A)  (B) 
0 0

2Q 2Q
(C)  (D) 
3 0 0

31. A 12pF capacitor is connected to a 50V battery. The electrostatic energy stored in the
capacitor is
(A) 15×10–8 J (B) 0.15×10–8 J
(C) 1.5×10–10 J (D) 1.5×10–8 J

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 6

32. If ‘r’ is the radius of a conducting wire, then the resistance of the wire is proportional to

1 1
(A) (B)
r r2
(C) r2 (D) r
33. If the potential difference V applied across a conductor is doubled, then the drift velocity
of the electron will become
(A) double (B) half
(C) quadruple (D) None of the above
34. The color code for a resistor of resistance 3.5 k  with 5% tolerance is
(A) Red, Green, Red-gold
(B) Orange, Green, Red-silver
(C) Orange, Green, Red-gold
(D) Orange, yellow, Red-gold
35. If 0.6 mole of electrons flow through a wire in 50 minutes. The total charge that passes
through the wire is, (Avogadro's number =6×10 23 per mole)
(A) 5.76×105C, (B) 5.76×l06 C,
(C) 5.76×104 C, (D) 576×105 C.
36. The potential difference applied across a given resistor is altered so that the heat produced
per second increases by a factor of 9V. By what does the applied potential difference
change?
(A) By a factor of 2 (B) By a factor of 3
(C) By a factor of 4 (D) By a factor of ½
37. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12V. The internal resistance of the battery is
0.4  . What is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?
(A) 30 A (B) 3A
(C) 0.3 A (D) 0.03 A
38. Proton and electron are moving in same magnetic field 'B'. If R p and Re are the radii of
the circular paths followed by proton and electron, then
(A) Re<Rp (B) Re>Rp
(C) Re=Rp (D) None of these

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 7

39. What is not true about the poles of a magnet?
(A) poles exist always in pairs.
(B) poles of a magnet are always unlike.
(C) poles of a magnet are of equal strength.
(D) poles are situated a little outwards from the geometrical ends of magnet.
40. Torque acting on a magnet held at an angle  with a magnetic field is maximum, when
'  ='
(A) 0° (B) 180°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
41. Magnetic field strength due to a bar magnet at a point distant 'd' from the centre of
magnet is proportional to
(A) 1/d (B) d
(C) d3 (D) 1/d3
42. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is
(A) depletion of positive charges near the junction.
(B) concentration of positive charges near the junction.
(C) depletion of negative charges near the junction.
(D) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction.
43. On which factor does the average kinetic energy of gas molecules depends on?
(A) Nature of the gas (B) Temperature
(C) Volume (D) Mass
44. The Young's modulus of a wire of length ‘L’ and radius ‘r’ is ‘Y’. If length is reduced to
L/2 and radius r/2, then Young's modulus will be
(A) Y/2 (B) 4Y
(C) 2Y (D) Y
45. A transistor has three impurity regions. All the three regions have different doping levels.
In order of increasing doping level, the regions are
(A) emitter, base, and collector
(B) collector, base, and emitter
(C) base, emitter and collector
(D) base, collector and emitter

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 8

46. The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in Figure will be

(A) X A.B (B) X  A.B

(C) X  A.B (D) X  AB
47. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can
detect a signal of wavelength
(A) 5000 nm (B) 4000 nm
(C) 4000 Å (D) 6000 Å
48. With the rise in temperature, the electric resistance
(A) decreases for conductor but increases for semiconductor.
(B) increases for conductor but decreases for semiconductor.
(C) decreases for both conductors and semiconductors.
(D) increases for both conductors and semiconductors.
49. With an Increase in the area of hysteresis curve, power loss will
(A) First decrease and then increase
(B) First increase and then decrease
(C) Decrease
(D) Increase
50. If the wavelength (  ) of the radio signals is to be transmitted then the length of the
Hertz antenna is

(A)  (B) 2
(C)  /4 (D)  /2
51. Which of the following relation is true?
0.5Y  
(A) 3Y  K(1  ) (B) 


