NBSE Class 11 Question Paper 2023 All Subjects

Nagaland Board
Question Paper
2 0 23

Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XI/ENG/1
2023
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 15 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION-A (Literature)

1. Answer the following questions: 5x2=10

(a) Why was the boy not successful in his attempt to steal from the large
woman?
(b) What does the ‘Article 1081 of the code’ say in the story ‘The
Malefactor’?
(c) What is the greatest irony of the diamond maker’s life?
(d) Why was the Verger asked to step down?
(e) What kind of books the people in Zimbabwe wanted to read?

2. Answer any one of the following questions in about 150 words:

(a) In the story ‘The Diamond Maker’ by H.G Wells, the diamond maker faces
a lot of hardships trying to make the diamonds. Write a note on the
difficulties faced by him.
Or 5
(b) Albert Foreman became rich and successful despite not knowing how to
read and write. Does this disprove the importance of reading and writing?
Explain with reasons.
3. Read the lines from the poem and answer any two questions that follow:

I. Remember, we who take arms against each other
It is the human earth that we defile.
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own.

(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘take arms’? 1
(b) How do we defile the earth? 1
(c) What are the hells of fire and dust? 1

II. If all men count with you, but none too much;
If you can fill the unforgiving minute
With sixty seconds’ worth of distance run,

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(a) Why should ‘all men’ count, but ‘none’ too much? 1
(b) Why has the minute been called ‘unforgiving’? 1
(c) What does the poet mean by saying ‘sixty seconds’ worth of distance run? 1

III. Why is thinking something women never do?
And why is logic never ever tried?
Straightening up their hair is all they ever do.
Why don’t they straighten up the mess that’s inside?

(a) From which lesson is the above extract taken from? 1
(b) What kind of character does the speaker reveal about himself through these
lines? 1
(c) Give the difference in the meaning between ‘straighten up’ in lines 3 and 4.
1

4. What is the theme of the poem Kelhoukevira? How does the poet use words and
phrases to convey the theme? 4

5. Jack: Well my name is Ernest in town and Jack in the country and the cigarette
case was given to me in the country.

(a) Who is Jack speaking to? 1
(b) Who gifted the cigarette case to Jack? What relation Jack has with this
person? 2
(c) Why is he called Ernest in town and Jack in the country? 2

Or

Discuss the character of Algernon and Lane and how they depict a peculiar
aspect of society and the relationship between the rich and their servants. 5

6. Answer any two of the following questions in about 150 words: 5x2=10

(a) Write the character sketch of Mani.
(b) Who was Rajam? Why was Mani angry with him?
(c) Discuss the irony present in the novel, Swami and Friends.

SECTION –B (Reading)

7. I wandered lonely as a cloud

I wandered lonely as a cloud
That floats on high o’er vales and hills,
When all at once I saw a crowd,

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A host, of golden daffodils;
Beside the lake, beneath the trees,
Fluttering and dancing in the breeze.

Continuous as the stars that shine
And twinkle on the milky way,
They stretched in never –ending line
Along the margin of a bay;
Ten thousand saw I at a glance,
Tossing their heads in sprightly dance.

The waves beside them danced: but they
Out did the sparkling waves in glee:
A poet could not but be gay,
In such a jocund company:
I gazed- and gazed- but little thought
What wealth the show to me had brought:

For oft, when on my couch I lie
In vacant or in pensive mood,
They flash upon that inward eye
Which is the bliss of solitude;
And then my heart with pleasure fills,
And dances with the daffodils.

(i) Based on your reading of the poem, complete the following in the space
provided 4x½=2

The poet wandered as a ____in the country side. Suddenly, his eyes catch the
sight of a large number of _____ fluttering and dancing beneath the trees. The
poet often thinks about them in vacant or in _____ mood and his heart is filled
with_____.

(ii) Find words in the poem that mean the same as: 2x1=2

(a) Lively
(b) Shining

8. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
One of the greatest mysteries of bird life is travelling. Every year during autumn
and early winter, birds travel from northern regions of Asia, Europe and America to
the southern warmer lands. They make the return journey again during spring and

early summer. They are punctual unless they are delayed by bad weather. They face
many dangers and hardships while travelling long distances through the air, over hills,
forest, plains and large stretches of water. Sometimes, sudden storms arise and drive
them far out of course. Often they are blown right out to sea and drowned in the wild

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waves. At night, bright lights attract and confuse the birds. They cannot fly at their
fastest. The migration speed is usually from 48 km an hour and rarely exceeds 80.
Based on your reading of the passage answer the following questions:
I. (a) When do the birds travel from northern regions to southern warmer lands? 1
(b) What dangers do they face when they are flying? 2

II. Give words from the passage which mean the same as: 2x1=2
(a) detain (b) riddle

9. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Character is destiny. Character is that on which the destiny of a nation is
built. One cannot have a great nation with man of small character. We must have
young men and women who look upon others as the living images of themselves
as our sacred texts have so often declared. But whether in public life or in student
life, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot
climb the mountain when the ground at our feet is crumbling. When the very
basis of our structure is shaky how can we reach the heights we have set before
ourselves? We must all have humility. Here is a country which we are all
interested in building up. For whatever service we take up, we should not care
for what we receive. We should know how much we can put into that service.
That should be the principle which should animate our young men and women.
Ours is a great country, we have had for centuries a great history. The whole
world of the East reflects our culture.

a. What quality of a person is mentioned here? 1
b. What kind of young men and women we must have? 1
c. How can we reach the great heights we have set? 2
d. Give words from the passage which means the opposite as: 2x1=2
(i) building (ii) arrogance

SECTION-C (Writing)

10. You are the Principal of Little Angel School, Noklak. Draft a notice in not more
than 50 words directing all the parents and guardians to clear all school fees/dues
before the commencement of the final examination.
Or 4
You are Jessica. Write an informal invitation to your closest friends inviting
them for dinner to celebrate the silver wedding anniversary of your parents.

11. You have recently taken admission in a new school. Write a diary entry

describing vividly the feelings and experiences of your first day in the new
school.
OR 5

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Write an essay in about 150-200 words on the topic, ‘Role of Technology and
Communication in Modern Society’.

12. Write a letter to the Editor of a newspaper, drawing the attention of the
concerned authorities towards the long power cuts that your colony is facing
causing a lot of inconvenience to the students.
6

SECTION-D (Grammar)

13. You need a mobile phone. But your father is not willing as he thinks you might
misuse it. You convince him by giving the following assurances and you narrate
it to your friends. (Remember to use Indirect Speech)
* will never take it to the school.
* will switch it off during study hours.
* will not use it for playing games.
* take necessary precautions while using it.
4

14. Complete the following sentences by giving two reasons for each of them:
a) I was washing my clothes when:
b) It is a good habit to wake up early as:
c) You love your school because: 3

15. Write three effective ways to preserve environment degradation. (Remember to
use Passive Voice)
3

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Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/GEO/1

2023
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 27 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Alternate questions for visually impaired students are provided in question 14
and 27.
Only the visually impaired students have to attempt the alternate question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

Section –A

1. Name the person who first coined the term ‘Geography’. 1

2. Which planet is also called the blue planet? 1

3. What is meant by ‘hotspots’? 1

4. Name two career options of studying geography. 2

5. What is Nebula? Who gave the theory of Nebula Hypothesis? 1+1=2

6. What is insolation? 2

7. Define genetic diversity and species diversity. 2

8. Explain Wegener’s Continental Drift Theory. 3

9. a. Distinguish between exogenic forces and endogenic forces with examples.
Or 3
b. What are the three types of moraines?

10. a. Explain in brief any three important gases of the atmosphere.
Or 3
b. Distinguish between dew and frost.

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11. a. Write a note on the economic importance of continental shelf.
Or 3
b. Write any three factors affecting the salinity of water.

12. a. What is soil? Briefly explain four factors of soil formation. 1+4=5
Or
b. Write a short note on the three erosional landforms and two depositional
landforms of wind. (3+2=5)

13. a. What is a front? Explain briefly the types of fronts.
Or 1+4=5
b. What is global warming? Explain briefly four concerns of global warming.

14. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below. 1+1=2
(a) Eurasian plate
(b) Ring of fire

For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.14
(a) Which continents does the Eurasian plate cover?
(b) Around which ocean is the ring of fire found?

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Section –B

15. Mention one island country of Indian Ocean. 1

16. What is the latitudinal and longitudinal extend of India? ½+ ½ =1

17. Name any two rivers of India that flows into the Arabian sea. 1+1=2

18. Define Monsoon. 2

19. What are natural hazards? 2

20. What are earthquakes? Mention one cause. 1+1=2

21. State why India is known as a sub-continent? 3

22. a. Distinguish between Western Himalayas and Eastern Himalayas.
Or 3
b. Explain briefly any three types of drainage pattern.

23. a. Mention any three examples of diversities in the monsoonal unity of Indian
climate.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between social forestry and urban forestry.

24. a. Mention any three steps to reduce the adverse effects of floods. 3
Or
b. What is tropical cyclone? Mention two effects of tropical cyclone. (1+2=3)

25. a. Name any five physiographic divisions of India.
Or 5
b. Differentiate between Bhangar and Khadar.

26. a. Write any five significant role of monsoon in Indian economic life.
Or 5
b. Mention the five types of forests in India.

27. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
a) The Great Indian Desert
b) Northern most river basin of India

c) Brahmaputra river

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For Visually Impaired Students in lieu of Q.no.27
(a) Where is the Great Indian desert located?
(b) Name the Northern most river basin of India.
(c) Name one state of India through which the Brahmaputra flows.

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/ENT/1
2023
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Full marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Why does entrepreneur seek an enterprise? 1

2. Who are drone entrepreneurs? 1

3. Write any two examples of sales promotion. 1

4. What is meant by expenses? 1

5. Define angel investors. 1

6. Define personal financing. 1

7. State three importance of market survey. 3

8. Write any three features of business model. 3

9. Mention three ways how indirect taxes are imposed. 3

10. What are the types of cost included in the startup cost? 3

11. Write three facts about tax which an entrepreneur must know. 3

12. a. Explain any five managerial functions of an entrepreneur.
Or 5
b. Explain five reasons why one should become an entrepreneur.

13. a. Explain the common ways of generating ideas.
Or 5
b. Explain any five elements of business plan.

14. a. Explain any five different types of entrepreneurs, according to Bill Wagner.

Or 5
b. State any five basic steps to manage execution of plan.

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15. a. What is meant by new age economy? Explain the four tips and techniques to
survive in new age economy.
Or 1+4= 5
b. What is business incubator? Mention four types of support given by the
business incubator.

16. a. State any two types of internal risk and any three types of external risk.
2+3=5
Or
b. Explain any five innovations that become the base for successful venture. (5)

17. a. Explain any eight essential attitudes for an entrepreneur.
Or 8
b. Explain briefly the behavioral competencies of an entrepreneur.

18. a. Explain five merits and three de-merits of contract manufacturing. 5+3=8
Or
b. Explain any four importance of pricing and four ways to launch venture
after pricing strategies. (4+4=8)

19. a. Explain eight factors affecting the working capital of a business.
Or 8
b. Explain eight different methods of debt financing.

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Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-XI/MS/1

2023
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is a chromatic scale? 1

2. Write the full form of SATB. 1

3. Name a form commonly used in vocal music. 1

4. Which harmonic rhythm changes once in a bar? 1

5. Name one instrument that uses the alto clef. 1

6. Write the main beats for time signature. 1

7.

What are the enharmonic equivalents of C and F  ? 1

8. What is transposition ? 1

9. Give the meaning of : 1
a) pesante b) subito

10. Which two chords create a plagal cadence ? 1

11. How is dominant seventh chord formed ? 1

12. Identify the given interval. 1

(2) NB-XI/MS/1

13. Write the correct clef before these notes. 2

14. Continue the rhythm to fit the following phrase : 2
‘Early one morning just as the sun was rising’

15. Name the harmonic rhythm in the following music. 1+1=2

a)

b)

16. Write two more repeats of this chromatic ostinati that moves in
similar motion. 2

(3) NB-XI/MS/1

17. Work out the keys of the following music : 1+1=2

a)

b)

18. Write a tune for oboe using the first five degrees of the scale of E minor
to the given rhythm. Use a key signature and finish on the tonic. 2

19. Add unaccented passing notes below the asterisks : 2

20. Construct the dominant 7th chord in the key of B major using semibreves,
on the bass stave. Give key signature. 2

21. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the key of C minor (bass stave) following
the rhythm given below, going down and then up. 2

22. Add bar lines to agree with the time signature. 2

Answer any five from questions 23-29

23. Draw the following intervals up from the given notes. 4x1=4

Diminished major octave minor
5th 3rd 7th

(4) NB-XI/MS/1

24. Write the following tunes using alto clef so that they sound at the
same pitch. 2+2=4

a)

b)

25. Draw the tonic triads in root position, first inversion and second
inversion in the given keys as directed. Use semibreves. 2+2=4
a) D major (alto clef)
b) C minor (treble clef)

26. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord
symbols to show the chord progression . 4

27. Give the key of each cadence and identify the type of cadence. Label
them with roman numerals and chord symbols. 2+2=4
a) b)

28. Using minims, construct the following scales with key signature. 2+2=4
a) D major scale, going down (alto clef)
b) C melodic minor scale, going up (treble clef)

29. Using crotchets, write out 4-part chord for SATB, using the chords
shown by the roman numerals. Double the root in each case. Label
with chord symbols and roman numerals. Use key signature. 2+2=4
a) Key of A major - IV
b) Key of E minor - V

(5) NB-XI/MS/1

Answer any three from questions 30-34.

30. Using crotchets, write broken chords in the given keys as directed.
Finish no less than 2 leger lines above/below the stave. Use patterns
of three notes: 3+3=6
a) B  major tonic triad, going up, treble clef, time. (start on the
first B below the stave)
b) E minor triad, going down, bass clef, time (start on the first E
above the stave)

31. Draw scales in the given keys and construct triads on the tonic,
sub-dominant and dominant degrees. Label them with roman numerals

F  melodic minor scale, alto clef, going up.
and chord symbols. (Use semibreves) 3+3=6
a)
b) G harmonic minor scale, bass clef, going down.

32. Use notes from the chords shown by the roman numerals to create : 3+3=6
a) A bass line for the given melody. Add repeated notes and octaves.

b) A tune for the given bass line. Add some unaccented passing notes.

(6) NB-XI/MS/1
33. Transpose the following tunes : 3+3=6
a) Up a perfect fourth.

b) Down a perfect fifth.

34. Look at the music and answer the questions below. 6x1=6

a) What key is this music in ?
b) Name the harmonic rhythm of bass 1 and 2 .
c) Name the interval between the two notes marked by asterisks (*) .
d) Name the cadence formed at the end of the music.
What is the dot under the note (  ) ?
e)
f)

How much higher is the opening quaver in bar 3 compared to the
opening quaver in bar 2 ?

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Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/HIS/1
2023
HISTORY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 29 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Alternate questions for visually impaired students is provided in question 29
Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. When did the cities first begin to emerge? 1

2. Name the country in which the first towns begin to emerge. 1

3. Under which Roman Emperor, Christianity became the State religion? 1

4. What is Yasa? 1

5. Who introduced Feudalism in Europe? 1

6. Who wrote the book called ‘The Prince’? 1

7. When was slavery abolished in USA? 1

8. From which Adventurer’s name is the word ‘America’ derived from? 1

9. Who was the founder of Kuomintang (KMT) party in China? 1

10. When did the Japanese surrender to the Allied powers? 1

11. Give two reasons why the people in the villages migrated to the cities. 2

12. Who were the Patritians? 2

13. Which two events destroyed the socio-economic basis of Feudalism? 2

14. What were the functions of medieval monastery? 2

15. Mention two features of Humanism. 2

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16. Who were called ‘Native Americans’ and ‘Red Indians’? 2
17. Briefly describe the contribution of Romans to government and politics. 4
18. How did Buddhism spread among the Mongol nomads? 4
19. Mention the four values of Feudalism. 4
20. What were the results of Japan opening up to commercial treaties? 4
Answer any two from Q.21 to Q.23 2x6=12

21. Describe the growth of early cities in Iraq.

22. Examine the cause of the fall of the West Roman Empire.

23. Discuss the achievements of Meiji Rule in Japan.

Answer any three from Q.24 to Q.28 3x8=24

24. Who founded the Mongolian Empire? Describe the distinct characteristics of the
nomadic Mongolian society. (1+7=8)

25. Write the meaning of Feudalism? Describe the main features of Feudalism. (1+7=8)

26. What is meant by Renaissance and what were the causes of its movement? (2+6=8)

27. How did the Europeans exploit the natives of North America?

28. Explain the role of Zaibatsu in the economy of Japan.

29. On the map given below six (6) places have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6.
Match the numbered places with the questions and name the places/country. 1x6=6

(a) Early cities (b) Holy Roman Empire
(c) Origin of Feudalism (d) Mongol Empire
(e) Place where Captain Cook reached in 1770 (f) Meiji rule

-3- NB/XI/HIS/1

For visually impaired students in lieu of Q no.29 (1x6=6)

(a) Name a modern day country under Mesopotamia.

(b) In which country is the Holy Roman Empire located?

(c) Name the country where Feudalism originated.

(d) Name the country that was under Mongol Empire.

(e) Which place did Captain Cook reached in 1770?

(f) Name the country that was under Meiji rule.

