NBSE Class 11 Question Paper 2024 All Subjects
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NBSE Class 11 Question Paper 2024 All Subjects – Text
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Page 1
NAGALAND BOARD
QUESTION
PAPER
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
2024
Page 2
Total number of printed pages : 6 NB/XI/ENG/1
2024
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 17 questions divided into 4 sections A, B,C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Choose the correct option for the following questions: 4x1=4
(a) To feed the boy, Mrs Jones heated some food which she had in the icebox.
What did she heat?
(i) Cocoa and beans
(ii) Cake and ham
(iii) Lima beans and ham
(iv) Milk and beans
(b) ‘Can I go?’ What do these words say about Denis?
(i) Denis thought he was innocent.
(ii) Denis did not think the interview with the magistrate was important.
(iii) He was in a hurry to go home.
(iv) He thought he was right.
(c) Albert Foreman neatly wrapped used gown in ______and put in his
wardrobe in his bedroom.
(i) Brown paper
(ii) Silk cloth
(iii) Brown bag
(iv) White paper
(d) According to the Diamond maker, all the shifts he had put to while making
the Diamond were:
(i) Sold coals and iron plate
(ii) Worked as a page-boy and a butler
(iii) Sold newspapers, held horses, opened cab -doors
(iv) Grind charcoal-powder and sold coals
2024
ENGLISH
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 17 questions divided into 4 sections A, B,C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
SECTION-A (Literature)
1. Choose the correct option for the following questions: 4x1=4
(a) To feed the boy, Mrs Jones heated some food which she had in the icebox.
What did she heat?
(i) Cocoa and beans
(ii) Cake and ham
(iii) Lima beans and ham
(iv) Milk and beans
(b) ‘Can I go?’ What do these words say about Denis?
(i) Denis thought he was innocent.
(ii) Denis did not think the interview with the magistrate was important.
(iii) He was in a hurry to go home.
(iv) He thought he was right.
(c) Albert Foreman neatly wrapped used gown in ______and put in his
wardrobe in his bedroom.
(i) Brown paper
(ii) Silk cloth
(iii) Brown bag
(iv) White paper
(d) According to the Diamond maker, all the shifts he had put to while making
the Diamond were:
(i) Sold coals and iron plate
(ii) Worked as a page-boy and a butler
(iii) Sold newspapers, held horses, opened cab -doors
(iv) Grind charcoal-powder and sold coals
Page 3
-2- NB/XI/ENG/1
2. Answer the following questions: 3x2=6
(a) What was Foreman’s reply when the Vicar asked him to learn to read and
write?
(b) Why did the Diamond –maker keep his research a secret?
(c) Why did the boy not run away when the woman finally let go of his neck?
3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:
a. Does the story ‘The Malefactor’ make you feel that the poor do not get
justice? Justify with reasons.
Or 5
b. Doris Lessing talks about how the people of Zimbabwe hunger for books
and how to get them, in her speech entitled ‘A Hunger for Books’. Do you
think that today’s generation still hunger for ‘books’? Give reasons.
4. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given : 3x1=3
a. What is the central message of the poem ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
(i) The importance of national pride
(ii) The universality of humanity
(iii) The value of cultural diversity
(iv) The need for strong borders
b. ‘If you can talk with crowds and keep your virtue, or walk with kings – nor
lose the common touch….’ In the given lines, what do you understand by
‘common touch’?
(i) Power (ii) Pride (iii) Under -privileged (iv) Ordinary
c. Professor Higgins was specialized in __________.
(i) Phonetics (ii) Literature (iii) Linguistic (iv) Florist
5. Read the lines from the poem and answer the following questions:
I. Their hands are ours, and in their lines we read a labour not different from
our own.
(a) Which ‘lines’ are being spoken of? 1
(b) What do we read in ‘their lines’? 1
(c) Why is their labour not different from ours? 1
Or
II. They brought in their dead by night
Their proud warriors, their mighty warriors
The brave beloved of the gods,
To rest under troubled skies
And battle- scarred lands that some corner of a
vanquished field.
2. Answer the following questions: 3x2=6
(a) What was Foreman’s reply when the Vicar asked him to learn to read and
write?
(b) Why did the Diamond –maker keep his research a secret?
(c) Why did the boy not run away when the woman finally let go of his neck?
3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:
a. Does the story ‘The Malefactor’ make you feel that the poor do not get
justice? Justify with reasons.
Or 5
b. Doris Lessing talks about how the people of Zimbabwe hunger for books
and how to get them, in her speech entitled ‘A Hunger for Books’. Do you
think that today’s generation still hunger for ‘books’? Give reasons.
4. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given : 3x1=3
a. What is the central message of the poem ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
(i) The importance of national pride
(ii) The universality of humanity
(iii) The value of cultural diversity
(iv) The need for strong borders
b. ‘If you can talk with crowds and keep your virtue, or walk with kings – nor
lose the common touch….’ In the given lines, what do you understand by
‘common touch’?
(i) Power (ii) Pride (iii) Under -privileged (iv) Ordinary
c. Professor Higgins was specialized in __________.
(i) Phonetics (ii) Literature (iii) Linguistic (iv) Florist
5. Read the lines from the poem and answer the following questions:
I. Their hands are ours, and in their lines we read a labour not different from
our own.
(a) Which ‘lines’ are being spoken of? 1
(b) What do we read in ‘their lines’? 1
(c) Why is their labour not different from ours? 1
Or
II. They brought in their dead by night
Their proud warriors, their mighty warriors
The brave beloved of the gods,
To rest under troubled skies
And battle- scarred lands that some corner of a
vanquished field.
Page 4
-3- NB/XI/ENG/1
(a) Who were called ‘proud’ and ‘mighty’ warriors? 1
(b) Why were the skies referred as ‘troubled’? 1
(c) Explain the phrase ‘battle scarred lands’. 1
6 Answer the following question in about 80- 120 words:
(a) Life is a gamble. Substantiate the statement with your own reasons with
reference to the poem ‘If’.
Or 4
(b). Professor Higgins unwittingly reveals his bad behaviour and terrible
manners through his questions to Colonel Pickering. Support your answer
with examples from the text.
7. As far as the piano is concerned, sentiment is my forte. I keep science for life.
(a) Who is the speaker here? 1
(b) Why does the speaker speak out the following expression ‘I keep science
for life’? 2
(c) Explain the phrase ‘sentiment is my forte’. 2
Or
‘The Importance of Being Earnest’ is a play that satirizes society, especially its
etiquette and behaviour, as well as love and marriage. What is your
understanding of this statement with reference to the drama? 5
8. Answer any two of the following questions in about 150 words: 5x2=10
(a) Give a pen –portrait of Swaminathan.
(b) Discuss the turning point in the life of Swaminathan. What impact did it
have on the friendship of Swami and Rajam?
(c) How far can it be said that the novel ‘Swami and Friends’ throw light on
child psychology?
SECTION –B (Reading)
9. Shall I Compare thee to a Summer’s Day.
Shall I compare thee to a Summer’s day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate.
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And Summer’s lease hath all too short a date,
Sometime too not the eye of heaven shines,
(a) Who were called ‘proud’ and ‘mighty’ warriors? 1
(b) Why were the skies referred as ‘troubled’? 1
(c) Explain the phrase ‘battle scarred lands’. 1
6 Answer the following question in about 80- 120 words:
(a) Life is a gamble. Substantiate the statement with your own reasons with
reference to the poem ‘If’.
Or 4
(b). Professor Higgins unwittingly reveals his bad behaviour and terrible
manners through his questions to Colonel Pickering. Support your answer
with examples from the text.
7. As far as the piano is concerned, sentiment is my forte. I keep science for life.
(a) Who is the speaker here? 1
(b) Why does the speaker speak out the following expression ‘I keep science
for life’? 2
(c) Explain the phrase ‘sentiment is my forte’. 2
Or
‘The Importance of Being Earnest’ is a play that satirizes society, especially its
etiquette and behaviour, as well as love and marriage. What is your
understanding of this statement with reference to the drama? 5
8. Answer any two of the following questions in about 150 words: 5x2=10
(a) Give a pen –portrait of Swaminathan.
(b) Discuss the turning point in the life of Swaminathan. What impact did it
have on the friendship of Swami and Rajam?
(c) How far can it be said that the novel ‘Swami and Friends’ throw light on
child psychology?
SECTION –B (Reading)
9. Shall I Compare thee to a Summer’s Day.
Shall I compare thee to a Summer’s day?
Thou art more lovely and more temperate.
Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May,
And Summer’s lease hath all too short a date,
Sometime too not the eye of heaven shines,
Page 5
-4- NB/XI/ENG/1
And often in his gold complexion dimmed;
And every fair from fair sometime declines,
By chance, or nature’s changing course, untrimmed;
But thy eternal Summer shall not fade,
Nor lose possession of that fair thou ow’st,
Nor shall Death brag thou wand’rest in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st.
So long as men can breathe, or eyes can see,
So long lives this ,and this gives life to thee.
William Shakespeare
a. Based on your reading of the poem, complete the following in the space
provided: 4x½ =2
The poet _____his beloved to a summer’s day, who is lovelier. Summer
season can be harsh and does not last long. Its gold____ becomes dim and
wears out soon. As long as men live, so will this ______live, which will
give _____ to his beloved.
b. Find words in the poem that mean the same as: 2x1=2
i. ownership
ii. boast
10. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. Although Indians spend less money on allopathic medicines than people in most
Asian countries, more than 40,000 drug formulations are available here. All
manufacturers are required by law to provide information about their product
either on the packaging or in a pamphlet inside. But, in many cases, this
information is very meagre and hard to understand.
2. Many doctors, too do not tell their patients anything about the drugs they
prescribe. There are two areas where we should be concerned about when we take
drugs; the side effects and the failure to follow directions. Many people taking a
drug will notice an undesirable reaction, usually minor. But even the mildest drug
can do harm if taken improperly, long enough or in excessive doses. And
everyone responds to a drug differently.
3. Many of us disobey prescription instructions on how much to take and when. Its
easy to fall into thinking that more of the drug will speed up the healing. It is more
common, however, for people to stop taking a drug when they begin to feel better.
