NBSE Class 9 Question Paper 2023-24 Phase 2

NAGALAND BOARD

QUESTION
PAPER
2024

Total number of printed pages: 4 NB-N/E/1
2023 - 24
CLASS – IX (Phase II )
ENGLISH
Total marks : 40 Time : 1½hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 11 questions, divided into four sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option(s) being
attempted.
v) Alternate question for the visually impaired has been provided in question no.8.
ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate question
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given:
Attempt any one of the following. 1
(a) But we will consider your offer. For we know that if we do not sell, the white man
may come with guns and take our land.(A Simple Philosophy)
Which literary device has been used in the above statement?
i. sarcasm ii. metaphor
iii. simile iv. personification
(b) This lunatic, in letting Scrooge’s nephew out, had let two other people in.
Who is ‘this lunatic’?
i. Scrooge ii. Fred
iii. Bob Cratchit iv.The portly gentleman
2. How does the author explain man’s relationship with his environment? (A Simple
Philosophy) 3
3. According to you, which of the three ghosts affected Scrooge the most and why? 3

4. Answer either 4(i) or 4(ii) or 4 (iii) 5
(i) Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:

I’d like to build the world a home
And furnish it with love.
Grow apple trees and honey bees
And snow white turtle doves

(a) Why does the poet compare the world to a home? (1)
(b) What does the world of the poet’s dreams look like? (2)
(c) What do snow white turtle doves represent? (1)
(d) Give the rhyme scheme of the given stanza. (1)

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(ii) Give the summary of the poem, ‘Lord Ullin’s daughter’. (5)

(iii) (a) Do you think the child of the mother’s dreams and the reality are different?
Give reasons for your answer.
Or (5)
(b) ‘The Echoing Green’ is a portrayal of the cycle of human life. Justify.

SECTION - B (Reading)
5. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

(1) Once an organ donor's family gives its consent and the organs are matched to a
recipient, medical professionals are faced with the onerous challenge of transporting
organs while ensuring that the harvested organ reaches its destination in the shortest
possible time. This is done in order to preserve the harvested organs and involves the
police and especially the traffic police department.
(2) The traditional method of transporting organs by road is referred to as a "green
corridor". The first green corridor in India was created by Chennai Traffic Police in
September 2008, when they accomplished their task of enabling an ambulance to
reach its destination within 11 minutes during peak hour traffic. That organ saved a
nine-year-old girl whose life depended on the transplant. Similarly, such green
corridors have been created by traffic police of various cities such as Pune, Mumbai,
Delhi, etc.
(3) Experts point out the lack of a robust system to transport organs to super-speciality
hospitals in least possible time. National Organ & Tissue Transplant Organisation
(NOTTO), the country’s apex organ donation agency, is now framing a proposal to
airlift cadaver organs and will send a report to the Union Health Ministry. “Cadaver
organs have a short life and so transplant should be done within a few golden hours.”
Director (NOTTO) expressed, “Therefore, we are preparing a proposal for airlifting
organs at any given moment.”
(4) Most states do not have enough well-trained experts to retrieve or perform
transplant procedures. Also, there is an acute shortage of advanced healthcare
facilities to carry out a transplant. So, it is referred to other big centres in metropolitan
cities. Organs retrieved from Aurangabad, Indore, Surat, Pune are sent to the Mumbai
as these cities do not have super-speciality healthcare centres, informed officials.
(5) “In India, about fifty thousand to one lakh patients are suffering from acute heart
failure and need heart transplant at any point of time. In a private set-up, a heart
transplant costs Rs. 15-20 lakhs which is followed up by postoperative medications
of about Rs.30,000/- per month lifelong”. Moreover, the risk factor is also a great
hindrance.
(i) Answer the following questions:
(a) When and where was the first ‘green corridor’ created in India? 1
(b) What is the proposal framed by NOTTO for the transportation
of organs? 2
(c) Why do most states refer organ transplant cases to big hospitals? 2

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(ii) Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
(a) The onerous task that the author is talking about in paragraph 1
is_________.
i. finding organ donors
ii. finding doctors capable of performing transplants
iii. to carry the harvested organ in the shortest possible time
iv. to arrange the requisite facilities for the transplant
(b) How much does a heart transplant cost a patient in a private hospital?
(Paragraph 5)
i. Rs.15-20 lakhs ii. Rs. 18-20 lakhs
iii. Rs.20-25 lakhs iv. None of these
(c) ‘Green corridor’ is the traditional method of transporting organs
by_________. (Paragraph 2)
i. airlift ii. Chennai police
iii. NOTTO iv. road

6. Read the poem carefully and answer the following questions:
Song of a Dream
Once in the dream of a night I stood
Lone in the light of a magical wood,
Soul-deep in visions that poppy-like sprang;
And spirits of Truth were the birds that sang,
And spirits of Love were the stars that glowed,
And spirits of Peace were the streams that flowed
In that magical wood in the land of sleep.
Lone in the light of that magical grove,
I felt the stars of the spirits of Love
Gather and gleam round my delicate youth,
And I heard the song of the spirits of Truth;
To quench my longing I bent me low
By the streams of the spirits of Peace that flow
In that magical wood in the land of sleep.
(Sarojini Naidu)
(i) Choose the correct rhyme scheme of the poem in the first stanza. 1
(a) abcabcd (b) aabbccd
(c) ababccd (d) abbaccd

(ii) Fill in the blanks to complete the summary of the poem: 6x½=3
The poet sings about dream of being ________ on a mystical wood. Her soul
was immersed in deep ________ that sprang like poppies. She then meets the
spirits of truth who sang, the spirit of love who _________ and the spirit of
peace that flowed like streams. She experiences the stars of spirit of love
_________ and gleaming around her ________ youth. She then, says about

an extreme thirst for truth which she quenches by drinking from the streams
of spirits of _________.

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SECTION -C (Writing)

7. Write a paragraph in about 50-80 words on ‘Benefits of Drinking Water’: 4

most essential – needed for survival – keeps the body hydrated – prevents
numerous health issues – glowing skin – live healthy and prosperous life.

8. Based on the visual input given below, write on ‘Substance abuse’ in about 100-150
words: 5

Alternate question for the visually impaired students. ONLY the visually
impaired students should attempt this question.
Based on the inputs given below, write on ‘Eat Right, Eat Smart’ in about 100-150
words.
Right choice of food – healthy lifestyle – fresh mind – good health – less expenses-
good for health – happy and healthy life.

SECTION- D (Grammar)
9. State the tense of the given sentences: 2x1=2
(a) Samuel asked if I had read Harry Potter.
(b) Will Moa’s friends have arrived by 4 O’clock?
10. Rewrite the given sentences as directed: 2x1=2
(a) The boy ran away, leaving behind the books. (Underline the phrase)
(b) ______ is not the truth. (Complete the sentence with a noun clause)
11. Rewrite the sentences as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
(a) The students were writing the exam when I reached the hall. (Change the voice)
(b) The child greeted the visitor. (Underline the verb and state whether it is transitive
or intransitive)
(c) He told me that I had to go to school. (Change the narration)

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Total number of printed pages : 4 NB-N/SS/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
SOCIAL SCIENCES
Total marks : 40 Time : 1½ hours

General instructions :
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 10 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) What was the ‘historic blunder’ committed by Hitler? 1
(i) Invasion of Poland (ii) Invasion of Soviet Union
(iii) Invasion of France (iv) Invasion of Norway

(b) Founder of Pakistan, also called “Qaid-i-Azam” or “The Great Leader”.
Identify the person. 1

(i) Maulana Azad (ii) Agha Khan
(iii) M.A. Jinnah (iv) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

Note : This question is in lieu of Q 1.(b) for visually impaired candidates only
(b) When was Bengal partitioned? (1)
(i) 1905 (ii) 1906
(iii) 1907 (iv) 1908

(c) The river Narmada has its source at 1
(i) Satpura (ii) Brahmagiri
(iii) Slopes of the Western Ghats (iv) Amarkantak

(d) Cacti, acacia, palms and euphorbias are the main plant species of which
type of vegetation? 1
(i) Rainforests (ii) Deciduous forests

(iii) Thorn forest and scrubs (iv) Alpine and Tundra grasslands

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(e) How many biosphere reserves are there in India? 1
(i) 16 (ii) 18
(iii) 20 (iv) 22

(f) By which colour, water bodies like oceans, seas, lakes are shown on a map? 1
(i) Blue (ii) Yellow
(iii) White (iv) Green

(g) The minimum age required to be eligible as a Member of Lok Sabha is 1
(i) 18 years (ii) 20 years
(iii) 25 years (iv) 30 years

(h) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding a Money Bill? 1
(i) It concerns the finance of the country
(ii) A Money Bill is introduced only in the Lok Sabha
(iii) The government cannot spend a rupee without the sanction of the Lok Sabha
(iv) The Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.

