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AIIMS M.SC NURSING
Question Paper - 2022
(Memory Based)
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Dear students
This is a memory based question paper.
We have compiled this question paper on the basis of questions shared on social
media and various third party platforms, after the exam.
We hope this helps you in clearing your exam with an excellent score.
It is an honor for us to be a part of your journey towards success.
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Q1. The Government of India launched “Nikshay” for the tracking and monitoring of
patients with ……..
A) TB
B) Leprosy
C) Blindness
D) Pneumonia
Q2. Horseshoe shaped bone of the ear given below is commonly known as ….
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A) Incus
B) Malleus
C) Stapes
D) Cricoid
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Q3. Best measure for the assessment of chronic malnutrition is …..
A) Weight of age
B) Height for age
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C) Weight for height
D) MUAC
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Q4. Clay coloured stool in jaundice is due to :
A) Hemolytic jaundice
B) Hepatic jaundice
C) Obstructive jaundice
D) Amoebic jaundice
Q5. Chemotherapy Drug dose is decorated on the basis of :
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A) BSA
B) Weight
C) Height
D) BMI
Q6. H.pylori infection is seen in ……
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) MALT lymphoma
D) Sarcoma
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Q7. Kussmaul Respiration is observed in :
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
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D) Respiratory alkalosis
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Q8. Common site of oral cancer in India :
A) Lips
B) Floor of tongue
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C) Lateral border of tongue
D) Buccal mucosa
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Q9. Active infection by which of the following microorganisms can be detected by taking
the blood smear at night?
A) W.bancrofti
B) Plasmodium species
C) Varicella
D) Hepatitis B virus
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Q10. Which method of teaching is best for the group of drug abusers for behavior
modification?
A) Symposium
B) Discussion
C) Roleplay
D) Lecture
Q11. Kielland's forceps is used for ……
A) Delivery of head in outlet
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B) Rotation of head in the transverse arrest
C) Delivery of baby in Cesarean section
D) Delivery of head in breech
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Q12. A client has just intubated the basement on mechanical ventilation.What is the
priority assessment for confirming that ET tube placement?
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A) Chest X - ray
B) Auscultation of breath sound
C) Pulse oximetry reading of 95%
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D) End tidal carbon dioxide monitoring
Correct answer : D
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Q13. When the intervention is given to the research group and an independent variable is
under control, which one was used ?
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A) Control
B) Randomization
C) Manipulation
D) Matching
Q14. In which of the following circumstances is breach of confidentiality appropriate ?
A) Client doing an illegal activity
B) Client is threatening another client to do harm
C) Supervisor inquiring about the client
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D) Family members inquiring about the client without client’s knowledge
Q15. Which is not a component of developmentally supportive care ?
A) Early intervention therapy
B) Family centered care
C) Protected sleep
D) Supporting in activities of daily living
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Q16. When terminating an interview, which is the most important communication
technique to implement?
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A) Reflecting
B) Offering self
C) Summarizing
D) Paraphrasing
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Q17. The type of audit in which a group of nurses assesses the record of care done by
other nurses ?
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A) Formative audit
B) Summative audit
C) Retrospective audit
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D) Peer - review audit
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Q18. A primary source of histamine released during inflammatory conditions are ……
A) Enterochromaffin - like cells
B) Presynaptic nerve terminals
C) Mast cell
D) T lymphocytes
Q19. Treatment of choice in myxoedema coma is :
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A) Steroids
B) Glucagon
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Q20. Causative agent of hematogenous osteomyelitis is :
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) H.influenza
D) Salmonella
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Q21. The Schiller test is done to visualize the cervix after applying ……
A) Iodine
B) Acetic acid
C) Calcium chloride
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D) Sulphur
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Q22. Most frequently affected point in Rheumatoid arthritis :
A) Interphalangeal joints
B) Knee
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C) Shoulder
D) Hip joint
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Q23. What does it mean when kurtosis < 0?
A) Normokurtic
B) Leptokurtic
C) Platykurtic
D) Mesokurtic
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Q24. Calculate the IQ of a child whose mental age is 8 years and chronological age is 10
years?
A) 80
B) 100
C) 20
D) 67
Q25. What nurse frequently measures in neutropenic patients?
A) Vital signs
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B) Blood pressure
C) Bowel sound
D) Breath sound
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Q26. Which condition is seen in pregnancy?
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A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
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Q27. Holosystolic murmur is seen in :
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A) Aortic regurgitation
B) Aortic aneurysm
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C) ASD
D) VSD
Q28. Early sign and symptom of acute distress syndrome?
A) Crackles
B) Wheezing
C) Increased respiratory rate
D) Nasal flaring
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Q29. Which of the following components of DPT vaccine caused neurological problems?