9Y
(C) K (D)    6K   Y
Y

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 9

52. A neutron decays into a proton, an electron and ...
(A) a beta-particle (B) an alpha-particle
(C) an antineutrino (D) a neutrino
53. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(A) molecules break up at high temperature.
(B) nuclei break up at high temperature.
(C) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei.
(D) atoms get ionized at high temperature.
54. A nucleus undergoes gamma decay due to
(A) excess of neutrons (B) excess of protons
(C) its excited state (D) large mass
55. Which of following are not emitted by radioactive substance?
(A) Protons (B) Electrons
(C) Gamma Rays (D) Helium Nuclei
56. Proton, Neutron, alpha-particle and beta-particle are moving with same speed, the de-
Broglie wavelength will be maximum for
(A) Proton (B) Neutron
(C) Alpha-particle (D) Beta-particle
57. According to de Broglie’s hypothesis, the wavelength of electron is
(A) directly proportional to velocity of particle.
(B) directly proportional to square of velocity of particle.
(C) inversely proportional to velocity of particle.
(D) inversely proportional to square of velocity of particle.
58. If in a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength or the incident radiation decreases from
500nm to 400nm, then
(A) stopping potential will increase.
(B) stopping potential will decrease.
(C) work function will increase.
(D) kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will decrease.

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 10

59. Which of the following materials has the highest hardness?
(A) Steel (B) Glass
(C) Diamond (D) Aluminum
60. Which of the following thermodynamical process is always irreversible?
(A) Infinitesimal Isothermal expansion
(B) Adiabatic compression
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Values
c velocity of light in vacuum 2.997 924 58 108 m/s
h Planck's constant 6.626 069  10 –34 J/s

 (=h/2  ) 1.054 571  10 –34 J/s
e electronic charge 1.602 176  10 –19 C
e electron magnetic moment –928.476 362  10 –26 J/T
B Bohr magneton 927.400 899  10 –26 J/T
N nuclear magneton 5.050 783 17  10–27 J/T
me electron mass 9.109 381 88  10 –31 kg
mp proton mass 1.672 621 58  10 –27 kg
mN neutron mass 1.674 927 16  10 –27 kg
kB Boltzmann's constant 1.380 650  10 –23 J/K
NA Avogadro's constant 6.022 142  1023
R molar gas constant N A  k B = 8.314 472 J/mol  K
F Faraday constant 96 485.3415 C/mol

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 11

CHEMISTRY-Section A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
61. Calculate the number of atoms in 52 g of He.
(A) 7.8286×1024 (B) 208
(C) 13 (D) 78.286×1031
62. Which of the following species does not show a disproportionation reaction?
(A) CIO– (B) CIO2–
(C) CIO3– (D) CIO4–
63. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy
was:
(A) phosgene (B) methylamine
(C) ammonia (D) methylisocyanate
64. If 10 volumes of dihydrogen gas react with five volumes of dioxygen gas, how many
volumes of water vapour would be produced?
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 5 (D) 25
65. Galvanization is applying a coating of
(A) Pb (B) Cr
(C) Cu (D) Zn
66. Which one of the following is not an ore of Fe?
(A) Haematite (B) Magnetite
(C) Siderite (D) Bauxite
67. Surface tension in SI units is expressed as;
(A) N cm–1 (B) J m–2
(C) N m–1 (D) J m–1
68. The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm –1. Calculate its
molar conductivity:
(A) 124 S cm2 mol–1 (B ) 248 S cm2 mol–1
(C) 12.4 S cm2 mol–1 (D ) 0.124 S cm2 mol–1

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 12

69. Which of the following will have the most negative electron gain enthalpy?
(A) P (B) S
(C) Cl (D) F
70. Root mean square speed, average speed and the most probable speed have the following
relationship:
(A) urms > uav > ump (B) urms < uav > ump
(C ) urms < uav < ump (D) urms > uav < ump
71. For the reaction A + 3B  C, the rate is given by R = [A] [B]3 then the order of the
reaction is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C ) 3 (D) 4
72. Which of the following hydrides are also called saline hydrides:
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(C) Metallic (D) None of the above
73. What is Boyle’s Law?
(A) At constant T and n; V  1/ p
(B) At constant p and n; V  T
(C) At constant p and T ; V  n
(D) At constant T and n; V  p
74. Rate of physisorption increases with:
(A) decrease in temperature (B) increase in temperature
(C) decrease in pressure (D) decrease in surface area
75. Atomic number of lanthanum is
(A) 47 (B) 57
(C ) 48 (D) 58
76. The group having isoelectronic species is :
(A) O2–, F–, Na+, Mg2+ (B) O–, F–, Na, Mg+
(C) O2–, F–, Na, Mg2– (D) O–, F–, Na+, Mg2+