Answer the questions in about 20-30 words:

2. How did the Enabling Act make Hitler a dictator? 2

3.a. Give any two characteristics of Himalayan rivers.
Or 2
b. Why are rivers important for the country’s economy?

4. How is the President of India elected? 2

5.a. Write any two roles of education in human capital formation.
Or 2
b. Write a brief note on disguised unemployment.

Answer the questions in about 50 -70 words:

6.a. Discuss the basic features essential for democratic elections.
Or 4
b. Discuss the challenges to free and fair elections in India.

7. Read the source/passage given below and answer the following questions that follows:
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a milestone document in
the history of human rights. Drafted by representatives with different legal and cultural
backgrounds from all regions of the world, the Declaration was proclaimed by the United
Nations General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948 by General Assembly resolution
217 A (III) as a common standard of achievements for all peoples and all nations. Since its

adoption in 1948, the UDHR has been translated into more than 500 languages - the most
translated document in the world - and has inspired the constitutions of many newly
independent States and many new democracies.
Human Rights Council: The Human Rights Council, established on 15 March 2006 by the
General Assembly and reporting directly to it, replaced the 60-year-old UN Commission on

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Human Rights as the key UN intergovernmental body responsible for human rights. The
Council is made up of 47 State representatives and is tasked with strengthening the
promotion and protection of human rights around the globe by addressing situations of
human rights violations and making recommendations on them, including responding to
human rights emergencies.
The most innovative feature of the Human Rights Council is the Universal Periodic Review.
This unique mechanism involves a review of the human rights records of all 193 UN
member states once every four years. The Review is a cooperative, state-driven process,
under the auspices of the Council, which provides the opportunity for each state to present
measures taken and challenges to be met to improve the human rights situation in their
country and to meet their international obligations. The Review is designed to ensure
universality and equality of treatment for every country.

Questions:
i) When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted? 1
ii) Which is the key UN intergovernmental body responsible for human rights? 1
iii) What is the Universal Periodic Review? 2

8. On the given political map of India, four features A, B, C, D have been indicated.
Identify these features with the help of information mentioned below and write
their correct names against their letters. 4
i) River Mahanadi
ii) River Godavari
iii) Tropical deciduous Forests
iv) Temperate forests with grassland

Note : This question is in lieu of Q. 8 for visually impaired candidates only.
8. (i) What is the length of the river Ganga? (1)
(ii) What is a watershed? (1)
(iii) Define flora. (1)

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(iv) What is meant by ‘natural vegetation’? (1)

Answer questions in about 80 – 100 words.
9.a. Discuss the impact and significance of the Boycott and Swadeshi Movement.
Or 6
b. Describe the main features of the Quit India Movement.

10.a. Explain any three Poverty Alleviation Programmes adopted by the government.
Or 6
b. Explain any one component of the food security system.

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Total number of printed pages: 3 NB-N/SC/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
SCIENCE
Total marks : 40 Time : 1½ hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 18 questions.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Alternate question for the visually impaired students are provided in some questions.
Only the visually impaired students have to attempt such alternate questions.
v) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.

A. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:

1. Water is an example of 1
(i) element (ii) compound
(iii) mixture (iv) colloid
2. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 1
(i) Pure substance – air
(ii) Tyndall effect – starch solution
(iii) Chemical change – digestion of food
(iv) Mixture – sea water

3. Which of the statement is true?
A. In Thomson’s model of an atom, atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
B. In Rutherford’s experiment, he uses gold foil to get a thin layer. 1
(i) Only A is true (ii) Only B is true
(iii) Both A and B are true (iv) Both A and B are false

4. Atomic numbers of Hydrogen, Carbon and Sodium is 1
(i) 2,6,10 (ii) 2,6,11
(iii) 1,5,11 (iv) 1,6,11

5. Which type of force causes the change in position of a body? 1
(i) Unbalanced force (ii) Balanced force
(iii) Inertia (iv) Gravity

6. When we change soft (feeble) sound to loud sound, we increase its 1
(i) frequency (ii) amplitude
(iii) velocity (iv) wavelength
7. The SI unit of frequency is 1

(i) hertz (ii) metre
(iii) second (iv) lambda

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8. Grass carp is a species of 1
(i) chicken (ii) fish
(iii) duck (iv) cattle

B. Answer the following questions in about 20-30 words:
9. What is sound? How is sound produced? In which of the three media- solid, liquid and
gas, does sound travel fastest at a particular temperature? ½ +1+ ½ =2

10. Write a short note on fertilizers. 2

C. Answer the following questions in about 40-60 words:
11. a. Asen took some sugar in a transparent beaker A containing water. In another similar
beaker B, Kevi added milk and water in equal amount. If a beam of light is made to pass
through the beakers-
(i) Identify which beaker shows tyndall effect. Explain why.
(ii) Give two properties of colloids.
Or 2+1=3
b. (i) What is the difference between solute and solvent?
(ii) Define saturated solution.

12. Look at the figure below and answer the following.

(i) Identify the given figures (a) and (a).
(ii) In which part of plant tissue are they found?
(iii) Write one role performed by them in the plant body. 1+1+1=3

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Where is the apical meristem found? Write the main function of xylem and phloem.
(1+2=3)

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13. (i) State Newton’s first Law of Motion.
(ii) Why do we fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall
backwards when it accelerates from rest? 1+2=3

14. (i) Define force.
(ii) A vehicle has a mass of 1500kg. What must be the force between the vehicle and the
road if the vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.7ms-2? 1+2=3

15. a. Wave of frequency 100 Hz are produced in a string as shown in the figure.

What is the - (i) Amplitude (ii) Wavelength (iii) Velocity?
Or 1+1+1=3
b. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced? Why is sound wave called a
longitudinal wave?

16. What are milch and draught animals? Which method is commonly used for cattle breed?
2+1=3

D. Answer the following questions in about 70-100 words:
17. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells. Write two postulates of
Bohr’s model of atom. Show the distribution of electron in oxygen. 1+2+2=5

18. a. Draw a labelled diagram of striated, smooth and cardiac muscles fibres. Write one
site/location each in our body where striated and smooth muscles are found.
Or 3+2=5
b. Draw a labelled diagram of a neuron. Write any two site/location in our body where
they are found.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Define the term ‘tissue’. What are the two types of complex tissue in plants? Differentiate
between parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma. . (1+1+3=5)

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Total number of printed pages : 4 NB-N/M/1
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase-II)
MATHEMATICS
Total marks : 40 Time : 1½ hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 13 questions.
iii) All questions are compulsory.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Marks allocated to each question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.

Section - A

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives.

A B C D
(a) In the adjoining figure, if AC = BD then 1
(i) AB = BC (ii) BC = CD (iii) AB = CD (iv) AC = CD

(b) If a ray stands on a line, then the sum of two adjacent angles so formed is 1
(i) 90° (ii) 100° (iii) 150° (iv) 180°

(c) If each pair of opposite sides of a quadrilateral is equal, then it is a 1
(i) trapezium (ii) kite (iii) parallelogram (iv) None of these

(d) In the given figure, E and F are the mid-points A
of the sides AB and AC respectively. Then
(i)EF = 2BC (ii) EF = BC E F
(iii) EF = BC (iv) BC = 4EF B C 1

(e) In the given figure, PQRS is a cyclic S
quadrilateral. If P = 125, then the measure
of R = P 125 R
(i) 45° (ii) 55°
(iii) 65° (iv) 75°
Q 1
(f) Which of the following gives the slant height (l) of a right circular cone? 1
(i) √ + ℎ (ii) √ − ℎ (iii) √ + ℎ (iv) √ × ℎ

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Section – B

C
2. In the quadrilateral ACBD, AC = AD and AB
bisects A. Show that ABC  ABD and
A B
BC = BD

D 2
3. Angles A, B and C of a triangle are equal to each other. Prove that ABC is
equilateral. 2

4. Diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Find its
curved surface area. 2

5. If the volume of a right circular cone of height 9 cm is 48cm3, find the diameter
of its base. 2

Section – C
P
6. a. In the adjoining figure, lines XY and MN M
intersect at O. If POY = 90 and a : b = 2 : 3, a
find c b
X c O Y
N
Or 3
A P B
b. In the adjoining figure, if AB || ST, 50 y
APQ = 50 and PRT = 127, find x
and y. x 127
S Q R T
E
7. In the adjoining figure, AC = AE, AB = AD A
and BAD = EAC. Show that BC = DE.