This too, can be dangerous. What are the steps to be taken for safety? Take a drug
only as recommended on the label or by the doctor’s prescription and if you feel
ill after taking a drug, check it with a doctor. Do not mix drugs, and check
whether any food or activities are to be avoided.
a. How are drug users to be instructed by the manufactures? Choose the correct
option: 1
i. Doctors should give a manual of instruction.
And often in his gold complexion dimmed;
And every fair from fair sometime declines,
By chance, or nature’s changing course, untrimmed;
But thy eternal Summer shall not fade,
Nor lose possession of that fair thou ow’st,
Nor shall Death brag thou wand’rest in his shade,
When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st.
So long as men can breathe, or eyes can see,
So long lives this ,and this gives life to thee.
William Shakespeare
a. Based on your reading of the poem, complete the following in the space
provided: 4x½ =2
The poet _____his beloved to a summer’s day, who is lovelier. Summer
season can be harsh and does not last long. Its gold____ becomes dim and
wears out soon. As long as men live, so will this ______live, which will
give _____ to his beloved.
b. Find words in the poem that mean the same as: 2x1=2
i. ownership
ii. boast
10. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. Although Indians spend less money on allopathic medicines than people in most
Asian countries, more than 40,000 drug formulations are available here. All
manufacturers are required by law to provide information about their product
either on the packaging or in a pamphlet inside. But, in many cases, this
information is very meagre and hard to understand.
2. Many doctors, too do not tell their patients anything about the drugs they
prescribe. There are two areas where we should be concerned about when we take
drugs; the side effects and the failure to follow directions. Many people taking a
drug will notice an undesirable reaction, usually minor. But even the mildest drug
can do harm if taken improperly, long enough or in excessive doses. And
everyone responds to a drug differently.
3. Many of us disobey prescription instructions on how much to take and when. Its
easy to fall into thinking that more of the drug will speed up the healing. It is more
common, however, for people to stop taking a drug when they begin to feel better.
This too, can be dangerous. What are the steps to be taken for safety? Take a drug
only as recommended on the label or by the doctor’s prescription and if you feel
ill after taking a drug, check it with a doctor. Do not mix drugs, and check
whether any food or activities are to be avoided.
a. How are drug users to be instructed by the manufactures? Choose the correct
option: 1
i. Doctors should give a manual of instruction.
Page 6
-5- NB/XI/ENG/1
ii. The chemist should issue an instruction manual.
iii. Information should be printed on cartoon or in a pamphlet kept inside it.
iv. Patients should keep in touch with drug manufactures.
b. What are the two areas where we should be concerned about when we take
drugs? 1
c. Give the antonym of the word ‘indiscretion’ from the passage. (para.3) 1
d. What are the steps to be taken for safety while taking drug? 2
11. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Rabies is spread only by the bite of an infected animal. The virus enters the body
through broken skin or the eyes, nose or mouth, and travels through nerves to the
brain. The victim of the disease has a wild overpowering desire for water but has
fits at its very sight. It is useless to attempt at pouring water down his throat
because it leads to more fits that close the muscles around his throat and force him
to fight for every breath he takes.
In the end, death mercifully puts an end to his suffering. The bitten dogs show
typical signs of rabies. They become restless, they wander aimlessly, hitting
against objects, they eat strange things – cloth, sticks and stones. They bark as if
something is struck in their throats. They bite other dogs and so the circle of
infection widens. The vaccine for the treatment of rabies was first discovered by
Louis Pasteur, the celebrated French Scientist. Since then, the terror of rabies has
been controlled. But the dogs must be taken proper care of, and, if necessary,
killed. It is not possible to vaccinate everybody, because vaccine sometimes
makes people very ill. According to a study made in the United States, it was
found that one person in each seven hundred who was vaccinated became ill.
a. Choose the correct option from the alternatives given: 1
The most prominent symptom of rabies in human is,
i. High fever ii. Seizures iii. Wild desire for water iv. Skin rash
b. Complete the sentence:
It is useless to attempt at pouring water down his throat because_________ 1
i. It leads to more fits that close the muscles
ii. The victim shows typical signs of throat infections
iii. They bite other dogs and so the circle of infection widens
iv. The person may become restless, wander aimlessly and hit against
objects
c. The study made in USA confirmed that _____. 1
d. Write the synonym of the word ‘uneasy’ from the passage. 1
e. What are the typical signs of rabies shown by bitten dogs? 2
ii. The chemist should issue an instruction manual.
iii. Information should be printed on cartoon or in a pamphlet kept inside it.
iv. Patients should keep in touch with drug manufactures.
b. What are the two areas where we should be concerned about when we take
drugs? 1
c. Give the antonym of the word ‘indiscretion’ from the passage. (para.3) 1
d. What are the steps to be taken for safety while taking drug? 2
11. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Rabies is spread only by the bite of an infected animal. The virus enters the body
through broken skin or the eyes, nose or mouth, and travels through nerves to the
brain. The victim of the disease has a wild overpowering desire for water but has
fits at its very sight. It is useless to attempt at pouring water down his throat
because it leads to more fits that close the muscles around his throat and force him
to fight for every breath he takes.
In the end, death mercifully puts an end to his suffering. The bitten dogs show
typical signs of rabies. They become restless, they wander aimlessly, hitting
against objects, they eat strange things – cloth, sticks and stones. They bark as if
something is struck in their throats. They bite other dogs and so the circle of
infection widens. The vaccine for the treatment of rabies was first discovered by
Louis Pasteur, the celebrated French Scientist. Since then, the terror of rabies has
been controlled. But the dogs must be taken proper care of, and, if necessary,
killed. It is not possible to vaccinate everybody, because vaccine sometimes
makes people very ill. According to a study made in the United States, it was
found that one person in each seven hundred who was vaccinated became ill.
a. Choose the correct option from the alternatives given: 1
The most prominent symptom of rabies in human is,
i. High fever ii. Seizures iii. Wild desire for water iv. Skin rash
b. Complete the sentence:
It is useless to attempt at pouring water down his throat because_________ 1
i. It leads to more fits that close the muscles
ii. The victim shows typical signs of throat infections
iii. They bite other dogs and so the circle of infection widens
iv. The person may become restless, wander aimlessly and hit against
objects
c. The study made in USA confirmed that _____. 1
d. Write the synonym of the word ‘uneasy’ from the passage. 1
e. What are the typical signs of rabies shown by bitten dogs? 2
Page 7
-6- NB/XI/ENG/1
SECTION-C (Writing)
12. You are the Secretary of the Literary Club of St. Anne’s School, Dimapur. Draft
a formal invitation for the inaugural Literary Meet in about 50 words, to be sent
to parents and guests.
Or 4
As President of the Residents Welfare Association of Lipi Colony, Phek, design a
poster in not more than 50 words for promoting cleanliness in the surroundings
of your colony.
13. You recently visited an old age home in your home town and met old people
who were lonely and sick. You felt bad and disheartened about the fact that they
were not living and taken care of by their children. Write a Diary entry about
your experience in about 100-150 words.
Or 5
You are Susan/Victor, the reporter of Eastern Express. Write a report in about
100-150 words as an eyewitness to the fire incident that occured in your
neighbourhood.
14. Your cousin who resides in South Korea has invited you to visit him/her after
your examinations are over. Write a letter thanking him/her for the invitation but
expressing your inability to reach there. 6
SECTION-D (Grammar)
15. Your friend has invited you to spend the weekend at his/her hometown, which is
three hours drive away from your town. Your parents are worried about you
travelling alone and had denied permission. You are trying to convince your
parents. Write a dialogue in Direct Speech. 4
16. Complete the following sentences by giving two reasons for each of them. 3x1=3
a. The child was shouting with fear as:
b. He will always remember the day when:
c. The woman worked hard because:
17. Write three effective ways to improve time management. (Remember to use
Passive Voice). 3
************************************
SECTION-C (Writing)
12. You are the Secretary of the Literary Club of St. Anne’s School, Dimapur. Draft
a formal invitation for the inaugural Literary Meet in about 50 words, to be sent
to parents and guests.
Or 4
As President of the Residents Welfare Association of Lipi Colony, Phek, design a
poster in not more than 50 words for promoting cleanliness in the surroundings
of your colony.
13. You recently visited an old age home in your home town and met old people
who were lonely and sick. You felt bad and disheartened about the fact that they
were not living and taken care of by their children. Write a Diary entry about
your experience in about 100-150 words.
Or 5
You are Susan/Victor, the reporter of Eastern Express. Write a report in about
100-150 words as an eyewitness to the fire incident that occured in your
neighbourhood.
14. Your cousin who resides in South Korea has invited you to visit him/her after
your examinations are over. Write a letter thanking him/her for the invitation but
expressing your inability to reach there. 6
SECTION-D (Grammar)
15. Your friend has invited you to spend the weekend at his/her hometown, which is
three hours drive away from your town. Your parents are worried about you
travelling alone and had denied permission. You are trying to convince your
parents. Write a dialogue in Direct Speech. 4
16. Complete the following sentences by giving two reasons for each of them. 3x1=3
a. The child was shouting with fear as:
b. He will always remember the day when:
c. The woman worked hard because:
17. Write three effective ways to improve time management. (Remember to use
Passive Voice). 3
************************************
Page 8
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/EDU/1
2024
EDUCATION
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Who said, “Education is complete living.” 1
(a) Rousseau (b) Herbert Spencer
(c) John Adam (d) John Dewey
2. ‘Live and let live’, ‘Respect and get respect’, should be motto of: 1
(a) Nation building (b) Educated Citizens
(c) National need (d) Government and non-government agencies.
3. Education acquired without definite time, place and purpose is called______ 1
(a) Individual education (b) Informal education
(c) Non-formal education (d) Correspondence education.
4. Who tried to pass a bill for making education compulsory, but was not successful? 1
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Daulat Singh Kothari (d) Shri Gopal Krishna Gokhale
5. The early centres of Christian education in India were: 1
(a) South Indian and North Eastern Region
(b) Sadiya, Sibsagar and Serampore
(c) Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
(d) Calcutta, Assam and Bombay
6. What is the main aim of RMSA? 1
(a) Special education in secondary level
(b) Integrated education in primary level
(c) To achieve universal quality elementary education
(d) To achieve universal quality secondary education
7. John is very cruel, he thinks only of his pleasure and self happiness. He does not care for
the well-being of others, this is an example of: 1
(a) Negative discipline (b) Internal discipline
(c) Positive discipline (d) Free discipline
2024
EDUCATION
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Who said, “Education is complete living.” 1
(a) Rousseau (b) Herbert Spencer
(c) John Adam (d) John Dewey
2. ‘Live and let live’, ‘Respect and get respect’, should be motto of: 1
(a) Nation building (b) Educated Citizens
(c) National need (d) Government and non-government agencies.
