Goa Board Class 12 Sample Paper 2023 Sociology

Sample Paper
&
Question Paper Pattern
2022
2023

GOA BOARD

Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim-Goa
Design of the Question paper
Academic year from June 2022 onwards
Std-XII Sub- Sociology
Sub Code- H4554
__________________________________________________________________
The Weightage or the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the question paper
shall be as follows:
A. 1st Terminal Examination:
1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (1st Terminal Examination) 40 Marks
(MCQ): -
Sr. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage of Marks
1 Knowledge 40 100%
2 Understanding -- --
3 Application -- --
Total 100%

2. Weightage to content (1st Terminal Examination) 40 Marks (MCQ)
Book-1 - Introducing Indian Society (40 Marks)
Sr.No. Unit Topic Marks Unit
Percentage
1 Ch.1- Introducing Indian Society 02+08
2 Unit I Ch.2- The Demographic Structure of =10 25%
Indian Society
3 Ch.3- Social Institution; continuity and 06+06
Unit II change =12 30%
4 Ch.4- The Market as a Social
Institution
5 Unit III Ch.5- Pattern of Social Inequality and 08 20%
Exclusion
6 Ch.6- Challenges of Cultural Diversity 06+04 25%

7 Unit IV Ch.7- Suggestion for Project =10
Work
Total 40 100%

3. Weightage to Forms of Question (1st Terminal Examination) 40 Marks (MCQ)
Sr. No Forms Of Question Marks for Number of Total Marks
each Question
Question
1 Objective Type Question 01 40 40
2 Short Answer Type 1 -- -- --
3 Short Answer Type 2 -- -- --
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 40 40

4. The Expected time for Different types of Question would be as follows:
Approx. Time Number of Approx. time
For Each Questions for each form of
Sr. No Forms Of Questions Question in Questions in
Mins (1) Mins (T x N)
1 Very short answer 2.25 40 90 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 -- -- --
3 Short Answer Type 2 -- -- --
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 90 40 90 mins

5. Weightage to Types of Questions (1st Terminal Examination) 40 Marks
(MCQ): -
Sr. No Types of Questions Number Marks Weightage Time
of (%) Allotted
Questions (Minutes)
1 Objective Type Question 40 40 100 90 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 -- -- -- --
3 Short Answer Type 2 -- -- -- --
4 Long Answer Type -- -- -- --
Total 40 40 100% 90 mins

6. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions (1st Terminal Examination) 40
Marks (MCQ):
Sr.No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage
1 Easy 100%
2 Average --
3 Difficult --

7. Number of main Question:
There are altogether 40 Questions.

Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim-Goa
Academic year June 2022 onward
FIRST TERMINAL EXAMINATION
BLUEPRINT

Time: 2 Hours SUBJECT CODE SUB: SOCIOLOGY
H 4 5 5 4

Total No. of Questions: 40 Maximum Marks: 40

NAME OF TOPIC KNOWLEDGE TOTAL
MCQ VSA SA LA
BOOK-I Indian Society
Ch.1- Introducing Indian Society 02(02) - - - 02
Ch.2- The Demographic 08(08) - - - 08
Structure of Indian Society
Ch.3- Social Institution; continuity and 06(06) - - - 06
change
Ch.4- The Market as a Social Institution 06(06) - - - 06

Ch.5- Pattern of Social Inequality and 08(08) 08
Exclusion
Ch.6- Challenges of Cultural Diversity 06(06) - - - 06

Ch.7- Suggestion for Project Work 04(04) - - - 04

TOTAL 40

Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim-Goa
1st Terminal Examination 2022 Onwards
Model Question Paper
_______________________________________________________________________________
Time: 1 ½ Hours SOCIOLOGY
Subject code

H 4 5 5 4

Total no of Questions: 40 (printed pages :) Maximum marks: 40
_______________________________________________________________________________
Instructions: -
1. This paper consists of MCQ type questions
2. All questions are compulsory
3. Every question has four choices for its answers A, B, C and D, and only one of them is the correct
answer.
4. On the OMR sheet, for each question number, darken with a ballpoint pen. ONLY ONE bubble
corresponding to what you consider to be the most appropriate answer, from among the four
choices.
5. Please note that it is not possible to change the answer once you have filled up the bubble with
a ballpoint pen. Hence sufficient care must be taken while darkening the bubbles.
6. For each question you will be awarded one mark if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer. In all other cases, you will get zero marks. There is no
negative mark.
7. Only one OMR sheet will be provided.
8. Use only Black or Blue Ball Point Pen.