B DC 3
8. a. ABCD is a parallelogram. AP and CQ are D C
P
perpendiculars from vertices A and C on
diagonal BD. Show that : Q
(i) APB  CQD, (ii) AP = CQ A B

Or 3

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b. In a parallelogram ABCD, E and F are the D F C
mid-points of sides AB and CD respectively. P
Show that the line segments AF and EC trisect Q
the diagonal BD.
A E B

9. A circular park of radius 20 m is situated in a
colony. Three boys Ankur, Sanen and Dietho are
sitting at equal distance on its boundary each
having a toy telephone in their hands to talk to each
other. Find the length of the string of each phone.
3
Q
10. a. In the adjoining figure, PQR = 100, where P, 100
Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. P R
Find OPR. O

Or 3
b. In the adjoining figure, A, B, C and D are four A D
points on a circle. AC and BD intersect at a point E 2
0
E such that BEC = 130 and ECD = 20. Find B 130
C
BAC.

11. The radius and slant height of a cone are in the ratio of 4 : 7. If its curved surface
area is 792 cm2, find its radius. [Take  = ] 3

12. a. The slant height and base diameter of a conical
tomb are 25 m and 14 m respectively. Find the
cost of white-washing its curved surface at the
rate of `210 per 100m2

Or 3

b. Find the volume of a sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2

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Section – D
13. Answer any one from the following questions (a) to (c): 5

a. The length of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to one millimetre, and
the obtained data is represented in the following table:
Length 118-126 127-135 136-144 145-153 154-162 163-171 172-180
(in mm)
Number of
3 5 9 12 5 4 2
leaves
(i) Draw a histogram to represent the given data.
(ii) Is there any other suitable graphical representation for the same data?
(iii) Is it correct to conclude that the maximum number of leaves is 153 mm
long? Why?
Or
b. The runs scored by two teams A and B on the first 60 balls in a cricket match are
given below:
Number
1-6 7-12 13-18 19-24 25-30 31-36 37-42 43-48 49-54 55-60
of balls
Team A 2 1 8 9 4 5 6 10 6 2
Team B 5 6 2 10 5 6 3 4 8 10
Represent the data of both the teams on the same graph by frequency polygons.
Or
c. 100 surnames were randomly picked up from a local telephone directory and a
frequency distribution of the number of letters in the English alphabet in the
surnames was found as follows:
Number of letters 1-4 4-8 8-12 12-16 16-20
Number of surnames 6 30 44 16 4
(i) Draw a histogram to depict the given information.
(ii) Write the class interval in which the maximum number of surnames lies.

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/T/1
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase II)
TENYIDIE
Total marks: 40 Time: 1½ hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(Thedze kezo)
1. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca krie puo nunu krie di hiepengou (100-150) mese nunu
thushülie.
a. N zeu/zepfü kepenuo teisozha nhie noe vo hielie moketa la dzeyieleshü puo thupie puo tsü
di n kejo chashülie. 6
Moro
b. Chatha khapie kebau medzi di thedzeu mu puo caü-u sa thushülie.
Thiedzü ketsa puo nu shüzha, meseru baya… Shüzha me nu themuo ba… Meseru rühou
tuo di merüta…vo shüzha puo, themuo puo tie nunu tapfüketuo ngulie…themuou
secüketuo la thedo rhülie… süla shüzhau pfheü kevi tsheshü… Shüzhau puo neita….
Shüzhau tsali chü… mekuoshü puo muou petewa… meseru cülie.

2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca hiepengou (50) mese nunu thushülie. 4
a. Noe merha puozie kekreikreicü kropuo zivi se di dolie mu süko zeshü nyü ba. Merhako
zeketuo la merhako zivi, puozie, puoma, puotei mu thechü kirapuo nu zetuo shikecü pie
kelieshie puo thushülie.
Moro
b. N Leshükiu Inter-School Quiz Competition puo keseshütuoü ba. Kepesikeshü leshü puo
thupie n leshüki Notice Board nu shü di morokesuoko se kepesishülie.

(Diezho mu Thuyie)
3. Die puotou-u kedapie thushülie: 5x1=5
a. Tenyidie nu dietho kepe kitsuo ba ga?
i. Kenie iii. Se
ii. Dia iv. Pengou
b. Chü pedze kezhü dze pesikeshü liro-
i. Putuo iii. Puzhie
ii. Puya iv. Pushü
c. Tenyidie nu thekhrü za ‘August’ üse-
i. Mvüsa iii. Thenyie
ii. Rüyo iv. Tsiarie
d. Leshüda hau _____ se.

i. shü iii. tshü
ii. sü iv. chü
e. Mhaphrükhu kerethetha (18) zatho kekrei nu liro-
i. Za thetha iii. Pemothetha
ii. Krie kerethetha iv. Mepfüpemothetha

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4. Dieca ‘luo’ hau se diemei mu puoca kenyi idi tha kekreishülie. 1+1=2
5. Diekhe ‘la’ hau se diecha chüshülie. 1
6. Dieca puokru tou-u pie rhiephi (-) kerezho thashülie. 1
N _____ khashülie
7. Diecha hau pie Tenyidie nu thushülie: 1
a. Children must obey their parents.

(Diemvü)
8. Diecako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 2x1=2
(a) Longakrü vo kirapuo nu themou rüsa ga?
(i) Pfuchara (iii) Rüna nu phichüu
(ii) Viswera (iv) Ketsau
(b) “Kesia prei hie lhou mezhüya ro”. Geizo kiu nunu se par ga?
(i) No kevitho-u (iii) Keliya zolie
(ii) Leliecie (iv) N Dzüzei hie

Ketsokecü hanie dieca 20-25 mese nunu kelashülie: 2x2=4

9. Kimhie ro tekhu-u geilietuo üdi themou-ue pushü ga?
10. Kiüdi zue u chü penyawaya ga?

Ketsokecü hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 40-50 mese nunu kelashülie: 1x4=4
11. a. ‘Keliya Zolie’ geizo-u nu themiae kedipuo la u nou rüülieya mo üsi ga? Kimhie di u nou
rüülie vi ga? Kedipuo la u bu mha kejü la u nou mezhie morei vi üta ga? (1+1+2=4)
Moro
b. ‘Kheli mezemia donu le rei
N miatho zho khawa hie zocie
Kezhamia ze kekrothoya rei
Miaümia rei rünyü mota hie.’
i. Diecha hako geizo nunu se par ga? (1)
ii. Geizo diechako puoca vatshashülie. (3)

Ketsokecü hako dieca 60-90 mese nunu kelashülie: 2x5=10
12. a. Roviu supuo misi pie tsu rühouya ga? Puo phichümia siemedzi tsu chüwhuokecü kinu
kedipuo silie ga? Puo dze geinu kepethadie kimhiecü puo silie ga? (5)
Moro
b. Kerü dzü kekru kiu pie u nhicu ze kemejü shü mu u nhicu ki kedipuo mhieya üdi pu ga?

13. Themia kevithomia puo chülie ketuo la ‘No Kevitho-u’ geizo nu ükezomia chatha khakeshü
ca pengou thushülie. (5)

*********************

NB-N/A/1
Total number of printed pages: 2
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase II)
AO
Total marks: 40 Time: 1½ hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 12 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(Olem)
1. Agüja aliba onük aser arrla amshia ojang 100-150 shi nung shiti ka züluang: 6
a. Ner medemer dangi, Pa/La tasoba anogo benjong nung metentetba asoshi tai tok meshia shiti ka
züluang.
Mesüra
b. Agüja aliba arrla amshia otsü ka züluang aser teputep nüngka aser mulungdang agüjang:
Tenemi Tititsü ajuru- jaksajaklema jembi- mezüngmeshia atala- saka Tititsü ajemalua aküm- tila ozü
dang süaka tulu ozü den inyakyim kasasa ta langzü- tenemi melangzütet.

2. Agüja aliba arrla amshia ojang 50 shi nung züluang: 4
a. Nai atakba molokmotok ayoktsü lir item osettsüset ayoktsü atema kong aser kechi nung angutsü
itemji zülur sangdong ka zülur adokdakjang.
Mesüra
b. Ner kaket riju nung ‘Inter School Quiz Competition’ akatsü ayonger. Anungji yangji arua atentsü
atema nüngdakbatem ajak shia zülur metetdakja sangdong ka züluang.

(Orrlem)
3. Agüja aliba nungi telangzüba shitak shimtetang: 2x1=2
a. Nenok nisung _____ arung.
i. tuko ii. tugu iii. teko iv. tuku
b. Pei indang mesüra tangar atema tajungba noklem meshizükja imlaba olen dang _____ ta ajar.
i. imoshi ii. tasüngdangba iii. mallem iv. takhang

4. Item nung shitak zülumen shimtettang langzüang: 3x1=3
a. Par (terok/trok) i ken aten.
b. Pai aon (asu/aso)
c. (Mapang/Mabang) shitak nung arung.