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Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/ACC/1

2023
ACCOUNTANCY

Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 17 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is meant by accounting? 1

2. Define capital. 1

3. Mention two methods of preparing trial balance. 1

4. Write two examples of capital receipts. 1

5. Write two circumstances when purchases account is credited. 1

6. State any three advantages of accounting. 3

7. Explain the three fundamental accounting assumptions. 3

8. Write any three points of difference between debit vouchers and credit vouchers.
3
9. Prepare a Trial Balance from the following information:
Particulars Amount (`)
Wages 26,000
Building 60,000
Commission 500
Sales 1,00,000
Capital 1,23,100
Creditors 12,500
Drawings 500
Machinery 16,000
Furniture& fixture 41,600

Debtors 33,700
Purchases 56,000

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Bad debts recovered 700
Income tax 2,000 3

10. Calculate working capital from the following information:
Particulars Amount( `)
Stock in hand 48,000
Trade debtors 36,000
Prepaid tax 400
Trade creditors 42,000
Bills payable 3,200
Bank overdraft 4,800
Interest outstanding 1,000 3

11. a. Distinguish between book keeping and accounting on any six basis.
Or 6
b. Explain any six activities of accounting.

12. Answer any two (2) from the following questions: 2x6=12

a. Prove that the accounting equation is satisfied in all the following transactions
of John:
i) Commenced business with cash ` 60,000.
ii) Paid rent in advance ` 500.
iii) Purchased goods for cash ` 30,000 and credit ` 20,000.
iv) Sold goods for cash ` 30,000 costing ` 20,000.
v) Paid salary ` 500 and salary outstanding ` 100.
vi) Bought motorcycle for personal use ` 5,000.

b. Enter the following transactions in the purchases book and sales book.
Date Particulars Amount (`)
2021
Jan.1 Sold goods to Ramesh 525
Bought of Hari Ram 780
Jan.2 Sold to Dina Nath 550
Purchased goods from Mangal 700
Jan.4 Bought of Devi Dayal 325
Sold to Zakir Hussain 350
Jan.6 Sold to Ram Saran 500
Sold to Ghanshyam 300
Jan.7 Bought of Devi Dayal 700

-3- NB/XI/ACC/1

Jan.9 Purchased goods from Raghu Nath
subject to a trade discount of 10% 1,000
Jan.10 Sold to Raja Ram goods subject to
trade discount 5% 500

c. Explain any three errors with example.

13. a. Explain any six basic principles of accounting.
Or 6
b. State any six users of accounting information.

14. a. From the following information prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31st
March, 2022:
i) Bank overdraft balance as per the cash book ` 7,640.
ii) Cheques deposited but not credited by the bank ` 10,000.
iii) Credit transfer not recorded in the cash book ` 200.
iv) Cheques issued but not present for payment ` 37,400.
v) Interest debited by the bank but not recorded in the cash book ` 1,000.
vi) Bank charges not recorded in the cash book ` 340.
Or 6
b. Write any six causes of disagreement between the balance shown by the cash
book and the balance shown in the passbook.

15. a. Journalise the following transactions in the journal of M.Chand

Date Transactions `
Jan. 1 M Chand started business with cash 20,000
Jan. 3 He opened a current account in the bank 5,000
Jan. 7 Purchased goods on credit from Shyam 4,000
Jan. 10 Paid to Shyam in full settlement 3,900
Jan. 13 Machinery purchased 2,000
Jan. 16 Goods sold to Mohan 3,000
Jan. 18 Amount received from Mohan 1,000
Jan. 20 Salaries outstanding 700
Jan. 23 Rent received 300
Jan. 28 Goods purchased from Sohan 4,000
Jan.31 Interest on capital @10% per annum for
the month
Jan.31 Depreciation on machinery 100

Or 10

-4- NB/XI/ACC/1

b. From the following particulars, write three column Cash Book of Anurag and
Mangal.
Dddd Date Particulars (``)
March 1 Cash in hand 2,892
March 1 Bank balance 2,172
March 4 Paid salaries in cash 1,320
Paid Satish & Co.by Cheque in full settlement of their
March 4 1,560
claim of ` 1,590
March 5 Received from Ram & Mohan on account Cheque for 2,400
March 6 Bought goods for cash 150
March 7 Cash sent to bank 600
March 8 Paid Hari Bros by Cheque (discount allowed ` 3) 384
March 9 Received from Mohan Bros in coins and notes 900
Received from Ramesh & Co. Cheque (discount allowed
March 11
` 8) 960
March 12 Drawn from Bank 1,200
March 14 Paid wages 1,620
Cheque from Ramesh & Co. returned dishonoured and
March 14
Bank debits account in respect of charges 12
March 14 Interest collected by Bank 180
March 14 Cash sales 480
March 15 Bought goods from Gyan on credit 162

16. a. From the following information of Bharat Tulsian Limited prepare Machinery
Account for three years ending 31st March, 2022.
Method of Depreciation: Straight Line, Rate of depreciation : 20% per annum.
Date Transactions
1.04.2019 Purchased a second hand machinery I for ` 80,000
1.04.2019 Spent ` 20,000 on its repairs to make it serviceable
1.10.2019 Purchased a new machinery II for ` 2,00,000
1.04.2020 Spent ` 2,000 on repairs of new machinery II
30.09.2021 Sold machinery I for ` 45,000
30.09.2021 Purchased a new machinery III for ` 3,00,000
Or 10
b. What is reserve? State any three objectives of reserve. Write any 6 points of
difference between provision and reserve. (1+3+6=10)

-5- NB/XI/ACC/1

17. a. The following is the trial balance of Mr.Amir on 31st March, 2022:

Particulars Dr. ( `) Cr. (`)
Plant & machinery 55,000 -
Fixtures & fittings 1,720 -
Mr.Amir’s Capital Account/Drawings 6,820 93,230
Factory fuel & power 542 -
Office salaries 3,745 -
Manufacturing expenses 2,680 -
Bills payable - 6,422
Factory lighting 392 -
Travelling expenses 925 -
Carriage on sales 960 -
Cash at bank 2,245 -
Cash in hand 68 -
Sundry Debtors/Creditors 47,800 22,680
Purchases/Sales 83,290 1,26,177
Wages 9,915 -
Rent and taxes 1,765 -
Office expenses 2,778 -
Carriage inward 897 -
Discount 422 -
Stock on 1.4.2021 21,725 -
Returns 7,422 3,172
Insurance 570 -
Total 2,51,681 2,51,681
Adjustments:
i) Depreciate 5% on plant and machinery and 10% on fixtures and fittings.
ii) Provision for doubtful debts 2½% on sundry debtors.
iii) Rent outstanding for March, 2022 ` 150.
iv) Insurance unexpired on 31st March, 2022 ` 70.
v) Outstanding wages and salaries ` 800 and ` 350 respectively.
vi) Stock on 31st March, 2022, ` 16,580.
Prepare Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ended on
st
31 March, 2022 and a Balance Sheet as on that date.
Or 10

-6- NB/XI/ACC/1

b. Trial Balance of Mr. Thomas as on 31st March, 2022.

Particulars Dr. (`) Cr.( `)
Capita/ Drawings 3,600 2,00,000
Building 30,000 -
Furniture & fittings 15,000 -
Computer 50,000 -
Loan from Mr. Ravi @6% per annum
(taken on 1.04.2021) - 30,000
Interest on loan 1,800 -
Loose tools 32,200 -
Purchases/Sales 1,50,000 2,00,000
Stock on 1.4.2021 50,000 -
Freight inward 4,000 -
Freight outward 2,000 -
Commission received - 15,000
Debtors/Creditors 56,000 20,000
Bank 40,400 -
General expenses 30,000 -
Total 4,65,000 4,65,000

Adjustments:
i) Closing stock ` 64,000.
ii) Depreciation: computer at 10% per annum, building at 5% per annum,
furniture & fittings at 10% per annum.
iii) Provide for doubtful debts at 5% and for discount on debtors at 2%.
iv) Provide interest on drawings at 6% and on capital at 8%.
Prepare Trading Account, Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet as
on 31st March, 2022.

****************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/PHY/1

2023
PHYSICS
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What determines the nature of the path followed by a moving particle? 1
(a) Speed (b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration (d) Both (b) and (c).

2. If force and displacement of particle in the direction of force are
doubled, then work done would be
1
(a) double (b) 4 times
1
(c) half (d) times.
4

3. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the
conservation of 1
(a) mass (b) linear momentum
(c) angular momentum (d) energy.

4. At 0K temperature, which of the following properties of an ideal gas
will be zero? 1
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy
(c) Vibrational energy (d) Density.

5. A simple harmonic motion is represented by F(t) = 10 sin (20t + 0.5).
The amplitude of the simple harmonic motion is 1
(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 5.

6. Mention two physical quantities which have same dimensions as that
of work. 1

 2 
7. Prove that a  b  (a.b ) 2  a 2b 2 . 1

-2- NB/XI/PHY/1

8. State Newton’s law of gravitation. 1

9. What is meant by degrees of freedom of gas molecules? 1

10. What is the net displacement of a particle executing SHM in one
complete cycle? 1

11. Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is Newton second. A cricket
player lowers his hand while catching a ball. Why ? 2

12. a. A light and a heavy body have same kinetic energy. Which one will
have more momentum and why?
Or 2
b. Two balls each of mass M moving in opposite direction with equal
speed undergo a head on collision. Calculate the velocity of the
two balls after collision.

13. Show that the velocity of centre of mass of a system of particles
remain constant when no external force act on it. 2

14. a. An object weights 90 kg on the surface of the earth. How much will
it weigh on the surface of the planet Mars, whose mass is 1/9th and
radius 1/2th of that of the earth?
Or 2
b. An artificial satellite is revolving around the earth near its surface.
By how much its speed be increased so that it may escape from the
gravitational pull of the earth and become free?

15. a. Two wires of the same materials have lengths in the ratio1:2 and
their radii are in the ratio 1: 2 . If they are stretch by applying
equal forces, then find the ratio of elongations of the two wires.
Or 2
b. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.084% when subjected to
hydraulic pressure of 50 atmosphere. Calculate the bulk modulus
of the material of the ball. Given 1 atmosphere = 1.01×10 5 Pa.

16. Name a thermodynamic process in which- 2
a) internal energy remains constant.
b) no work is being done by the gas.

-3- NB/XI/PHY/1

17. a. The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by
l
T  2 . In a particular experiment, length of pendulum is
g
measured as 83.2  0.1cm and time of 20 oscillations is measured
as 36.2  0.1s. Determine the relative error in the value of g in
percentage terms.
Or 3
b. An object is having a uniform acceleration of 6.5m−2. Find the value
of acceleration in Kmh−2 by the use of dimensions.

18. Derive the expression for the displacement covered in nth second for
a uniformly accelerated motion. 3

19. a. A metal sphere of mass m=10kg is suspended with the help of three
light strings as shown in the figure. Find the tensions T1,T2 and T3.
(Take g =10ms−1).

Or 3
−1
b. A body of mass 0.25kg moving with a velocity 12ms is stopped by
applying a force of 0.6N. Calculate the time taken to bring the body
to rest. Also, calculate the impulse of this force.

20. Obtain the expression for maximum speed which a vehicle can safely
negotiate a curved road banked at an angle θ with horizontal. 3

21. Show that the total mechanical energy of an object falling freely under
gravity is conserved. 3

22. a. Establish the relation between angular momentum and torque.
Or 3
b. State the principle of conservation of angular momentum. Apply
this principle to explain the following observations:

i) An ice-skater can increase her angular velocity by folding her
arms and bringing the stretched legs closer to the other leg.
ii) The angular speed of planets increases, when it comes closer to
the sun.

-4- NB/XI/PHY/1

23. Show that acceleration due to gravity decreases with depth. Find the
weight of an object at the centre of earth. 3

24. For a wire of length L and cross-section area A subjected to a deforming
1
force F, show that U   stress  strain . 3
2
25. a. Derive Mayer’s relation for one mole of an ideal gas.
Or 3
b. What is an indicator diagram? Show that the area under P-V diagram
for a thermodynamic process gives the value of work done during
that process.

26. Find an expression for the pressure exerted by an ideal gas on the basis
of kinetic theory. 3

27. What is a spring pendulum? Prove that time period of a spring
pendulum does not depend on acceleration due to gravity of the
place. 3

28. a. Define centripetal acceleration. Derive expression for the centripetal
acceleration of a particle for a uniform circular motion. What will be
the direction of the velocity acceleration at any instant?
Or 5
b. What is a projectile? Find mathematically the nature of the path of
projectile when projected at an angle θ with the horizontal. Under
what condition is the horizontal range maximum?

29. a. State Bernoulli’s principle. Prove that the total energy possessed by
a flowing ideal liquid is conserved.
Or 5
b. What is conduction? Obtain an expression for rate of heat flow
through a metallic bar in its steady state. Hence, define thermal
conductivity of the material.

30. a. Show that total mechanical energy of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is constant. Also, draw the graph of potential
energy, kinetic energy and total energy of the particle.
Or 5
b. Explain the formation of standing waves in a string fixed at both
ends and also, find the different modes of vibration.

*******************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/AEN/1
2023
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION -A (Prose)

1. Name the factory from where the Bhopal gas tragedy took place. 1

2. What did the narrator finally decide to do if the bill turned out to be more
than the amount he was carrying? 2

3. Why does Mr. Woodifield visit the boss only on Tuesday? 2

4. Describe the woman in the story ‘The Luncheon’. 3

5. Discuss the relationship between Christy and his mother. 3

6. Why is ‘Dream Children’ sub-titled ‘A Reverie’? 4

7. a. Why was Sunil depressed and what do you think would have helped Sunil
overcome his loneliness?
Or 5
b. Write a note on the memories of the Boss about his dead son.

SECTION- B (Poetry)

8. Why is money referred to as our collective madness? 2

9. Critically analyse the lines given below: 4
She walks in beauty, like the night
Of cloudless climes and starry skies;
And all that’s best of dark and bright
Meet in her aspect and her eyes;

-2- NB/XI/AEN/1

10. In the poem ‘Money Madness’, what is the poet afraid of and why? 4

11. a. Describe the slave’s past life based on his dream. 5
Or
b. He moves in darkness as it seems to me,
Not of woods only and the shade of trees.
He will not go behind his father’s saying.
(i) Why does the neighbour appear to be moving in darkness? (1)
(ii) From where is the darkness emanating? (2)
(iii) Is the poet alluding the neighbour’s adherence to his father’s advice
as the darkness? (2)

SECTION- C (Drama)

12. Why don’t the other women around Mrs. Payne-Dexter get the same
deferential treatment from the debutantes? 2

13. Explain the last meeting of Mrs. Blanchard and Oliver Trent. 3

14. a. “Be shocked if you want to – I am free now and can speak of it.”
What can Mrs. Blanchard speak of now? Over what did she grieve for
forty years? 2+3=5
Or
b. Do you agree that being in love helps a person to stay young? Explain
in the light of your understanding of the play ‘Ever Young’. (1+4=5)

SECTION -D (Fiction)

15. What does the severed sow’s head represent in the novel? 1

16. How did the boys come to the jungle island? 2

17. Why is Ralph considered as primary representative of order and civilization? 3

18. a. Sketch the character of Simon.
Or 4
b. How were Ralph’s priorities different from Jack?

19. a. Civilization versus savagery is one of the major themes of the novel ‘Lord
of the Flies’. Do you agree? 5
Or
b. “There isn’t a tribe for you anymore! The conch is gone-”

-3- NB/XI/AEN/1

(i) Who said this? (1)
(ii) What does the destruction of the conch symbolize? (4)

SECTION -E (Grammar)

20. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 4x1=4
(a) My parents love to read my poems and stories.
(State whether the underlined verb is feeling or state-of-being verb)
(b) I _______ (set/sit/sat) boxes one on top of the other.
(Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank)
(c) Mother bought me a bicycle. (State whether the underlined verb is
transitive or ditransitive)
(d) I _______ (throw) all the waste material in the trash can. (Fill in the blank
with the correct form of the verb in the bracket)

21. Underline the adverb and state its kind: 3x1=3
(a) I always do my work carefully.
(b) The book will completely change the way you think about rural life.
(c) We often come to this lake in the evenings.

22. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
(a) They are always running around with their pets. (State the tense)
(b) He _______ (write) the letter before I could talk to her. (Rewrite the sentence
in Past Perfect Tense)
(c) She came home late. (Rewrite the sentence in Simple Future Tense)

SECTION-F (Reading)

23. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
This rule of always trying to do things as well as one can do them has an
important bearing upon the problem of ambition. No man or woman should be
without ambition, which is the inspiration of activity.
But if one allows ambition to drive one to attempt things which are
beyond one’s own personal capacity, then unhappiness will result. If one
imagines that one can do everything better than other people, then envy and
jealousy, those twin monsters, will come to sadden one’s days. But if one
concentrates one’s attention upon developing one’s own special capacities, the
things one is best at, then one does not worry over much if other people are
more successful.
There are those again who are discontented with their own job and
complain drudgery. But there is no job in the world which does not contain a
large element of drudgery. Do you imagine that a Prime Minister has a

-4- NB/XI/AEN/1

drudgery to do, or an artist, or an author? I loathe drudgery as much as any
man; but I have learnt that the only way to conquer drudgery is to get through it
as though it as neatly, as efficiently as one can. You know I am right when I
say that adult job slackly done becomes twice as dull; adult job which you try
to do just as well as you can become half as dull. Here again effort appears to
me the main part of the art of living. Have I any other, and less disagreeable,
hints to suggest? I believe that every man and woman has somewhere tucked
away inside them a sense of beauty. Without this sense, life on this earth is
veiled in dim grey clouds. It may be that you do not care, for poetry or art or
music. If you make the least effort, you may find that some or all of these
things will cause you sudden delight; and once you catch that delight it will
never leave you. But in life, as I believe, is a constantly renewed effort, then
the human frame aid nerves require some relaxation.

a. Based on your understanding, answer the following question:
(i) How can a person avoid envy and jealousy? 2
(ii) How can we avoid the feeling of drudgery? 2
(iii) Should we avoid ambition? Why? 1+1= 2

b. Fill in the blanks:
(i) ________ and _________ are the twin monsters that disheartens a man. 1
(ii) The main part of the art of living is ___________. 1
c. Give the synonyms of the following words from the passage:
(i) Renovated 1
(ii) Dissatisfied 1

********************************

Total number of printed pages 4 NB-/XI/HND/1
2023
HINDI
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

SECTION - A ( पठन परी& ण )
1. िन)निलिखत ग.ांश को पढ़कर पूछ7गए 9:न;क<उ>र िलिखएः
मनु$य अपने भिव$य क-बार1म2िचंितत ह7। स:यता क-अ;गित क-साथ ही िचंताजनक अव@था उBपC
होती जा रही ह7।इस Fयावसाियक युग म2उBपादन कHहोड़ लगी KइLह7 । कMछ देश िवकिसत कह1जाते ह7, कMछ
िवकासोPमुखी। िवकिसत देश वे हRजहाँ आधुिनक तकनीक का पूणXउपयोग हो रहा ह7। ऐसे देश नाना Zकार
कHसाम;ी का उBपादन करते हRऔर उस साम;ी कHखपत क-िलए बाजार ढ^ढ_ते रहते हR । अBयिधक उBपादन
`मता क-कारण ही ये देश िवकिसत और अमीर ह7।िवकासोPमुख या गरीब देश उनक-समान ही उBपादन
करने कHआकां`ा रखते हR, और इसिलए उन सभी आधुिनक तरीकaकHजानकारी Zाb करते हR । उBपादन
`मता बढाने का @व$न देखते ह7
। इसका पcरणाम यह Kआ ह7िक सार1संसार म2उन वायु-मंडल Zदूषण यंfो
कHभीड़ बढ़ने लगी ह7जो िवकास क-िलए परम आवhयक माने जाते हR। इन िवकास-वाहक उपकरणaने
अनेक Zकार कHसम@याएँ उBपC कर दी ह7। वायुमंडल िवषाi गैसaसे ऐसा भरता जा रहा ह7िक संसार
का सारा पयाXवरण दूिषत हो उठा ह7, िजससे वन@पितयaतक क-अl@तBव संकटपC हो गए ह7।
(क) अपने भिव$य क-बार1म2कौन िचंितत हR? 1
(ख) िकसकHअव@था िचंताजनक होती जा रही ह7? 1
(ग) Fयावसाियक सं@कoित म2िकसकHहोड़ लगी KइLह7? 1
(घ) िवकिसत देश िकसका पूणXqप से उपयोग कर रह1ह7? 1
(ङ) िवकिसत देश िकस िलए अमीर होते जा रह1हR? 1
(च) िवकासोPमुख या गरीब देश sया आकां`ा रखते हR? 1
(छ) कौन उBपादन `मता को बढ़ाने का @वtन देखता हR? 1
(ज) िवकास - वाहक उपकरणaक-उपयोग से Zकo ित म2sया हो रहा हR? 1
(झ) ‘देश’ शxद क-पयाX
यवाची शxद िलिखए ? 1
(ञः ‘िवकास क-िलए परम आवhयक हR।’ म2कौन सा काल ह7 । 1

SECTION - B (संरचना)

2. िकसी एक 9:न का उ>र लगभग 100 से 150 शDद;मGिलिखए - 6
(क) अपने {ेf म2पेड़-पौध2क-अिनयंिfत कटाव को रोकने क-िलए अपने `ेf क-िजलािधकारी को एक आवेदन
पfिलिखए।
(ख) ‘समाचार पfसे लाभ’ िवषय पर अपने िव|ालय कHZातःकालीन सभा म2बोलने क-िलए एक भाषण तैयार
कHिजए

2 NB-/XI/HND/1

3. िकसी एक 9:न का उ>र लगभग 50 शDद;मGिलिखएः 4
(क) आप अपना दो कमरaवाला घर भाड़1पर देना चाहते हR। इस संबंध म2िव@तृत जानकारी देते Kए एक सुंदर
िव~ापन िलिखए ।
(ख) िव|ािथX
यaक-िलए आदशXजीवन शैली िवषय पर एक कायX शाला का आयोजन िकया जा रहा ह7 । छाf
छाfा को इसकHजानकारी देते Kए एक सूचना िलिखए ।

SECTION - C
खHड - ग (Jयाकरण एवं अनुवाद)
4. िदए गए शDद;क<दो-दो पयाO यवाची शDद िलिखएः 2x1=2
पृ€वी, पानी
5. िदए गए शDद;का संिध-िवQछ7द कRिजएः- 2x1=2
भायोदय, पु@तकालय
6. िदए गए सामािसक पद;का िवTह कRिजएः- 2x1=2
नीलकमल, सBया;ह
7. िदए गए मुहावर;का अथOवाWय 9योग Xारा YपZ कRिजएः- 2x1=2
राग छ1ड़ना, इP‚जाल हो जाना
8. काJय क<अनुसार रस िकसे कहते ह[? रस क<िकतने अंग होते ह[? नाम िलिखए। 1+1=2
9. अलंकार िकसे कहते ह[? इसक<िकतने मेद होते ह[? नाम िलिखए 1+1=2
10. िह^दी मGअनुवाद कRिजएः- 3
A person with good manners is always loved and appreciated. Education
makes a person an educated one but good manners and behavior make him a
gentleman. The quality of having good manners is the ladder to achieve
success.

SECTION - D
खHड - घ (सािह`य)
ग. भाग
11. दोपहर को भीड़ कहाँ जमा हो गइL? 1
12. सजXन ने sया cरपोटLभेजी ? 2
13. शामनाथ sयaनहƒचाहते थे िक माँ चीफ क-समाने आए ? 2
14. लेखक ने मंिदर तथा द तर कHतुलना िकस Zकार कHह7? 3
15. पBनीकHमृBयु क-एकवषXबादजबच2 ितवाअपने क†Mे कोलेकरिशकारपरगयातोवहाँ sयाघटनाघटी? 3
16. िन)न कथन िकसने, िकससे तथा Wय;कह7ह[ ः 1+1+2=4

‘कMछ नहƒकर सकते तो आप मेहरवानी करक-कMस‡छोड़ दीिजए।’
17. िन)न ग.ांश को पढ़कर पूछ7गए 9:न;क<उ>र दीिजएः-
(क) िबरादरी क-एक संपC पcरवार का युवक रमेश उन िदनaलखनऊ से छ‰lŠ यaम2गाँव आया Kआ था।
बातa- बातaम2वंशीधर ने मोहन कHपढ़ाइLक-संबंध म2उससे अपनी िचPता Zकट कHतो उसने न क-
वल अपनी

3 NB-/XI/HND/1

सहानुभूित जतलाइLबl‹क उPहŒसुझाव िदया िक वे मोहन को उनक-साथ लखनऊ भेज द2 । घर म2जहाँ चार
Zाणी ह7एक और बढ जाने से कोइLअPतर नहƒपड़ता, बl‹क बड़1शहर म2रहकर वह अछी तरह से पढ़-िलख
सक- गा।
(i) मोहन कHपढ़ाइLक-संबंघ म2वंशीधर ने अपनी िचPता िकससे Zकट कH? 1
(ii) रमेश ने sया सुझाव िदया ? 1
(iii) रमेश क-पcरवार म2िकतने लोग थे ? 1
(iv) रमेश कहाँ रहता था ? 1
(v) सŽपC का िवलोम शxद िलिखए । 1
अथवा
ख. ‘चीफ कHदावत’ कहानी क-मायम से लेखक sया कहना चाहता हR , कहानी क-आधार पर कहानी का उ|ेhय
@प कHिजए। 5

प. भाग
18. किव ने आदमी क-‘ tन को िकस चीज कHसं~ा दी ह7? 1
19. किवता क-अनुसार ब’ aकHZBयाशा sया ह7? इसक-िलए वे sया करते हR? 2
20. िकसान कHआिथX क l@थित sयaदयनीय ह7? इसक-िलए किव ने िकसे िजŽमेदार बताया ह7? 3
21. दीपक दीया तेल भरी, बाती दइbआघd ।
पूरा िकया िवसाKणाँ, बKरी न आवै हŠ ।।
(क) यह पंli िकस किवता से ली गइLह7? 1
(ख) इस किवता क-रचनाकार कौन हR? 1
(ग) िदए गए ख“ड का आhय @प@ट कHिजए। 2
22. िकसी एक प.ाश कRसंदभOएवं 9संग सिहत Jयाeया कRिजएः 1x5=5
(क) @वगXकHस”ाट को जाकर खबर कर दे,
रोज ही आकाश चढते जा रह1हRये,
रोिकये जैसे बने, इन @वtनवालaको
@वगXकHही ओर बढते आ रह1हRये।
(ख) ब’ े ZBयाशा म2होग2
नीड़aसे झाँक रह1होग2
यह यान परaम2, िचिड़यaक-भरता चंचलता हR।
कथा सािह`य
23. रमानाथ सरकारी पैसे का गबन sयaकरता ह7? 2
24. देवीदीन िकस Zकार रमानाथ कHसहायता करता ह7?

3
25. क) “गरीब अपनी ही लगाइLआग म2जल जाता ह7 ।” गबन क-आधार पर कथन कHसमी`ा कHिजए। 5
अथवा

4 NB-/XI/HND/1

ख) िन)निलिखत ग.ांश को पढकर पूछ7गए 9:न;क<उ>र दीिजएः
आधी रात बीत चुकHथी। रमानाथ आनंद कHनƒद सो रहा था। जालपा ने छत पर जाकर एक बार
आकाश कHओर देखा। िनमX ल चाँदनी िछटकHKइLथी। वह काितX
क कHचाँदनी िजसम2संगीत कHशांित ह7,
शांित का माधुयXऔर माधुयXका उPमाद. जालपा ने अपने कमर1म2आकर अपनी संदुकची खोली और उसम2
से वह काँच का चं‚हार िनकाला िजसे एक िदन पहनकर उसने अपने आपको धPय माना था । पर अब इस
नए चं‚हार क-सामने उसकHचमक उसी भाँित मंद पड़ गइLथी, जैसे इस िनलX
˜ ™योित क-सामने तारaका।
(i) कौन गहरी नƒद म2सो रहा था ? (1)
(ii) जालपा उठ कर कहाँ गइL? (1)
(iii) आकाश म2िकसकHचाँदनी िबखरी KइLथी ? (1)
(iv) जालपा ने संदूक से sया िनकाला ? (1)
(v) िकसकHचमक कम हो गइLथी ? (1)

**********************

Total number of printed pages 4 NB-/XI/BNG/1
2023
BENGALI
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

2 NB-/XI/BNG/1

3 NB-/XI/BNG/1

4 NB-/XI/BNG/1

Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XI/TNY/1

2023
TENYIDIE
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 main questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)

1. Thedze hau phrülie di ketso kebako kelashülie:
Tenyimia ha puo kelhou zho rükrie phikecü seyie puo.
Kelhouzho huo liro we si vo tsolie kelho nnhienhie nunu u krü u tsiepfumia
medzi kevor zho mu huo liro rüdirüli kezhü teiu nunu chüpie ba salielie ivorkecü
ngulie. Kelhouzho kesa sedekelie hakoha puotei kekreikecü nu niakiluomia huo
lhou kesier tei ze chükelie pekraya. Nanyüu geinu mehoshü zorei nanyüu krei, u
kelhouzho se nanyü khekecüko krei iba. U nia u meimia pese kenyüthor ikecü
die hauha geinu nhicumia pete rei u nia u meimia rhu mu khrie morokesuou hai
zo di puo nou letaya mu sidi u nia u meimia neikemo chü ro terhuomia u siezha
pie u tsüketuo keprei kele puo puo nou leta di süu se kelhouzho puo chülietaya.
Kelhouzho pete nu rei u krukecü puo mu u kepele puo sa kepero phre baya. U
tsiepfumia kelhouzho puo liro ukoe terhuomia prei se di lhou. Süla ‘kenyü’ ikecü
die hauha se pezha se, mu die hauha phichüu rei nhicuu shierei le kemesi se di
lhoukecü die puo. Ukoe sikemo rhuo rüsuo derei themia bu prei di lhou
morokesuo la ‘kenyü’ hauha nanyü geinu se sedelie di se rüna kelhou zhoko nu
rei themia kekhalieya.
U tsiepfumia kelhouzho kevi puo liro kedietho. Mu süla u ro u
üya mo ro mo üya. Puo diepu puo mhatho medzi di pu mu chüya ro sümia üse
dietho üya. Derei puoe puo thuo puo miatho-u rhu kemosie tijütaya. U kelhouzho
kevi kekrei puo liro phichümia rhukecü. ‘Niaki kele tieki rei phichümia pfhe
rünyü morosuo iya. Phichümia puo kelhou geinu themia dze phrü di sikelieko se
nhicumia pethaya mu nhicumia süu rünyülie ro puo la kemevi ngulieya. Mechü
kelhouzho nu morei mia puopuo kelhou nu shierei ‘phichümia pushülie’ ikecü
hauha die kezha puo. Mhahuo si tso mota shierei ‘phichümia ketsolie’ iya. Mha
hako mehoshü tse u kelhouzho mia ki vi rükrükecü kropuo tuo ketho mu hakoha
puoma re se ketho we.

Ketsokeshü:
(a) Thedze cayie puokru tou-u thushülie. 1
(b) Kedipuo la u nia u meimia pese kenyüya ga? 1

-2- NB/XI/TNY/1

(c) Kelhouzho puorhi kimhiecü kropuo baya ga? 2
(d) Kedipuo la u tsiepfumia kelhouzho nu ‘kenyü’ ikecü die hau se
pezha seya ga? 2
(e) Kedipuo la phichümia rhu morosuoya ga? 2
(f) Dieca hanie puoca thushülie: 1+1=2
(i) Kelhouzho (ii) Kedietho

SECTION – B (Thedze kezo)

2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 100-150 mese nunu thushülie:
a. Noe Votuo/Vonuo. N leshüki nu theba, mizhü tsa di kephrünuoko bu
kemezhie baketa la kerükri nu keseshü morokesuo kecha dzeyieleshü puo
thupie leshüki mhokezhau tsüshülie.
Moro 6
b. Tenyidie kemevi (Advantages of Tenyidie) dieu pemvü di khise kehou nu
die putuoü keba n diepuko le menuo di thushülie.

3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 50 mese nunu thushülie:
a. N rünae ‘Shühuo’ (Orange) lei puo se baya mu süu pemvü di teisozha puo nhie
pie ‘Shühuo nyi’ (Orange festival) pebaketuo la themiako bu vorlienukecü pie
kelieshie (Advertisement) puo thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Noe Neituo/Neinuo, Alka Public School, Dzükou Sports Club nu kethuu
(Secretary) chü ba. N leshüki nu rüzhünya keweko teisozha puo nhie
kephrünuoko ki zeshüketuo la kepesikeshü (Notice) puo thupie leshüki notice
board nu khashülie.

SECTION – C (Diezho)

4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie: 12x1=12
(a) Dzüleke thechü kezivi puo. (Zaliu rhieshülie)
(b) Diekhe puo se diecha chüshülie.
(c) ________! Uko sü chüwate ho. (Ungo pfhephra puo kruu pie kheshülie)
(d) Tseilie leshüdanie khashü. (‘Leshüdanie’ hau pie miakra dieza nu
chüshülie)
(e) Sei se mizhü chüya. (Rhiepie kebau dieza zatse kiu nu ba ga?)
(f) Puo teisonhie a kinu vorya. (Puotei dieba rhieshülie)
(g) Thepfuyo ze ba. (Rüdikemo dietho-u rhieshülie)
(h) Setuo themia kedietho puo. (Zamho-u rhieshülie)
(i) Puo kerü nunu khuo te se vor. (Diepeu rhieshülie)

(j) Kenei die pu pevi seshü. (Diebau kiu ga?)
(k) Supuo die pu ba ga? (Ketsokecü zasou-u rhieshülie)
(l) Akhrienuo zivi secüpfü puo. (Rhiepie kebau diezho kikru kiu nu ba ga?)

-3- NB/XI/TNY/1

5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3
A person with good manners is always loved and appreciated. Education
makes a person an educated one but good manners and behavior make him
a gentleman. The quality of having good manners is the ladder to achieve
success.

SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze

6. Dr. Faustus chalieu za supuo ga? 1

7. Kediu Laius kedipuo la rüse krapie puo kikru nu shüwata ga? 2

8. Kiüdi Jacques üse Melancholy Jacques idi kieya ga? 2

9. Kedipuo la Dr. Faustus Mephistophilis bu puo kimia pfhü ze vornuta ga?
Mephistophilis kedipuo pupie Faustus die kelashü ga? 1+2=3

10. Yash Pal nuo zuo kiükishü dze kimhie di se puo ki pushü mu Yash Pal puo
zuo puo ki kepuu medzi di kedipuo chü baya üsi ga? 2+1=3

11. “Kediu, n kedi sekelie-ue n kedi kekuo se n tsü lashüwate we.”
(i) Supuo die hau pu ga? 1
(ii) Supuo Kediu Frederick dosuoko mu puo nou kesuoko chü kedi lotso
wata ga? 1
(iii) Kediu Frederick puo nou kedikelie sie kedipuo chüta ga? 2

12. a. Kediu Creon kesiamoko la ahza kimhiecü puo khashü ga? Antigone kediu
Creon neimo chükewa la puo gei kedipuo vorta ga? 1+4=5
Moro
b. “Nko haki ba salie kenjüte, kekhruohi ki pfhüta morosuote.”
(i) ‘Nko’ hau suomia pu ba ga? (1)
(ii) Supuo die hau pu mu suomia ki pu ga? (1+1=2)
(iii) Kedipuo la ukoe ta se kekhruohi pfhütatuo üzhie ga? (2)

Geizo
13. ‘Themia Kelhou’ geizo nu themia ha kijü nu kelhou khunuo pete donu kimhie
üsi ga? 1

14. ‘N Ba Nunu N Nei Kedalie’ geizo nu ükezo-ue kimhie di cienyhü
kezhathoko rüli pie thie leshü phrü pedze kebako chieshü ga? 2

15. Geizo diecha hau puoca vatshashülie: 3
Perie ketsü mechü dzevi le,
Tie nhie idi medo tha weru,
Ta pa ta le noutshünounyü chü.