1. The main carriers of nationalism who led the campaign for freedom were the _________.
A) Urban middle classes C) Urban lower classes
B) Rural middle classes D) Rural lower classes

2. The colonial rule scarred Indian society through exploitation and domination giving rise to

______________.
A) Nationalism C) Socialism
B) Capitalism D) Liberalism

3. India is the second most populous country in the world after _____________.
A) Bangladesh C) China
B) Pakistan D) America

4. A famous Political economist who put forward the theory of population growth was
___________.
A) M. N. Srinivas C) August Comte
B) Thomas Robert Malthus D) Karl Marx

5. Malthusian theory of population growth is criticised by ______________.
A) Marxist scholars C) Socialist scholars
B) Capitalist scholars D) Historians scholars

6. The main important objective of the National Family Planning Programme was to ______.
A) Increase population growth C) Slow down population growth
B) Increase child sex ratio D) Decrease child sex ratio

7. Postponing marriage, practicing sexual abstinence, celibacy is an example of _________.
A) Preventive checks C) Negative checks
B) Positive checks D) Precautionary checks

8. The biggest epidemic which killed as many as 5% of the total population of India was
_____________.
A) Plague C) Influenza
B) Cholera D) Malaria

9. Improvements in medical cures for disease, programmes for mass vaccination and efforts to
improve sanitation helped to control _________.
A) Accidents C) Epidemic
B) Warfare D) Disaster

10. The literacy rates in states like Kerala, Mizoram, Goa is ___________.
A) Low C) Moderate
B) High D) Very low

11. When newly married couple stays with the bride’s parents, it is called a _____

A) Patrilineal family C) Matrilineal family
B) Patrilocal family D) Matrilocal family

12. Caste is determined by _____________.
A) Region C) Class
B) Religion D) Birth

13. The practice of marrying within the caste is called ___________.
A) Hypergamy C) Endogamy
B) Exogamy D) Hypogamy

14. An extended family is commonly known as ____________.
A) Joint family C) Small family
B) Nuclear family D) Large family

15. The hierarchical ordering of castes is based on the distinction between _______.
A) Occupation and status C) Religion and rituals
B) Norms and authority D) Purity and pollution

16. The largely populated caste that were granted land rights after independence were
termed as ____________.
A) Dominant caste C) Lower caste
B) Upper caste D) Scheduled caste

17. During colonial period the long-distance trade in salt was controlled by a marginalised
tribal group called _____________.
A) Banjaras C) Marwari
B) Nakaratars D) Parsi

18. ‘The Market economy is made up of a series of individual exchanges or transaction, which
automatically create a functioning and ordered system’, was argued by the famous
economist ___________.
A) Amartya Sen C) T. H. Marshall
B) A. R Desai D) Adam Smith

19.The caste based social network allowed Chettiars merchants to expand their activities
into South East Asia and ________.
A) Sri Lanka C) Bangladesh

B) India C) China

20.The businessmen are more likely to trust others of their own community or kin rather than
outsiders is ___________.
A) Marwari C) Banjaras
B) Dhorai D) Nakaratars

21. The term Status Symbol was coined by ___________.
A) Max weber C) Emiel Durkheim
B) Karl Marx D) Adam Smith

22.The famous camel fair in Pushkar held in the state of ____________.
A) Gujarat C) Maharashtra
B) Rajasthan D) Karnataka

23. Patterns of unequal access to social resources are commonly called ___________.
A) Social equality C) Social exclusion
B) Social inequality D) Social stratification

24. A pre-conceived opinion or attitude held by members of one group towards another
is called ______________.
A) Stereotype C) Pre-judgement
B) Judgement D) Prejudice