5. Itemi koba orenlem nung aden aenteta züluang: 3x1=3
a. Nai mulungra ni yariang.
b. Teti meranga inyakang.
c. Tiyazü osang nung rataa telima.

6. Item oren Ao agi meyipzükang: 2x1=2

a. Oh! What a beautiful scenery it is.
b. Children must obey their parents.

-2- NB-N/A/1

(Otsü aser Sangro)

7. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba shimtetang: 2x1=2
(a) Awashi yimya tajung angazükdak tajungtibaji ______ lir.
(i) kidanger (iii) kima
(ii) kaketriju (iv) kibong
(b) Shibelenertem dang ochinaroi kechi ashi?
(i) Külemi odi (iii) Inyakdi
(ii) Aroki odi (iv) Yangyudi

Agüja aliba ojang 20-25 tashi nung langzüang: 2x2=4

8. Awashi tzüpokdakji kechisa? Item rongnung koba tongtibangba?
9. Nisungi kechi külemer aser kechiba külemer?

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 40-50 tashi nung langzüang:

10. a. “Ao yim semer rongnung na-ang yimtiba,
Tambu Clark tensa nungi tenzüka
Tsüngrem temeshi yimli den
Aor yimsu yimli ken o”.
i. Iba sangro koba nungi? 1
ii. Sangro zülur tenüng shiang? 1
iii. Iba oren ya ratetjang? 2
Mesüra
b. “Oda parnoki na anemang nemnem” Shibai kechiba nemnem ratetjang. (1+3=4)

Item tasüngdangbatem ojang 60-90 tashi nung langzüang:
11. a. Kechiba kaket rijuji awashi angazükdak tajungtiba ta züngshir? Kuli 5 agüjang. 5
Mesüra
b. Tekülemdak mapang shitak amshibaji koda tongtibang rasaa züluang. (5)

12. a. “Linük jongkok apongdang senti taküm laluba
Leper nung shireptsü mang küma oaka,
Par tenüngji nungshi süa mesüliyim liküma”.
i. Iba ya kechi sangro nungi? 1
ii. Shibai mejemba sangro? 1
iii. Orentem ya rateta shiang? 3
Mesüra
b. Lanurtem watidak kechi ronem maliba indang sangro züluri ashir? Kechiba? (5)

*********************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/S/1
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase II)
SUMI (SÜTSAH)
Total marks: 40 Time: 1½ hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

(Iqikulu)
Atsathi 100-150 dolo no yelo:
1. a. Yikili lakhi oküsau lau noye ighono masave keu ghenguno pa punu tsala lo wumlave. Tighe
nguno akipimi khughi pa kütüghü keu shi yelo. 6
Momu
b. Nono ithi akeu ni sümi Apu-asü no kügha kibe ighi keu ghili lakhi yelo.

Atsathi 50-60 dolo no lakhi yelo:
2. a. No kiphiki lono kiphimi aqha lotsüphu kukuxu ani. Nokiphiki kiyelupa lono kiu toi shini ye ani
keno kümtsü yepithi keu shilo. 4
Momu
b. Nagaland Public School, Dimapur lo timiqo ikhi kulumi lakhi phu ani. Kiyephi lono kiphimi
kümtsü züqhüshi shi thokha kileküghü yepithi keu shilo.

3. Achipiu tsathi pe kimeve lo: 2x1=2
(a) Timi __________ no mikucho shi xü moayesa.
(i) kuchopu (iii) kümtsü
(ii) akuchopu (iv) kümtsügha
(b) Pukhothi ye __________ keu xathe lakhi.
(i) qhimpoi (iii) khumtsai
(ii) khobei (iv) ngoniyi

4. Sütsah lo pepide süvelo: 3x1=3
a. The corn from your garden is very tasty.
b. Oh! What a beautiful scenery it is.
c. Children must obey their parents.

5. Atsajo hipaqo lo aje atüghü-u (subject) aje akiniu (object) hephokütsüu (predicate) kütüta shi
michipheve tsülo. 2x1=2
a. Shikükau no kiphimiqo shika ani.
b. Itimi qo no kaku phi ani.

6. Hi yepüa keu lo timi atüghiu, timi akiniu eno aküthüu kütütashi michipheve tsülo:
2x1=2

a. Tovito no Toka ghili pesü otto vilo piake.
b. Nono ipelono pakhe aghilopi.

7. Ngomichi achipishi süve tsülo: 1
Oh pa no aju lakhi hesü vae.

-2- NB-N/S/1

(Kichitsatho eno Apu Asü Leshe)
8. Achipiu tsathi kümsa akeulo shepichhi vetsülo: 2x1=2
(a) Aki lono azüa dape thi kemi vilo _____ kithi ipi cheni.
(i) ghuyi lo kuwo (iii) asülalo kuwo
(ii) alhoaye (iv) müsümüvü lokuwo
(b) Aküxü no _____ kuto chena ‘ghini’.
(i) ale (iii) ghili
(ii) atsa (iv) asüqe

Atsathi 20-25 dolo no khochilelo 2x2=4
9. Sümi khuayelo timi lakhi thive kelo kishino akumo qhove cheni kea?
10. Küsa kusho kiqi ye kiu kea? Khuno thive penike aza tsü kea?

Atsathi 40-50 dolo no khochilelo: 1x4=4
11. a. “Nagami no ghoshika ithulu kepu shiaye Communist ke kumono Satan kukuphu mu lu nani
thono.”
i. Atsa hiye khuuno pi kea? (1)
ii. Paye khuu vilo atsa hipau pi kea? (1)
iii. Kiu ghenguno paye atsa hipau pikeno kishe kulu yetsülo. (2)
Momu
b. “Küsakusho alokughuno kumo,
Küsakusho mulokinimi ye,
Niye no kho puwomo aye,
Ala chighi pesüno xaluni ighi,
Tüghami no kipishi ye shimlayewo.
i. Khuu pelo thivenishimo pi kea? (1)
ii. ‘Ala chighi pesü no xatuni ighi’ kiu shikeu ala chighi kiqi kea? (2)
iii. Tüghami ye khümtsa lau kiu shive kea? (1)

Atsathi 60-90 dolo no khochilelo:
12. a. Khumtsa amighiu ye kiu pesü aghami pape aghüla wu che kea? Paye kishi aghami pape wuche
kea? 5
Momu
b. “Ayeghü lakhü lo alu chilu peayewo
Alu chilu pemo yewo
Aluba lupe ani hoishe.
O ilomuka kulhoshi ghi suye lakhi izanoqhe
Kighili ye külawuniche aye.
Tsungu mujupumi ishi ye khileno.
Yehu kishi kumo hi sholuye.”
i. Atsathi hipaqo ye kiu leshelo ani kea? (1)
ii. Leshe hiye khiuno khuu ghenguno pitsü kea? (1)
iii. ‘Tsüngu mujupumi ishi ye khileno’ atsajo hipau kiqi akuvishi hepho tsülo. (2)
iv. Atsathi ‘Ayeghü lakhü’ kiqi kiu kea? (1)

13. Ashi aghü kiyimi eno kinimi kithilo akumona kishi shitsü cheni keno kishekulu yetsülo. 5

*********************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/L/1
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase II)
LOTHA
Total marks: 40 Time: 1½ hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 13 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(Eramo)
1. Oküpoe pi elio shiang lona motsünga ethüngi yitsüng 100-150 harüma na erana.
a. Ni na ni shom ji eboktsüngon müngyanchi khitao ji lo owo nthecheo ji tsükona ni shom ji
thüngi nlanchona yitsüng 100-150 harüma na yiyenran erana. 6
Mekana
b. Motsü erana
Oküpoe etsyuchi pi elio ji ephani na yitong theta motsü erana:
Mmhorü tona sevan to vancho… nzo etsoyui yana wotacho… siano echü
motsünga hungcho…elümoto vontonthakcho osi oni ntsochyuv nchümcho…Mmhorü jina
ombo echi to phyocho…oni ekhiranta rota yisicho… ochi na ha nphanthikhokvü sicho…
shiali motsünga chiyi hungcho… siano ji khi hansi yisicho… oni ntssothimori ji
nchümchecho.
2. Oküpoe pi lio shi oni lo motsünga ethüngi yitsüng 50 harüma na ethako erana. 4
a. Ntsijanta yilan:
Nina bhari/loksa elümoto opyon jüa khoshia tükcho, hojiang ji ni yenhunga vancho. Hoji
tsükona ni tsütsailan jiang ji meta kvülo na yentüng yenriv osi meta kvulo na hung sana,
ntsijantav tsükona yithen kako lo kvüto erani thev sana ntsijanta kako erana.
Mekana
b. Ntsitayi:
Nina kha evamo khaphen ki ji lo na Inter-School Quiz (engata) merangta ji khitav sala.
Hoji tsükona ntsitayi ji lanka kvütowoe ejüa/zethoka to, nte khaphen ntsitayi tssüngpyak
zupkaphen ji lo ntio kvütowoe na khitav sa sana mmhona engathethoka erana.
(Yinsanlan)
3. Janlan pi elio jiang lona elamo ji ethüngi erana: 2x1=2
a. Kyon _____ tsata (Etsukayi elamo ji jo)
i. nchyua iii. tsüka
ii. motsünga iv. jiang
b. Otsi tsoa. Shi lo engao yi ji jo.
i. Otsi tsoa alo? iii. Otsi tsoa nüng
ii. Otsi tsotsov la? iv. Otsi ntsov alo?
4. Yiren shiang yintüp kümthoka: 2x1=2