-4- NB/XI/TNY/1

Kezha kesu u ya kevi le,
Zotha dinu jü kethoyatuo.

16. Kemichie ze keduo keba ki,
Kepenuopfü u nou bataya;
U neimia ze keduo bata ro,
Kepenuopfü u khie bataya.
(i) ‘Rheichie Khrüprei’ geizo-u Ketholeshü kiu pemvü di zo se par ga? 1
(ii) Themia kelhou ha Kepenuopfü ze kepero pevilieketuoe kedipuo
gei ba ga? 1
(iii) We puotei kimhiecü kropuo nu Kepenuopfü rükraya mu puo
rükra mo bataya ga? 2

17.a. Khrüthemvü teigei rütso chü,
Kezhako ha kevimia za chie,
Kijü nu lhou zharülie dinu,
Ba tso moü khrüthemvü mevi,
Teigei nei chü themianuo pesi
Kechachie rei zie tuoyaluo die.
(i) Supuo geizo hau zoshü ga? 1
(ii) ‘Zharülie’ puoca thushülie. 1
(iii) Themia kikemhiemia khrüthemvü meviya üdi geizo nu ngulie ga? 1
(iv) U zhorüli kimhiekecümia teigei kechachie zayie chü zhaya üsi ga? 2
Moro
b. A kelhou nu leshükephrü ha
Phrü zo sie di kezhamia puo chü
Zolieketuo medo tuo mu ru.
(i) Supuoe geizo hau zoshü ga? (1)
(ii) Puoe kedipuo kemengu geinu leshü phrü sedelie ga? (2)
(iii) Puo puo kelhou nu kedipuo silie ga? (2)

Noudo Dze

18. Atseinuo zepfü za supuo ga? Akhrie kedipuo la süpfü lieketuo puo medo
mota ga? 1+1=2

19. Akhrie-nuo puo kikemhie di vor seluoba nu lhouta ga? 3

20.a. “Anuou, no mhasilieketa ki ze n pfhe n die rei vi se zo…hieko sü thiedzü rei n

mho dukhriwate derei no thie ketso hie pele keba hie n dzümengathor.”
(i) Supuo die hako pu ga? 1
(ii) Kedipuo la puo mho dukhriwata ücü puta ga? 2

-5- NB/XI/TNY/1

(iii) Kikemhie di puoe uko pele keba thashü ga? 2
Moro
b. “Hienie kiya chülie mu themiako hienie kiya dze pu kekre la tuota.”
(i) Suomia kiya pu ba ga? (1)
(ii) Unie kiya puo rhi kimhiecü puo nu chü ga? (2)
(iii) Themiako unie kiya dze kicüpuo pu kekre tuota ga? (2)

**********************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/SMI/1

2023
SÜMI (SÜTSAH)
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 main questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the
top left side.

KOKÜPPHA– A (Akipphi)

1. Hi aqhou yehpüakeu akivishi phino iniju akeu khochile lo:
Aküpu kighe ye alu lo apiti qü khavepu iphi moza hunike zulono pinni
chaghi. Ike akupukighe, ashi kuchu chine ye aphuh lo alagha aloji ampe kütau
kishi pinni cheni keno titoi tipa mpe loghi kuto kulumi ghakütsü pu amqo
aqoshi aluh hulah khiküdau asüh yehu anike no tiküdau aphuh kubala lo
apushoh shipeqhi no kipitimi assatheve kemi ye akupu gheni.
Ike tilehi ghulo kini küthü totimi sasü azübo, alakhü lakhi shimo eno
kitiqe mo no apushoh ghasü lo zuni, ike alhe ye kutokulul kiqi lono shinani.
Timi kiqi lono awo, atsü, awudu, awuquh ishi tile heqhipe apushoh lo ilo nani.
Shilu aye alih, alih no ashi ghekije nani, tishipu tipau apushoh ghazü lono
lhochu khave no aphuh lo ipe nani. Tsütsala akütsüh, ashibo, anheghu chukha
mokeu aghi aye lakhosa ngo achineh mi qono lhochu khave no aphuh lo ipe
nani.
Hipau chineh lo kumthu kümna yezu chemo hipaqo ghenguno aghiboh,
asüboh nake ghenguno.
Akupu kigha ashi kuchu hipau ye tukuu swüu qo pütüta chineh yeh kiqi
lono kumo no alih-alih ala kiqi lono shi nani. Tsütsala alagha dolo amllo
kümtha kile no aghi aye achineh hipau lono külashive cheghi kiu ghengu
achineh hipau ye alah kishi aküpu ghekeu ke.

(a) Kiu ghuloki lono akupu kighe chineh shi che kea? 1
(b) Akupu ye khiküdau ghehu che kea? 1
(c) Kiu shipe qhino akupu gheche kea? 1
(d) Lhoxü kiu toi keqo heqhino akupu kighe chineh shi che kea? 1
(e) Achineh hipau shi akelo kipitimi qo ye kiu shi masa kea? 2

(f) Tukuu swüu qo kiu ghola lona akupu kighe ashi kuchu chineh hipau
shi che kea? 2
(g) Hipaqo kiqi pilo: 1+1=2
(i) Akupu (ii) Külashi

-2- NB/XI/SMI/1

KOKÜPHA – B (Akiyye)

2. Hiküma dolo lakhi yelo atsathi 100-150 lono:
a. Lau yeh (application) lono nono akiphi kilo ghulo küthü wumove
keu ghenguno yeh lo. Noye Iloni/Iloto je lono yeh lo.
Momu 6
b. Atsapi kiyye (speech writing) ‘ashi ajeh kivi ye akinni’ nowu
kiphiki inaqhe boho lo phisüni keu yeh lo.

3. Lakhi likhi yelo atsathi 50 dolono:

a. Yekhülha (advertisement) nono yeghi kilu lono izüche ke lono owu
ghüka bo (wallet) pühave. Hile ghüka khije ani eno kütau nhemgha kiu
akeno kishekulu yeh pe yekülha lo sülo.
Momu 4
b. Pithitsa (notice) No ye Vito/Vivi yekala XI lo pi ani. Amikucho
kikishe phukutho shiniye akeu lo kiphimi kümtsü ighino süpeni ke
pithitsa lono yeh lo.

KOKÜPHA – C (Tsahyeh eno Pekibide)
4. Atsajoh kümsa lo thizungo achipiu pe shipichi tsülo:
(a) Paye ishi küsülo thiveni ________ xülu vea. 1
(b) Anga no aza ________ iqave. 1
(c) Sümi ye cholimi eno Sangtam _________ xüküami. 1
(d) Pa kulu ye aghoki ________ ani. 1

5. Hipaqo ye kiu tsahjoh kikije keno alaxa tsülo:
(a) Kumlhomi ye kimiyekepu 1
(b) Akükütsü tsa inilo 1
(c) Oh! Li ye kiu toi juvi kela 1
(d) Opelo axushu peni! 1

6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yehlo:
(a) Awu kimiye toi 1
(b) Ane no sho 1
(c ) Achequti azapolo la kithi 1
(d) Achuwo nhethi 1

7. Sümi tsahlo pebide süvelo: 3

A person with good manners is always loved and appreciated. Education
makes a person an educated one but good manners and behavior make him
a gentleman. The quality of having good manners is the ladder to achieve
success.

-3- NB/XI/SMI/1

KOKÜPHA – D
Tsaiko Küghakiche

8. Sümi chineh akhoto khijehi ache keu? 1

9. Amüghüsü ye anupau vilo kiu toi kemi totimi lu lo pi kea? 2

10. Sheyili ye kiu michipu shipe li pelimi qo tsüpuwu kea? Tipau kiqi ye kiu
kea? 1+1=2

11. Nagami achekeu kiu ghuloki eno khuu vechewo ithi kea? 3

12. Akibo shiluve kethiu pama akimi anipu ye kiu küxü lo xü niye pükapütsa che
kea? Kiu kishino latsugho ki shilu che kea? 1+2=3

13. Pinyeh mishi heqhi keu momu pinyeh chineh ghili yeh lo. 4

14.a. Amüghüsü ye khipaqo vehupulo ‘Shilo’ momu ‘Shikevelo’ pi Anupau
niyetsü che kea? 5
Momu
b. Nongu phuthekuwa lah lo che kelo khipa a lono atu hipau no ita iqighi eno
awudu hipau no igha ithughini keno tipa a lo paghi aphu shilo.
(i) Atsah hiye khuno pi ani kea? (1)
(ii) Khunoqo vilo pi ani kea? (1)
(iii) Kiu shiwunike lono pi ani kea? (1)
(iv) Khuno kughakiche lono iniju ani kea? (2)

Leshe
15. Kiu shive ke lono ‘Kunolike’ leh shi kea? 1

16. Kiu shive kelono atsü puhave kea? Khuu pama kuu shiwu ache kea? 1+1=2

17. Visheli no kiu pime eno Hokhuli no kiu pime kea? Pama khiu pavi
puna kea? 2+1=3

18. Khuno leshe lono iniju ani eno kiu pi ani keno mutsü mishei hepho
tsü lo. 1+3=4
Alhokuthu tukah lono lhoye,
Alhokuthu tukah thowo kighini,

Nikujo ye anhezu qi mullo cheni,
Pinaimu niqo akilo wuye küha ni wono.

-4- NB/XI/SMI/1

19. Khuu no leshe lono piani, khuu no kiu. Shive kelono pi ani kelo lakhi
yeh lo:
a. Oh! Inolino vemu yeno,
Ghulo küthü kiphi qholo züye,
Oh! Hoishe thoghi tsah kitheu ye,
Anhewuno ghü ishe wo,
Pekishe wu ala!
Momu 1+4=5
b. …Ala chighi pesüno xaluna ighi,
Tughamino kipishi ye shimla ni wono.

Lotsüh Kiye

20. Aghüzümi thukuwu ghili ye khuu no yeh kea? Paye kuu xapu chekea? 1+1=2

21. Timi lakhi akho kimishi puchekeu ithulu pa je ye khuu kea? Pa ye pa u
lo kiu pe che kea? 1+2=3

22.a. Hikithipu mllo ghime xapüsü kiu shi ache kea? Timino khochile “Niye
khilau wukepu keno mthake ghengunoke”. Tileno pa no ashiyiko no shikeu
Liküzüpa pa tsü eno tile atsa hitoi yeh pua. “Amllo kighide ighini – küau lono
pokalulo.
Atsah yeh püa keu phiheno pano tsavipeu vilo iniju, niye khikudau powu kepu
kea?
(i) “Hikithipu mllo ghime xapüsü kiu shi ache kea?” Khuu no khuu vilo
pi kea? 1
(ii) Niye khilau wukepukeno mthake ghengunoke khuu no pi ani kea? 1
(iii) Pano ashiyikono shikeu liküzü pa tsü khuu no khuu tsü kea? 1
(iv) ‘Amllo kighide ighimi küau lono pokalulo’ kiu lo yeh puaghi keu
khu no ithulu kea? 1
(v) Niye khikudau powu kepu kea? Khuu no iniju ani kea? 1
Momu
b. Alokughuno pelono osasü cheche peni, akiviu, Khristou qeti nono aphughi
lo ilonike kuto lo okheu shitsü peni.
(i) Hiye khuu no pi ani kea? (1)
(ii) Khristou no kiu shiwu che kelono pi kea? (2)
(iii) Atsah hipau chilu kelo timi huye kishive kea? (2)

***********************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/A/1

2023
AO
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 main questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.

SECTION – A (Züngang aser langzüang)

1. Agüja aliba olenji junga züngang aser tasüngdangbatemji langzüang:

Kibong ka nung tetsü talangka shiranga lir, jabaso o
tebu doktsür asü. Kidang kinungtsü shiranga alidang alu nung aroba tsük ajak
chiyungmadok. Küm ka alui tao majung, kinungtsü shirangba agi alu
doktsütsüsa aküm. Tangar dang tetemlok agia apudena akaba tsük ajak la lepkhu
mung tashi Chiyunger külen, tsükji molok ka Sünga dang anüng.
Kinungtsü sür külen akhi ama jabaso dena yimertem
den lumang ka nung, tsüngküm mapang alu achitsü tenzük. Jabaso tena atema
joko tsük tapulen maka ta meteta, anogo shia jang tekapu ka sünga bener alui oa
chi chiyungtsü melena sotzü aria ajem. Anogo shia pai sotzü aria atadang,
jabasoji chirong nung aliba alu tzübui yoka tzü tar adokli sotzüji külemi
anisüngzüka jemli ta amalitepa alu tendakji inyaktep.
Jabasoji sotzü jagi lakteter kenübo tebu dang yamai
ashi, “Oba sotzü ya joko mejemnür” ta nemnema ashi. Jabasoi nemnemba oji pa
mulungi kanga runga ait. Saka pa atema jabasoi ashibaji inyaktsüdi ta
bilemyonga tanga lenmang mali nung temulung arungba dak alaka temelen
kecha magutsütet. Pai jabasoji kanga meimyonga, azümesena chiyungtsü tajung
mebushii mapang meranga inyaktsüla ta ajungshisem. Alu nungji metsü proker,
temenungratsü ka motemji mokoa meitsü tenzük.
Kasa alu mapalem süa inyakba mapang, kenübo pa
jendang sotzü aria yutsür, tzütalen nungi jabasoji madok. Jabasoji adoktsü atajen
atar madokshiba agi chirongleni bushia lenchi ai. Pai tzübu tashi lua repranger
jabasoji mangu nung tzübu anasa noktaker ajatsü tenzük.
Iba mapang ozü ka arua süngsem rongnung temer,
tutzü terishi ni, totzü terishini ta asaloktsü.

Tetezü:
Sotzü teyanglushi ni,
Sotzü teyanglushi ni.

-2- NB/XI/A/1

Ozü ka pa anasa asaba dak alaka tanga kecha mangu,
idakji pa kisüng azüng azünga aküm. Joko jabasoji mangu, jeba kidangi meyipa
adok. Tasüngnüjia alui oa, alu meküta anüdoklen, anü olen, anüdoktip aser
anülutip tesem ajaklen jabasoji bushia senzü. Saka anasa ozü ka temer, “Tutzü
terishi ni, tutzü terishi ni”, ta asaloktsüba dak alaka jabasojibo mangu. Iba küm
nungi tenzüka ozü jagi asükwa tatemlen aser meiwa tetenzüklen küm shia “tutzü
terishi ni, tutzü terishi ni”, ta asaa senzür.

Tasüngbatem:
(a) Tebui jabaso kong aser koma bushi? 1
(b) Koba tsüngküm nung ozü jagi asar? 1
(c) “Tutzü terishi ni, tutzü terishi ni”, tetezü rateta züluang? 1
(d) Khen mapang ka nung kibong ka nung kechi atalok? 1
(e) Kechiba tebu o techir na sotzü dang ajem? 1
(f) Tebu o jabaso na tsüngküm mapang kechi inyak? 1
(g) Tebui jabaso nem kechi sayubentsü o ashi? 1
(h) Chirong nungi shiba madok aser kechiba? 1
(i) Agüja aliba ojang ya tetezü agüjang: 1+1=2
(i) Nemnema (ii) Amalitepa

SHILEM- B (Olem)
2. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 100-150 tashi nung langzüang:
a. Na Lirusen/Liruba, The Woods Higher Secondary School, Dimapur
Principal dangi na tesayur inyaktsü temsüa lir ta metetdakja mapa meshia
bangdak shiti ka züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. Ner School tekülem nung jembitsü onük agüja aliba nung ajemdaker
züluang.
“Merükmejua alitsü koda tongtibang”

3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 50 shi nung langzüang:
a. Nai ner jila nung dokan tajung ka lapok saka koda masüba tia ka ajanga nai
ibaji yokdoknür. Iba indang ne terajem shisatsü amshia SANGDONG ka
züluang.
Mesüra 4
b. Ner school kima anütetsü (watch) ka shia arua ne nem agütsü. Na school
captain ka ama ibaji metetdaktsü ka züluang.

SECTION - C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang:

(a) Rarem leplashi ratetjang. 1
(b) Ramok leplashi Kechi dang ajar? 1
(c) Tarutsü tensa nisungi meteta mali. (Ramok leni meyipang) 1
(d) Yange balala pezü sayuang. 1

-3- NB/XI/A/1

(e) Yange teratet shiang. 1
(f) Yange ana amshia oren yangluang. 1
(g) Jilajitep teratet shiang. 1
(h) ‘Ü’ agi tenzükba ojang ana agi oren yanglua sayuang. 1
(i) ‘E’ olasü adokba ojang ana shiang. 1

Itemi Apakijem tetezü agüjang:
(j) Küpra asü songang maru. 1
(k) Tzüma zükshir. 1
(l) Ojilak kolepa alur. 1

5. Itemi Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3
A person with good manners is always loved and appreciated. Education
makes a person an educated one but good manners and behavior make him
a gentleman. The quality of having good manners is the ladder to achieve
success.