25. A system by which categories of people in a society are ranked in a hierarchy is termed as
____________.
A) Social discrimination C) Social exclusion
B) Social stratification D) Social inequality

26. The most important state initiative attempting to compensate for past and present caste
discrimination is popularly known as _____________.
A) Schemes C) Occupation
B) Reservation D) Loans

27. The first backward classes commission was headed by_________.
A) B.P Wadia C) Kaka Kalelkar
B) Gandhiji D) B.R Ambedkar

28. In Post independent India, the most significant achievement of Adivasi movement includes
the attainment of statehood for _____________.
A) Uttaranchal C) Jharkhand
B) Telangana D) Assam

29.The term which literally means ‘downtrodden’ and conveys the sense of an oppressed
people is _____________.
A) Dalit C) Backward
B) Poor D) Weak

30. Strreepurush Tulana was written by a Maharashtrian Housewife ___________.
A) Savitribai Phule C) Dr. Anandibai Jishi
B) Trabai Shinde D) Medha Patkar

31. India had a history of communal riots from pre-independence times, often as a result of
the divide-and-rule policy adopted by the ___________.
A) Russian rule C) British rulers
B) Dutch rule D) French rule

32. The most significant recent initiative introduced by the Government to maintain
transparency in its functioning is the ___________.
A) Right to information C) Right to speech
B) Right to education D) Right to vote

33.The love for community in preference to the nation or aggressive base on religious identity
is __________.
A) Secularism C) Regionalism
B) Communalism D) Socialism

34. The broad arena which lies beyond the private domain of the family, but outside the
domain of both state and market is _______________.
A) Sate C) Nation
B) Civil Society D) Village

35. The separation of religious and political authority marked as a major turning point in the
social history of the West, this process is known as __________.
A) Integration C) Modernisation
B) Nationalisation D) Secularisation

36. A Notion which generally implies a relatively small but also disadvantaged group is
___________.

A) Dominant group C) Linguistic group
B) Religious group D) Minority group

37. A method in which the researcher systematically watches and records what is happening
in whatever context or situation that has been chosen for research is called
______________.
A) Interview method C) Survey Method
B) Observation method D) Structural Method

38. An Interview which follows a pre-determined pattern of questions is called ________.
A) Structured interview C) Inventive interview
B) Unstructured interview D) Uninventive interview

39. Asking question to a relatively large number of people with the same fixed set of questions
is called ________________.
A) Observation method C) Survey Method
B) Interview method D) Unstructured Method

40. A research method which is always conducted in person is ___________.
A) Survey C) Observation
B) Interview D) Data

Answer Key
1. A) Urban middle classes
2. A) Nationalism
3. C) China
4. B) Thomas Robert Malthus
5. A) Marxist scholars
6. C) Slow down population growth
7. A) Preventive checks
8. C) Influenza
9. C) Epidemic
10. B) High
11. D) Matrilocal family
12. D) Birth
13. C) Endogamy
14. A) Joint family
15. D) Purity and pollution
16. A) Dominant caste
17. A) Banjaras
18. D) Adam Smith
19. A) Sri Lanka
20. D) Nakaratars
21. A) Max weber
22. B) Rajasthan
23. B) Social inequality
24. D) Prejudice
25. B) Social stratification
26. B) Reservation
27. C) Kaka Kalelkar
28. C) Jharkhand
29. A) Dalit
30. B) Tarabai Shinde
31. C) British rulers
32. A) Right to information
33. B) Communalism
34. B) Civil Society
35. D) Secularisation
36. D) Minority group
37. B) Observation method
38. A) Structured interview
39. C) Survey Method
40. B) Interview

B. 2nd Terminal Examination Subjective: (40 marks)

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (2nd Terminal Examination) 40 Marks: -
S. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage of Marks
1 Knowledge 08 20%
2 Understanding 24 60%
3 Application 08 20%
Total 40 100%