a. Ana shi mmhona ntsia
b. Hoji jo onte ki
5. Yiren shiang ovon tongphi erana: 2x1=2
a. Onte na kongken yentala. (Yirüo von kümthoka)
b. Müngtüng ji ombo na müngtüngala. (Etssoe von kümthoka)

-2- NB-N/L/1

6. Yitsüng shiang yichak erana. 2x1=2
a. Nshivo
b. Engkhülan woro

7. Yiren shiang Lotha yi na khophia: 2x1=2
a. Oh! What a beautiful scenery it is.
b. The corn from your garden is very tasty.
Chiro-C (Erantolan)
8. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethügi janlana: 2x1=2
(a) Khyingroe ji na ntio lo Lijao ki chiwochola?
(i) Mmhorü chenchio ji osü rüa wocho
(ii) Siano chenchio ji osü rüa wocho
(iii) Sepvü chenchio ji osü rüa wocho
(iv) Nipong chenchio ji osü rüa wocho
(b) Lekhüm to ephyo ji yichak jo.
(i) Otssok hanphen okhyak (iii) Okhyak teriv
(ii) Okhyak tsüphov (iv) Loksa tsüphov
Oküpeo engao shiang yitsung 20-25 harüma na janlana: 2x2=4
9. Oyu jiang kvülo na owo khi hansi yile to ezocho la?
10. Nkolo jo osüm ndüngo ete Lotha yan jiang jo kilen kvüta vancho la?

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 40-50 harüma na janlana: 1x4=4
11. a. “Ha Kikho hajang shona toti” to ephyo ji mmhona eroroa erana.
Mekana
b. Yitsüng pi elio shiang yichak erana:
i. Tssikya phonglan ii. Horateria iii. Aphoarang iv. Eshinia

Oküpoe engao shiang yitsüng 60-90 harüma na janlana: 2x5=10
12. a. Lijao na otsolov ji yanpithokvü tsükona khyingroe ji ntio ntio elhi etssov ezocho la?
Khyingroe jina hojiang kvütolyui tssocho la?
Mekana
b. Lotha (Kyong) tona Etsüi to ntoktademo ji.
i. Ete Lotha na Etsui ntoktademo ji jo ocho la? (1)
ii. Etsüi Lotha meta lo rodemo ji jo ocho la? (1)
iii. Osüm tona ete Lotha to ori tssotao ji jo ntio nzyu lo la (1)
iv. Nkolo jo osüm tona ete Lotha to jo ntiowoe na shentokata rocho la? (2)

13. Chungiyi “Osüm thüngi ori tssotacho yintssen ji erana.

*********************

NB-N/B/1

Total number of printed pages -4
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
BENGALI (বাাংলা)
Total marks :40 Time : 1½ hours

General Instructions :
(i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
(ii) The question paper consists of 14 questions.
(iii) All questions are compulsory.
(iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
(v) Marks allotted to every question are provided indicated against it.

N.B. : Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.

রচনা ও নননমি নি
(WRITING)

1. ননচচর যে য ানও এ টি নিষয় যিচে ননচয় ১০০-১৫০ শচের মচযে উত্তর দাও : 6
(ক) তুমি িু ম্বাই মিবামি িাফল্য/ িাক্ষী, ততািার বন্ধু তিামিততর জন্মমিি উপল্তক্ষ উপমিত
থাকতত িা তপতর দুঃখ প্রকাশ কতর একটি মিঠি তল্তখা।
অথিা
(খ) মিতির িূ ত্রগুমল্ মিতে একটি গল্প রিিা কতর তার একটি উপযুক্ত িািকরণ কর :
এক কৃষক দম্পতির একটি প োষো পেতি তিল………একতদন, কৃষক এেং িোর স্ত্রী িরুরী
কোজির িনয েোত়ির েোইজর তগল্……… তাতির তিশুজক ঘতর পরজে পেল ……………… একটি
সো লু তকজে ঘজর ঢু কতেিোনোর তদজক এমগতে তগল্ ……………পেতি েোচ্চোটিজক রক্ষোর িনয সো টির
সোজে যু দ্ধ কতর িোজক হিযো করল …………… কৃষজকর স্ত্রী েোত়ি তিরজল পেতির মু ে এেং দোাঁজি
রজের দোে পদজে পরোজে সমস্ত তনেন্ত্রণ হোতরজে অনু েি পেতিজক পমজর পিলল …………… ঘতর
পস তিশুটিজক িীতেি এেং িোর োজি মৃ ি সো পদেজি প ল …………… িোর কজমের িনয
অনু জিোচনো করল।
2. ৪০ যথচ ৫০ টি শচে ননচচর যে য ানও এ টি প্রচের উত্তর দাও : 4
(ক) তুমি মকছু রংতবরতের প্রথাগত ঝু মি বামিতেছ; তয গুমল্ তবতি মকছু উপাজজি করতত িাও।
মজমিিগুমল্র মবস্তামরত মববরণ মিতে তিগুমল্ তকাথাে িু ল্ভ িূ তল্য মবমি িতে, তিকথা

জামিতে একটি মবজ্ঞাপতির (Advertisement) খিিা রিিা কতরা।

NB-N/B/1
[2]

অথিা
(খ) তুমি কমিিা িতবািে মবিযাল্তের িবি তেমণর পাঠরত মশক্ষাথী প্রমতমিমি তেেি/ তেো।
ততািাতির মবিযাল্তে আন্তুঃমবিযাল্ে কুইজ এর আতোজি করা িতে, তিই মবষতে
মশক্ষাথীতির অবগত কতর মবিযাল্তের মবজ্ঞমি ফল্তক (Notice Board) একটি মবজ্ঞমি
(Notice) িাও।
িো রণ ও অনু িাদ
(GRAMMAR & TRANSLATION)
3. ননচচর ববকল্পগুবলর যথচ সঠি উত্তরটি যিচে নাও :
(ক) কতজ া যা কতর, তাই িল্ — 1
(i) কততজকারক (ii) কিজকারক
(iii) করণ কারক (iv) িম্প্রিাি কারক
(খ) ‘কূপিণ্ডূক’ িাতি — 1
(i) অমভজ্ঞতািীি বযমক্ত (ii) অকাল্পক্ব
(iii) আদতর িিীপু ত্র (iv) গুরুত্বিীি বযমক্ত
4. ার -নিভনি ননণি য় র :
(i) তছতল্রা ফু টবল্ তখল্তছ। 1
(ii) িব বইতে তল্খা আতছ। 1
(iii) পিোমোে ততা আতগ তিমখমি! 1
5. সাথি িা ে রচনা র :
(i) তগাবর গতণশ 1
(ii) তিাতখর পিজ া 1
(iii) তাতির ঘর 1
6. িাাংলায় অনু িাদ র :
(i) The corn from your garden is very tasty. 1
(ii) Children must obey their parents. 1

সানিিে – গদোাংশ ও পদোাংশ (Literature)
7. ননচচর ববকল্পগুবলর যথচ সঠি উত্তরটি যিচে নাও :
(ক) মিতযকাল্ী তক? 1
(i) রোজমর তবাি (ii) নোরোেণীর তবাি

(iii) বামির িািী (iv) রাতির তবৌমি

NB-N/B/1
[3]