A) Tetanus
B) Diphtheria
C) Pertussis
D) All
Q30. Echolalia is associated with age group :
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A) Infancy
B) Toddler
C) Adolescent
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D) School age
Q31. In RIFLE CRITERIA - R stands for :
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A) Risk
B) Renal
C) Residual
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D) Refractory
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Q32. Most common breast cancer type ?
A) Nodular
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B) Lobular
C) Ductal
D) Segmental
Q33. Microalbuminuria is an abnormality of :
A) Capillary functioning
B) Albumin synthesis
C) Nephron functioning
D) Renin release
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Q34. Communication from the manager of a company to the downward direction ?
A) Diagonal communication
B) Downward Communication
C) Upward communication
D) Horizontal communication
Q35. Which is a protective strategy for preventing the risk of cervical cancer ?
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A) Early initiation of sexual activity
B) Previous Chlamydia infection
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C) Using barrier methods
D) Using oral contraceptives
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Q36. Where should we place the thermometer patch in temperature monitoring ?
A) Right upper abdomen
B) Sole
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C) Chest
D) Left upper abdomen
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Q37. Which hormone is related to sleep, mood and appetite ?
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A) GABA
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Correct answer : D
Q38. White spot associated with pruritus is due to deposition of …..
A) Phosphate
B) Calcium
C) Urea
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D) Uric acid
Q39. Quantity of HIV RNA in the body is measured by ….
A) Western blot test
B) P24 antigen
C) Viral load
D) ELISA
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Q40. When terminating an interview, which is the most important communication
technique to implement ?
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A) Reflecting
B) Offering self
C) Summarizing
D) Paraphrasing
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Q41. Abnormal extension of the body related to cerebral impairment is called ?
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A) Decerebrate posturing
B) Decorticate posturing
C) Opisthotonus posturing
D) Extended posturing
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Q42. Which right of mentally ill patient is included in MHA 2017 ?
A) Which was not covered in the previous act
B) Right to communicate
C) Advanced directive
D) Right of safe treatment
Q43. The correct method of messaging a baby is :
A) Two fingers smooth strokes
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B) Using 5 mt of massage oil
C) From hands to trunk then head
D) Using very gentle touch
Q44. Which antibiotic triggers the activation of histamine in the body ?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgM
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Q45. In which of the following conditions pulse rate shoots to 200-300 per min notable on
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ECG?
A) Atrial flutter
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Ventricular fibrillation
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D) Option not confirm it can be intervention also
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Q46. Abnormal extension of body can be seen which diseases?
A) Tetanus
B) Meningitis
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C) Tuberculosis
D) Liver cirrhosis
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Q47. Program which replaced the Planning Commission?
A) NITI AYOG
B) National Rural livelihood mission
C) Atal innovation mission
D) AMRUT
Q48. Tumor marker for breast cancer is ?
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A) PSA
B) CA 125
C) CA 13-3
D) Ca 19-9
Q49. Best nursing intervention for Alzheimer patients?
A) Teaching relaxation technique
B) Nutrition management
C) Best communication strategies
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D) Orientation
Correct answer : D
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Q50. Learned helplessness is seen in …..
A) Depression
B) Mania
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C) Substance abuse disorder
D) Schizophrenia
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Q51. Discriminative sampling is used in which research?
A) Experimental studies
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B) RCT
C) Case control studies
D) Survey
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Correct answer : D
Q52. Atrial rate 300-600 bb/min is seen in which dysrhythmia?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Atrial flutter
D) PSVT
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Q53. An alcoholic person blames his family for his drinking habit. Which defense
mechanism does he use ?
A) Rationalization
B) Reaction formation
C) Denial
D) Undoing
Q54. The social phenomenon that forces people to stay in a group?
A) Storming
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B) Norming
C) Performing
D) Adjourning
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Q55. What are the most common causes of aortic aneurysms?
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A) Atherosclerosis
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Ehlers - Danlos syndrome
D) Obesity
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Q56. Which of the following parameter is changes then the patient bites an ET tube :
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A) Tidal volume
B) Peak inspiratory pressure
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C) PEEP
D) End tidal volume
Q57. Among several complications of paget disease of bone, which is most closely
related to serum calcium level?
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Spinal stenosis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Compressed nerves
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Q58. In which of the following conditions injection enoxaparin is contraindicated ?
A) DIC
B) ITP
C) Acute coronary syndrome
D) Pulmonary embolism
Q59. Cholestyramine is given in liver cirrhosis for the treatment of :
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A) Pruritus
B) Hypoproteinemia
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C) GI distress
D) Constipation
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Q60. Late complication associated with Trochanteric fracture is?
A) Nerve injury
B) Fat embolism
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C) Malunion
D) Shock
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Q61. Gold standard test for diagnosing Achalasia cardia is:
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A) Barium enema
B) Barium swallow
C) X ray
D) Esophageal manome
Correct answer : D
Q62. The nurse is caring for four clients receiving IV Infusion of normal saline. Which
client is at highest risk for blood stream infection?