2. Weightage to content Final Exam (2nd Terminal Examination) 40 Marks:
Book-2 Social change and Development in India
Sr.No. Topic/Unit Marks Unit
Percentage
1 Ch.1- Structural change 05+05
Unit V =10 25%
2 Ch.2- Cultural Change
3 Ch.3- The Story of Indian Democracy 05+05
Unit VI =10 25%
4 Ch.4- Change and development in Rural
Society
5 Ch.5- Change and development in Industrial 05+05
Unit VII Society =10 25%
6 Ch.6- Globalisation and Social Change
7 Ch.7- Mass Media and 05+05
Unit VIII Communication =10 25%
8 Ch.8- Social Movement
Total 40 100%

3. Weightage to Forms of Question (2nd Terminal Examination) 40 Marks:
Sr.No Forms Of Question Marks for Number of Total
each Question Marks
Question
1 Objective Type Question
1) One sentence 01 05 05
2 Short Answer Type 1 02 07 14
3 Short Answer Type 2 03 07 21
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 40 19 40

4. The Expected time for Different types of Question would be as follows
2nd Terminal Examination) 40 Marks:
Approx. Time Number of Approx. time
For Each Questions for each form of
Sr. No Forms Of Questions Question in Questions in
Mins (1) Mins (T x N)
1 Very short answer 2 mins 5 10 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 5 mins 7 35 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 6.42 mins 7 45 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 19 90 mins

5. Weightage to Types of Question (2nd Terminal Examination) 40 Marks:
Sr No Types of Questions Number Marks Weightage Time
of (%) Allotted
Questions (Minutes)
1 Objective Type Question 5 05 10% 10 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 7 14 35% 35 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 7 21 55% 45 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- -- --
Total 19 40 100% 90 mins

6. Scheme of Options:
There is an internal choice in Question No.15 and 19 of 3 marks category.

7. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions (2nd Terminal Examination) 40
Marks:
Sr. No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage
1 Easy 30%
2 Average 60%
3 Difficult 10%

8. Number of main Question:
There are altogether 19 Questions.

Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim-Goa
Academic year June 2022 onward
SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION
BLUEPRINT

Time: 1 ½ Hours SOCIOLOGY
Subject code
H 4 5 5 4
Total no of Questions: 40 (printed pages :) Maximum marks: 40

Sr. Objectives Knowledge Understanding Application Total
No (25%) (55%) (20%)
Content Area VSA SAI SAII VSA SAI SAII VSA SAI SAII
(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (3)
Book-2 Social change and Development in India
1 Ch.1- Structural 1 (1) 13 05
change 2 (1) (3)
2 Ch.2- Cultural 3 (1) 6 (2) 7(2) 05
Change

3 Ch.3- The Story of 8(2) 14 05
Indian Democracy (3)
4 Ch.4- Change and 9 (2) 15 05
development in (3)
Rural Society
5 Ch.5- Change and 10 16 05
development in (2) (3)
Industrial Society
6 Ch.6- Globalisation 11 17 05
and Social Change (2) (3)
7 Ch.7- Mass Media 4(1) 18 05
and Communication 5(1) (3)

8 Ch.8- Social 12 19 05
Movement (2) (3)
Total 10 22 08 40

Note:
1) Figures outside the brackets indicate the question number and figures inside the brackets
indicate the marks.
2) *indicates optional questions

Goa Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education
Alto-Betim-Goa
2ND Terminal Examination 2022 Onwards
Model Question Paper
_______________________________________________________________________________
Time: 1 ½ Hours SOCIOLOGY
Subject code

H 4 5 5 4

Total no of Questions: 40 (printed pages :) Maximum marks: 40

Instructions: -
1. This question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 3 parts; A,B and C.
2. Answer each part on a fresh page.
3. Write the number of each question clearly.
4. All questions are compulsory.
5. Part A contains 5 questions of 1 mark each, and are to be answered in one sentence only.
Part B contains 7 questions of 2 marks each and Part C Contains 7 questions of 3 marks each.
6. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice is provided in Q.15 and Q.19.
7. Answer should be brief and to the point. Word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

PART A
Question number 1-5 carry 1 mark each. Answers should be written in one sentence only.
1. Name the coastal cities that favoured British Capitalism during colonial period in India.
2. What is Industrialisation?
3. Who proposed the resolution against the evils of polygamy at the All India Muslim
League Conference.
4. Name an Indian nationalist newspaper that suffered the displeasure of the Colonial
state in British India.
5. What was the initial purpose of introducing Television programming in India?