3. Education acquired without definite time, place and purpose is called______ 1
(a) Individual education (b) Informal education
(c) Non-formal education (d) Correspondence education.
4. Who tried to pass a bill for making education compulsory, but was not successful? 1
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Daulat Singh Kothari (d) Shri Gopal Krishna Gokhale
5. The early centres of Christian education in India were: 1
(a) South Indian and North Eastern Region
(b) Sadiya, Sibsagar and Serampore
(c) Bombay, Calcutta and Madras
(d) Calcutta, Assam and Bombay
6. What is the main aim of RMSA? 1
(a) Special education in secondary level
(b) Integrated education in primary level
(c) To achieve universal quality elementary education
(d) To achieve universal quality secondary education
7. John is very cruel, he thinks only of his pleasure and self happiness. He does not care for
the well-being of others, this is an example of: 1
(a) Negative discipline (b) Internal discipline
(c) Positive discipline (d) Free discipline
Page 9
-2- NB/XI/EDU/1
8. Culture is ________ 1
(a) Inherited genetically (b) A way of life
(c) Possessed only by males (d) Limited to rich societies
9. When a teacher assess a student’s performance relating to a subject matter, the focal
point is: 1
(a) Measurement (b) Evaluation
(c) Examination (d) Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation
10. Bendang is a working mother, she wish to pursue higher education. Inspite of all family
obligations and time constraints, she can fulfil her desire by:- 1
(a) Enrolling in a formal agency
(b) Enrolling in Informal agency
(c) Enrolling in a non-formal agency
(d) Enrolling in a guiding agency
11. Explain any two theories of west on the role of the teacher. 2
12. When was the Wardha scheme of education accepted? Give the derivative meaning
of the word basic. 1+1=2
13. What is the content in Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution? 2
14. How does morung act as a court house? 2
15. Kingsville residential school is a co-education institution with 2800 pupils. The school
implies the cultivation of desirable attitudes, habits and values in pupils. However, the
teachers and school authority face certain forms of indiscipline in the school. State any
two most common forms of indiscipline in schools. 2
16. Name the agencies of socialisation. 2
17. Mention any two purpose of punishment. 2
18. During the examination, Kevi wrote the answers for true and false, fill in the blanks
and long answers. What are the types of examination he appeared? 2
19. Write the synonyms for education. 4
20. Mention any four aims of citizenship education. 4
21. What were the four phases of human life during the vedic period? 4
22. What is socialisation? Discuss the phases of socialisation. 1+3=4
8. Culture is ________ 1
(a) Inherited genetically (b) A way of life
(c) Possessed only by males (d) Limited to rich societies
9. When a teacher assess a student’s performance relating to a subject matter, the focal
point is: 1
(a) Measurement (b) Evaluation
(c) Examination (d) Continuous Comprehensive Evaluation
10. Bendang is a working mother, she wish to pursue higher education. Inspite of all family
obligations and time constraints, she can fulfil her desire by:- 1
(a) Enrolling in a formal agency
(b) Enrolling in Informal agency
(c) Enrolling in a non-formal agency
(d) Enrolling in a guiding agency
11. Explain any two theories of west on the role of the teacher. 2
12. When was the Wardha scheme of education accepted? Give the derivative meaning
of the word basic. 1+1=2
13. What is the content in Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution? 2
14. How does morung act as a court house? 2
15. Kingsville residential school is a co-education institution with 2800 pupils. The school
implies the cultivation of desirable attitudes, habits and values in pupils. However, the
teachers and school authority face certain forms of indiscipline in the school. State any
two most common forms of indiscipline in schools. 2
16. Name the agencies of socialisation. 2
17. Mention any two purpose of punishment. 2
18. During the examination, Kevi wrote the answers for true and false, fill in the blanks
and long answers. What are the types of examination he appeared? 2
19. Write the synonyms for education. 4
20. Mention any four aims of citizenship education. 4
21. What were the four phases of human life during the vedic period? 4
22. What is socialisation? Discuss the phases of socialisation. 1+3=4
Page 10
-3- NB/XI/EDU/1
23. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: - 1x4=4
In Naga society, indigenous education was transmitted through institutions like the
morung, home and social gatherings as transmission of indigenous knowledge is rather a
matter of collective compromise. The functions of the morung can be called educational
institutions in every sense. The morung is the key institution of the nagas and also the
center of the social life of the unmarried male members of the society.
Formal education called schooling was first introduced into the Naga hills by the
missionaries in the 1880 followed by the British. The American Baptist missionaries were
the pioneers in the establishment of modern education in the Naga hills. The primary
purpose of mission schools was to teach Nagas reading and writing so as they could read the
bible and the hymnal. The American Baptist missionaries has contributed remarkably in the
growth and development of education in Nagaland and brought tremendous change in Naga
society.
i) Who brought modern education to Nagaland?
ii) What was the primary purpose of mission schools?
iii) How was indigenous education transmitted in Naga society?
iv) What is the center of the social life of the unmarried male members of the society?
24. (a) ‘There is a great necessity for aims of education’. Justify by giving any six points to
support the above statement. 6
Or
(b) Describe Pestalozzi’s revolutionary thought and practice in the field of education.
Reproduce the two famous mottos of Pestalozzi. 5+1=6
25. (a) Explain the contents in Article 45 and Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution. 3+3=6
Or
(b) Explain Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in detail. 6
26. (a) State the principles for maintaining discipline. 6
Or
(b) Prepare a frequency distribution table and bar chart from the given data.
Marks obtained by 15 students in education of class XI 3+3=6
81 71 57 78 37
95 65 18 95 24
75 44 35 89 77
27. (a) Explain the etymological origin of the word education. Discuss the different concepts of
Education. 1+7= 8
Or
(b) Write the full form of UGC. When was the UGC Act passed in the parliament? What
are the functions of UGC? (1+1+6=8)
23. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below: - 1x4=4
In Naga society, indigenous education was transmitted through institutions like the
morung, home and social gatherings as transmission of indigenous knowledge is rather a
matter of collective compromise. The functions of the morung can be called educational
institutions in every sense. The morung is the key institution of the nagas and also the
center of the social life of the unmarried male members of the society.
Formal education called schooling was first introduced into the Naga hills by the
missionaries in the 1880 followed by the British. The American Baptist missionaries were
the pioneers in the establishment of modern education in the Naga hills. The primary
purpose of mission schools was to teach Nagas reading and writing so as they could read the
bible and the hymnal. The American Baptist missionaries has contributed remarkably in the
growth and development of education in Nagaland and brought tremendous change in Naga
society.
i) Who brought modern education to Nagaland?
ii) What was the primary purpose of mission schools?
iii) How was indigenous education transmitted in Naga society?
iv) What is the center of the social life of the unmarried male members of the society?
24. (a) ‘There is a great necessity for aims of education’. Justify by giving any six points to
support the above statement. 6
Or
(b) Describe Pestalozzi’s revolutionary thought and practice in the field of education.
Reproduce the two famous mottos of Pestalozzi. 5+1=6
25. (a) Explain the contents in Article 45 and Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution. 3+3=6
Or
(b) Explain Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) in detail. 6
26. (a) State the principles for maintaining discipline. 6
Or
(b) Prepare a frequency distribution table and bar chart from the given data.
Marks obtained by 15 students in education of class XI 3+3=6
81 71 57 78 37
95 65 18 95 24
75 44 35 89 77
27. (a) Explain the etymological origin of the word education. Discuss the different concepts of
Education. 1+7= 8
Or
(b) Write the full form of UGC. When was the UGC Act passed in the parliament? What
are the functions of UGC? (1+1+6=8)
Page 11
-4- NB/XI/EDU/1
28. (a) Write short notes on:- 4+4=8
i) Gurukula system of education.
ii) Parishads
Or
(b) What are the main features of Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009? 8
***************************
28. (a) Write short notes on:- 4+4=8
i) Gurukula system of education.
ii) Parishads
Or
(b) What are the main features of Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009? 8
***************************
Page 12
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/PSY/1
2024
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. When was Gestalt psychology established? 1
(a) 1874 (b) 1900 (c) 1912 (d) 1879
2. Kevi is very helpful to everyone she meets. She also contributes her time and energy to
give free tuition to orphans and children who come from very poor backgrounds. Which
branch of psychology that studies this type of helpful behaviour falls under?
1 (a) Cross-cultural Psychology (b) Social Psychology
(c) Developmental Psychology. (d) Sports Psychology.
3. According to Piaget, preoperational thought is developed during the age of. 1
(a) 0-2 years (b) 2-7 years
(c) 7-11 years (d) 11-15 years
4. The term adolescence is derived from the Latin word. 1
(a) Adolese (b) Adolcere
(c) Adolesce (d) Adolescere
5. One learns to put on woollen clothes. Burn firewood or use electric heaters to avoid the
unpleasant cold weather. This is an example of. 1
(a) Negative reinforcement (b) Positive reinforcement
(c) Punishment (d) Verbal learning
6. This method is used in learning some foreign language equivalents of mother tongue
word 1
(a) Serial learning (b) Category clustering
(c) Free recall (d) Paired-associates learning
7. ________ is a mental representation of a sensory experience. 1
(a) Image (b) Concept
(c) Category (d) Prototype
8. The process of drawing conclusion from opinion, evaluate events, objects, based on
knowledge and available evidences is called. 1
(a) Creative thinking (b) Judgement
(c) Decision making (d) Problem solving
2024
PSYCHOLOGY
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
viii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
(The figures in the margin indicate full marks to the questions)
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. When was Gestalt psychology established? 1
(a) 1874 (b) 1900 (c) 1912 (d) 1879
2. Kevi is very helpful to everyone she meets. She also contributes her time and energy to
give free tuition to orphans and children who come from very poor backgrounds. Which
branch of psychology that studies this type of helpful behaviour falls under?