SECTION – D (Kaketkeno Zülu)
Otsü
6. Tenem ozüji kodasür teben anaben temdanger liasü? 1
7. Mera taket nisungji komala dang ajar? 2
8. Nokrang tongtibai anisen rongsen shiba dang kechi meshi? 2
9. Masüngteti aliba taküm ka dak kechi komala jaklaliro keta alitsüla? 3
10. Aiürla ana tepsetba tatsü agi shiang. 3

11. “Tashi angabaji tenlaba dang nungi taoba” iba shin o ya rasaa züluang. 4

12. a. HIV aser AIDS kechi dang ajar aser item nungi koda kümzüka litettsü? 5
Mesüra
b. “Lanurtem, nenoki akok tashi bushibayong nenok dang kanga pelar.”
(i) Ya shibai jembi? (1)
(ii) Kechi bushiba ashir? (1)
(iii) Kechi indang jembir orenji rasaa shiang. (2)

Sangro
13. Kechi atema tasütaitertem rarai ao? 1
14. Teyangluri meimchir nem shisadangtsü doktsüba anaji kechisa? 2
15. ‘Kü Lima Nungtem’sangro shibai mejem, aser sangro nung ‘Shilanger O
jetzükerji’ ta ashiba orenji ratetjang. 3

16. Naga nungeri Naga nunger indang jembitsü temedenji rateta shiang. 4

17. a. “Anü Tongnüsen agi mekütbanger adok,

-4- NB/XI/A/1

An tepongi kongpet, nashi pongchi hokmang asapet.”
(i) Koba sangro nungi orenji agitet? 1
(ii) Shibai zülu? 1
(iii) Kechiba ya atalok rasaa shiang. 3
Mesüra
b. “Anüngtsüng külen nungi külen tashi enzüdangang,
Saka ne temetetba kechi aser kodaka lir,
Shisatsübo kodanga tatem maka.”
Item oren ratetjang. (5)

Yimdangjem
18. Lensenngubai Prangpong koma sempa? 2
19. Kechi tebilemba nung Rachel O lenba na Phek town nung oset yoka senzü? 3

20. a. “Temba ni na ajurnüa liasü.”
(i) Iba oren shibai jembi? 1
(ii) Shibai shiba ajurunüba indang ashir? 1
(iii) Kechi tensa ka nung iba oren ya jembitsüsa aküm tatungi ratetjang. 3
Mesüra
b. “Gari workshop nung inyaktsüji mapa tasak lir. Nai aremtsü südi.”
(i) Item oren ya shibai shiba den jembiba. (2)
(ii) Komala tia aser tensa ka nung jembi, rasaa shiang. (3)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/L/1
2023
LOTHA
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 main questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal & general choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.

SECTION – A (Ekhao)

1. Motsü shi khae zesi oküpoe engao jiang janlana:
Nkolo orae ekümrüm tona kyon to npyontathüng kyon
nchyua na eloe nchyua soa vancho. Osi onpoe na otsoe eloe nchyua, eboe
nchyua to vancho. Hoji süi jo eloe ji chücho, tole enhünga ha eboe ji na eloe
ethan echü echong soa vanlancho. Tole eloe ethanvü ji na eloe ehenvü ji tsoe oni
ji elümoto khangshia ntsongshia ekümcho. Nchoka tsüngon no jo ngaro oni
thüngi heto ezocho, “Nchüngo oli nhyako wotakhe; ana engakvü etsoyu nini
hantokvü ka oki tiyitakhe”, to ezoa wotokcho.
Tole eloe ethanvü ji na ngaro oni thüngi engakvü otsi kilato
honochü, wokochü, zhürochü, makvüeran to tae nkhüpi hantoka mongcho. Hoji
tsükona ngaro ji onina engakvü oyo ethanvü na etsoyu hantoko jiang otsi kilato
nchümta lanphe zetasi lia si, si to tsüngon songa hojito tssocho. Hoji sülo jo
ngaro ji oni na echümchüm na jo kyon etsoyu lan jiang nnchümchev orae evamo
ekümrüm etsoyu, tssüngthilonben, ponghantzü osi etsoyu thanpo to jiang tsota
vancho. Tole nchoka tsüngon no jo opo na otsi nkhüpi hansi owo ngaro jiang
pilo wocho, “Ana otsi nini hanichoka oyi tsota” to nzana tsale ngaro oni na opo
thüngi ezocho: “O…Apo eyio enhüngo kyon etsoyulan nnchümchev yakso küma
yia ka”, to ezoa yakso ekhü, khüa yakso kümkhana yiracho. Hoji süi jo opona
elümoto nungra, oni thüngi heto ezocho; toka nini na yakso küma yina oyam na
müngthan- müngri, emong chephia oyam hümoli, tenjü-mojü roe tsota yitakhe to
ezokata yitokcho. Hoji tsükona enhünga ejan yakso na müngthan-müngri,
emongo jo kyon li chiro tenjü-mojü jiang roe tsoa woala to motsü rüta la.

Engao shiang janlana:
(a) Eloe ehemo jijo otsoe nchyu kvüta vancho la? 1
(b) Otsoe jiang jo eloe alo eboe vancho la? 1
(c) Eloe ethanvü ji na ngaro jiang kvüto zeyata vancho sana erana. 1

(d) Eloe ethanvü ji na etsoyu hantoko jiang mmhona erana. 1
(e) Ngaro eni ji na ntio etsoyu tsota vancho la? 1

-2- NB/XI/L/1

(f) Opo na ntio etsoyu hansi owo picho la? 1
(g) Ngaro jiang na ntio kvüto opo ezotachola? 1
(h) Opo na ngaro jiang kvüto ezokacho sana erana. 1
(i) Motsü shi lona yitsüng esütao tvü yani erana: 1+1=2
(i) Tsüka (ii) Tssoria

SECTION – B (Eramo)

2. Oküpoe eni eramo pi elio jiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga yitsüng 100-
-150 na epemo erana:
a. Nino Libemo/Libeni, yithen kako yakchia okying Kohima lona ete Lotha
yithen yivonkok (radio) lo nsanthechiv tsükona lhidong motsünga ejüngi
lia. Lhidong ji tsükona jonji yilan erantsüng ethelan eli jiang theta kvüto
eram sana erana.
Mekana 6
b. ‘Ntsa jina e-ntsachev’ (The truth shall set us free) to yidong ji khapheni
enyathüng sanrhyu jilo nsam tsükona erana.

3. Oküpoe eramo eni pi elio shi lo na motsünga yitsüng 50 na epemo erana:
a. Nina Dimapur yantsü longi shishophen jiang lo shishoa vanathüng ni rang
sükvüro ji moni sicho. Ocho na sana khyoe lia tssona yivon nipi-le to
thüngoe na yithen kako lo moncho ntsijanta kvüto erani thev sana erana.
Mekana 4
b. Nio khaphen jilo Esopvüi (captain) ji. Nchüküm nzyu shilo jo
‘Pyimtsümotsüi Jüli Tsüngon’ (Cultural Day) ji khitav tsükona ekhae
topvü thüngi ntsijantoka erana.

SECTION – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)

4. Shiang janlana:
(a) Echak yi shiang yichak pia:
(i) Yukhyu shüp 1
(ii) Efüi menkirang tsüpho 1
(b) Engao yiren kümtoka:
(i) Onte na oso epicho 1
(ii) Ombo kvüri na noala 1

(c) ‘Elani’ yitsüng shi yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 2

5. Etssyuchi epio ji ephan janlana:
(a) ________ nnlan pita la. (Reciprocal pronoun theta) 1
(b) Ombo yikvüo ji _______ ombo na nungracho. (Yishen khi pyingtoka) 1
(c) Apo na zotoro ji emongala. (Tssoyio yi ji sekata) 1

(d) Püngnoe jina nonghori jiang engacho, “Nteno kvüwoe wohungala”.
(Yiren shi erhüyi kümtoka) 1

-3- NB/XI/L/1

(e) Mangsü _______ Barhi chungi rhowo vana. (Etsyukayi khi pyingtoka) 1
(f) Mmhorü ______ ora _______ vanala. (Zonkayi khi pyingtoka) 1

6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3
A person with good manners is always loved and appreciated. Education
makes a person an educated one but good manners and behavior make him
a gentleman. The quality of having good manners is the ladder to achieve
success.

SECTION – D (Motsüran Ekhao )

7. Samson thojü etho ji jo ntio lo jücho la? 1

8. Nri ji omotsü na Potsow loroe ji thüngi hantoko jiang jo ntio la? 2

9. Mali loroe motsü ji ephani na jo nkolo eranreni jo kvüto shishokhophita
rocho la? 2

10. Samson na ombo ri jiang nlilan sa thüng ombo potsow ji thüngi kvüto
randancho la? 3

11. Newton na nchüng etena tsütsata evamo konchonphen ji kvütolyui
yanchecho la? 3

12. Yansalümo tona ombo eüng Mmhaseni to onpoe yuta lo nmyantav tara
arakari ji jo kvütolyui chiyicho la? 4

13.a. Ete Lotha na kikyonikyo olan olan tsütsata erowo jiang lona Tsipfü hanpfü
tona ophük olok to eni shiang eroroa erana. 5
Mekana
b. Eloe ji na otsoe okharo vani züa vanathüng, ompvü na opoang
oyoang nchümchei nungra nchümcho. Ompvü na ngaro okharo ji
pvükachi si orapvü mphoa oki na khochuki wocho.
(i) Eboe jiang yani na owo phonglan ji ejamü ji nchuk kvüta lantsa la? (1)
(ii) Nchuk kvüta etsoyu hüngi nntsocho la? (1)
(iii) Olong tsüphov jilo na esana yipa thüng ntio tssocho la? (1)
(iv) Ngaro ji pono ntio tssocho sana erana. (2)

Chungiyi
14. Shantiwoe na omi phonga na ntio tssov to longtsütacho la? 1

15. ‘Ete woden na ha woro tssoa liosangsü nli ehamo njücho alo? Shi yichak
ji eroroa. 2

16. Shomo sana opo eli na otsen tssoa kha,

-4- NB/XI/L/1

Shomo sana opvü eli na otssen tssoa kha,
Kio opo eli lo tsankav la nnli,
Kio opvü ejüeli lo tsankav la nnli.
(i) Khenzhü shi jo ntio chungiyi lona khichecho la? 1
(ii) Khenzhü shi yichak jiang hungri na eroroa erana. 2

17. Yanjoe na mankachi khi, nonghoriten,
Yonton ni tae zekachia tssona,
Nte na nryupaka tssona nonghoriten,
Nte na kvütolyu tssochev la?
Eroroa erena. 4

18.a. Chungiyi ‘Mmhorü’ ji jo ocho na erancho la? Chungiyi eranpvüi ji na
mmhorü mhyik jiang jo kvülo na hansi oyi theyicho to nchümcho la?
Osi mmhorü kichok ji jo kvütolyui nsüngrücho to chungiyi eranpvüi ji
na nchümcho sana erana. 1+2+2=5
Mekana
b. E shantiwoe na omi phonga jo ntio etsso mphong küma, enungi ventyu
vo eshunga to yantaro kyon chüa tsae la, jeni, yeni, poni lo ti khondale.
(i) ‘Enungi ventyu vo eshunga to’ to ephyo yiren shi eroroa. (2)
(ii) Ochoang thüngi ntio tssotale to ntssongcho la? (3)

Nchümntan motsü
19. Arilao tsükona tara erana. 2

20. Arilao yingaden jiang na Arilao ji ntio lyuyiv tsükona methaktacho la osi
echa jo ntio khiyitav to methaktacho la? 3

21.a. Oyamo kyon jiang na Arilao ji kvütolyui chütokcho sana mmhona erana.
Mekana 5
b. “Ojyua jo oyamo nonghori topvü na a ki oro mongtoktale a na woko vüktsü ji
noni tsota mongtav ka.”
Lankonrhoni na oyamo nonghori jiang ntio lanka lona osi kvütolyui omi na
rongtsüngi siratokcho sana erana.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/SGY/1

2023
SOCIOLOGY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 30 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 5.

1. The word ‘Sociology’ was coined in the year: 1
(a) 1839 (b) 1849 (c) 1939 (d) 1949

2. A collection of people on the basis of common characteristic is known as: 1
(a) Category (b) Aggregate (c) Social group (d) In-group

3. The term ‘monarchy’ denotes rule of: 1
(a) The people (b) The representatives (c) Head of the Clan (d) Single person

4. The word ‘accommodation’ literally means: 1
(a) Becoming similar (b) Adjustment (c) Co-operation (d) Assimilation

5. In the Varna system, how many varnas is the society divided into? 1
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six

6. Who divided sociology into social statics and social dynamics? 1

7. What is a social group? 1

8. What is monotheism? 1

9. What is direct co-operation? 1

10. What is spatial mobility? 1

11. Point out two differences between in-group and out group. 2

12. State two basic aims of education. 2

13. Differentiate between primary kin and secondary kin. 2

-2- NB/XI/SGY/1

14. What is cultural lag? 2

15. List out two aims of social research. 2

16. Mention two attributes of social stratification. 2

17. Explain the four means of social control as listed by Crosbie. 4

18. What are cultural trades and cultural complex? 4

19. Write about the different types of competition. 4

20. Mention the four attributes of social stratification. 4

Answer any three (3) from Q.21 to Q.25 3x6=18

21. Why is sociology considered a science?

22. Explain formal and informal groups.

23. Highlight six characteristics of culture.

24. Discuss personal interview as a technique of data collection.

25. Discuss briefly the origin of environmental crisis.

Answer any three (3) from Q.26 to Q.30 3x8=24

26. What are the various basis of classification of kinship terms? Discuss in detail.

27. Write an essay on primitive economy.

28. Elaborate observation as a method of data collection.

29. Write short notes on: (2x4=8)
a)Ascribed status b) Achieved status c)Status set d) Master status

30. Discuss the four stages of development of human society according to Karl Marx.

*********************************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/BS/1
2023
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is meant by public company? 1

2. Write the meaning of co-operative society. 1

3. What is meant by public- private-partnership? 1

4. What is meant by departmental undertaking? 1

5. Define insurance. 1

6. What is meant by digital payments? 1

7. What is copy right? 1

8. What is a trademark? 1

9. State any two types of home trade. 2

10. Mention two objectives of prospectus. 2

11. State any two features of private sector. 2

12. Write any two types of business pollution. 2

13. Write any two financial requirements of business finance. 2

14. a. Discuss any four characteristics of business.
Or 4
b. Discuss any four nature of business risk.

-2- NB/XI/BS/1

15. Distinguish between business and employment. 4

16. a. Explain any four features of public enterprise.
Or 4
b. Explain any four features of government companies.

17. Discuss any four major benefits of e-commerce/e-business. 4

18. a. Explain any four social responsibilities of business towards owners/ investors.
Or 4
b. Explain any four social responsibilities of business towards community.

19. Distinguish between retailer and wholesaler. 4

20. a. Explain any four nature of international business.
Or 4
b. Explain any four scope of international business.

21. State any four features of World Trade Organization. . 4

22. a. Distinguish between company and partnership.
Or 6
b. Distinguish between the Memorandum of Association and the Articles of
Association.

23. a. Explain any six major postal services.
Or 6
b. Explain six nature of business services.

24. a. Distinguish between debenture and share.
Or 6
b. Explain six significance of business finance.

25. a. Explain any six roles of small business in rural India.
Or 6
b. Explain the main steps of registration process under Geographical
Indications (GI).

26. a. Explain any six features of mail order business
Or 6
b. Explain any six advantages of chain store.

*******************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/PSC/1
2023
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 5
1. The right to conserve the language, script and culture falls under the category of 1
(a) Right to Work (b) Right to Personal Liberty
(c) Cultural and Educational Rights (d) Political Rights
2. Which of the following is not a correct statement about the salient feature
of the Constitution of India? 1
(a) Constitution aims to establish a secular state
(b) Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament of India
(c) Ours is a written Constitution
(d) Seats are reserved for the STs and SCs in the Lok Sabha
3. Who presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament? 1
(a) Prime Minister of India (b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Union Minister of Law and Justice (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. In which year was the Kalyan Singh Government in Uttar Pradesh dismissed
by the Governor? 1
(a) 1997 (b) 1998
(c) 1999 (d) 2000
5. GST Act came into existence with the 1
(a) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016
(b) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
(c) 99th Constitutional Amendment Ac t, 2014
(d) 98th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2012
6. Which Act contains the detailed provisions with regard to the acquisition and
termination of citizenship in India? 1

7. Mention any one right included in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. 1
8. Who coined the word ‘secularism’? 1
9. Write the expanded form of NJAC. 1
10. What is Nyaya Panchayat? 1
11. Define political theory. 2

-2- NB/XI/PSC/1

12. Mention any two problems faced by refugees. 2
13. Write any two features of political Justice. 2
14. What did Mahatma Gandhi said about religious tolerance ? 2
15. What is no confidence motion? 2
16. Mention any two provisions of India’s Constitution which can be amended by
simple majority. 2
17. Explain the scope of Political Science with reference to: 2+2=4
i) The study of representation, election and voting behaviour
ii) A study of political parties and pressure groups
18. Mention any two ways each in which equality can be promoted from the
following: 2+2=4
i) Absence of privilege
ii) Adequate opportunities for all
19. Write two Directives Principles which proclaim that India is a welfare state. 4
20. Discuss in brief any four significance of the Local Government. 4
Answer any three from questions 21 - 25 3x6=18
21. Examine the three safeguards for liberty. (6)
22. ‘Rights and responsibilities are correlative’. Examine any three principal
duties of citizens of a country. (6)
23. Discuss the powers and functions of the Election Commission. (6)
24. Explain the different stages through which an ordinary bill passes before
it becomes an Act of Parliament. (6)
25. Discuss any three federal features of the Constitution of India. (6)
Answer any three from questions 26 – 30 3x8=24
26. What is a nation? Examine any three factors that constitute a nation. (2+6=8)
27. Define secularism. Discuss three important features of a secular state. (2+6=8)
28. Explain eight salient features of the Constitution of India. (8)
29. Examine any four powers of the President of India. (8)
30. Discuss briefly the Original and Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
of India. (8)

*********************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/CHE/1
2023
CHEMISTRY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Predict the block. period and group of the element having atomic
number (Z=9). 1
(a) p-block,2-period and 17-group
(b) p-block, 2- period and 15-group
(c) s-block, 2-period and 16-group
(d) p-block, 3-period and 17-group.