PART B
Question number 6-12 are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each. Answers to

them should normally not exceed 40 words.
6. Write note on different kinds of westernisation.
7. Critically evaluate the process of Sanskritization.
8. Explain the powers and responsibilities of the Panchayats.
9. Explain the effect of Raiyatwari system in colonial India.

10. Explain the dangers faced by workers in underground mines.
11. Elaborate the concept of weightless economy as an economic dimension of
Globalisation.
12. Explain the theory of relative deprivation.

PART C
Question number 13 -19 are carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not
exceed 60 words.
13. Write a note on industrialisation in Independent India.
14. Explain the functioning Tribal Panchayati Raj.
15. Explain the impact of Liberalisation policy on Rural Agricultural Society.
OR
Explain the adverse impact of Green Revolution on rural agrarian society.
16. Analyse home-based work with reference to beedi industry.
17. Explain the impact of globalisation on corporate culture and culture of
consumption.
18. Explain the effects of globalisation on print media.
19. Analyse the Chipko movement in India as an ecological movement.
OR
Analyse the Dalit movement as caste-based movement in India.

Answer Key
Part A
1. Mumbai and Kolkata were favoured under British Capitalism.
2. Industrialisation refers to the emergence of machine production, based on the use of
inanimate power resources like steam or electricity.
3. Jahanara Shah Nawas.
4. Nationalist newspaper Kesari.
5. Television programming was introduced experimentally to promote rural development in
India.

Part B
6. Kinds of Westernisation
i) Emergence of westernised sub- culture whereby section of Indians adopted
western ways of thinking and life styles.
ii) Westernisation influenced Indian Art and Literature.

7. Critical Evaluation of Sanskritisation.
i) Exaggerates social mobility or the scope of lower caste people to climb up the
social ladder.
ii) It justifies a model which rests on inequality and exclusion.

8. Powers and Responsibilities of Panchayat.
i) To prepare plans and schemes for economic development.
ii) To promote schemes that will enhance social justice.

9. Effect of Rayatwari System.
i) The burden of taxation was less.
ii) Areas under Rayatwari system became more productive and prosperous.

10. Dangers faced in underground mines.
i) Danger of flooding.
ii) Fire and collapse of walls.

11. Concept of Weightless Economy.
i) Products have their base in information like in computer software media and
internet.

ii)Workforce is involved not in production of physical goods but designing,
development, market ing etc.

12. Theory of Relative deprivation
i) Social conflict arises when a social group feels that it is worse off than others around
it.
ii)This theory emphasises the role of psychological factors such as resentment and rage.

Part C
13. Industrialisation in Independent India.
i) Indian nationalists saw rapid industrialisation of the economy as path towards
growth and social equity.
ii) Development of heavy machine making industries, expansion of public sector and
cooperative sector was considered important.
iii) A modern and prosperous India visualised by Jawaharlal Nehru was to be built
with giant steel plants, gigantic dams and power stations.

14. Functioning Tribal Panchayati Raj.
i) Many tribal areas have a rich tradition of grassroot democratic functioning.
ii) Example of Meghalaya, Major 3 ethnic groups having their own traditional political
institutions at various tiers, the Durbar Kur and clan headman.
iii) intolerant to women and unjust to lower caste...

15. Impact of Liberalisation Policy on Rural Agrarian Society
i) Participation of World Trade Organisation.
ii) Indian farmers were exposed to competition from global market.
iii)AII imported fruits and food items are seen in local stores.
OR
Adverse effects Of Green revolution
i) MiddIe and large farmers benefitted ethe inputs were costly.
ii) Introduction of machinery led to displacement of service caste groups.
iii)Migration of agricultural labour to cities.