1 (a) Cross-cultural Psychology (b) Social Psychology
(c) Developmental Psychology. (d) Sports Psychology.
3. According to Piaget, preoperational thought is developed during the age of. 1
(a) 0-2 years (b) 2-7 years
(c) 7-11 years (d) 11-15 years
4. The term adolescence is derived from the Latin word. 1
(a) Adolese (b) Adolcere
(c) Adolesce (d) Adolescere
5. One learns to put on woollen clothes. Burn firewood or use electric heaters to avoid the
unpleasant cold weather. This is an example of. 1
(a) Negative reinforcement (b) Positive reinforcement
(c) Punishment (d) Verbal learning
6. This method is used in learning some foreign language equivalents of mother tongue
word 1
(a) Serial learning (b) Category clustering
(c) Free recall (d) Paired-associates learning
7. ________ is a mental representation of a sensory experience. 1
(a) Image (b) Concept
(c) Category (d) Prototype
8. The process of drawing conclusion from opinion, evaluate events, objects, based on
knowledge and available evidences is called. 1
(a) Creative thinking (b) Judgement
(c) Decision making (d) Problem solving
Page 13
-2- NB/XI/PSY/1
9. ________ is the key to effective social functioning in modern times. 1
(a) Cognitive function (b) Change in perception
(c) Emotion management (d) Development of motives
10. Which part of the limbic system is responsible for emotional control and involves
formation of emotional memories? 1
(a) Amygdala (b) Hippocampus.
(c) Hypothalamus. (d) Cortex.
11. What is behaviour? Give examples of overt and covert behaviour. 1+1=2
12. How can knowledge of the field of environmental psychology be used to
promote environment friendly behaviour? 2
13. What is perception? Mention any two factors that influence perception. 1+1= 2
14. We distinguish figure from the ground on the basis of certain characteristics. List
any two characteristics. 1+1=2
15. What is learning disability? 2
16. Explain any two barriers to creative thinking. 1+1=2
17. Positive emotions give us a greater ability to cope with adverse circumstances and
quickly return to a normal state. Explain any two ways of enhancing positive emotion.
1+1=2
18. Illustrate the motivational cycle. 2
19. Explain the relationship of psychology with any two other disciplines. 2+2=4
20. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of survey method. 2+2=4
21. Explain any four monocular cues (psychological cues) that help in judging the distance and
depth in two dimensional surfaces. 1×4=4
22. What is memory? Explain the three stages of memory. 1+3=4
23. For most of us, an approaching examination brings about a feeling of a churning stomach
and anxiety. In fact, any situation which involves performing a task and the awareness of
being evaluated for the performance is an anxiety provoking situation for most people.
Alice a girl from a small town puts in 10-12 hours of hard work every day in order to get
through the various engineering entrance examinations. Although she has been putting a
lot of effort for her exams, she is overwhelmed by the intensity of anxiety and doubting is
she will be able to perform to the best of her abilities when faced with such situations,
individuals attempt to adjust and come up with copying strategies. Suggest any four
strategies that can help overcome examination anxiety. 1×4=4
9. ________ is the key to effective social functioning in modern times. 1
(a) Cognitive function (b) Change in perception
(c) Emotion management (d) Development of motives
10. Which part of the limbic system is responsible for emotional control and involves
formation of emotional memories? 1
(a) Amygdala (b) Hippocampus.
(c) Hypothalamus. (d) Cortex.
11. What is behaviour? Give examples of overt and covert behaviour. 1+1=2
12. How can knowledge of the field of environmental psychology be used to
promote environment friendly behaviour? 2
13. What is perception? Mention any two factors that influence perception. 1+1= 2
14. We distinguish figure from the ground on the basis of certain characteristics. List
any two characteristics. 1+1=2
15. What is learning disability? 2
16. Explain any two barriers to creative thinking. 1+1=2
17. Positive emotions give us a greater ability to cope with adverse circumstances and
quickly return to a normal state. Explain any two ways of enhancing positive emotion.
1+1=2
18. Illustrate the motivational cycle. 2
19. Explain the relationship of psychology with any two other disciplines. 2+2=4
20. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of survey method. 2+2=4
21. Explain any four monocular cues (psychological cues) that help in judging the distance and
depth in two dimensional surfaces. 1×4=4
22. What is memory? Explain the three stages of memory. 1+3=4
23. For most of us, an approaching examination brings about a feeling of a churning stomach
and anxiety. In fact, any situation which involves performing a task and the awareness of
being evaluated for the performance is an anxiety provoking situation for most people.
Alice a girl from a small town puts in 10-12 hours of hard work every day in order to get
through the various engineering entrance examinations. Although she has been putting a
lot of effort for her exams, she is overwhelmed by the intensity of anxiety and doubting is
she will be able to perform to the best of her abilities when faced with such situations,
individuals attempt to adjust and come up with copying strategies. Suggest any four
strategies that can help overcome examination anxiety. 1×4=4
Page 14
-3- NB/XI/PSY/1
24. (a) Explain the nature of psychological data.
Or 6
(b) What are the factors influencing the formation of identity during adolescence?
25. (a) Discuss any three determinants that influence the course of operant conditioning. 3×2=6
Or
(b) How is information processed through sensory, short-term and long-term memory
systems? (3×2=6)
26. (a) Briefly explain the meaning and nature of language. 6
Or
(b) Discuss any three psychosocial motives. (3×2=6)
27. (a) Various fields of specialisation in psychology have emerged over the years. Briefly
explain any four branches of psychology. 4×2=8
Or
(b) Explain the characteristics of a standardized test. (8)
28. (a) Explain the nature of learning. Discuss any two factors facilitating learning. 4+4=8
Or
(b) Urie Bronfenbrenner’s contextual view of development emphasises the role of
environmental factors in the development of an individual. Explain with the help of a
diagram. (8)
***************************
24. (a) Explain the nature of psychological data.
Or 6
(b) What are the factors influencing the formation of identity during adolescence?
25. (a) Discuss any three determinants that influence the course of operant conditioning. 3×2=6
Or
(b) How is information processed through sensory, short-term and long-term memory
systems? (3×2=6)
26. (a) Briefly explain the meaning and nature of language. 6
Or
(b) Discuss any three psychosocial motives. (3×2=6)
27. (a) Various fields of specialisation in psychology have emerged over the years. Briefly
explain any four branches of psychology. 4×2=8
Or
(b) Explain the characteristics of a standardized test. (8)
28. (a) Explain the nature of learning. Discuss any two factors facilitating learning. 4+4=8
Or
(b) Urie Bronfenbrenner’s contextual view of development emphasises the role of
environmental factors in the development of an individual. Explain with the help of a
diagram. (8)
***************************
Page 15
Total number of pages print: 3 NB/XI/ENT/1
2024
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an entrepreneur? 1
a) An entrepreneur incubates new idea
b) An entrepreneur takes initiative
c) An entrepreneur must be rich
d) An entrepreneur has high degree of confidence.
2. Major challenges towards women entrepreneur is/are _______ . 1
a) Lack of confidence
b) Attitude of creditors towards women
c) Inefficient market arrangements
d) All of the above.
3. The first step in a business plan is___________________. 1
a) Market research b) Feasibility report
c) Sources of input d) Costing.
4. According to Joseph Schumpeter, Entrepreneur is a/an ________________. 1
a) Market researcher b) Problem solver
c) Innovator d) None of the above.
5. Which of the following is not included in environmental barrier? 1
a) Social environment b) Motivation
c) Economic environment d) Cultural environment.
6. Adding new line of business is known as_________________________. 1
a) Integration b) Diversification
c) Innovation d) Invention.
2024
ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Full marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 25 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an entrepreneur? 1
a) An entrepreneur incubates new idea
b) An entrepreneur takes initiative
c) An entrepreneur must be rich
d) An entrepreneur has high degree of confidence.
2. Major challenges towards women entrepreneur is/are _______ . 1
a) Lack of confidence
b) Attitude of creditors towards women
c) Inefficient market arrangements
d) All of the above.
3. The first step in a business plan is___________________. 1
a) Market research b) Feasibility report
c) Sources of input d) Costing.
4. According to Joseph Schumpeter, Entrepreneur is a/an ________________. 1
a) Market researcher b) Problem solver
c) Innovator d) None of the above.
5. Which of the following is not included in environmental barrier? 1
a) Social environment b) Motivation
c) Economic environment d) Cultural environment.
6. Adding new line of business is known as_________________________. 1
a) Integration b) Diversification
c) Innovation d) Invention.
Page 16
-2- NB/XI/ENT/1
7. Factory rent is an example of______________________. 1
a) Variable cost b) Fixed cost
c) Start up cost d) Unit cost.
8. Example(s) of direct tax is/are__________________. 1
a) Income Tax b) Corporate Tax
c) Property Tax d) All of the above.
9. Preference share holders get preference over equity share holders in which area: 1
a) Payment of dividend b) Voting rights
c) Management of firm d) Decision making.
10. Highly skilled labour belongs to which category_________________. 1
a) Managerial staff b) Non-Managerial staff
c) Technical staff d) Professional staff.
11. “Every country needs entrepreneurs”. Give reasons. 2
12. Write any two roles of entrepreneur in environmental protection. 2
13. Discuss two reasons on the importance of evaluating ideas. 2
14. Mention any two social factors which act as a barrier for spirit of entrepreneurship. 2
15. Name any two training institutions of entrepreneurship in India. 2
16. Give any two examples of cash inflows. 2
17. Write the difference between expenditure and expenses. 2
18. Mr. Elan wants to start his own business. Explain any four funding options
available for him to help raise capital. 4
19. Explain the nature of business risk. 4
20. Write the factors about tax which an entrepreneur must know. 4
21. a) “State and explain any six characteristics of an entrepreneur.
Or 6
b) Ratan Tata shifted the project of Nano car from West Bengal to Gujarat,
which type of competency is shown here? Explain.
7. Factory rent is an example of______________________. 1
a) Variable cost b) Fixed cost
c) Start up cost d) Unit cost.
8. Example(s) of direct tax is/are__________________. 1
a) Income Tax b) Corporate Tax
c) Property Tax d) All of the above.
9. Preference share holders get preference over equity share holders in which area: 1
a) Payment of dividend b) Voting rights
c) Management of firm d) Decision making.