(খ) ডামল্ি গাতছর তল্াে কার কবর মছল্? 1
(i) িািা (ii) িািী
(iii) নোনো (iv) িািী

২০ -২৫ টি শচে ননচচর যে য ানও দু’টি প্রচের উত্তর দাও : 2x2=4
8. িারােণী রািতক একপাতে িাাঁমিতে থাকার শামস্ত মিতেমছতল্ি তকি?
9. ‘িু ল্ািমির’ কমবতাে কমব ভগবাি বা তিবতাতক তকাথাে পাওো তযতত পাতর বতল্ িত প্রকাশ
কতরতছি? কমবর িতত িু মক্তর উপাে কী? (1+1=2)
10. ভারতবষজ’ পাতঠ বত দ্ধ কী বই পিততি? মবপু ল্কাে বইটি তক কথা তথতক মকতিমছতল্ি? (1+1=2)
ম-চিনশ ৪০ যথচ ৫০ টি শচে ননচচর যে য ানও এ টি প্রচের উত্তর দাও :
11. (ক) ‘ভারতবষজ’ পাতঠ পাঁ মিশ বছর আতগ আর পতর তল্খতকর তিখা কল্কাতার মবস্তামরত বণজিা
িাও। 4
অথিা
(খ) “ততপর প্রভাতব বাোমল্ িািক জতির তপতেতছ িািা।” —
(i) তকাি কমবতার অংশ? (1)
(ii) কমবর িাি কী? (1)
(iii) ‘বাোমল্ িািক’ বল্তত কার কথা বল্া িতেতছ? (1)
(iv) মতমি কীভাতব জতির িািা তপতেতছি? (1)
প্রায় ৬০ যথচ ৯০ টি শচে ননচচর যে য ানও দু’টি প্রচের উত্তর দাও : 5x2=10
12. “িেি তিতল্ তিখ্ তিমখ তুই তিতে – তিবতা িাই ঘতর ।।”—
(i) তকাি কমবতার অংশ? (1)
(ii) কতের িাি কী? (1)
(iii) তকাি িূ ল্ কাবযগ্রন্থ তথতক িংকমল্ত? (1)
(iv) তিবতা িাই ঘতর – কথাগুমল্র অথজ পমরস্কার কর। (2)
13. “িািা রাত তঠোতব িামক?” —
(i) তকাি পাতঠর অংশ? (1)
(ii) তক কাতক উজেজি কতর এই কথা বতল্তছি? (1)

(iii) ‘তঠোতব’ িাতি কী? (1)

NB-N/B/1
[4]

(iv) তক কাতক তকি তঠোমেতল্ি? (2)
14. ‘কবর’ কমবতাটির িািকরতণর িাথজকতা আতল্ািিা কর।
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Total number of printed pages: 3 NB-N/AE/1
2023
CLASS-IX (Phase II)
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total marks: 40 Time: 1½ hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Write the correct question number in your answer sheet to indicate the option being attempted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

Unit – I (Reading)
1. Read the poem and answer the questions that follow:
Blue and Green
Two bins, you mean
Yes, they are there
To throw your waste
Nor in a haste.
Select from waste, sieve if seems muddy
Separate all items and when they are ready
Place in a blue bin or one that is green
For voyage to the landfill, or for composting.

a. Name the two kinds of waste that need to be separated from each other in two different waste
bins. 2
Choose the correct option from the alternatives given: 3x1=3
b. What are the items that can be sent to landfill?
i. Paper ii. Glass iii. Plastic iv. Bins
c. The bin containing biodegradable waste can be converted into simpler forms with the help of
microbes which can be used as _____
i. Landfilling ii. Colors iii. Voyage iv. Manure
d. Which of the following is a synonym of ‘Seive’?
i. Filter ii. Harden iii. Defile iv. Adulterate

Unit – II (Writing and Applied Grammar)
2. a. Write a story in about 150-200 words. Use the clues provided to begin the story. 6
Imti- sixteen years old- returns after school- next door building- thick smoke from window- old
couple lives there- a man must take immediate action.
Or
b. Two students are discussing about the advantages and disadvantages of hostel life. Write a
dialogue in about 150-200 words.
3. Write the sentences in the indirect speech: 2x1=2
a. ‘I enjoy playing tennis on Saturdays.’
Pele says that _______________ on Saturdays.

b. He said to me, ‘Do you like the book?’

4. Correct the errors in punctuation in these sentences: 4x½=2
Pandit Nehru free Indias first Prime Minister was educated in cambridge.

-2- NB-N/AE/1

Unit – III (Literature)

5. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 4x1=4
(a) With what did the Miller tie the sails of the wind mill?
(i) Gold chain (iii) Silver chain
(ii) Copper chain (iv) Iron chain
(b) What did the devil disguise himself the second time? (The Tale of Ivan the Fool)
(i) Soldier (iii) Nobleman
(ii) General (iv) Merchant
(c) In ‘Mother’s Tears’, who failed to offer the boy a silver spoon?
(i) His mother (iii) His lover
(ii) His friends (iv) The poet
(d) Who gave Ivan the magic roots?
(i) Devil (iii) Imp 2
(ii) Imp 3 (iv) Imp 1

Answer the following questions in about 20-25 words: 2x2=4
6. Why is Ivan considered a fool? Mention two instances of ‘foolish behaviour’
7. How did Ivan become the Tsar?

Answer the following questions in about 40-45 words:
8. a. ‘Tho’ the world hates him, made mockery of him.
My love didn’t waver, my hope didn’t stop;
Is this a birth pang for a new son?
I vainly cried:
I shed tears, if it could wash away his sins.’ (Mother’s Tears)
i) ‘Is this a birth-pang for a new son?’ Explain. 2
ii) What does the word, ‘vainly’ convey? 2
Or
b. ‘Sometimes indeed, the neighbours thought it strange that the rich Miller never gave little Hans
anything in return.’ (The Devoted Friend)
i) How many sacks of flour and cows did the Miller have? (2)
ii) What gave great pleasure to Little Hans? (2)
9. ‘Fools are determined and won’t give up easily.’ (The Tale of Ivan the Fool)
Comment on the truth of this statement. 4
10. ‘Child, I will hearken to thy prayer
And they unconquered soul shall know
All passionate rapture and despair.’ (The Soul’s Prayer)
i) Who is the speaker? 1
ii) Why is the soul ‘unconquered’? 2
iii) What does the speaker promise the child? 1

Read the lines and answer the questions that follow:
11. ‘Spare me a moment, countrymen, I am to be your general and I am here looking for volunteers to
join the army.’ (The Tale of Ivan the Fool)

a. Who is the speaker and what are the countrymen doing? 1+1=2
b. What are the measures used by the speaker to let the countrymen join the army? 2
c. Did he succeed in his plan? 1
Or

-3- NB-N/AE/1

b. ‘If they stop serving others, they will be free to work for themselves. Then they can work on the
fields and make their own food.’ (The Tale of Ivan the Fool)
i) Who are ‘they’? (1)
(ii) What does the speaker mean by ‘work for themselves’? (2)
(iii) To what problem is the speaker providing a solution? (2)

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Total number of printed pages :1 NB-N/FIT/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
FOUNDATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Total marks:35 Time:1½ hours

General Instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 16 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is com plete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. The ________ key can be used to add a new row at the end of a table by clicking at
the lower right cell. 1
(a) tab (b) esc
(c) shift (d) alt
2. Data source can be created in ______. 1
(a) Word (b) Excel
(c) Access (d) All of these
3. The_____ key is used for running a slide show. 1
(a) f2 (b) f3
(c) f4 (d) f5
4. A ________ is a group of cells that form a rectangle on the screen. 1
(a) calculation (b) formula
(c) range (d) range address
5. Unauthorized downloading falls under ________. 1
(a) Piracy (b) Copyright
(c) Plagiarism (d) Privacy
Answer the following questions in about 10-20 words:
6. What is a cell? What is meant by splitting of cells? 2
7. What is a template in PowerPoint? 2
8. Write the steps for grouping picture. 2
9. What is a formula? What is the use of & operator? 2
10. What is an AutoFill? 2
Answer the following question in about 20-30 words:
11. Write any three benefits of mail merge. 3
12. Mention any three facilities of PowerPoint. 3
13. What is a spreadsheet? How can one select non-adjacent rows or columns? 3
14. What is a chart? How can one resize a chart? 3
Answer the following question in about 50-70 words:

15. What is an argument? Explain the different types of cells referencing. 4
16. What is Copyright? Mention three ways to avoid Plagiarism. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 3 NB-N/MS/1
2023
CLASS - IX (Phase-II)
MUSIC
Total marks : 35 Time : 1½ hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 7 minutes is alloted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 17 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.