16. Home based work
i) Villagers pluck tendu leaves and sell to forest department.
ii)Tendu leaves are auctioned to factories and further given to contractors.
iii)Contractor supplies material to home-based workers who make beedis.

17. Impact of globalisation on corporate culture and culture of consumption.

i) Corporate Culture is branch of management theory that seeks to increase productivity
and competition Involves Company events, rituals and traditions.
ii)Enhances employee loyalty and promotes group solidarity.
iii)Culture of Consumption Culture of consumption plays crucial role in shaping cities.
iv)Growth of malls, multiplex, entertainment parks etc. Shopping is time pass activity.

18. Impact of Globalisation on print media.
i) Circulation of newspapers has increased even with coming of television and internet.
ii) Glossy attractive magazines entered into market.
iii)The needs of the literate people migrating to cities are different and the indian
newspapers cater to those needs.

19. Chipko Movement
i) Ecological movement in Himalayan foothills where villagers rallied to save forest.
ii) Conflict between livelihood needs of poor villagers and government desire to
generate revenue.
iii)Cutting down forest was a form of environmental destruction.

OR
Dalit Movement as Caste Based Movement
i)struggle for recognition, self-confidence.
ii)Meaning of Dalit word poor, oppressed.
iii)Different movements with different issues related to Dalits, like Satnami, Adi dharma
Movement and others.

C. 1st Formative Test: (20 marks)

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (1st Formative Test) 20 Marks: -
S. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage of Marks
1 Knowledge 05 25%
2 Understanding 11 55%
3 Application 04 20%
Total 40 100%

2. Weightage to content (1st Formative Test) 20 Marks:
Book-1 - Indian Society
Sr.No. Topic/Unit Marks
1 Ch.1- Introducing Indian Society 01
2 Ch.2- The Demographic Structure of Indian Society 07
3 Ch.3- Social Institution; continuity and change 07
4 Ch.4- The Market as a Social Institution 05
Total 20

3. Weightage to Forms of Question (1st Formative Test) 20 Marks:
Sr.No Forms Of Question Marks for Number of Total
each Question Marks
Question
1 Objective Type Question
1) MCQ 03 03 03+02=05
2) One sentence 02 02
2 Short Answer Type 1 02 03 06
3 Short Answer Type 2 03 03 09
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 20 11 20

4. The Expected time for Different types of Question would be as follows:
Approx. Time Number of Approx. time
For Each Questions for each form of
Sr. No Forms Of Questions Question in Questions in
Mins (1) Mins (T x N)
1 Very short answer 2.40 mins 05 12 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 07 mins 03 21 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 09 mins 03 27 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 11 60

5. Weightage to Types of Question 1st Formative Test) 20 Marks:
Sr No Types of Questions Number Marks Weightage Time
of (%) Allotted
Questions (Minutes)
1 Objective Type Question 05 05 10% 10 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 03 06 15% 15 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 03 09 35% 35 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- -- --
Total 11 20 100% 60 mins

6. Scheme of Options:
There is an internal choice in Question No.09 of 3 marks category.

7. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions (1st Formative Test) 20 Marks:
Sr.No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage
1 Easy 30%
2 Average 60%
3 Difficult 10%

8. Number of main Question:
There are altogether 11 Questions.

Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Education
Alto -Betim- Goa
First Formative Exam 2022-23 onwards
Model Question Paper
_______________________________________________________________________________
Time: 1 ½ Hours SOCIOLOGY
Subject code

H 4 5 5 4

Total no of Questions: 40 (printed pages :) Maximum marks: 40
INSTRUCTION:
1. This question paper consists of 11 questions divided into three parts i.e. A, B and C.
2. Part A contains five questions of 1 mark each, of which 1-3 are multiple choice type
questions and 4-5 are to be answered in one sentence only. Part B contains three
questions of 2 marks each. Part C contains 3 Questions of 3 marks.
3. There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided in Q.no 9.
4. Answer should be brief and to the point and the word limit should be adhered to as
far as possible.

PART A
Part A contains 05 questions of 01 mark each of which Q. Nos 1-3 are multiple choice type
questions and Q. Nos 4-5 are to be answered in one sentence only.