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 13

77. The number of pi bonds in Peroxydisulphuric acid are:
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C ) 3 (D) 5
78. The noble gas which is most difficult to liquefy is:
(A) He (B) Ne
(C) Xe (D) Ar
79. CH3MgI is an organometallic compound due to:
(A) C—Mg bond (B) C—H bond
(C) Mg—I bond (D) C—I bond
80. Fire extinguishers contain H2SO4 and which one of the following:-
(A) CaCO3 (B) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
(C) Na2CO3 (D) NaHCO3

CHEMISTRY-Section B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
81. Give the number of electrons in the species: H2+, O2 and O2+ respectively :
(A) 1,16,15 (B) 0, 16, 15
(C) 0,15,16 (D) 1,15,16
82. Fluorobenzene (C6H5F) can be synthesised in the laboratory
(A) by heating phenol with HF and KF.
(B) from aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium salt with HBF 4.
(C) by direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas.
(D) by reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution.
83. Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct?
(A) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital.
(B) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital.
(C) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital.
(D) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy.

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 14

84. The maximum number of electrons in the shell with principal quantum number n is
equal to
(A) 2n2 (B) n2
(C) 2n3 (D) 2n
85. The gas evolved on heating CH3MgBr in methanol is
(A) methane (B) ethane
(C) propane (D) HBr
86. Shape of the molecule SF4 is :
(A) See-saw (B) Octahedral
(C ) Tetrahedral (D) T-shape
87. The total number of lone pairs in the molecule ClF 3 are :
(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) 5 (D) 2
88. Which of the following molecule is electron deficient?
(A) PH3 (B) B 2H 6
(C) CH4 (D) C 2H 6
89. Hybridization in the molecule XeF4 is:
(A) sp3 (B) sp3d
(C) sp3d2 (D) sp2
90. The correct sequence of increasing covalent characters is shown by :
(A) NaCl < LiCl <BeCl2 (B) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(C) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl (D) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
91. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs?
(A) H2O and alcohol (B) Cl2 and CCl4
(C) HCl and He atoms (D) SiF4 and He atoms
92. Choose the correct answer. A thermodynamic state function is a quantity :
(A) used to determine heat changes.
(B) whose value is independent of the path.
(C) used to determine pressure-volume work.
(D) whose value depends on temperature only.

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 15

93. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure
of 1 bar. The work done in kJ is:
(A) +10.0 (B) –9.0
(C) –12.0 (D) –0.9
94. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH in 450 mL solution in mol L –1
(A) 0.278 (B) 0.248
(C) 2.78 (D) 0.5
95. According to Raoult’s Law, which statement is correct about Chloroform and Acetone
mixture:
(A) It will show a negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(B) It will show a positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(C) There will be no deviation.
(D) Firstly it will show a negative deviation then will show a positive deviation.
96. Which of the following is not an antacid?
(A) Histamine (B) Cimetidine
(C) Rantidine (D) Aspirin
97. The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding
equilibrium constant Kc is
(A)  G = RT ln Kc (B) –  G = RT ln Kc
(C)  G° = RT ln Kc (D) –  G° = RT ln Kc
98. Which one of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the compound?

(A) 1-Chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene (B) l,3-Dinitro-6-chloro-benzene
(C) 2-Chloro-l, 5-dinitrobenzene (D) 4-Chloro-1,3-dinitrobenzene
99. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron, free radicals are
(A) Chemically reactive (B) Chemically inactive
(C) Anions (D) Cations