2. In an endothermic reaction, the value of ΔH is always 1
(a) equal to zero (b) greater than zero
(c) less than zero (d) constant.

3. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid? 1
(a) AlCl3.6H2O (b) AlCl3
(c) SnCl4 (d) FeCl3.

4. The number of bond in benzene is 1
(a) 6  and 3  (b) 12  and 3 
(c) 3  and 12  (d) 6  and 6  .

5. Which of the following is an electrophile? 1
(a) BCl3 (b) CH3OH
(c) NH3 (d) AlCl4.

6. State law of multiple proportion. 1

7. State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. 1

8. Draw the Lewis structure of CO32− ion. 1

-2- NB/XI/CHE/1

9. What is buffer solution? 1

10. Write the IUPAC name of CH3−CH−CH−COOH. 1
| |
Br Cl

11. a. Calculate the volume occupied at STP by 16 gram of oxygen.
Or 2
b. What is the molarity of a solution obtained by dissolving 14.6 g NaCl
in enough water to give 100ml of solution?

12. Write the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory. 2

13. a. Derive de-Broglie’s wave equation.
Or 2
b. Mention two limitations of Bohr’s model of atom.

14. Calculate the oxidation number of Cr in K2Cr2O7 and S in H2SO5. 2

15. What happens when ethene is oxidized in presence of cold alkaline
KMnO4 and hot alkaline KMnO4? Give the chemical reaction. 2

16. a. Complete the following reaction:
?
CH3−CH=CH2 + HBr
H2O2 ?

Or 2
b. What happens when calcium carbide reacts with water? Write the
reaction.

17. A golf ball has a mass of 40g and a speed of 45ms−1. If the speed can be
measured within accuracy of 2%, calculate the uncertainty in position.
(h=6.626×10−34kgm2s−1). 3

18. Why are d-block elements called transition element? Why are Zn, Cd
and Hg not considered as transition elements? 3

19. Write the electronic configuration of Cu and Fe3+. What will be the
sub-shell notation for n=4, l=2? 3

-3- NB/XI/CHE/1

20. i) Why is the first ionization enthalpy of sodium lower than the
magnesium?
ii) Why is the electron gain enthalpy of chlorine more negative than
flourine? 3

21. a. Differentiate between  bond and  bond.
Or 3
b. What is formal charge? Calculate the formal charge on each oxygen
atom of ozone (O3) molecule.

22. What is enthalpy? Derive the relationship between ΔH and ΔU. 3

23. State Le-Chatelier’s principle. On the basis of Le-Chatelier’s principle,
what will be the effect of pressure and temperature on the manufacture
of NH3? N2 (g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). ΔH=92.4KJ. 3

24. a. Define Arrhenius concept of acid and base. Calculate the pH of a
buffer solution which is 0.1 M in acetic acid and 0.15 M in sodium
acetate. (Ka for acetic acid is 1.75 ×10−5).
Or 3
b. What is solubility product? Lead iodide has a solubility product of
7.1x10-9 at 298K. Calculate its solubility at this temperature.

25. a. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction of K2Cr2O7
with Na2SO3 in acidic medium to give chromium (III) ion and
sulphate ion.
Or 3
b. What is electrochemical series? Write the application of electro-
chemical series.

26. Explain geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism with example? 3

27. a. What is Inductive effect? Explain −I and +I effect with example.
Or 3
b. Explain the purification of organic compound by steam distillation
and thin layer chromatography.

28. a. Define hybridization. Mention two salient features of hybridization. Explain
sp3d2 hybridization by taking the example of SF6.
Or 5
b. What is bond length and bond angle? Draw the molecular orbital
energy level diagram of N2 molecule, predict its magnetic behavior.

-4- NB/XI/CHE/1

29. a. State first law of thermodynamics and Hess’s law of constant heat
summation. Calculate the standard internal energy for the reaction
OF2 + H2O → O2+2HF at 298K. (Given − standard enthalpies of
formation in KJmol−1 are OF2 = +20, H2O = −250 and HF = −270).
Or 5
b. What is standard enthalpy of formation? Write one importance of
standard enthalpy of formation. Calculate the enthalpy change on
freezing of 1.0mole of water at 10o C to ice at −10o C. Δfus H = 6.03
KJmol−1 at 0o C.
Cp H 2 O (l )J =75.3 J mol −1K−1
Cp H 2O ( s)J = 36.8 mol−1K−1

30. a. i) What are the conditions required for an organic compound to be
aromatic?
ii) Explain Corey-House synthesis of alkanes.
Or 5
b. i) What is conformation of a molecule? Write the Newman
projection of ethane.
ii) Complete the following reaction:

(a) OH
|

+ Zn distillati
  on
?

(b) + HNO3 conc
. ?

(c) + H2SO4 conc
. ?

**********************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/FBM/1
2023
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS

Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Write the centre of the circle x 2  ( y  6) 2  16 1

2. Find the value of log 10 0.1 1

3. Define prime number. 1

4. Define interest period. 1

5. Write the meaning of scrap value. 1
2 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
6. If x  y  z  0 show that a x y z a x y z a x y z  a 3 4

7. In how many ways can words be formed with the letters of the word
‘DIMAPUR’ if the vowels remain together? 4

8. How many four digit numbers can be formed with distinct digits? 4

9. How many words consisting of 2 vowels and 4 consonants out of 4 vowels
and 6 consonants can be formed? 4

10. The simple interest on ` 6,000 for 4 years together with that on ` 8,000 for
6 years comes to ` 2,160, the rate being the same in both the cases. Find the
rate of interest percent per annum. 4

11. a. The simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2
years at the same rate are respectively ` 4,500 and ` 4,700. Find the rate of
interest.
Or 4

-2- NB/XI/FBM/1

b. A loan earns interest at a certain rate (compound) percent per annum. Four
years ago, the amount was ` 81, now it is ` 144. What will the amount be
two years hence?

12. a. In a certain match of cricket, the ratio of Sachin’s score to that of Sourav’s
is 5:4 and the ratio of Sourav’s score to that of Laxman’s is 6:5. If Sachin
scored 105 runs, what runs are scored by each of them?
(The ratio of scores given here are fictious)
Or 4
b. The daily wages of Avigyan and Arnob are in the ratio of 4:5. They worked
together on a piece of work for 30 days when Arnob left and Avigyan
finished the work in another 8 days. They got ` 15,100. Find the daily wages
of each.

13. a. If 20% of a number is added to16, the result is the number itself. Find the
number.
Or 4
b. An orange seller has a certain number of oranges of which 5% are bad and
are discarded. He sells 90% of the remainder. If he has now 38 oranges left,
how many had he originally?

14. a. A buys an article for ` 500, he sells it to B at a gain of 5%, B sells it to C
at a gain of 10%. For how much should C sell it so as to gain 15%?
Or 4
b. A bookseller sells two books at the same price, gaining 10% on one and 12%
on the other. If the total profit on the two is ` 12.20, find the cost of each
book.

1 1 1 22
15. a. If 2 x  4 y  8 z and   
2 x 4 y 8z 7
7 7 7
show that x  , y  and z 
16 32 48
Or 5
2 5 2 5 3 8
b. Simplify  
2 5 2 5 3 8

16 25 81
16. a. Show that log2  16log  12 log  7 log 1
15 24 80
Or 5
log y-log z log z log x log x log y
b. Prove that ( yz)  ( zx )  ( xy ) 1

-3- NB/XI/FBM/1

17. a. A, B and C took a loan of ` 4,700 at 3%, 4% and 5% and paid equal amount
of interest at the end of 2 years. How much loan did each of them took?
Or 5
b. A father leaves a sum of ` 80,000 for his two sons aged 5 years and 7 years
so that each son at attaining the age of 30 years may get equal amount at
3% per annum simple interest. Find the amount that each son gets when he is
30 years.

18. a. Solve for x and y, 2 x  3 y  5, 4 x  9 y  5
Or 6
1 x2 1
b. If 2 x  3  , show that 1
3 x  x2 1

19. a. Find the equation of the straight line which passes through (3, 4) and the sum
of whose intercepts on the coordinate axes is 14.
Or 6
b. Find the equation of the circle passing through (2, 3) and (4, 5) and having its
centre on the line y  4 x  3  0 .

20. a. Calculate the number, which when multiplied by
1 3 12  2 12  1 12
1   5. 25 gives 20
1 3 12  2 12 of 1 12
1
1  13

Or 6
   
14 of 2. 2 7 4. 4 2.8 3 68
b. What number multiplied itself gives  
   
of
5  1.13 6 1. 6 2. 6 2 9 7.5

21. a. A milk vendor sells two grades of milk at ` 22 and ` 18 per litre gaining
10% and 20% respectively. If he mixes the two in the ratio of 2:3 and sells
the mixture at ` 22 per litre, what percentage gain does he earn?
Or 6
b. A person purchased a cow and an ox for ` 3,000. He sold the cow at 5%
profit and an ox at 20% profit thereby making a profit of 10% on the
whole. Find the cost price of the cow and an ox.

*********************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/EDU/1
2023
EDUCATION
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 30 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternativesin questions 1 to 5.

1. Distance Education is also known as: 1
(a) Formal education (b) Correspondence education.
(c) Informal Education (d) Guidance agencies of Education.

2. Which article has clearly stated that it shall be the endevour of the union
government to promote Hindi language? 1
(a) Article 350 (b) Article 351 (c)Article 30 (d) Article 45

3. There were three institutes of learning during the vedic period: 1
(a) School, morung, gurukula (b) gurukula, pathsala, parishads.
(c) Morung, family, parishads (d) parishads, internet, morung.

4. Who is known as the father of modern education in India? 1
(a) Charles Wood (b) W.W. Hunter
(c) William Wilberforce (d) Charles Grant.

5. The simplest definition of discipline is: 1
(a) Learning obedience (b) Learning Discipline
(c) Learning Behaviour (d) Learning order

6. Define Education according to Swami Vivekananda. 1

7. Who coined the term Kindergarten? 1

8. Where is mountain Saramati situated? 1

9. What is Socialisation? 1

-2- NB/XI/EDU/1

10. What is written examination ? 1

11. Mention any two limitations of individual aim of education. 2

12. State any two objectives of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan(SSA). 2

13. What is meant by the term ‘Reward’? 2

14. Write any two functions of culture. 2

15. What is the process of cultural transmission? 2

16. Write any two functions of statistics. 2

17. Suggest any four methods to achieve National Integration. 4

18. Explain in brief any four hindrances which stand in the way of
Universalisation of primary education. 4

19. Briefly explain the general community services performed by the members
of the morung. 4

20. The marks obtained by 15 students in education of
Class XI (out of 100 marks)are:- 4
74 71 75 77 16
79 35 37 90 56
55 58 58 30 15
Prepare a frequency distribution table

Answer any three (3) from Q.21 to Q.25. 3x6=18

21. Explain any six natures of education. 6

22. What are the powers and functions of UGC? 6

23. Discuss the educational philosophy of Maria Montessori. 6

24. What are the canons of punishment laid down by Bentham? 6

25. Differentiate between formative approach and Summative approach of
evaluation. 6

-3- NB/XI/EDU/1

Answer any three (3) from Q.26 to Q.30. 3x8=24

26. What does scope mean? Discuss in brief the scope of education. 1+7= 8

27. What is the role of UNESCO in unifying people from different
part of the world? 8

28. What is Rabindranath Tagore’s educational philosophy? 8
29. Explain the contribution of Christian missionaries in India. 8

30. Discuss the ways and means suggested for the participation of village
community in educational process. 8

************************************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/PSY/1
2023
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 30 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words

N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.

1. Who established the Indian Analytical Association? 1

2. What are mental processes? 1

3. What is a variable? 1

4. What is the purpose of correlational research? 1

5. Define reinforcers. 1

6. What are the two types of conditioning? 1

7. What is thinking? 1

8. What is problem solving? 1

9. What is anxiety? 1

10. Give the derivative meaning of the term motivation. 1

11. What are behaviours? Give an example each of overt and covert behaviour.1+1=2

12. When and where was the first psychology laboratory established in India? 1+1=2

13. Write two features of learning. 1+1=2

14. Briefly explain two obstacles in solving a problem. 2

15. Elaborate any two abilities of divergent thinking. 2

-2- NB/XI/PSY/1

16. Suggest any four ways to enhance positive emotions. 2

17. Explain any two major disciplines linked to the field of psychology. 4

18. Mention any four features of life-span perspective of development. 4

19. Explain any two causes of forgetting. 4

20. Briefly explain the process of creative thinking. 4

Answer any three (3) from questions 21-25. 3×6=18
21. Explain any three ethical guidelines to be followed by a psychologist while
conducting a psychological enquiry. 3×2=6

22. What are the challenges faced by individuals on entry to adulthood? 6

23. What are the factors facilitating learning? 6

24. Explain the stage model memory system. 6

25. Explain three psychosocial motives. 6

Answer any three (3) from Questions 26-30 3×8=24

26. Explain psychology as a discipline. 8

27. What is survey research? Explain any two techniques of survey research. 2+6=8

28. Discuss the main aspects of growth and development during infancy. 8

29. What are monocular cues? Explain any six monocular cues. 2+6=8

30. What is learning disability? Explain any six symptoms of learning
disability. 2+6=8

*******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/ECO/1

2023
ECONOMICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
ix) Alternate questions for visually impaired students are provided in question
18,23,25 and 27.
Only the visually impaired students have to attempt the alternate question
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is meant by economizing of resources? 1
2. Define production possibility curve. 1
3. What is the relationship between demand for a good and income of the
consumer? 1
4. Define market equilibrium 1

5. Draw demand curve with = 1. 1
6. Define real cost. 1
7. Who conducts census of India after every ten years? 1
8. What is frequency curve? 1
9. Give the full form of WPI. 1
10. Define seasonal variation. 1
11. What is percentage method of price elasticity of supply? Give its formula. 2
12. State the two condition of consumer’s equilibrium in case of a single good. 2

-2- NB/XI/ECO/1

13. Mention the four essential ingredients of a market. 2
14. Distinguish between continuous variable and discrete variable. 2
15. State any two limitations of index numbers. 2
16. Explain any two causes of an economic problem. 4
17. Mention the points of difference between price ceiling and price floor. 4
18. State any three relationship between ATC, AVC and MC with the help of a
diagram. 4

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:

Define AFC and ATC. Write its formula. 2+2=4
19. Explain in brief the four functions of statistics. 4
20. From the following data, calculate median: 4

Class - Interval Frequency
100 – 110 4
110 – 120 6
120 – 130 20
130 – 140 32
140 – 150 33
150 – 160 17
160 – 170 8
170 – 180 2

Answer any two from questions 21 – 23. 2x6=12
21. Explain any three factors determining price elasticity of demand.
22. Explain any three features of monopolistic competition.
23. Explain how equilibrium price is determined when there is excess demand
in the market with the help of a diagram.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:

Explain any two features of perfect competition.
Answer any two from questions 24 – 26. 2x6=12

-3- NB/XI/ECO/1

24. State any six objectives of tabulation.

25. Construct sub-divided bar diagram for representing the following information.

No. of Admissions Commerce Science Humanities Total
2016 440 200 360 1000
2017 500 150 250 900

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:

Explain any two methods of collecting primary data.

26. From the following data, calculate Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation
between experience of employees and their performance:

Experience 16 12 18 4 3 10 5 12
Performance 23 22 24 17 19 20 18 21

27. a. Explain the exceptions to the law of demand.
Or 8
b. Explain change in quantity supplied and change in supply with the help
of a diagram.

Alternate question for the visually impaired students:

Explain any two sources of shifts in demand curves.

28. a. From the following data of the height of 100 persons in a competition,
determine the modal height by grouping method: 5 +2 +1 =8

Height 58 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 68 70 71
(in inches)
No. of persons 3 8 10 20 29 25 11 5 4 2 1

Or

-4- NB/XI/ECO/1

b. From the following frequency distribution, calculate first quartile and
third quartile. (4+4=8)

Class intervals Frequency
100 – 110 4
110 – 120 0
120 – 130 3
130 – 140 7
140 – 150 11
150 – 160 8
160 – 170 5
170 – 180 0
180 – 190 2

*************************

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XI/BIO/1
2023
BIOLOGY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contains 14 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

PART - A
1. The concept of three domains of life was proposed by 1
(a) Carl Woese (b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Hutchinson (d) Robert H Whittaker

2. Mycorrhizal roots are found in 1
(a) Nostoc (b) Cycas
(c) Pinus (d) Sequoia

3. Which one of the following pteridophytes show several adaptations to produce
seeds? 1
(a) Equisetum (b) Psilotum
(c) Selaginella (d) Dryopteris

4. In compound leaves, when one single leaflet is joined on the tip of the petiole, it
is said to be_____ 1
(a) unifoliate (b) bifoliate
(c) quadrifoliate (d) multifoliate

5. The bicollateral vascular bundle is characteristic of members of ____ family. 1
(a) Solanaceae (b) Cucurbitaceae
(c) Poaceae (d) Leguminosae

6. a. Distinguish between actinomorphic and zygomorphic flowers.
Or 2

b. Define a seed. Mention the two parts of a seed.

7. a. Write two functions of the endosplasmic reticulum.
Or 2
b. Name the chemical substance which make up the cell wall of a bacterial
cell. Give its function.

-2- NB/XI/BIO/1

8. a. What is an auxanometer? Name the two types of auxanometer.
Or 2
b. Give two functions of gibberellins.