N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION-A: (Ethnic Music)

1. The harmonies of Naga folk songs are usually constructed on : 1
a) parallel third b) parallel fourth
c) parallel fifth c) parallel sixth

2. The oral tradition of the Nagas is kept alive through the media of : 1
a) folk tales and dances b) folk dances and songs
c) folk songs and rituals d) folk tales and songs

3. What songs are sung and enjoyed by children ? 1
a) Lullabies b) Story songs
c) Love songs d) Nursery rhymes

4. What are the themes of the Naga folk music and songs ? 2

SECTION - B : (Western Music)

5. What degrees of the scale are used to construct a triad? 1
a) 1st, 4th and 5th b) 1st, 3rd and 5th
c) 1st, 2nd and 4th d) 1st, 5th and 6th

6. Legato means : 1
a) fast and lively b) very soft
c) play smoothly d) slow

7. The other word for ostinato is : 1
a) A min b) decrescendo
c) Aeolian mode d) riff

-2- NB-N/MS/1

8. Work out the key of the following music. 1+1=2

a)
key of __________

b)

key of __________

9. Draw the key signature of the following keys in any stave. 1+1=2
a) G major b) D minor

10. Make a sequence by repeating the given music twice : 1+1=2
a) one note lower each time.

b) one note higher each time.

11. Write two more repeats to show the ostinato pattern. 2

12. Answer the following rhythm : 2

13. a) Using minims, write a broken chord using ‘A’ minor tonic triad,
going down. Use pattern of three notes each time and finish
on the first C’ below the stave. 1½+1½=3

b) Using quavers, write a broken chord using F major tonic triad,
going up. Use pattern of four notes each time and finish on the
first ‘F’ above the stave.:

14. Write the key signature and tonic triad in the key of F major. Then write
its one-octave arpeggio, ascending and descending. Use semibreves. 3

-3- NB-N/MS/1

15. Write the tonic triad in root position and its first inversion for the
given keys in the bass clef. Use minims. 1½+1½= 3
a) Key of A minor.
b) Key of C major.

16. Write tunes to the given rhythm. Use key signature and finish on
the tonic. 1½+1½= 3
a) Using the first five degrees of the Em scale (treble clef)

b) Using notes of the tonic triad in the key of F major (bass clef)

17. Look at the following music and answer the questions below : 5x1= 5

a) In which key is this piece?
b) Name the circled note in measure 3.
c) In which measure should the music get gradually softer ?
d) In which measure can you find a one-octave arpeggio hidden in the music ?
e) What is the interval between the two notes in measure 7 ?

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-N/BK/1

2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
BOOK-KEEPING & ACCOUNTANCY

Total marks : 35 Time : 1½ hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 8 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 14 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B:Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. Recording of transactions into journal is called 1
(a) posting (b) casting
(c) journalising (d) tallying

2. Goods worth `10,000 given away as charity would be credited to 1
(a) sales A/c (b) purchases A/c
(c) charity A/c (d) trustee A/c

3. “Ledger is the permanent storehouse of all the transactions” was defined by 1
(a) Fieldhouse Arther (b) L.C Cropper
(c) William Pickles (d) Robert Anthony

4. Trial balance checks 1
(a) the honesty of the book-keeper
(b) the accuracy of the book-keeper
(c) the arithmetical accuracy of the books
(d) none of these

5. Treatment of closing stock in the trial balance: 1
Statement I : Closing stock does not appear in the trial balance
Statement II: Trial balance is prepared after passing adjustment entries.
From the above statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Statement I is false and statement II is true
(b) Statement I is true and statement II is false

(c) Both statement I and II are false
(d) Both statement I and II are true.
Answer the questions in about 20-30 words:
6. What is the rule for personal account? 2

-2- NB-N/BK/1

7. Mention the rules applicable while posting ledger from sales book. 2

8. Give the format of a trial balance. 2

Answer the questions in about 30-50 words:
9. State any three characteristics of a journal. 3

10. Explain any three columns of ledger account. 3

11. Explain any three limitations of trial balance. 3

Answer the questions in about 70-100 words:
12. a. Journalise the following transactions for the year 2015:
`
Jan 1. Started business with cash 1,50,000
Jan 3. Paid into bank 20,000
Jan 11. Goods purchased from Vikhos 25,000
Jan 22. Paid cartage 150
Jan 29. Paid interest on loan 600
Or 5
b. Explain any five limitations of journal.

13. a. Enter the following transactions in purchases book and post it into ledger: 5
2020
March 5. Purchased goods from Chanbemo `50,000 on credit
March 14. Bought goods from Tiakaba on credit of the list price of ` 20,000
Less: 20% trade discount
March 21. Purchase typewriter for ` 9,000 each for office use
March 28. Purchase furniture from Akato for ` 36,000 at 12% discount.
Or
b. What is meant by balancing of an account? Explain in brief the procedure to
close the various ledger accounts. (2+3=5)

14. a. Prepare a trial balance as on 31st March, 2018 from the following ledger
balances:
` `
Capital 1,10,400 Machinery 1,15,500
Debtors 90,000 Purchases 1,50,000
Cash 4,800 Discount received 2,300
Fixtures 8,400 Sales 1,86,000

Creditors 70,000
Or 5
b. Explain any five points to remember while preparing trial balance.
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Total number of printed Pages: 1 NB-N/IT(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (Vocational)
Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
1. i) A single binary value 1 or 0 is called
(a) Byte (b) Bit
(c) Kilobyte (d) Nibble
ii) The first page of a website is called
(a) New page (b) First page
(c) Home page (d) Web page
iii) A business activity which deals with buying a product and selling it without changing its
form is called
(a) Hybrid (b) Manufacturing
(c) Services (d) Merchandising
iv) Which fuel is used in motor vehicles to reduce pollution?
(a) MNG b) LPG
(c) PNG (d) JPG
v) Which of the following is not an approach propounded by UNEP to achieve a green
economy?
(a) Social inclusion (b) Low carbon growth
(c) Resource deficiency (d) Resource efficiency
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is tabulation? 1
3. Write the names of any two functions that is part of calc. 1
4. Name any two presentation software’s. 1
5. What is a slide master? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. What is absolute cell reference? Give an example. 1+1=2
7. Differentiate between numbers and formulae in a spreadsheet. 2
8. Name any two filters available in the image tool bar and its effect. 2
9. Write the steps to ungroup a set of grouped objects. 2
Answer any two from the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. (a) Write any four uses of spreadsheet.

Or 4
(b) Explain any four types of charts in Calc.
11. Write four steps of inserting an image from the gallery. 4
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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/R(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
Retail (Vocational)

Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5

i. CPU is an example of which of the following components of computer?
(a) Processing Unit (b) Input Unit
(c) Output Unit (d) Memory Unit
ii. A business that is concerned with the processing or transformation of raw materials
into finished products is known as
(a) manufacturing (b) hybrid
(c) services (d) merchandising
iii. It keeps track of the stock and the quantity of stock or inventory.
(a) Stock Level (b) Stock Ledger
(c) Bin Card (d) Electronic Data System
iv. Customers who buy frequently from a particular store are called
(a) Trade customers (b) Final customers
(c) Wandering customers (d) Loyal customers
v. The customers’ wants and expectations can be determined through
(a) customers interactions (b) proper management
(c) customer service (d) customer care

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is material handling equipment? 1
3. List any two retail customer services. 1
4. Write any two ways in which retail organisations can benefit from staff
appearance standards. 1
5. What is internet? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:

6. What is stock level in retailing? Mention any two types of stock levels. 1+1=2
7. Write any two basic categories of floor requirements in a store. 2
8. Write any two differences between consumer and customer. 2
9. State any two adverse impacts of high carbon levels on the environment. 2

-2- NB-N/R(V)/1

Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. (a) Explain any four needs for managing stock level in retail.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four documents required in stock handling.
11. Briefly explain any four effective ways to build customer rapport. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/T&H(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)

Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5

i. The main or introductory page of a website is called
(a) hyperlinks (b) web browser
(c) home page (d) world wide web
ii. A technique of cooking that submerges food in heated fat and transfer heat to
it by convection is known as
(a) deep frying (b) simmering
(c) grilling (d) poaching
iii. Who among the following F&B department staff is called as Sommelier?
(a) Captain (b) Wine Butler
(c) Steward (d) Manager
iv. While serving food, the main course is followed by the
(a) appetizer (b) coffee
(c) desserts (d) beverage
v. The dressing guidelines for the staff is also referred to as
(a) uniforms (b) grooming standards
(c) cloth code (d) dress code
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:

2. Which part of the computer is known as the ‘brain of the computer’? 1

3. Write any two human made factors that has caused ecological imbalance. 1
4. Why is timing of food service important? 1
5. Define the term ‘job order’. 1

Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. List any four entrepreneurial competencies. 2

7. Differentiate between ‘dry heat’ and ‘moist heat’ cooking methods. 2

8. Write any two tips for departing a guest. 2
9. Why is the performance measurement of an employee important? State two
reasons. 2

-2- NB-N/ T&H(V)//1

Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. Write any four points that should be kept in mind while receiving guests
in a restaurant. 4
11. (a) Write any four ways to achieve customer satisfaction in F&B outlets.
Or 4
(b) Mention any four workplace etiquettes that must be followed by
the hotel employees.