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 16

100. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde as one of the products. This
confirms the presence of:-
(A) an isopropyl group (B) an acetylenic triple bond
(C) two ethylenic double bonds (D) a vinyl group
101. In the Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the Prussian blue colour is
obtained due to the formation of:
(A) Na4 [Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(C) Fe2 [Fe(CN)6] (D) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]4
102. What is DDT among the following?
(A) A fertilizer (B) Biodegradable pollutant
(C) Non-biodegradable pollutant (D) Greenhouse gas
103. Ingestion of even small quantities of which alcohol can cause blindness?
(A) Methanol (B) Ethanol
(C) Propanol (D) Butan-1-ol
104. The term anomers of glucose refer to
(A) isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four
(C-l and C-4).
(B) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose.
(C) enantiomers of glucose.
(D) isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1).
105. The total number of lone-pair of electrons in melamine is:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
106. Colour shown by the Mn2+ (aquated) ion is:
(A) Pink (B) Yellow
(C) Blue (D) Green
107. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(A) Zr and Y have about the same radius.
(B) Zr and Nb have a similar oxidation state.
(C) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state.
(D) Zr and Hf have about the same radius.

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 17

108. Among the following acids which have the lowest pK a value?
(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOH
(C) (CH3)2COOH (D) CH3CH2COOH
109. How many ions are produced from the complex Co(NH 3)Cl2 in the solution?
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
110. [Co(NH3)5 (SO4)] Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 are:
(A) Linkage isomers (B) Coordination isomers
(C) Ionisation isomers (D) Solvate isomers
111. Which one of the following block elements is called a Representative element?
(A) s- block (B) p- block
(C) d- block (D) f- block
112. The value of the Rydberg constant is :
(A) 109,677 cm–1 (B) 107,799 cm–1
(C) 103,677 cm–1 (D) 103,699 cm–1
113. Which one of the following elements has the lowest first ionisation enthalpy?
(A) Li (B) Na
(C) K (D) Cs
114. Identify the correct order of acidic strength of CO 2, CuO, CaO, and H2O.
(A) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2
(B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2
(D) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
115. Which of the following is a fully fluorinated polymer?
(A) Neoprene (B) Teflon
(C) Thiokol (D) PVC
116. The hybridization and Magnetic behaviour of [Co(NH3)6]3+ is :
(A) d2sp3 and paramagnetic (B) d2sp3 and diamagnetic
(C) sp3d2 and paramagnetic (D) sp3d2 and diamagnetic

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 18

117. The number of unpaired electrons in the highest occupied molecular orbital of N 2 is/are:
(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) 3
118. Biuret test is not given by:-
(A) proteins (B) carbohydrates
(C) polypeptides (D) urea
119. Which one of the following is the most abundant element of the universe?
(A H2 (B) O2
(C) C (D) Fe
120. Dihedral angle in the structure of H 2O2(gas phase) approx. is :
(A) ~ 111° (B) ~120°
(C) ~ 60° (D) ~ 90°

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 19

MATHEMATICS-Section A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
121. 0 + 0i is..................................for complex number z.
(A) additive inverse
(B) additive identity element
(C) multiplicative identity element
(D) multiplicative inverse
122. The relation R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1 ,3)} on the set A={ 1,2,3} is
(A) reflexive, transitive but not symmetric.
(B) reflexive but not transitive.
(C) symmetric and transitive.
(D) neither symmetric nor transitive.
123. If f(x) = x2 + 2, x   then the range of f(x) is
(A) [2,  ) (B) (–  , 2]
(C) (2,  ) (D) (–  , 2)  (2,  )
124. If 2nC3 : nC3 = 9 : 1, then n is
(A) 7 (B) 28
(C) 14 (D) 32

 /2 x
125. 0
| cos
2
| dx is

(A) 1 (B) –2

(C) 2 (D) 0
126. Value that divides the series into hundred equal parts is called
(A) percentile (B) quartile
(C) decile (D) octile
127. An unbiased coin is tossed four times. The probability of getting at least one head is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/8
(C) 15/16 (D) 1/16

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 20

128. Which of the below conditions is incorrect for the inverse of the matrix A
(A) The matrix A must be a square matrix.
(B) adj A  0.
(C) A must be a non-singular matrix.
(D) A must be a singular matrix.
129. If a, b and c are in arithmetic progression then
(A) b=a+c (B) 2b = a + c
(C) b2 = a + c (D) 2b2 = a + c
130. If the two lines 3x + 4y = 8 and lx + my = n are perpendicular then which of the following
is true?
(A) 3m + 4l = 0 (B) 3m – 4l = 0
(C) 3l – 4m = 0 (D) 3l + 4m = 0
131. The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (–2,8,7) on the
XZ-plane is
(A) (–2,–8,7) (B) (2,8,–7)
(C) (–2,0,7) (D) (0,8,0)
132. The vector equation of XY-plane is
ˆ ˆ
(A) r.i  0 (B) r.j  0