9. a. Discuss briefly the three economic importance of bryophytes.
Or 3
b. Write three general characters of Chlorophyceae.

10. a. Describe in brief the different types of vascular bundles.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between dicot and monocot root.

11. a. What are ribosomes? Distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
ribosomes.
Or 3
b. Give one function each on golgi complex, vacuoles and cytoskeleton.

12. a. Describe the ultrastructure of mitochondria with the help of a diagram.
Or 5
b. Explain the Fluid Mosaic Model with the help of a diagram.

13. a. Explain Calvin cycle (C3 pathway) with the help of diagrammatic
representation.
Or 5
b. Give the schematic representation of photorespiration. Mention its
significance.

14. a. Give a detailed account of glycolysis (EMP pathway).
Or 5
b. Explain the mechanism of fermentation.

PART - B
1. R.H. Whittaker divided the living world into five kingdom in the year 1
(a) 1959 (b) 1969
(c) 1758 (d) 1768

2. A lichen is an association of 1
(a) virus and algae (b) fungus and algae
(c) fungus and protozoa (d) bacteria and algae

3. To which phylum and class does Periplaneta belong? 1
(a) Phylum-Annelida, Class-Reptilia
(b) Phylum-Arthropoda, Class-Insecta
(c) Phylum-Annelida, Class-Insecta

(d) Phylum-Arthropoda, Class-Amphibia

4. The role of pacemaker in heart is to 1
(a) accelerate blood circulation (b) inhibit backflow of blood
(c) initiate heart beat (d) stimulate blood pressure

-3- NB/XI/BIO/1

5. Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called 1
(a) prolactin (b) progesterone
(c) aldosterone (d) testosterone

6. a. Write two general characters of phylum platyhelminthes.
Or 2
b. List two points of differences between man and ape.

7. a. Which type of vision is present in cockroach? What enables the insect to
have such vision?
Or 2
b. ‘Cockroach shows sexual dimorphism’. List two features in support of the
statement.

8. a. Explain in brief the excretory system of cockroach.
Or 2
b. What enables cockroach to walk on vertical surface?

9. a. What are enzymes? Explain two factors that affect the enzyme activity.
Or 3
b. Explain three significance of meiosis in the life cycle of organisms.

10. a. Explain three respiratory disorders in man.
Or 3
b. Name the two heart sounds. How are they produced?

11. a. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the following:
(i) Ball and socket joint in the hip
(ii) Hinge joint in the knee
Or 3
b. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a neuron.

12. a. List five functions of proteins.
Or 5
b. Describe the various phases of interphase of cell cycle.

13. a. Explain briefly the events that occur during a cardiac cycle.
Or 5
b. Describe the structure of a nephron with a labelled diagram.

14. a. Explain the mechanism of muscle contraction with proper diagram.
Or 5
b. Why is pancreas called a heterocrine gland? Insulin and glucagon hormones

are antagonistic. How?

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Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XI/CSC/1
2023
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 32 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is a Code Unit? 1
2. Convert Vivaan to ASCII. 1

3. What is portability? 1
4. Define character set. 1

5. What are statements? 1

6. What are Escape Sequences? 1

7. If L = [2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64], what is L[4]? 1

8. If T1 = [2, 4, 8, 16] and T2 = [32, 64], then what is T1 + T2? 1

9. What is an associative array? 1

10. What is the purpose of Index? 1

11. What does a cookie contain? 1

12. What is Cyber Safety? 1

13. Differentiate between translator and compiler. 2

14. Convert the decimal number 4827 to hexadecimal. 2

15. Write any four uses of Python. 2

16. Differentiate between input function and print function. Give an
example for both functions. 2

-2- NB/XI/CSC/1

17. How many times the following loop executes? 2
n = 10
i = n
while (i>0) :
print (n)
i=i+1
n = int (n / 2)
print (i)

18. What is a tuple? Explain slicing in tuple. 2

19. What is a dictionary? What is the purpose of keys() function in a
dictionary? 2

20. Explain the purpose of the following string functions. 2
(i) Isalnum() (ii) Isalpha()

21. What is the difference between MOD() and TRUNCATE() functions in
MySQL? 2

22. Give two points noteworthy vis-à-vis the graph databases. 2

23. Write any two features of MongoDB. 2

24. State and prove De Morgan’s laws. 4

25. a. What are Identifiers? Mention the rules for naming Identifiers.
Or 4
b. Explain the following statements:
(i) Expression statement (ii) Assignment statement
(iii) Assert statement (iv) Pass statement

26. What is an algorithm? Describe the features of a good algorithm. 4

27. a. Write a Python program to find minimum number from a given list.
Or 4
b. Write a Python program to find maximum number and its position in
a given list.

28. a. Write an algorithm for Selection sort.
Or 4

b. Sort the arrays 4, 7, 9, 8, 3, 11, 2, 18 using Bubble sort method.

-3- NB/XI/CSC/1

29. a. Write four advantages of DBMS vis-à-vis a file system.
Or 4
b. Define the following keys:
(i) Primary key (ii) Super key (iii) Composite key (iv) Foreign key

30. Explain the purpose of the following string functions: 4
(i) Char() (ii) Ltrim() (iii) Instr() (iv) Left()

31. a. Describe four problems caused by a spyware installed in the system.

Or 4
b. Write short notes on the following:
(i) Adware (ii) Cookies (iii) Trojans (iv) Spamming

32. Describe four types of Cyber Bullying. 4

**************************

Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XI/IP/1
2023
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is com plete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 5x1 = 5
(a) The inbuilt instructions on ROM is referred as
i) Bios ii) Software
iii) CMOS iv) Hardware

(b) Which of the following is not a swing class?
i) JFrame ii) JLabel
iii) JButton iv) ListBox

(c) Which of the following statement is used to terminate a loop?
i) Break ii) Continue
iii) Goto iv) None of these

(d) Which of the following is a valid table name?
i) My table ii) 6Student
iii) My_Table iv) 123Student

(e) Which clause is used to filter data in a query?
i) FILTER ii) ORDER BY
iii) WHERE iv) SEARCH

2. What are the different types of software? 1

3. What is Java byte code? 1

4. Which property of a ListBox control is used to enter the list of items while
working on NetBeans? 1

5. What are the limitations of file based applications? 1

6. Define attribute. 1

7. Write the command to see the list of available database on your
MySQL server. 1

-2- NB/XI/IP/1
8. Mention the name of MySQL operator used to retrieve the unique
records. 1

9. Which type of testing is done by the programmer? 1

10. Differentiate between file and folder. 2

11. What is phishing and Denial of Service (DoS) attack? 2

12. Write a short notes on: 2
(i) int data type (ii) Boolean data type

13. Name the interface that defines the methods of handling mouse
move and mouse dragged events. 2

14. Define the significance of the following methods of JComboBox class. 2
(i) add() (ii) setMaximumRowCount()

15. What is the use of selection statement in a program? 2

16. Write down two advantages and two disadvantages of DBMS. 2

17. What is MySQL Workbench? 2

18. Give two examples of DDL commands. 2

19. Write MySQL statements to get: 2
(i) the length of a string (ii) to convert string ‘HELLO’ to ‘hello’.

20. Why is Sequential model also called Waterfall model? 2

21. a. What are the different advantages of computers? Explain any four of
them.
Or 4
b. What are the different types of printers? Discuss in brief.

22. a. Write a short note on Java code compilation process.
Or 4
b. What is the significance of control of flow in a program? Discuss any three
programming elements used to control the flow in a program.

23. a. What is the use of JOptionPane class? Discuss with example.
Or 4

b. Differentiate between a JRadio Button and a JCheckBox.

-3- NB/XI/IP/1
24. a. What are the different keys available in relational model? Explain with
example.
Or 4
b. Discuss in brief the various tools and products of MySQL.

25. a. Discuss in brief the various built in functions available in MySQL with
example.
Or 4
b. What is the use of GROUPBY clause? Explain with example.

26. a. What is an array? Discuss with example, the use of array.
Or 5
b. What is an event? Name the interfaces available in Java to facilitate event
handling.
27. a. What is meant by Software Development Life Cycle? Discuss in
brief each phase of SDLC.
Or 5
b. Compare and contrast between sequential and evolutionary approach to
SDLC.
28. a. What is e-Commerce? What are the various advantages and disadvantages
of online shopping?
Or 5
b. What is e-Banking? Discuss in brief the various benefits offered by
e-Banking.

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Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/PHI/1

2023
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.

Choose the correct answer from the given alternative: 10x1=10

1. Inductive leap consists in passing from observed cases to 1
(a) unidentified facts (b) unobserved cases
(c) experimental cases (d) experienced facts

2 Observation and experiment are the material grounds of 1
(a) Deduction (b) Induction
(c) Observation (d) Experiment

3. Hypothesis assumes _____ different forms 1
(a) two (b) three
(c) four (d) five

4. Hypothesis-non-firgo means 1
(a) I imagine hypothesis (b) I do not imagine hypothesis
(c) I find hypothesis (d) I do not find hypothesis

5. Passing from something known to something unknown is called 1
(a) Reasoning (b) Knowledge
(c) Inference (d) Truth

6. Material logic is also called 1
(a) Applied Logic (b) Formal Logic

(c) Deductive Logic (d) Inductive Logic

-2- NB/XI/PHI/1

7. A term is a combination of 1
(a) letters (b) words
(c) things (d) propositions

8. ‘All S is P’ are known as _____ type proposition 1
(a) ‘A’ (b) ‘E’
(c) ‘I’ (d) ‘O’

9. A syllogism consists of 1
(a) one proposition (b) two propositions
(c) three propositions (d) four propositions

10. The word ‘Fallacy’ is derived from _____ word 1
(a) Greek (b) Latin
(c) Arabic (d) Hebrew

Answer the following questions:

11 Name the fallacies of non-observation. 2

12 What is Experimental Method? 2

13 Name the Laws of thought. 2

14. Define absolute and relative terms. 2

15. What is Copula? 2

16. Symbolise the following (Any one) 1x2=2
(a) If there is over population, then price do not rise.
(b) Either you study hard or fail in the examination.

17. Give the general difference between Induction and Deduction. 4

18. State the uses of Logic. 4

19. Explain and examine the law of Identity. 4

20. What are categorematic words and syncategorematic words? 4

Answer any three from questions 21 –25

21. What is unscientific induction? Why is unscientific induction called
induction per simple enumeration? 2+4=6

22. Explain the general conditions of observation. 6

-3- NB/XI/PHI/1

23. Define proposition according to modality with examples. 6

24. Explain the fallacy of illicit major and illicit minor with examples. 3+3=6

25. Construct truth table of the following (any two): 2x3=6
a. pv ̴ p
b. p  (p • q)
c. ( ̴ p • ̴ q) ≡ (p v q)

Answer any three from questions 26 - 30

26. What is the literal meaning of observation? ‘Observation and experiment
do not differ in kind but only in degree’ Explain. 2+6=8

27. Are hypothesis, theory, law and fact related as concept? Explain. 8

28. Explain the Method of Agreement with examples. 8

29. State the general rules of categorical syllogism. 8

30. Explain the values of symbols used in symbolization. 8

***********************

Total number of printed pages: 2 NB/XI/FMM/1

2023
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMNET
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 24 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. What is dematerialization? 1

2. How long does it take to get the shares listed after issue? 1

3. What is an annual report? 1

4. Give the meaning of Net Assets of a scheme. 1

5. What is tracking error? 1

6. Write the full form of ELSS. 1

7. Name any two credit rating agencies. 1

8. Mention the rate of DDT for individual and HUF. 1

9. What are simple interest and compound interest? 2

10. Differentiate between secured and unsecured loans under loan funds. 2

11. Name the two parts of mutual funds offer documents. 2

12. What is portfolio churning in liquid funds? 2

13. Mention any four disadvantages of holding physical gold. 2

14. Explain any four long term financial options available for investment. 4

15. State any four advantages of book building through the NSE system. 4

-2- NB/XI/FMM/1

16. Write the comparisons between a depository and a bank. 4

17. Discuss the sources of funds for a company. 4

18. State the procedures for investing in an NFO. 4

19. What are interest rate risk and credit risk? 4

20. Explain any four advantages of mutual funds. 4

21. a. Explain any six precautions one must take before investing in the stock
market.
Or 6
b. Discuss any three shares and the three bond products dealt in the
secondary market.

22. a. Explain how a company can be systematically analyzed. 6
Or
b. How is leverage or capital structure ratio used? Mention and explain the
two sets of leverage ratios. (2+4=6)

23. a. Explain 3-tier structure of mutual funds in India.
Or 6
b. Explain open ended and close ended funds.

24. a. Discuss any six product details of sovereign gold bonds.
Or 6
b. State the process for stress testing of assets.

*************************

Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/EE/1

2023
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION

Total marks: 70 Time : 3 hours

General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.

1. Which of the following aids in fixing radiant energy of the sun? 1
(a) Producers (b) Consumers
(c) Decomposers (d) Microconsumers

2. The traditional method of rainwater harvesting in Kerala is 1
(a) Zing (b) Surangam
(c) Zabo (d) Kund

3. The enormous increase in the number of people is called 1
(a) Population pressure (b) Population explosion
(c) Resource explosion (d) Human strain

4. The people in Nagaland depend on ________ for their livelihood 1
(a) Industry (b) Technology
(c) Commerce (d) Agriculture

5. Economic growth aims to improve 1
(a) Quality of life (b) Social needs
(c) Health and hygiene (d) Health and happiness

6. Which of the following cities has been classified as the ten most polluted cities
in the world by World Health Organization? 1
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata

7. The four R’s stands for 1
(a) Recovery, reprocess, reuse, recycle (b) Reduce, reprocess, refuse,recovery

(c) Refuse, reuse, recycle, reduce (d) Reduce, recovery, recycle, reuse

-2- NB/XI/EE/1

8. The reduction in the amount of ozone in the upper atmosphere is known as 1
(a) Ozone hole (b) Ozone reduction
(c) Ozone thinning (d) Ozone depletion

9. The major source of energy in the rural sector is 1
(a) Firewood (b) Coal
(c) LPG (d) Kerosene

10. Amongst all the source of energy, which energy has the greatest potential? 1
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy
(c) Wave energy (d) Nuclear energy

11. Differentiate between desertification and overgrazing. 2

12. Mention any two impacts of child marriage on the development of a society.
2

13. Write four methods through which a campaign programme can be launched.
2

14. Differentiate between pollution and pollutant. 2

15. Write any two ways to reduce noise pollution. 2

16. Write any two differences of energy consumption in rural and urban regions.
2

17. Write any two advantages of wind energy. 2

18. Mention four effects of acid rain. 4

19. Write any two main aims of globalisation. . 4

20. Write four effects of global warming on agriculture, plants and animals. 4

21. Name one disease caused by water pollution. Mention three impacts of water
pollution on human body. 1+3=4

22. Write four advantages of using CNG. 4

23. a. Mention any six principles of code of ecology. 6
Or

b. What is urbanisation? How does the demand for housing cause
environmental problems in urban areas? (2+4=6)

-3- NB/XI/EE/1

24. a. What is deforestation? Give five effects of deforestation. 1+5=6
Or
b. Mention any six basic components of development. 6

25. a. Give three energy saving tips each for (i) cooking (ii) transport. 3+3=6
Or
b. List six ways in utilisation of energy efficiently in our daily life. 6

26. a. Write four impacts of drought on the environment. Mention four preventive
measures of drought. 4+4=8
Or
b. Mention four impacts and four preventive measures of landslide. 4+4=8

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/IT(V)/1
2023
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Communication which involves sending and understanding messages only through
images and pictures is called
(a) Visual communication (b) Verbal communication
(c) Non-verbal communication (d) Actions
ii. A regular, ordered way of doing activities at a fixed time is called
(a) Habit (b) Routine
(c) Chores (d) Skills
iii. Which of the following is a feeling of certainty that something exists and is true,
especially one without proof?
(a) Like (b) Values
(c) Beliefs (d) Opinion
iv. Personal hygiene is the habit or practice of keeping ourselves
(a) Clean (b) Dirty
(c) Shabby (d) Untidy
v. Which of the following options have the command save, print and close?
(a) Tools (b) Format
(c) Insert (d) File
vi. Which short cut key is used to create new documents?
(a) Control+C (b) Control+N
(c) Control+M (d) Control+D
vii. Which of the following business, converts raw materials into finished products?
(a) Trading business (b) Service business
(c) Manufacturing business (d) Accounting business
viii. As an entrepreneur, to come up with new ideas that others have not thought of
before is called
(a) Confidence (b) Critical thinking
(c) Creativity (d) Planning
ix. Which of the following actions would not help a green agriculture sector?