A) A client who has a non tunneled Central Line in the left internal jugular vein
B) A client with an implanted port in the right
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C) A line with a peripherally inserted Central catheter (PICC) line in the right upper arm
D) A client who has midline IV catheter in the left antecubital fossa
Q63. Full form of RAD is ….
A) Radioactive decay
B) Radiation absorbed dose
C) Radiation absorbed dose
D) Radiation adjusted dose
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Q64. You are providing care to the patient experiencing neurogenic shock due to an
injury at the T4. As the nurse, you know which of the following is a Patient Safety priority
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A) Keeping the head of the bed greater than 45 degree at all times
B) Prepositioning the patient every 30 minutes
C) Keeping the patient ‘s spine immobilized
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D) Avoiding long rolling the patient during transport
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Q65. Target SpO2, of preterm baby at 2 min of life :
A) 65 - 69%
B) 70 - 75%
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C) 85 - 89%
D) 90 - 95%
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Q66. Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade includes all, except :
A) Hypotension
B) Increased JVP
C) Muffled Heart sounds
D) Tachycardia
Correct answer : D
Q67. Large minute volume can cause which of the following complications?
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A) Barotrauma
B) Respiratory distress
C) Alveolar hyperinflation
D) Oxygen toxicity
Q68. Superior vena cava a syndrome causes all, except :
A) Arm edema
B) Lower limb edema
C) Upper limb edema
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D) Facial edema
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Q69. The nerves are caring for a patient that has a myocardial infarction 3 days ago. The
nerves should be accessed for which abnormal heart sound ?
A) Aortic stenosis
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B) Ejection click
C) Pericardial friction rub
D) S5
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Q70. Myocardial reinfarction can be detected by?
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A) CK MB
B) Troponin
C) Venous oxygen pressure
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D) Oxygen saturation
Q71. Cystocele is formed by …. Of the bladder?
A) Base
B) Superior surface
C) Trigone
D) Posterior
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Q72. Initial management of tumor lysis syndrome include :
A) Hydration
B) Correction of hyperkalaemia
C) Allopurinol
D) Hemodialysis
Q73. Following figures describe which of the following deformity of figures ?
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A) Dupuytren’s syndrome
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B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Bursitis
D) Boutonniere deformity
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Q74. Homonymous hemionopsia refers to :
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A) Vision loss on the same side of the visual field in both eyes
B) Vision loss on the opposite side of the visual field in both eyes
C) Vision loss in the inner half of both the right and left visual field
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D) Vision loss in the outer half of the right and left visual field
Q75. Last stage of fracture healing is :
A) Modeling
B) Remodeling
C) Callus formation
D) Hematoma
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Q76. Type of inventory management techniques related to the rate of consumption of
supplies is known as ……
A) FSN
B) ABC
C) HML
D) XYZ
Q77. “Roth spots” in a patient with infective endocarditis presents as :
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A) Non - tender spots found on the feet and hands
B) Red and tender lesions found in the eyes
C) Retinal hemorrhages with white centers
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D) Purplish spots found on the forearms and groin
Q78. Holosystolic murmurs can be heard in
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A) Atrial septal defects
B) Mitral regurgitation
C) Aortic regurgitation
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D) Pulmonic regurgitation
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Q79. Non - tropical sprue is caused by an autoimmune reaction to :
A) Gluten
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B) Milk
C) Fat
D) Protein
Q80. Cholecystokinin (CCK) hormone which is released from the intestinal epithelium
triggers?
A) Release of bile from the gallbladder
B) Conversion of protein to peptones
C) Conversion of fats into glycerol
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D) Secretion of pancreatic juice
Q81. Of the following bio markers specific to bone formation ?
A) Hydroxyproline
B) Osteocalcin
C) Osteopontin
D) Cathepsin
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Q82. Basophils play a pivotal role in ….. Mediated systemic anaphylaxis.
A) IgG
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B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgA
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Q83. Acute pancreatitis can be accurately diagnosed by …..
A) Serum lipase
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B) Serum amylase
C) Gamma - glutamyl transferase (GGT)
D) Alkaline phosphatase
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Q84. A person suspects his friend wants to kill him. This is an example
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A) Hallucinations
B) Delusion of persecution
C) Derealisation
D) Delusion of infidelity
Q85. Last phase of the Bone healing
A) Modeling
B) Inflammation
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C) Remodelling
D) All of the following
Q86. Which mechanism is this, an alcoholic Pt. blames his family environment?
Correct answer : Projection
Q87. Kussmaul respiratory is seen in -
Correct answer : Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) & Pericarditis
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Q88. Teloper is a disorder of -
Correct answer : Club foot
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Q89. Most common cause of aneurysm -
Correct answer : DVT / High BP / Atherosclerosis
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Q90. Which enzyme is essential in diseases of cystic fibrosis?
Correct answer : Trypsin
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