10. Highly skilled labour belongs to which category_________________. 1
a) Managerial staff b) Non-Managerial staff
c) Technical staff d) Professional staff.
11. “Every country needs entrepreneurs”. Give reasons. 2
12. Write any two roles of entrepreneur in environmental protection. 2
13. Discuss two reasons on the importance of evaluating ideas. 2
14. Mention any two social factors which act as a barrier for spirit of entrepreneurship. 2
15. Name any two training institutions of entrepreneurship in India. 2
16. Give any two examples of cash inflows. 2
17. Write the difference between expenditure and expenses. 2
18. Mr. Elan wants to start his own business. Explain any four funding options
available for him to help raise capital. 4
19. Explain the nature of business risk. 4
20. Write the factors about tax which an entrepreneur must know. 4
21. a) “State and explain any six characteristics of an entrepreneur.
Or 6
b) Ratan Tata shifted the project of Nano car from West Bengal to Gujarat,
which type of competency is shown here? Explain.
Page 17
-3- NB/XI/ENT/1
22. a) Define feasibility plan. Explain any five reasons that help the entrepreneur
to execute the project. 1+5=6
Or
b) Explain in detail the role of society and family in the growth of an entrepreneur.
(6)
23. a) Explain the role of e-business in promoting business.
Or 6
b) Explain three merits and three demerits of exporting.
24. a) The management has to take some major decisions while providing
physical distribution service. Explain four major components in detail
about the physical distribution. 8
Or
b) What is a joint venture? Explain the benefits of joint venture. (1+7=8)
25. a) Discuss the factors that should be kept in mind while selecting a source of fund.
Or 8
b) Joe is planning a restaurant at New Market, Dimapur. Discuss the factors that
influence the decision of Joe’s capital structure.
********************************
22. a) Define feasibility plan. Explain any five reasons that help the entrepreneur
to execute the project. 1+5=6
Or
b) Explain in detail the role of society and family in the growth of an entrepreneur.
(6)
23. a) Explain the role of e-business in promoting business.
Or 6
b) Explain three merits and three demerits of exporting.
24. a) The management has to take some major decisions while providing
physical distribution service. Explain four major components in detail
about the physical distribution. 8
Or
b) What is a joint venture? Explain the benefits of joint venture. (1+7=8)
25. a) Discuss the factors that should be kept in mind while selecting a source of fund.
Or 8
b) Joe is planning a restaurant at New Market, Dimapur. Discuss the factors that
influence the decision of Joe’s capital structure.
********************************
Page 18
Total number of printed pages:8 NB/XI/AEN/1
2024
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, & C.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (LITERATURE)
PROSE
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 4x1=4
a. What was the first warning sign of Christy’s disabilities?
(i) His hands were clenched nearly all of the time.
(ii) His head had a habit of falling backward whenever his mother tried
to feed him.
(iii) His mouth couldn’t grasp the teat of his bottle.
(iv) He could not sit up without having a mountain of pillows around
him.
b. What dish did the author choose for himself in ‘The Luncheon’?
(i) Salmon (ii) Mutton chop
(iii) Caviar (iv) Asparagus
c. “An ________ of the two infants was seen at midnight” in the story,
‘Dream Children: A Reverie’.
(i) illusion (ii) image
(iii) apparition (iv) impression
d. How does the boss feel towards the Fly as it cleans itself for the second
time?
(i) He feels a sense of revulsion towards it
(ii) He admires its courage
(iii) He is shocked it is still alive
(iv) He feels inexplicably sad
2024
ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, & C.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (LITERATURE)
PROSE
1. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 4x1=4
a. What was the first warning sign of Christy’s disabilities?
(i) His hands were clenched nearly all of the time.
(ii) His head had a habit of falling backward whenever his mother tried
to feed him.
(iii) His mouth couldn’t grasp the teat of his bottle.
(iv) He could not sit up without having a mountain of pillows around
him.
b. What dish did the author choose for himself in ‘The Luncheon’?
(i) Salmon (ii) Mutton chop
(iii) Caviar (iv) Asparagus
c. “An ________ of the two infants was seen at midnight” in the story,
‘Dream Children: A Reverie’.
(i) illusion (ii) image
(iii) apparition (iv) impression
d. How does the boss feel towards the Fly as it cleans itself for the second
time?
(i) He feels a sense of revulsion towards it
(ii) He admires its courage
(iii) He is shocked it is still alive
(iv) He feels inexplicably sad
Page 19
-2- NB/XI/AEN/1
2. The woman kept on repeating “I never eat anything for luncheon”. Was it really
so? Explain in about 20 to 40 words. 2
3. Describe the author’s grandmother in ‘Dream Children: A Reverie’. 2
4. How much compensation money did Sunil receive initially and what did he do
with it? 1+2=3
5. a. Can the boss come to terms with the inevitability of life and death?
Or 4
b. What is the most admirable thing about Sunil that comes through all
through the text?
6. a. They now spoke of an institution.
Never! Said my mother almost fiercely, when this was suggested to her.
(i) Who are ‘they’ referred to in the above lines? 1
(ii) What is the institution they are speaking of? 1
(iii) How do Christy’s mother respond to this suggestion? 2
(iv) Which word is an antonym for ‘fiercely’? 1
a. Boldly b. Wildly
c. Terribly d. Calmly
Or
b. I see that you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon. I’m sure it’s a
mistake? Why don’t you follow my example and just eat one thing? I’m sure
you’d feel ever much better for it.
(i) Who is the speaker here? (1)
(ii) Identify the figure of speech used here. (1)
(iii) The speaker says one thing but ends up doing the exact opposite.
Explain. (2)
(iv) Find the synonym of the word ‘luncheon’. (1)
a. Abundant lunch b. formal lunch
c. Complete lunch d. admirable lunch
POETRY
7. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 2x1=2
a. And the Blast of the Desert cried aloud,
With a voice so wild and free.
What is the poetic device used here?
(i) Personification (ii) Simile
(iii) Metaphor (iv) Alliteration
2. The woman kept on repeating “I never eat anything for luncheon”. Was it really
so? Explain in about 20 to 40 words. 2
3. Describe the author’s grandmother in ‘Dream Children: A Reverie’. 2
4. How much compensation money did Sunil receive initially and what did he do
with it? 1+2=3
5. a. Can the boss come to terms with the inevitability of life and death?
Or 4
b. What is the most admirable thing about Sunil that comes through all
through the text?
6. a. They now spoke of an institution.
Never! Said my mother almost fiercely, when this was suggested to her.
(i) Who are ‘they’ referred to in the above lines? 1
(ii) What is the institution they are speaking of? 1
(iii) How do Christy’s mother respond to this suggestion? 2
(iv) Which word is an antonym for ‘fiercely’? 1
a. Boldly b. Wildly
c. Terribly d. Calmly
Or
b. I see that you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon. I’m sure it’s a
mistake? Why don’t you follow my example and just eat one thing? I’m sure
you’d feel ever much better for it.
(i) Who is the speaker here? (1)
(ii) Identify the figure of speech used here. (1)
(iii) The speaker says one thing but ends up doing the exact opposite.
Explain. (2)
(iv) Find the synonym of the word ‘luncheon’. (1)
a. Abundant lunch b. formal lunch
c. Complete lunch d. admirable lunch
POETRY
7. Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given: 2x1=2
a. And the Blast of the Desert cried aloud,
With a voice so wild and free.
What is the poetic device used here?
(i) Personification (ii) Simile
(iii) Metaphor (iv) Alliteration
Page 20
-3- NB/XI/AEN/1
b. In the poem ‘Money Madness’, what is the dirt that the poet is referring to?
(i) Poverty (ii) Money
(iii) Humiliation (iv) Insanity
8. “What I was walling in or walling out?”
What does the poet mean by this line? 2
9. Identify any two literary devices used in the poem, ‘She walks in Beauty’. 2
10. Critically analyse the lines given below in about 60-90 words. Answer any
one (1). 1x4=4
a. The forests, with their myriad tongues,
Shouted of liberty;
And the Blast of the Desert cried aloud,
With a voice so wild and free,
That he started in his sleep and smiled
At their tempestuous glee.
b. He is all pine and I am apple orchard.
My apple trees will never get across
And eat the cones under his pines, I tell him.
He only says, ‘Good fences make good neighbours’.
11. a. I doubt if any man living hands out a pound note without a pang;
And a real tremor, if he hands out a ten-pound note.
We quail, money makes us quail.
It has got us down, we grovel before it in strange terror.
And no wonder, for money has a fearful cruel power among men.
(i) What happens to a man when he hands out a pound note? 1
(ii) Why do we grovel before money? 1
(iii) Which poetic device has been used in the above lines? 1
(iv) How does money have a cruel power over men? 2
Or
b. One shade the more, one ray the less
Had half impaired the nameless grace
Which waves in every raven tress,
Or softly lightens o’er her face;
Where thoughts serenely sweet express,
How pure, how dear their dwelling-place.
(i) What does the first line indicate about the woman’s beauty? (1)
(ii) Why doesn’t the poet name the beauty? (1)
(iii) How do the waves of her hair enhance her beauty? (1)
(iv) Where do serene thoughts dwell? (1)
b. In the poem ‘Money Madness’, what is the dirt that the poet is referring to?
(i) Poverty (ii) Money
(iii) Humiliation (iv) Insanity
8. “What I was walling in or walling out?”
What does the poet mean by this line? 2
9. Identify any two literary devices used in the poem, ‘She walks in Beauty’. 2
10. Critically analyse the lines given below in about 60-90 words. Answer any
one (1). 1x4=4
a. The forests, with their myriad tongues,
Shouted of liberty;
And the Blast of the Desert cried aloud,
With a voice so wild and free,
That he started in his sleep and smiled
At their tempestuous glee.
b. He is all pine and I am apple orchard.
My apple trees will never get across
And eat the cones under his pines, I tell him.
He only says, ‘Good fences make good neighbours’.
11. a. I doubt if any man living hands out a pound note without a pang;
And a real tremor, if he hands out a ten-pound note.
We quail, money makes us quail.
It has got us down, we grovel before it in strange terror.
And no wonder, for money has a fearful cruel power among men.