(C) ˆ (D) 
r.k  0 r.nˆ  0
133. The sum of the deviations taken away from the mean is
(A) always equal to 0 (B) never equals to 0
(C) sometimes equal to 0 (D) none of the above

134. 
ax, x  
The value of a so that the function f defined by f(x) = cos x, x   is continuous at
x =  is

1 1
(A) (B) 
 

2 2
(C) (D) 
 

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 21

135. If a circle pass through (2,0) and (0,4) with centre at x-axis then the radius of the circle
is
(A) 25 units
(B) 5 units
(C) 21 units
(D) 8 units
136. The value of x for which the points (1,3), (–2,9) and (x,–1) are collinear is
(A) -3 (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) –l

3 x 5 3
137. If 2 2 
x 3 2 then x is

1 1
(A) 1,  (B) 1, 
3 3

1 1
(C) 1, (D) 1,
3 3

 1  cos 2 x 
138. lim   is
x  1  cos 2 x
 

(A) 3/2 (B) 1
(C) 3/4 (D) 3/8
139. If the parabola y2 = 4ax passes through the point (3,2) then the length of the latus rectum
is
(A) 2/3 (B) 4/3
(C) 1/3 (D) 4
140. The connective in the statement: 2 + 7 > 9 or 2 + 7 < 9 is
(A) and (B) or
(C) > (D) <

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 22

MATHEMATICS-Section B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
141. If R is a relation on a finite set A having n elements, then the number of relations on A is

(A) 2n (B)
2
2n
(C) n2 (D) nn
142. If [x]2 – 5 [x] + 6 = 0, where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function, then
(A) x  [3,4] (B) x  (2,3]
(C) x  [2,3] (D) x  [2,4)
143. The domain of the function f(x) = x/(x2 + 3x + 2) is
(A) [–2,–1] (B) R – {1, 2}
(C) R – {–1, –2} (D) R – {2}

1 1 1
144. If ,  and  are the zeros of x3 + px2 + qx + r, then   is
  
q p
(A)  (B) 
r r
q q
(C) (D) 
r p

145. The polynomial x3– kx2 + 9x has three real zeros if and only if k satisfies
(A) |k|  6 (B) k=0
(C) |k| > 6 (D) |k|  6
146. If [(1 + i)/( 1 – i)]x = 1, then
(A) x = 2n + 1, where n  N
(B) x = 4n, where n  N
(C) x = 2n, where n  N
(D) x = 4n + 1, where n  N
147. If , 14Cr= 14 and 15Cr=15, then 14 Cr –1 is

(A) 14 (B) 3
(C) 15 (D) 1

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 23

148. If xn – 1 is divisible by x – k. then the least positive integral value of k is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
149. The coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of (2+3x) 4 is:
(A) 5! (B) 6
(C) 216 (D) 8!
150. The number of points of discontinuity of the function f(x) = | x | – | x — 1| is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

 3 
151. The value of sin–1  cos  is
 5 

 
(A) – (B)
10 10

3 3
(C) (D) 
5 5

1 2
152. The area bounded by the curve y  x , the X-axis and the ordinate x = 2 is
2
1 2
(A) sq units (B) sq units
3 3
4
(C) 1 sq units (D) sq units
3

153. If  sec2(7 – 4x)dx = a tan (7 – 4x) + C, then value of a is

1
(A) –4 (B) 
4
(C) 3 (D) 7
154. The value of b for which the function f(x) = x + cos x + b is strictly decreasing is
(A) b<1 (B) no value of b exists
(C) b 1 (D) b 1

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 24

155. If A and B are two independent events, then
(A) P(A  B) = P(A) × P(B)

(B) P(AB) = 1 – P(A')P(B')
(C) P(AB) = 1 + P(A')P(B')

P(A)
(D) P(AB) 
P(B)