PART B
Part B contains 03 questions. Q. Nos 6-8 are short answer type questions carrying 02 marks
each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 40 words.

PART C
Part C contain 03 questions. Q. Nos 9-11 are also short answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words. Internal choice is
provided in Q.9 only.

D. 2nd Formative Test: (20 marks)

1. Weightage to Learning Outcomes (2nd Formative Test) 20 Marks: -
S. No Learning Outcome Marks Percentage of Marks
1 Knowledge 05 25%
2 Understanding 11 55%
3 Application 04 20%
Total 40 100%

2. Weightage to content (2nd Formative Test) 20 Marks :-
Sr.No. Topic/Unit Marks
Book-1 - Indian Society
1 Ch.5- Pattern of Social Inequality and Exclusion 07
2 Ch.6- Challenges of Cultural Diversity 04
3 Ch.7- Suggestion for Project Work 03
Book-2 Social change and Development in India
4 Ch.1- Structural change 03
5 Ch.4- Cultural Change 03
Total 20

3. Weightage to Form of Question (2nd Formative Test) 20 Marks: -
Sr.No Forms Of Question Marks for Number of Total
each Question Marks
Question
1 Objective Type Question
1) MCQ 03 03 03+02=05
2) One sentence 02 02
2 Short Answer Type 1 02 03 06
3 Short Answer Type 2 03 03 09
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --

Total 20 11 20

4. The Expected time for Different types of Question would be as follows:
Approx. Time Number Approx. time
For Each of for each form
Sr. No Forms Of Questions Question in Questions of Questions in
Mins (1) Mins (T x N)
1 Very short answer 2.40 mins 05 12 mins
2 Short Answer Type 1 07 mins 03 21 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 09 mins 03 27 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- --
Total 11 60

5. Weightage to Types of Question (2nd Formative Test) 20 Marks: -
Sr.No Types of Questions Number of Marks Weightage Time
Questions (%) Allotted
(Minutes)
1 Objective Type 05 05 10% 10 mins
Question
2 Short Answer Type 1 03 06 15% 15 mins
3 Short Answer Type 2 03 09 35% 35 mins
4 Long Answer Type -- -- -- --
Total 11 20 100% 60

6. Scheme of Options:
There is an internal choice in Question No.09 of 3 marks category.

7. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions (2nd Formative Test) 20 Marks: -
Sr.No Estimated difficulty level of Questions Percentage
1 Easy 30%
2 Average 60%
3 Difficult 10%

8. Number of main Question:
There are altogether 11 Questions.

Goa Board of Secondary & Higher Secondary Education
Alto -Betim- Goa
Second Formative Exam 2022-23 onwards
Model Question Paper
_______________________________________________________________________________
Time: 1 ½ Hours SOCIOLOGY
Subject code

H 4 5 5 4

Total no of Questions: 40 (printed pages :) Maximum marks: 40
INSTRUCTION:
1. This question paper consists of 11 questions divided into three parts i.e. A, B and C.
2. Part A contains five questions of 1 mark each, of which 1-3 are multiple choice type
questions and 4-5 are to be answered in one sentence only. Part B contains three questions
of 2 marks each. Part C contains 3 Questions of 3 marks.
3. There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided in Q.no 9.
4. Answer should be brief and to the point and the word limit should be adhered to as far as
possible.

PART A
Part A contains 05 questions of 01 mark each of which Q. Nos 1-3 are multiple choice type
questions and Q. Nos 4-5 are to be answered in one sentence only.

PART B
Part B contains 03 questions. Q. Nos 6-8 are short answer type questions carrying 02 marks
each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 40 words.

PART C
Part C contain 03 questions. Q. Nos 9-11 are also short answer type questions carrying 03
marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words. Internal choice is
provided in Q.9 only.

C. 3rd Assignment and Project:

1. Weightage to content (3rd Assignment and Project) 20 Marks:
3rd Assignment and Project (Innovative Test) in the form of presentation/Project/Unit
Test /Group Assignment.