(i) What happens to a man when he hands out a pound note? 1
(ii) Why do we grovel before money? 1
(iii) Which poetic device has been used in the above lines? 1
(iv) How does money have a cruel power over men? 2
Or
b. One shade the more, one ray the less
Had half impaired the nameless grace
Which waves in every raven tress,
Or softly lightens o’er her face;
Where thoughts serenely sweet express,
How pure, how dear their dwelling-place.
(i) What does the first line indicate about the woman’s beauty? (1)
(ii) Why doesn’t the poet name the beauty? (1)
(iii) How do the waves of her hair enhance her beauty? (1)
(iv) Where do serene thoughts dwell? (1)
Page 21
-4- NB/XI/AEN/1
(v) An apt synonym for the word ‘impaired’ is ______. (1)
a. unimpaired b. damaged
c. healthy c. fit
DRAMA
12. How did Mrs. Dorchester happen to get hold of the talisman? 2
13. Mrs. Payne-Dexter: And the other strands – you have two more.
Mrs. Courtney-Page: This third one was the gift of my husband, Mr. Courtney-
Page. I would not let him give them to me until after we were married.
a. Who gave Mrs. Courtney-Page her first pearl? 1
b. Why wouldn’t Mrs. Courtney-Page allow her husband to gift her the
string of pearls before their marriage? 2
14. a. Does Mrs. Dorchester come across as the voice of reason in the play,
‘Ever Young’? 5
Or
b. Now, when he is ready to sit before the fireplace and watch me knit, I
have played a trick on him – I am not ready to sit before the fireplace
and I would rather play roulette than knit.
(i) Who is ‘he’ referred to here? (1)
(ii) What is the trick the speaker played on him? (2)
(iii) Why does the speaker say that she is not ready to sit before
the fireplace and would rather play roulette? (2)
FICTION
15. Name the boy who communicates with ‘The Lord of the Flies’. 1
16. Why does Jack start his own tribe? 2
17. What psychological effect does dancing and chanting have on the boys? 3
18. a. We can use this to call the others. Have a meeting. They’ll come when
they hear us – ”
(i) Who is the speaker? 1
(ii) What is ‘this’ referred to here? 1
(iii) What is the use of the item which they found? 2
Or
(v) An apt synonym for the word ‘impaired’ is ______. (1)
a. unimpaired b. damaged
c. healthy c. fit
DRAMA
12. How did Mrs. Dorchester happen to get hold of the talisman? 2
13. Mrs. Payne-Dexter: And the other strands – you have two more.
Mrs. Courtney-Page: This third one was the gift of my husband, Mr. Courtney-
Page. I would not let him give them to me until after we were married.
a. Who gave Mrs. Courtney-Page her first pearl? 1
b. Why wouldn’t Mrs. Courtney-Page allow her husband to gift her the
string of pearls before their marriage? 2
14. a. Does Mrs. Dorchester come across as the voice of reason in the play,
‘Ever Young’? 5
Or
b. Now, when he is ready to sit before the fireplace and watch me knit, I
have played a trick on him – I am not ready to sit before the fireplace
and I would rather play roulette than knit.
(i) Who is ‘he’ referred to here? (1)
(ii) What is the trick the speaker played on him? (2)
(iii) Why does the speaker say that she is not ready to sit before
the fireplace and would rather play roulette? (2)
FICTION
15. Name the boy who communicates with ‘The Lord of the Flies’. 1
16. Why does Jack start his own tribe? 2
17. What psychological effect does dancing and chanting have on the boys? 3
18. a. We can use this to call the others. Have a meeting. They’ll come when
they hear us – ”
(i) Who is the speaker? 1
(ii) What is ‘this’ referred to here? 1
(iii) What is the use of the item which they found? 2
Or
Page 22
-5- NB/XI/AEN/1
b. ‘The head is for the beast. It’s a gift.’ The silence accepted the gift and
awed him. The head remained there, dim-eyed, grinning faintly, blood
blackening between the teeth. All at once they were running away, as far
as they could, through the forest towards the open beach. (chapter 8)
(i) ‘This head is for the beast. It’s a gift.’ Who is the speaker here? (1)
(ii) Why did the boys run away? (1)
(iii) What does the pig’s head represent? (2)
19. a. Discuss any three symbols present in ‘Lord of the Flies’.
Or 5
b. Give a character sketch of Ralph. Do you think Ralph made the right
choice in not joining Jack’s tribe? Give reasons.
SECTION – B (GRAMMAR)
20. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
a. Do you believe everything people tell you? (State whether the
underlined verb is mental or possessive)
b. The teacher highlighted the ________ (writer, right, rite) answer in red.
(Choose the correct verb to fill in the blanks)
c. The crowd demonstrated outside the court. (State whether the underlined
verb is transitive or intransitive)
21. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 4x1=4
a. Mother will definitely be upset when she sees the spilled milk. (Underline
the adverb and state whether it is viewpoint or commenting)
b. For a healthy body, you need to exercise regularly. (Change the underlined
adverb into adverb phrase)
c. We often come to this lake in the evenings. (Underline the adverb and
mention its type)
d. I might come to your house tomorrow. (Underline the adverb and state its
kind)
22. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
a. I was eating breakfast when you called. (State the tense)
b. I _________ (work) with her since 1999. (Rewrite the sentence into
Present Perfect Tense)
c. Will you study in this room? (Rewrite the sentence in Future Continuous
Tense)
b. ‘The head is for the beast. It’s a gift.’ The silence accepted the gift and
awed him. The head remained there, dim-eyed, grinning faintly, blood
blackening between the teeth. All at once they were running away, as far
as they could, through the forest towards the open beach. (chapter 8)
(i) ‘This head is for the beast. It’s a gift.’ Who is the speaker here? (1)
(ii) Why did the boys run away? (1)
(iii) What does the pig’s head represent? (2)
19. a. Discuss any three symbols present in ‘Lord of the Flies’.
Or 5
b. Give a character sketch of Ralph. Do you think Ralph made the right
choice in not joining Jack’s tribe? Give reasons.
SECTION – B (GRAMMAR)
20. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
a. Do you believe everything people tell you? (State whether the
underlined verb is mental or possessive)
b. The teacher highlighted the ________ (writer, right, rite) answer in red.
(Choose the correct verb to fill in the blanks)
c. The crowd demonstrated outside the court. (State whether the underlined
verb is transitive or intransitive)
21. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 4x1=4
a. Mother will definitely be upset when she sees the spilled milk. (Underline
the adverb and state whether it is viewpoint or commenting)
b. For a healthy body, you need to exercise regularly. (Change the underlined
adverb into adverb phrase)
c. We often come to this lake in the evenings. (Underline the adverb and
mention its type)
d. I might come to your house tomorrow. (Underline the adverb and state its
kind)
22. Answer the following as directed in the brackets: 3x1=3
a. I was eating breakfast when you called. (State the tense)
b. I _________ (work) with her since 1999. (Rewrite the sentence into
Present Perfect Tense)
c. Will you study in this room? (Rewrite the sentence in Future Continuous
Tense)
Page 23
-6- NB/XI/AEN/1
SECTION – C (READING)
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. For many years now the governments have been promising the eradication of
child labour in hazardous industries in India. But the truth is that despite all the
rhetoric, no government so far has succeeded in eradicating this evil, nor has any
been able to ensure compulsory primary education for every Indian child. Between
60 and 100 million children are still at work instead of going to school, and around
10 million are working in hazardous industries. India had the biggest child
population of 380 million in the world; plus the largest number of children who
are forced to earn a living.
2. We have many laws that ban child labour in hazardous industries. According to
the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the employment of
children below the age of 14 in hazardous occupations has been strictly banned.
But each state has different rules regarding the minimum age of employment. This
makes the implementation of these laws difficult.
3. Also, there is no ban on child labour in non-hazardous occupations. The act
applies to the organized or factory sector and not the unorganised or informal
sector where most children find employment as cleaners, servants, porters, waiters,
among other forms of unskilled work. Thus, child labour continues because the
implementation of the existing law is lax.
4. There are industries, which have a special demand for child labour because of
their nimble fingers, high level of concentration and capacity to work hard at
abysmally low wages. The carpet industry in U.P. and Kashmir employs children
to make handknotted carpets. There are 80,000 child workers in Jammu and
Kashmir alone. In Kashmir because of the political unrest, children are forced to
work while many schools are shut. Industries like glass want to remain
competitive by employing children.
5. The truth is that it is poverty which is pushing children into the brutish labour
market. We have 260 million people below the poverty line in India, a large
number of them are women. Poor and especially woman-headed families have no
option but to push their little ones in this hard life in hostile conditions, with no
human or labour rights.
6. There is a lobby which argues that there is nothing wrong with children working
as long as the environment for work is conducive to learning new skills but studies
have shown that the children are made to do boring, repetitive and tedious jobs
and are not taught new skills as they grow older. In these hellholes like the sweet
shops of the old, there is no hope.
SECTION – C (READING)
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. For many years now the governments have been promising the eradication of
child labour in hazardous industries in India. But the truth is that despite all the
rhetoric, no government so far has succeeded in eradicating this evil, nor has any
been able to ensure compulsory primary education for every Indian child. Between
60 and 100 million children are still at work instead of going to school, and around
10 million are working in hazardous industries. India had the biggest child
population of 380 million in the world; plus the largest number of children who
are forced to earn a living.
2. We have many laws that ban child labour in hazardous industries. According to
the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the employment of
children below the age of 14 in hazardous occupations has been strictly banned.
But each state has different rules regarding the minimum age of employment. This
makes the implementation of these laws difficult.
3. Also, there is no ban on child labour in non-hazardous occupations. The act
applies to the organized or factory sector and not the unorganised or informal
sector where most children find employment as cleaners, servants, porters, waiters,
among other forms of unskilled work. Thus, child labour continues because the
implementation of the existing law is lax.
4. There are industries, which have a special demand for child labour because of
their nimble fingers, high level of concentration and capacity to work hard at
abysmally low wages. The carpet industry in U.P. and Kashmir employs children
to make handknotted carpets. There are 80,000 child workers in Jammu and
Kashmir alone. In Kashmir because of the political unrest, children are forced to
work while many schools are shut. Industries like glass want to remain
competitive by employing children.
5. The truth is that it is poverty which is pushing children into the brutish labour
market. We have 260 million people below the poverty line in India, a large
number of them are women. Poor and especially woman-headed families have no
option but to push their little ones in this hard life in hostile conditions, with no
human or labour rights.