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/B&W(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)

Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
i. A business activity that buys a product and sells it without changing its form is
referred to as
a) manufacturing b) services
c) hybrid d) merchandising
ii. The programs and processes within a computer system are part of
a) hardware b) software
c) input devices d) storage
iii. Which of the following is not a type of mehndi design?
a) Hot oil b) Arabic
c) Khaif d) Jewellery
iv. A hair style that is created byfirst dividing the hair into two portions is
known as
a) floral bun b) messy bun
c) pony tail d) low bun
v. Which of the following is a bone of the foot?
a) Phalanges b) Metacarpal
c) Talus d) Carpal
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is Youtube? 1
3. Write any two tips for hair care. 1
4. What are Ligaments? 1
5. Mention any two procedures of pedicure in a salon. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. State any four types of manicure. 2

7. Write any two adverse impacts of high carbon levels on the environment. 2
8. Distinguish between low bun and messy bun. 2
9. State any two importance of mehndi in Indian culture. 2

-2- NB-N/B&W(V)/1

Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. (a) Mention any four layers of nails and write their functions.
Or 4
(b) Briefly explain any four steps on how manicure is done in a salon.
11. Describe hair care in brief. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 1 NB-N/E(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
ELECTRONICS (Vocational)
Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
i. Which of the following minerals is considered harmful for humans?
(a) Calcium (b) Potassium
(c) Magnesium (d) Arsenic
ii. Bacterial pathogens are quickly killed above which temperature?
(a) 50⁰ C (b) 60⁰C
(c) 70⁰C (d) 80⁰C
iii. In which of the following disinfection methods microbes are destroyed by temperature and
UVA radiation?
(a) Ozone water disinfection (b) Solar water disinfection
(c) Hydrogen peroxide (d) Bleach
iv. Which of the following business enterprise is organised on the principle of mutual self help?
(a) Partnership (b) Joint stock company
(c) Sole proprietorship (d) Cooperative society
v. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Oxygen (d) Nitrogen
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Name any two types of water treatment agents. 1
3. State one solution to troubleshoot when there is not enough water or no water from the tap
(RO). 1
4. List any two entrepreneurial competencies. 1
5. What are portable water purification devices? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. Write any two advantages of using an RO purifier. 2
7. List any two do’s for maintenance of water purifier. 2
8. Write any four symptoms of chemical hazards in case a person is exposed to toxins. 2
9. Suggest any two measures to prevent air pollution. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. Explain briefly the use of iodine in water purification. 4

11. (a) Explain the functioning of RO purifier with the help of flowchart.
Or 4
(b) Draw the structural diagram of water purifier and label its parts.

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/MSFC(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
Multi Skill Foundation Course (Vocational)
Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
i. Monitor, printer, speakers etc. are examples of
(a) input unit (b) output unit
(c) processing unit (d) memory unit
ii. Batteries and cells are
(a) DC supply source (b) AC supply source
(c) secondary power source (d) both AC and DC supply source
iii. The waste that decays through microorganism or decomposers are called
(a) recycled waste (b) regenerated waste
(c) non-biodegradable waste (d) biodegradable waste
iv. Which of the following is not a method of food preservation?
(a) Drying (b) Canning
(c) Burning (d) Smoking
v. A business activity which combines both manufacturing and services is considered as
(a) service business (b) hybrid business
(c) partnership business (d) merchandising

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:

2. State one advantage of LED. 1
3. Convert 1000 watts into kilowatts. 1
4. Name any two methods of cooking that uses indirect contact of water. 1
5. What is internet? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. Mention any two benefits of adopting green economy. 2
7. Draw the symbol of battery and capacitor. 1+1=2

8. What is the main purpose of earthing? Name any two materials needed for
earthing. 1+1=2
9. Write any two importance of cereals. 2

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Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. (a) Explain any four basic concepts relating to electrical technology.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four types of fuses.

11. Describe the contents of a packing label which is necessary for the
manufacturers to mention. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/AG(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
AGRICULTURE (Vocational)
Total marks: 25 Time : 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
i. The process of moving a plant from one site to another is known as
(a) Cultivation (b) Transplantation
(c) Seeding (d) Nursery
ii. Which of the following is a function of micronutrient copper (cu)?
(a) Cell division (b) Synthesis and protein
(c) Synthesis of chlorophyll (d) Synthesis of ascorbic acid
iii. This kind of manure has strong roots in the ground and keeps the soil rich, which reduces
soil erosion
(a) Green manure (b) Compost manure
(c) Farmyard manure (d) Biofertilizer
iv. Mouse and keyboard are categorised as
(a) Input devices (b) Storage devices
(c) Output devices (d) Processing devices
v. The process of improving the skills and knowledge of entrepreneurs through various
programmes is known as
(a) Start ups (b) Business plan
(c) Entrepreneurship development (d) Economic development
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is inter cropping? 1
3. What is organic fertilizer? 1
4. Which part of the computer is called ‘brain of the computer’? 1
5. State one advantage of ploughing. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. Define soil particles and name any two soil particles. 1+1=2
7. Differentiate between micro and macro nutrients. 2
8. What is staking? State any two benefits of staking. 2

9. State any two benefits of green economy. 2
.

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Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. Briefly explain any four types of soil. 4
11. (a) What is manure? Write any three advantages of manure. 1+3=4
Or
(b) Write two deficiency symptoms each of the following macronutrients:
(i) Nitrogen (2+2=4)
(ii) Potassium

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-N/AUTO(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase II)
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks : 25 Time : 1 hour
General instructions :
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
1. i) What is the latest emission standard of motor vehicle in India?
(a) BS VI (b) BS V
(c) BS IV (d) BS III
ii) The regular maintenance check up of vehicles does not include
(a) Tyre pressure (b) Brakes
(c) Air conditioning (d) Body paint
iii) What does ‘A ‘stand for in the acronym ACES with regard to the future of automotive
industry?
(a) Automation (b) Automobile
(c) Artificial intelligence (d) Autonomous vehicles
iv) It is free online video sharing platform
(a) Twitter (b) You tube
(c) Facebook (d) Whatsapp
v) It refers to the knowledge, abilities and attitude needed to reduce negative impact of
human activity on the environment
(a) Self management skills (b) Organisational skills
(c) Problem solving skills (d) Green skills
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is car pooling? 1
3. Write one tip to extend the life of a vehicle. 1
4. State any two modern technological trends in automotive industry. 1
5. What is internet? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. What is auto emission? Name the two most pollutant gases from automobile emissions.
2
7. Write any four services that are done during service of a vehicle. 2
8. What is R&D in the context of automobile? 2
9. State four characteristics of entrepreneurship. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:

10. (a) Explain any four importance of vehicle maintenance and servicing. .
Or 4
(b) Explain briefly the impact of Covid-19 on automotive industry in India.

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NB-N/AUTO(V)/1
11. Explain any four effects of air pollution caused by automobiles. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-N/PL(V)/1
2023
CLASS – IX (Phase-II)
Plumbing (Vocational)

Total marks: 25 Time: 1 hour
General instructions:
i) Approximately 5 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 11 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1=5
i. Which of the following is a unit of length?
(a) Kilogram (b) Metre
(c) Volume (d) Density
ii. It is a type of valve used for controlling flow of water in a pipeline.
(a) Float valve (b) Check valve
(c) Foot valve (d) Angle valve
iii. It is used to connect pipes of different diameters.
(a) Gasket (b) Union
(c) Reducer (d) Elbow
iv. Mouse and keyboard are categorised as
(a) input device (b) storage device
(c) output device (d) processing device
v. It refers to the knowledge, abilities, values and attitude needed to
protect environment.
(a) Green economy (b) Green job
(c) Green skills (d) Sustainable development
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Write the symbol of feet and inch. 1
3. Which valve is fitted at the entrance of a pipe? 1
4. What is a gate valve? 1
5. List any two man made factors that has caused ecological imbalance. 1

-2- NB-N/PL(V)/1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
6. What is entrepreneurship development? Write any two characteristics
of entrepreneurship. 1+1=2
7. If a 4800 litres of water tank is ¾ full, find 1+1=2
a) the volume of water in the tank.
b) the area of the empty space.
8. Define ‘Pressure Gauge’ and ‘Vernier Caliper’. 1+1=2
9. Name any four types of fittings. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
10. (a) Explain any four types of pipe joints. 4
Or
(b) Briefly explain the following : (2+2=4)
i) Air valve
ii) Angle valve
11. Draw any four plumbing symbols and name them. 2+2=4

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