156. A pair of dice is rolled. The probability of obtaining an even number on each die is
(A) 1/36 (B) 1/12
(C) 0 (D) 1/6
157. The range of the relation R = {(x, x2) | x is a prime number less than 13} is
(A) {2,3,5,7}
(B) {2,3,5,7,11}
(C) {4,9,25,49,121}
(D) {1,4,9,25,49,121}
158. If A is a non-singular square matrix of order 3 such that A2 = 3A, then the value of |A| is
(A) –3 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) 27
159. If the equations 2x + 3y + z = 0, 3x + y – 2z = 0 and ax + 2y – bz = 0 has non-trivial
solution, then
(A) a+b=3 (B) a+b+1=0
(C) a–b–8=0 (D) a–b=2
160. If A and B are two square matrices such that AB = O then
(A) det A = 0 or det B = 0 (B) det B =0
(C) det A = 0 (D) B = A–1

x 1 x x
161. If f(x) = x x 1 x  0, then x is
x x x 1

(A) 1/5 (B) –1/5
(C) 1/3 (D) –1/3

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 25

5
 2 c
162. The coefficient of y in the expansion of  y   is
 y

(A) 10 c2 (B) 10 c
(C) 10 (D) 10 c3

 x
 ,x0
163. The point(s) at which the function f(x)   | x | , is continuous is/are
 1, x  0

(A) xR (B) x=0
(C) x  R – {0} (D) x = 1, –1

x
164. lim is
x 0 | x |

(A) 1 (B) 0
(C) –1 (D) does not exist
165. The value of c in Rolle’s theorem for the function. f(x) = sin 2x in [0,  /2]

 
(A) (B)
4 6

 
(C) (D)
3 2
166. The set of points where the function f(x) = |2x –1| sin x is differentiable is
(A) R (B) R – {l/2}
(C) (0,  ) (D) None of these

d2 y
167. If x = a sin  and y = b cos  , then is
dx 2
a b
(A) 2
sec2  (B) sec 2 
b a

b b
(C) 2
sec3  (D)  2
sec3 
a a

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 26

168. In a G.P., 5th term is 27 and 8th term is 729, then its 11th term is
(A) 729 (B) 2187
(C) 6561 (D) 19683
169. If the nth term of an arithmetic progression is 3n – 4, then the 10th term of an A.P is
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 22 (D) 26

dy 2
170. The order and degree of the differential equation y  x  are
dx dy
dx

(A) 1,2 (B) 1,3
(C) 2,1 (D) 1,1

dy
171. The general solution of the differential equation  e y  e x  e  x  2x  is
dx
(A) e–y = ex – e–x + x2 + C
(B) e–y = e–x – ex – x2 + C
(C) e–y = –e–x – ex – x2 + C
(D) ey = ex + e–x + x2 + C

dy 3x 2 y sin 2 x
172. Integrating factor of the differential equation   is
dx 1  x 3 1  x
3
(A) e1 x (B) log (1 + x3)

1
(C) 1 + x3 (D)
1  x3
173. The general solution of the differential equation ydx = (y – x)dy is

y y c
(A) x (B) x 
2 2 y

x c x
(C) y  (D) y
2 x 2

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 27

174. y = aemx + be–mx satisfies the differential equation
dy dy
(A)  my  0 (B)  my  0
dx dx

d2 y d2 y
(C) 2
 m2 y  0 (D) 2
 m2 y  0
dx dx
175. A vector in the direction of the vector 5iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ with magnitude of 8 units is
40 ˆ 8 ˆ 16 ˆ 40 ˆ 8 ˆ 16 ˆ
(A) i j k (B) i j k
30 30 30 30 30 30

40 ˆ 8 ˆ 16 ˆ 40 ˆ 8 ˆ 16 ˆ
(C)  i j k (D) i j k
30 30 30 30 30 30
176. If the direction cosines of the line are k/3, k/3, k/3, then value of k is
(A) k>0 (B) 0< k<1
(C) k=  3 (D) k = 1/3
177. If the length of the major axis of an ellipse is three times the length of the minor axis
then its eccentricity is
1 1
(A) (B)
3 3
1 2 2
(C) (D)
2 3
178. The mode and mean are given by 5 and 6, respectively. Then the median is
(A) 17/3 (B) 13/3
(C) 23/3 (D) 33
179. If the standard deviation of a, b and c is t, then the standard deviation of
a + 6, b + 6 and c + 6 is
(A) t (B) t+6
(C) a+b+c (D) 6t
180. Which of the following is not a negative of the statement
“A natural number is greater than zero.”?
(A) A natural number is not greater than zero.
(B) It is false that a natural number is greater than zero.
(C) It is false that a natural number is not greater than zero.
(D) None of these