(a) Buying organic potatoes (b) Using organic manure
(c) Growing organic vegetables (d) Using chemical fertilizers

-2- NB-XI/IT(V)/1

x. A project called ‘litter of light’ is bringing light to many places that need it the most by
recycling.
(a) Plastic cans (b) Paper cups
(c) Plastic bottles (d) Glass bottles

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Give the full form of LPO. 1
3. What is Information Technology enabled services (ITes)? 1
4. What is the purpose of CRM training program? 1
5. What is a call forcing? 1
6. Define audiotex. 1
7. What is task in CRM software? 1
8. Mention any two skills required for accepting orders. 1
9. What is ‘health’ according to World Health Organization (WHO)? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. List the four kinds of jobs that can be done in voice process. 2
11. Differentiate between customer service and telesales. 2
12. List any four professional skills required for the role of CRM domestic service.
2
13. What is a beep tone? 2
14. What is call flow? 2
15. Define information security. 2
16. List any four standard organizational procedures for establishing contact with
customer. 2
17. Define hazard. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four top ten BPO companies in India. 4
19. List any four differences between domestic and international BPO. 4
20. List any two do’s and dont’s each while taking collection calls. 4
21. List any four characteristics of a confused customer. 4
22. Write any four basic steps to log in free CRM. 4
23. Explain any four safety rules during disaster and risk events. 4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/T&H(V)/1
2023
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. One’s own feelings, habits and ways of thinking such as fear and low confidence can
make communication difficult. Identify the barrier of communication.
(a) Personal factor (b) Feelings
(c) Environment (d) Past experience
ii. By which of the following action can a sender send a message?
(a) Listening (b) Reading
(c) Speaking (d) Information
iii. ‘Honesty and equality’ are a set of
(a) Beliefs (b) Values
(c) Opinion (d) Identity
iv. Ctrl+c is a short cut key to
(a) close (b) cut
(c) copy (d) clear
v. Green economy was first coined in the year
(a) 1969 (b) 1979
(c) 1989 (d) 1999
vi. Club and casino, spa, fun world, sports centre, etc is an activity of
(a) recreational tourist (b) leisure tourist
(c) holiday tourist (d) adventure tourist
vii. An eco-tourist is interested in visiting destination where there is
(a) rich wildlife wealth (b) dense forest
(c) historical monument (d) relatively unspoilt natural environment
viii. Which of the following is an agency responsible for awarding star categories to
the hotels?
(a) WTO (b) UNWTO
(c) HRACC (d) WTTC
ix. Who sells airlines, train cruise line and bus tickets to its clients?

(a) Transport agency (b) Logistic department
(c) Travel Agent (d) Sales Agent

-2- NB-XI/T&H(V)/1

x. It refers to a list of person’s name and their work schedule.
(a) Itinerary (b) Roster
(c) Directory (d) Routine
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is ethnic tourism? 1
3. What is floatel? 1
4. Write the full form of HRACC. 1
5. List any two thumb rules in customer service. 1
6. What is VFR? 1
7. State one importance of personal hygiene. 1
8. State any two common word processing applications. 1
9. What is sustainable development? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Distinguish between entrepreneur and entrepreneurship. 2
11. Who is a tourist? Write any two types of tourist. 1+1=2
12. List the two categories of tourist attractions with examples. 1+1=2
13. What is meant by ‘Due out’ and ‘Check out’? 1+1=2
14. What is B&B establishment? 2
15. Write two benefits of customer relationship management. 2
16. Write any two attributes or personality trait of Front Office staff. 2
17. What is on the spot booking? 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Briefly explain any two basic components of tourism. 4
19. What are Legacy Vintage Hotels? Briefly highlight the three categories
of Legacy Vintage Hotels. 1+3=4
20. What is Indian way of greeting? Explain the GST model for greeting
customers. 1+3=4
21. Explain the four categories of fairs and festivals in India. 4
22. Mention any four advantages of travel booking with travel agents. 4
23. What is a visa? Briefly explain any three categories of visa issued by the
Government of India. 1+3=4

******************************************

Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/R(V)/1
2023
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. It is necessary and often an overlooked virtue for retail employees.
a) Resilience b) Attentiveness
c) Product knowledge d) Patience
ii. In a contract sale, the subject matter is the
a) price b) customer
c) goods d) services
iii. The process of summarizing the list of benefits the customer gets is known as
a) final objective close b) summary close
c) cautionary sale close d) alternative close
iv. The information about a particular product can be provided as advertisement in
a) newsletters b) CDs
c) audio tapes d) emails
v. Which of the following is not an emergency condition in retail outlets?
a) Electrocution b) Slip down
c) Training d) Equipment failure
vi. Which of the following is a way of expressing our feelings?
a) Posture b) Facial expression
c) Body language d) Eye contact
vii. It means a view or judgment formed about something not necessarily based on fact.
a) Opinion b) Beliefs
c) Values d) Customs
viii. Which of the following menu option has the commands like save, print and close?
a) Insert b) File
c) Tools d) Format
ix. It is a software application that helps us to create documents.

a) Spreadsheet b) Notepad
c) Excel sheet d) Word processor

-2- NB-XI/R(V)/1

x. Which of the following action will promote green economy?
a) Use of non renewable resources b) Sustainable development
c) Social protection d) Creating jobs
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Who is a customer? 1
3. What is retail credit facility? 1
4. What is trade incentive? 1
5. Write any two features of a product. 1
6. State any two factors to be kept in mind while undertaking health and
safety measures at a retail store. 1
7. What is verbal communication? 1
8. What is teamwork? 1
9. Mention any two important steps taken by the government of India
under the sustainable development or green economy policy. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two responsibilities of sales associate. 2
11. Differentiate between loyal customer and impulsive customer. 2
12. Write any two process of credit application. 2
13. Write any two objectives of sales promotion. 2
14. What is meant by customer motivation? List any two tips to motivate the
customer to buy. 1+1=2
15. Briefly explain any two types of post-sales service support. 2
16. Mention any two retailer procedures for evacuation in the case of
emergency. 2
17. Briefly explain any two reasons to justify why a business plan is
important for an entrepreneur. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four skills required by a sales associate. 4
19. Explain four essential elements of contract of sale. 4
20. Explain four various methods of retail selling. 4
21. Discuss any four ways for the sales associate to handle angry customer. 4
22. Explain the techniques to encourage customer loyalty. 4
23. Explain any four types of equipment and material used in retail store to
deal with risk. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/H(V)/1
2023
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Emergency service number in India is
(a) 100 (b) 101
(c) 108 (d) 911
ii. Fever is a symptom not a
(a) Disease (b) Sickness
(c) Sign (d) Illness
iii. Which one of the following is not a mission to clean up Indian cities, towns and
villages?
(a) Swachh Bharat Mission (b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(c) Clean India Mission (d) National Green Tribunal
iv. The commonly accepted average core body temperature in ͦF is
(a) 98.6 ͦF (b) 98.8 ͦF
(c) 101 ͦF (d) 103 ͦF
v. A practice which uses herbs as medicines is known as
(a) Homeopathy (b) Ayurveda
(c) Naturopthy (d) Unani
vi. The study of the nervous system is called
(a) Cytology (b) Osteology
(c) Neurology (d) Myology
vii. The short cut key to create a new document is
(a) Control+C (b) Control+V
(c) Control+N (d) Shift+N
viii. Which one of the following is not a vital sign of life?
(a) Body temperature (b) Pulse rate
(c) Blood pressure (d) Respiratory rate
ix. A set of practice based on the preservation of health is referred to as
(a) Hygiene (b) Grooming
(c) Bathing (d) Hand washing

x. Respiration takes place in the respiratory organs called
(a) Heart (b) Lungs
(c) Kidneys (d) Spleen

-2- NB-XI/H(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define health. 1
3. What is visual communication? 1
4. What are splints? 1
5. Give any two signs of poor nutrition. 1
6. What is hospice care? 1
7. What are close-ended questions? 1
8. List any two types of stretcher. 1
9. What is brain? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between macronutrients and micronutrients. 2
11. Write two features of healthcare system. 2
12. State any four steps involved in chain of survival. 2
13. List any four systems that form the human body. 2
14. Differentiate between entrepreneurship and entrepreneur. 2
15. What are the two dimensions of Emergency Response Service? 2
16. Mention any two purposes of traction. 2
17. Write any two reasons for changing of patient’s position on the bed. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. What is time management? Write any three steps for effective time
management. 1+3=4
19. Briefly explain the four principles of First Aid. 4
20. Write the steps to be followed while taking pulse rate. 4
21. Based on the objectives, briefly explain any four types of hospitals. 4
22. Write any four objectives of a care plan. 4
23. What is a clinic? Explain any three types of clinic. 1+3=4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/B&W(V)/1
2023
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The process of applying cosmetics to enhance or alter the appearance is known as
a) face clean up b) make up
c) pedicure d) manicure
ii. A chemical found in nail polish which can cause liver damage, kidney damage,
birth defects etc.
a) Styrene b) Dioxane
c) Methyl d) Toluene
iii. What is the study of the function of the body parts and the body as a whole called?
a) Physiology b) Anatomy
c) Dermatology d) Trichology
iv. The treatment for improving the appearance of feet and toenails is known as
a) mehendi b) manicure
c) pedicure d) waxing
v. A single hair is referred to as
a) medulla b) hair shaft
c) cortex d) cuticle
vi. Reading and listening to someone is an example of
a) sending information b) asking information
c) giving information d) receiving information
vii. The feeling of certainty that something exist and is true, especially one without
proof.
a) Values b) Opinions
c) Beliefs d) Religion
viii. Which of the following contains commands like undo, cut, copy and paste?
a) Edit b) File
c) Tools d) Insert
ix. The process of running a business using new idea or in a different way is known as

a) business plan b) entrepreneurship
c) entrepreneur d) manufacturing business

-2- NB-XI/B&W(V)/1

x. Which of the following is not a mission for meeting the challenges of climatic
change in India?
a) Green India Mission b) Yellow India Mission
c) National Water Mission d) National Solar Mission
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is waxing? 1
3. Name any two types of epidermis cell. 1
4. What is considered as small mirror of the general health of the body? 1
5. Name any two parts of the nail. 1
6. What is electrolysis? 1
7. Write any two types of verbal communication. 1
8. What is personal hygiene? 1
9. What is a business plan? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is manicure? Write any two benefits of manicure. 1+1=2
11. Name any two PPE needed in a salon and write their usefulness. 1+1=2
12. What is dermis? Write any two major dermis fibers. 1+1=2
13. Mention two disadvantages of bleaching. 2
14. Name any two manicure and pedicure equipments and write their uses.
1+1=2
15. Name any two basic face shapes and write the eyebrow shape that
suits them. 1+1=2
16. List any four benefits of threading. 2
17. Mention any two advantages of using a word processor. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Explain any four major sub-segments of beauty & wellness sector. 4
19. Briefly explain any four functions of skin. 4
20. Why is skin analysis carried out in skin care? Explain the three
important techniques of skin care. 1+3=4
21. State any four after care advises for manicured hands. 4
22. Explain any four nail shapes. 4
23. Explain the two types of waxing. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/E&H(V)/1
2023
Electronics & Hardware (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The frequency of alternating current in India is
(a) 45 Hz (b) 50 Hz
(c) 55 Hz (d) 60 Hz
ii. Electrical devices that store energy in the form of magnetic field along a coil is called
(a) Inductor (b) Capacitor
(c) Resistors (d) Diode
iii. In a carbon film resistor, the code is printed in the form of
(a) Company (b) Keyed containers
(c) Colour code (d) Size
iv. Which of the following is an example of oral communication?
(a) Reports (b) Newspapers
(c) Face to face interaction (d) E-mail
v. Which type of earthing is also called fire earthing?
(a) Plate earthing (b) Pipe earthing
(c) Strip earthing (d) Rod earthing
vi. PVC stands for
(a) Polyvinyl chloride (b) Polyvinyl conductor
(c) Photoresistor chloride voltage (d) Positive voltage conductor
vii. Electromechanical assembly converts electrical signal to
(a) Mechanical movements (b) Electrical current
(c) Voltage (d) Magnetic force
viii. The qualities and principles which makes a person think and act in a certain way is
(a) Motivation (b) Self control
(c) Self management (d) Values
ix. Which of the following is not a part of MCB?
(a) Arc chute (b) Fuse wire
(c) Bimetallic strip (d) Magnetic coil
x. Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

(a) Aluminium (b) Copper
(c) Glass (d) Silver

-2- NB-XI/E&H(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Name two types of non-linear resistors. 1
3. Draw the current symbol of electrical earthing. 1
4. What does XLPE stand for? 1
5. Name any two tools and equipments used to carry out electrical panel installation.
1
6. What is non-verbal communication? 1
7. What is sustainable development? . 1
8. Give two examples of electromechanical assembly. 1
9. What is wire stripping? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What is time management? Mention one example of time management.
1+1=2
11. What is electric current? What is the unit of electric current? 1+1=2
12. Mention any two specifications of four band resistor. . 2
13. Name two types of earthing and why is earthing required? 1+1=2
14. Write any two guidelines that must be followed at the workplace for electrical
safety. 2
15. What is optic fibre cable? Which colour cable is used for earthing wire?1+1=2
16. Name any two types of wire joints and write their uses. 1+1=2
17. What is a first aid kit? Name any two items of a first aid kit. 1+1=2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. Name any four sources of energy that can be converted to electrical energy.
Explain any two of them. 1+3=4
19. What is a word processor? Mention any three advantages of using a word processor.
1+3=4
20. Briefly explain the following electronic components:
(i) Capacitor (ii) Resistor 2+2=4
21. Explain colour coded resisitors (axial resistors). 4
22. Name any four different colours of wires and write their uses. 4
23. Explain the uses of megger meter. 4

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Total number of printed pages : 2 NB-XI/AG(V)/1
2023
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos.18 to 23 where general option is given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The perception of beauty and study of its application is called
(a) Aesthetic value (b) Cosmetics
(c) Beautician (d) Beauty Pageant
ii. Application of fertilizer through irrigation water is known as
(a) Surface irrigation (b) Sub surface irrigation
(c) Top dressing (d) Fertigation
iii. The common growing medium in plug tray is
(a) Sand (b) Cocopeat
(c) Vermiculture (d) Soil
iv. Which of the following fruit is propagated by veneer grafting?
(a) Pomegranate (b) Lemon
(c) Guava (d) Mango
v. Which of the following is not a part of a seed?
(a) Ovule (b) Shoot
(c) Embryo (d) Seed coat
vi. Which of the following implement is used for levelling fields?
(a) Harrow (b) Cultivator
(c) Rotavator (d) Plank
vii. The ideal soil for horticulture crop production is
(a) Black soil (b) Red soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
viii. Soil acidity can be corrected by adding
(a) Zinc (b) Phosphate
(c) Lime (d) Potash
ix. Which short cut key is used to insert a table in a Libreoffice writer document?
(a) Shift+F12 (b) Control+F12
(c) F13 (d) F14
x. Which of the following stakeholders makes policies for a green economy?

(a) Non-Government Organisations(b) Scientific community
(c) Government (d) Private sector

-2- NB-XI/AG(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is indoor gardening? 1
3. What is a potting material? 1
4. Define layering. 1
5. What is plant propagation? 1
6. What is soil genesis? 1
7. Define pinching. 1
8. What is a business idea? 1
9. Who is a stakeholder? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between annuals and biennials. 2
11. State any two functions of growing medium. 2
12. What is meant by potting and de-potting? 2
13. What is top working? Give an example of a plant grafted from this method. 2
14. What are specialised organs? 2
15. Differentiate between hand tools and power equipments. 2
16. What is mulching? Give any two examples. 2
17. What is a team work? Write one benefit of team work. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. What is a lawn? State any three importance of lawn. 1+3=4
19. State any four precautions that must be taken while preparing a nursery bed. 4
20. What is grafting? Write any three advantages of grafting. 1+3=4
21. Explain in brief any four types of implements used in field preparation. 4
22. What is pruning? Write any three objectives of pruning. 1+3=4
23. Briefly explain the types of verbal communication with examples. 4

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Total number of printed pages: 2 NB-XI/AUTO(V)/1
2023
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory except Q. nos. 18 to 23 where general option is
given.
iii) The question paper consists of 23 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The dimension in mm for an A4 size paper is
(a) 594x841 (b) 420x594
(c) 210x297 (d) 148x210
ii. Which of the following is a semi permanent mechanical fastener?
(a) Circlips (b) Rivets
(c) Washers (d) Studs
iii. It is a measuring instrument used for inspecting and measuring the distance
between two faces.
(a) Micrometer (b) Vernier’s Caliper
(c) Dial Gauge (d) Protractor
iv. What is the power producing unit in an automotive system?
(a) Chassis (b) Engine
(c) Piston (d) Connecting Rod
v. The clutch free play for four wheelers is generally
(a) 15-20 mm (b) 20-25 mm
(c) 25-30 mm (d) 30-35 mm
vi. Which of the following is not a component of the gearbox?
(a) Gear Linkage (b) Gear Lever
(c) Gear Shifter Fork (d) Clutch
vii. Which of the following is a method of non-verbal communication?
(a) Writing (b) Speaking
(c) Gestures (d) SMS
viii. Which of the following is a step for effective time management?
(a) Motivation (b) Communication
(c) Self-confidence (d) Organise
ix. Which short cut key is used to copy a file?
(a) Ctrl+a (b) Ctrl+c

(c) Ctrl+v (d) Ctrl+z
x. Which of the following action will promote green economy?
(a) Use of non-renewable resources (b) Social protection
(c) Sustainable development (d) Creating jobs

-2- NB-XI/AUTO(V)/1

Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. State any two types of non-verbal communication. 1
3. What is goal setting? 1
4. What is the short cut key to underline a text? 1
5. GIM is one of the eight missions under India’s action plan for tackling
climate change. What does GIM stand for? 1
6. What is line of sight in projections? 1
7. What is a speedometer? 1
8. Write any two materials and equipment required to clean engine. 1
9. State any two components of brake. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain any two values which make an entrepreneur successful. 2
11. Name any two types of bolt and write their features. 1+1=2
12. Mention the four types of manufacturing processes. 2
13. Differentiate between a Tachometer and an Odometer. 2
14. Briefly explain any two components of a transmission system. 2
15. Write any two road tests that should be done after servicing of gearbox. 2
16. Mention any two reasons why a flat tyre may occur. 2
17. Write any two precautions that should be taken during servicing of
mechanical brakes. 2
Answer any four from the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. What is projection? Explain any two types of projections. 1+3=4
19. Briefly explain any four types of nuts. 4
20. Briefly explain the different types of joining processes. 4
21. Write any four precautions to be taken while cleaning or washing the engine. 4
22. What is the transmission system of an automobile? Briefly explain any two
components of the transmission system. 1+3=4
23. Write any four advantages of tubeless tyre. 4

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