6. There is a lobby which argues that there is nothing wrong with children working
as long as the environment for work is conducive to learning new skills but studies
have shown that the children are made to do boring, repetitive and tedious jobs
and are not taught new skills as they grow older. In these hellholes like the sweet
shops of the old, there is no hope.
Page 24
-7- NB/XI/AEN/1
7. Children working in hazardous industries are prone to debilitating diseases
which can cripple them for life. By sitting in cramped, damp and unhygienic
spaces, their limbs become deformed for life. Inside matchstick, fireworks and
glass industries they are victims of bronchial diseases and T.B. their mental and
physical development is permanently impaired by long hours of work. Once
trapped, they can’t get out of this vicious circle of poverty. They remain
uneducated and powerless. Finally, in later years, they too are compelled to send
their own children to work. Child labour perpetuates its own nightmares.
8. If at all the government was serious about granting children their rights, an
intensive effort ought to have been made to implement the Supreme Court’s
Directive of 1997 which laid down punitive action against employers of child
labour. Only compulsory primary education can eliminate child labour.
9. Surely, if 380 million children are given a better life and elementary education,
India’s human capital would be greatly enhanced. But that needs, as former
President Abdul Kalam says, “A second vision”.
a. What is that one reason that is leading to the increase in child labour? 1
(i) Poverty
(ii) Unemployment
(iii) Hazardous occupation
(iv) Increase in population
b. Why does child labour still continue despite of laws and Acts
prohibiting Child labour? 1
(i) Because parents of the child do not care
(ii) Because the laws does not apply to unorganized or informal sector
(iii) Because children wants to earn money due to poverty
(iv) Because they are treated with love and care
c. What can eliminate child labour? 1
(i) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act) 1986
(ii) Collective efforts of government and social organisations
(iii) Compulsory primary education
(iv) Special Task Force
d. Find the antonym of the word ‘abysmally’ used in paragraph 4. 1
(i) Tidy
(ii) Superb
(iii) Magnificent
(iv) Fancy
7. Children working in hazardous industries are prone to debilitating diseases
which can cripple them for life. By sitting in cramped, damp and unhygienic
spaces, their limbs become deformed for life. Inside matchstick, fireworks and
glass industries they are victims of bronchial diseases and T.B. their mental and
physical development is permanently impaired by long hours of work. Once
trapped, they can’t get out of this vicious circle of poverty. They remain
uneducated and powerless. Finally, in later years, they too are compelled to send
their own children to work. Child labour perpetuates its own nightmares.
8. If at all the government was serious about granting children their rights, an
intensive effort ought to have been made to implement the Supreme Court’s
Directive of 1997 which laid down punitive action against employers of child
labour. Only compulsory primary education can eliminate child labour.
9. Surely, if 380 million children are given a better life and elementary education,
India’s human capital would be greatly enhanced. But that needs, as former
President Abdul Kalam says, “A second vision”.
a. What is that one reason that is leading to the increase in child labour? 1
(i) Poverty
(ii) Unemployment
(iii) Hazardous occupation
(iv) Increase in population
b. Why does child labour still continue despite of laws and Acts
prohibiting Child labour? 1
(i) Because parents of the child do not care
(ii) Because the laws does not apply to unorganized or informal sector
(iii) Because children wants to earn money due to poverty
(iv) Because they are treated with love and care
c. What can eliminate child labour? 1
(i) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act) 1986
(ii) Collective efforts of government and social organisations
(iii) Compulsory primary education
(iv) Special Task Force
d. Find the antonym of the word ‘abysmally’ used in paragraph 4. 1
(i) Tidy
(ii) Superb
(iii) Magnificent
(iv) Fancy
Page 25
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e. Select the most suitable title for the above passage. 1
(i) Effects of child labour
(ii) Child labour in India
(iii) Laws and Acts, Prevent Child Labour
(iv) Our Children, Our Future
f. Find the synonyms of – 1+1=2
(i) Risky (paragraph 1)
(ii) Very unfriendly (paragraph 5)
g. ‘This makes the implementation of these laws difficult.” What does
‘this’ mean here? (paragraph 2) 1
h. What are the two adverse effects of hazardous industries on children? 2
***************************
e. Select the most suitable title for the above passage. 1
(i) Effects of child labour
(ii) Child labour in India
(iii) Laws and Acts, Prevent Child Labour
(iv) Our Children, Our Future
f. Find the synonyms of – 1+1=2
(i) Risky (paragraph 1)
(ii) Very unfriendly (paragraph 5)
g. ‘This makes the implementation of these laws difficult.” What does
‘this’ mean here? (paragraph 2) 1
h. What are the two adverse effects of hazardous industries on children? 2
***************************
Page 32
Total number of printed pages 5 NB/XI/BNG/1
2024
Total marks : 80 BENGALI Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C, & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct number in
your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
2024
Total marks : 80 BENGALI Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 23 questions divided into 4 sections A,B,C, & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct number in
your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Page 33
2 NB/XI/BNG/1
Page 34
3 NB/XI/BNG/1
Page 35
4 NB/XI/BNG/1
Page 36
5 NB/XI/BNG/1
Page 37
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/TNY/1
2024
TENYIDIE
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedzeu phrülie di ketsokebako kelashülie:
1. Seyie kehoupuorei puo kelhouzho kedipuo mhieya shikecüe puo themia
meho keba nunu silieya. Derei süu mho nu rei puo dieu geinu seyieu dze si
pevikuolieya. Süla we seyie kekreikreikecüko meho keba ki mia thuo mia die se
mia mhokuo chü di kehourapuo vo rei puo die putuoya. Mha hau puoca kezhatho-
u sü puo kelhouzho chü kemetei sakeshüu zo. Ba hurei seyie sorkari kezhamiakoe
seyie kekrei nu kezhamiako ze kehou-kerüchü zorei mia thuo mia die pu di
dubashü bu puo die keyiepie kekreimia ki shüyakezha nko rei Tiviko nunu
ngushüya. Mha hau chükecüe puo rüna mhokuo la ükecü we lelie vi.
2. Siro teicie 1988 cie Frenchmia Sorkari-e ahza puo chükeshü France nu
khenukelhoumiako bu Frenchmia die se petolieketuo la dieca yopuo zorei
Frenchmia die ngulie kevichie süu se mo di chazoumia die pu liro sümia gei raka
mena morei tepie kedie chüketuo pesishü. Ahza khakeshü hau va seuta üsi.
3. Kijü nu kelhou thie teiu nu nko zomonyü kijü pete rei Japanmia kevi dze sü
si ba phre hute. Puo kishükinyi mu puo rüna chü kehiekelie zomonyü seyie hau
thie kijü pete donu puo kelhouzhotsatie rei mia ki vi rükrü zokecü chüta üya.
Kekreilamonyü seyie haue shürhei mu puo thuo puo die nunu puo shüphrüko
chülieya. Eno Kunio Francis Tanabe-e (American Journalist puo) Japanmia üse
leshüphrü pekrathoyakezha seyie puo üdi pushü. Seyie hau puo kemeduonya kevi
ki ze di seyie kekreimiako leshüda khrülie di dieu computer nunu chü kedilie sidi
diecako siro die rozuko kewhi la pie u dzü vapezie lieketuo do (comic) chü lalieya
üsi.
4. Siro uko mhatho kekreikreikecü chü di kijü lukihaki ketuoko rei puo rünau
zhazhü le mu pie keniepu chü di seyie mhokuo se balieya üsi. Mia puoe teicie dia
pengou pulie kenjüü teicie thepfü ker mia ra tuota zorei Tokyo nadiu puo vie
2024
TENYIDIE
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SECTION – A (Kesi Mhaphrü)
1. Thedzeu phrülie di ketsokebako kelashülie:
1. Seyie kehoupuorei puo kelhouzho kedipuo mhieya shikecüe puo themia
meho keba nunu silieya. Derei süu mho nu rei puo dieu geinu seyieu dze si
pevikuolieya. Süla we seyie kekreikreikecüko meho keba ki mia thuo mia die se
mia mhokuo chü di kehourapuo vo rei puo die putuoya. Mha hau puoca kezhatho-
u sü puo kelhouzho chü kemetei sakeshüu zo. Ba hurei seyie sorkari kezhamiakoe
seyie kekrei nu kezhamiako ze kehou-kerüchü zorei mia thuo mia die pu di
dubashü bu puo die keyiepie kekreimia ki shüyakezha nko rei Tiviko nunu
ngushüya. Mha hau chükecüe puo rüna mhokuo la ükecü we lelie vi.
2. Siro teicie 1988 cie Frenchmia Sorkari-e ahza puo chükeshü France nu
khenukelhoumiako bu Frenchmia die se petolieketuo la dieca yopuo zorei
Frenchmia die ngulie kevichie süu se mo di chazoumia die pu liro sümia gei raka
mena morei tepie kedie chüketuo pesishü. Ahza khakeshü hau va seuta üsi.
3. Kijü nu kelhou thie teiu nu nko zomonyü kijü pete rei Japanmia kevi dze sü
si ba phre hute. Puo kishükinyi mu puo rüna chü kehiekelie zomonyü seyie hau
thie kijü pete donu puo kelhouzhotsatie rei mia ki vi rükrü zokecü chüta üya.
Kekreilamonyü seyie haue shürhei mu puo thuo puo die nunu puo shüphrüko
chülieya. Eno Kunio Francis Tanabe-e (American Journalist puo) Japanmia üse
leshüphrü pekrathoyakezha seyie puo üdi pushü. Seyie hau puo kemeduonya kevi
ki ze di seyie kekreimiako leshüda khrülie di dieu computer nunu chü kedilie sidi
diecako siro die rozuko kewhi la pie u dzü vapezie lieketuo do (comic) chü lalieya
üsi.
4. Siro uko mhatho kekreikreikecü chü di kijü lukihaki ketuoko rei puo rünau
zhazhü le mu pie keniepu chü di seyie mhokuo se balieya üsi. Mia puoe teicie dia
pengou pulie kenjüü teicie thepfü ker mia ra tuota zorei Tokyo nadiu puo vie
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ükecü le mu mengu di puo sorkari morei company puo kie la ro puo nei mu puo
dzü ziekruoi di la votaya üsi. Nko donu zorei mhakesimia kekra vo di Japanmia
rüna sü mehokeshü nyi phite: siro mia rüna nu kerügukerüge rei si kemo chüta
üya.