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 28

BIOLOGY–Section A
(Attempt all 20 Questions Compulsory)
121. Binomial nomenclature consists of
(A) Family and genus
(B) Family and order
(C) Genus and species
(D) Species and variety
122. The part of cauliflower, which we consume is
(A) Leaf (B) Stem
(C) Flower (D) Inflorescence
123. Which of the following is the most abundant tissue of the body?
(A) Connective (B) Muscular
(C) Epithelial (D) Nervous
124. Centrosomes are present in
(A) Animal cells
(B) Plant cells
(C) Both Animal and Plant cells
(D) None of these
125. Which of the following organelle is involved in detoxification of drugs and poisons?
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Mitochondria
126. All enzymes are proteins, except
(A) Lipases (B) Ribozymes
(C) Proteases (D) Amylase
127. Which of the following nitrogenous bases belong to pyrimidines?
(A) Cytosine (B) Thymine
(C) Uracil (D) All of these

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 29

128. Dark reaction of photosynthesis in C3 plants help in the synthesis of
(A) ATP (B) NADPH2
(C) O2 (D) PGA
129. Seed dormancy is caused by
(A) GA (B) ABA
(C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene
130. Guttation occurs through
(A) Lenticels (B) Epidermis
(C) Stomata (D) Hydathodes
131. Cardiac muscle is
(A) Voluntary and Striated
(B) Involuntary and striated
(C) Multinucleate and non-striated
(D) Voluntary and non-striated
132. The main function of melanin is to
(A) make the skin to be cooler.
(B) increase the amount of blood vessels.
(C) strengthen the skin.
(D) absorb harmful radiations.
133. Example of a Ball and Socket joint are found in the
(A) Finger (B) Knee
(C) Hip (D) Ankle
134. Appetite centre is situated in
(A) Stomach (B) Spinal cord
(C) Cerebrum (D) Hypothalamus

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 30

135. The rate of breathing in adult human is

(A) 10-12/min (B) 14-18/min
(C) 20-25/min (D) 25-30/min
136. Henle’s loop is found in
(A) Liver (B) Heart
(C) Lungs (D) Kidney
137. Transcription of the following DNA sequence AATCATGGA will lead to
(A) UUAGUACCU (B) TTAGTACCT
(C) AATCATGGA (D) GGATAUCUA
138. Typhoid is a
(A) Bacterial disease (B) Viral disease
(C) Fungal disease (D) None of the above
139. Bt-cotton is a genetically modified cotton variety having resistance against
(A) Insect-pest (B) Bacteria
(C) Virus (D) Draught
140. Which of the following area is a part of “Rain shadow" zone in Himachal?
(A) Shimla (B) Hamirpur
(C) Kullu (D) Lahaul-Spitti

BIOLOGY–Section B
(Attempt any 30 Questions)
141. The word ’Systematics’ was coined by
(A) Linnaeus (B) Lamarck
(C) Cuvier (D) Aristotle
142. Phycology deals with the study of
(A) Algae (B) Fungi
(C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 31

143. Reindeer moss is a
(A) Lichen (B) Bryophyte
(C) Algae (D) Fungi
144. The following structure is present in all the chordates
(A) Cranium (B) Vertebral column
(C) Spinal cord (D) Notochord
145. The fruit of Pineapple is
(A) Berry (B) Sorosis
(C) Drupe (D) Pepo
146. Tunica corpus theory was proposed by
(A) Schmidt (B) Nageli
(C) Hanstein (D) Hofmeister
147. The packaging of protein takes place in
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Mitochondria
148. Which of the following will have high melting point?
(A) Unsaturated fatty acids
(B) Saturated fatty acids
(C) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
(D) Both A and C
149. Taq DNA polymerase isolated from Thermus aquaticus can tolerate
(A) Extreme acidic pH (B) Extreme alkaline pH
(C) High temperature (D) All of these
150. The number of mitotic divisions required to produce 256 cells from a single cell is
(A) 6 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 32

151. The main significance of crossing over is that
(A) it increases the chromosome number.
(B) it provides vigour to the plants.
(C) it produces variation for the natural selection.
(D) None of these.
152. The release of Oxygen molecule during photosynthesis is due to
(A) Photolysis of H2O
(B) Reduction of CO2
(C) Oxidation of glucose
(D) None of these
153. The first plant hormone to be discovered was
(A) Auxin (B) GA
(C) CK (D) ABA
154. The highest value of water potential can be
(A) 100 (B) 10
(C) 1 (D) 0
155. The enzyme responsible for biological nitrogen fixation is
(A) Amylase (B) Catalase
(C) Urease (D) Nitrogenase
156. Which of the following molecule is responsible for the germination of lettuce seeds in
the presence of light only?
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Phytochrome
(C) Cytokinin
(D) ABA
157. Potometer is used to measure rate of
(A) Transpiration
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Respiration
(D) All of above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 33

158. Seeds exhibit vivipary due to
(A) Lack of dormancy
(B) Reduced ABA concentration
(C) High GA concentration
(D) All of these
159. Opening of stomata depends on
(A) influx of K+ (B) efflux of K+
(C) influx of Na+ (D) efflux of Na+
160. Which of the following is a characteristics of skeletal muscle cells?
(A) Voluntary
(B) Striated
(C) Multinucleate
(D) All of above
161. Which of the following are part of integumentary system?
(A) Hair, skin, bones
(B) Hair, skin, nails
(C) Muscles, skeleton, bone marrow
(D) Brain, spinal cord, nerves
162. Angina pectoris is related to
(A) Bone disease
(B) Heart problem
(C) Lung disease
(D) Nerve impulse
163. A progressive loss of brain function with major consequences for memory, thinking and
behaviour lead to
(A) Epilepsy
(B) Sclerosis
(C) Dementia
(D) Alzheimer’s disease

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 34

164. Nodes of Ranvier is associated with
(A) Circulatory system
(B) Immune system
(C) Excretory system
(D) Nervous system
165. Tendon connects
(A) Muscle to bone (B) Bone to bone
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these
166. Liver store glucose in the form of
(A) Starch (B) Protein
(C) Lipid (D) Glycogen
167. What prevents clotting of blood inside blood vessels?
(A) Heparin (B) Fibrinogen
(C) Serotonin (D) Thrombin
168. Functional unit of kidney is
(A) Nephron
(B) Neuron
(C) Loop of Henle
(D) Bowman's capsule
169. Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
(A) Double helix
(B) Made of amino acids
(C) Contains uracil
(D) Contains ribose
170. Analogous organs are
(A) similar in origin but different in function.
(B) dissimilar in origin but similar in function.
(C) similar in structure and function.
(D) dissimilar in origin and function.

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 35

171. When both dominant and recessive alleles equally express in the hybrid, the phenomenon
is known as
(A) Complete dominance
(B) Incomplete dominance
(C) Codominance
(D) Epistasis
172. Histone proteins are associated with
(A) Packaging of DNA
(B) Packaging of RNA
(C) Folding of Proteins
(D) All of these
173. Which of the following is a start codon?
(A) UAA (B) AUG
(C) UGA (D) All of these
174. Rickets and Kwashiorkor are
(A) Deficiency disease
(B) Hereditary disease
(C) Infectious disease
(D) Communicable disease
175. Dengue is caused by ............................ and transmitted by ...................
(A) Plasmodium and mosquito
(B) Bacteria and mosquito
(C) Virus and mosquito
(D) Fungi and Tse tse fly
176. Ozone layer depletion is caused by
(A) Chlorofluorocarbons
(B) Hydrochlorofluorocarbon
(C) Carbon tetrachloride
(D) All of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 36

177. Which of the following is a modification of leaf petiole?
(A) Cladode
(B) Phyllode
(C) Rhizome
(D) Stolon
178. Which of the following is used as biofertilizer?
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Mycorrhizal fungi
(C) Blue Green Algae
(D) All of these
179. Pyramid of biomass of a grassland ecosystem will be
(A) Upright
(B) Inverted
(C) Spindle shaped
(D) All of the above
180. Which of the following term used to indicate threatened population status of a
species?
(A) Critically Endangered
(B) Endangered
(C) Vulnerable
(D) All of the above

(B.TECH. / B. PHARMACY) 37

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