I. Ketsokecü hako nu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
(a) Frenchmia sorkari-e France nu khenukelhoumiako bu Frenchmia die
se petolieketuo la ahza va kitsuo khashü ga?
(i) Va puo (ii) Va kenie
(iii) Va se (iv) Va dia
(b) Kedipuo mehokecü geinu seyie puo kelhouzho silie vi üsi ga?
(i) Themia (ii) Tivi
(iii) Leshü (iv) Die
(c) Nko zomonyü kijü pete nu seyie kiu kevi dze si phreta üsi ga?
(i) Frenchmia (ii) Japanmia
(iii) Americamia (iv) Tenyimia
(d) ‘Mhokuo’(paragraph 1) icü cau liro
(i) kevikekuo zau pie seikecü
(ii) u thuo u tshekecü
(iii) suo ükecü kele
(iv) kemhotsakecü
II. Ketsokecü hako kelashülie:
(e) Kelhouzhoe kedipuo ga? 1
(f) Kedipuo la Japanmia kijü pete donu kelhouzhotsatie mia ki vi rükrüta ga? 1
(g) Supuo Japanmia üse leshü phrü pekrathoyakezha seyie puo üdi pu ga? 1
(h) Japanmia puoe puo kelhou nu diebo kicü puo medziya üsi ga? Puoca
kedipuo ga? 1+1=2
(i) ‘Shürhei’ (paragraph 3)icü kepetsou dieu thushülie. 1
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 150-200 mese nunu thushülie:
a. ABC leshüki nu computer kepetha lietho methuo keba la kecha
dzeyieleshü puo thupie leshüki mhokezhau tsüshülie.
Moro 6
b. Puotei puoma kere (Value of time) icü diebo-u pemvü di n leshüki
khise kehou nu n diepuko (speech) le menuo di thushülie.
ükecü le mu mengu di puo sorkari morei company puo kie la ro puo nei mu puo
dzü ziekruoi di la votaya üsi. Nko donu zorei mhakesimia kekra vo di Japanmia
rüna sü mehokeshü nyi phite: siro mia rüna nu kerügukerüge rei si kemo chüta
üya.
I. Ketsokecü hako nu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
(a) Frenchmia sorkari-e France nu khenukelhoumiako bu Frenchmia die
se petolieketuo la ahza va kitsuo khashü ga?
(i) Va puo (ii) Va kenie
(iii) Va se (iv) Va dia
(b) Kedipuo mehokecü geinu seyie puo kelhouzho silie vi üsi ga?
(i) Themia (ii) Tivi
(iii) Leshü (iv) Die
(c) Nko zomonyü kijü pete nu seyie kiu kevi dze si phreta üsi ga?
(i) Frenchmia (ii) Japanmia
(iii) Americamia (iv) Tenyimia
(d) ‘Mhokuo’(paragraph 1) icü cau liro
(i) kevikekuo zau pie seikecü
(ii) u thuo u tshekecü
(iii) suo ükecü kele
(iv) kemhotsakecü
II. Ketsokecü hako kelashülie:
(e) Kelhouzhoe kedipuo ga? 1
(f) Kedipuo la Japanmia kijü pete donu kelhouzhotsatie mia ki vi rükrüta ga? 1
(g) Supuo Japanmia üse leshü phrü pekrathoyakezha seyie puo üdi pu ga? 1
(h) Japanmia puoe puo kelhou nu diebo kicü puo medziya üsi ga? Puoca
kedipuo ga? 1+1=2
(i) ‘Shürhei’ (paragraph 3)icü kepetsou dieu thushülie. 1
SECTION – B (Thedze Kezo)
2. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 150-200 mese nunu thushülie:
a. ABC leshüki nu computer kepetha lietho methuo keba la kecha
dzeyieleshü puo thupie leshüki mhokezhau tsüshülie.
Moro 6
b. Puotei puoma kere (Value of time) icü diebo-u pemvü di n leshüki
khise kehou nu n diepuko (speech) le menuo di thushülie.
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3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 50-60 nu thushülie:
a. N zae Setuo/Senuo. Pfütsero Town nu no prazhüki (hostel) kesa puo
sedekelie nu prazhüki kemeho (warden) lietho puo zeketuo la kelieshie
(advertisement) puo thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Noe Tenyimia kephrünuoko krütau. Kephrünuoko bu nourhei diepu
(Extempore speech) pu kemetsatuo ükezhü la morokesuoko se
kepesikeshü (notice) puo thushülie.
SECTION – C (Diezho)
4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie: 12x1=12
a. Kezekevi bu u donu ba morosuo. (Zamho rhieshülie)
b. Neiu chazou nu tuo ler. (Thechü dieba rhieshülie)
c. Puo mhatho chükhriekelie la mia ze hie. (Diekhe rhieshülie)
d. Dieba thakie puose diecha chüshülie.
e. Hou! Kedithede u nei shi! (Ungophra rhieshülie)
f. Puo nhasi kekra cülie. (Ketsakekra dietho-u rhieshülie)
g. Kedimia huo u zho vi seya. (Zarheu rhieshülie)
h. Neituo-e ta vi se. (Dietho-u kiu ga?)
i. Hienie kezanuo baya. (Zasou-u rhieshülie)
j. Chüpahiko misi kevi khe se tuo. (Zakro-u rhieshülie)
k. Seibo hau zha se. (Dietso-u kiu ga?)
l. Puo thukrüpfü puo peri ba. (Thenumia zakieu rhieshülie)
5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze
6. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
a. Laius kivo-u nuoyo za _______.
(i) Zeus (ii) Eteocles
(iii) Polynices (iv) Chrysippus
b. Miapuorei puo thakhrülieya kemo-u.
(i) Charles (ii) Frederick
(iii) Ameins (iv) Jacques
3. Hanie puo (1) kedapie dieca 50-60 nu thushülie:
a. N zae Setuo/Senuo. Pfütsero Town nu no prazhüki (hostel) kesa puo
sedekelie nu prazhüki kemeho (warden) lietho puo zeketuo la kelieshie
(advertisement) puo thushülie.
Moro 4
b. Noe Tenyimia kephrünuoko krütau. Kephrünuoko bu nourhei diepu
(Extempore speech) pu kemetsatuo ükezhü la morokesuoko se
kepesikeshü (notice) puo thushülie.
SECTION – C (Diezho)
4. Hako chatha khakeshü medzi di kelashülie: 12x1=12
a. Kezekevi bu u donu ba morosuo. (Zamho rhieshülie)
b. Neiu chazou nu tuo ler. (Thechü dieba rhieshülie)
c. Puo mhatho chükhriekelie la mia ze hie. (Diekhe rhieshülie)
d. Dieba thakie puose diecha chüshülie.
e. Hou! Kedithede u nei shi! (Ungophra rhieshülie)
f. Puo nhasi kekra cülie. (Ketsakekra dietho-u rhieshülie)
g. Kedimia huo u zho vi seya. (Zarheu rhieshülie)
h. Neituo-e ta vi se. (Dietho-u kiu ga?)
i. Hienie kezanuo baya. (Zasou-u rhieshülie)
j. Chüpahiko misi kevi khe se tuo. (Zakro-u rhieshülie)
k. Seibo hau zha se. (Dietso-u kiu ga?)
l. Puo thukrüpfü puo peri ba. (Thenumia zakieu rhieshülie)
5. Hakhro kebau Tenyidie nu thuyie chüshülie: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
SECTION – D (Diemvü)
Thedze
6. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 4x1=4
a. Laius kivo-u nuoyo za _______.
(i) Zeus (ii) Eteocles
(iii) Polynices (iv) Chrysippus
b. Miapuorei puo thakhrülieya kemo-u.
(i) Charles (ii) Frederick
(iii) Ameins (iv) Jacques
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c. Kier lhitho-u dollar kitsuo nunu Faustus kier khrülie ga?
(i) Dollar ser (ii) Dollar hiedia
(iii) Dollar hiepengou (iv) Dollar hiesorou
d. Kiükishü la kemichie kenyi thechü liro _______.
(i) Lahore (ii) Quetta
(iii) Jhang (iv) Kot Isashah
7. Adam-e kedipuo kemhie di Orlando khruohishü ga? 2
8. Kedipuo la kepethamiakoe Yash Pal mhathoko ngu u mecha nu volieya ga? 2
9. Supuoe Polynices mo-u kenyüpie khruwa ga? Grikmia kepele nu kesiamo
kenyüpie khru mota tse kiütaya üsi ga? 1+2=3
10. a. Thebes mu themiakoe Sphinx-u dzie nunu kemezhiekecü zomonyü ka
thor baketa la kedipfüe die puo khashü.
(i) Kedipfü sü supuo ga? 1
(ii) Puo die khakeshüu kicüpuo ga? 1
(iii) Sphinx-e noumhamhale se rüvemia ketsoyakezhau kicüpuo ga? 1
(iv) Supuoe Sphinx dieu kelashüwata ga? 1
Moro
b. Thie nko rakachü theshü ro puo keleu kimhie tou parlie shi icü
silietuo…kedojü nu keleu mejü di ba puo nu lekuokeshü ki mhamo-u gei
puo chüu kimhietuo shi mehotuo üshü.
(i) Die hako supuoe pie suomia ki pu ga? (1)
(ii) Kedojü chükhrielieta sie kimhielie vi üsi ga? (2)
(iii) Kedojü hau supuo la puo keneitho puo chü ga? (1)
11. a. Rosalind mu Celia unie kediki nunu ta kepra dojüko thushülie.
Moro 5
b. Dr. Faustus bavüdo thelau puo ki kevor ki kikemhieta ga?
Geizo
12. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 2x1=2
a. ‘Khe Peziyaluo’ geizo-u nu ükezomiae suomia la zoshü ga?
(i) Nagamia
(ii) Leshükephrümia
(iii) Tsiedo kelhoumia
(iv) Thiedzü Nagamia pfutsanuoko
c. Kier lhitho-u dollar kitsuo nunu Faustus kier khrülie ga?
(i) Dollar ser (ii) Dollar hiedia
(iii) Dollar hiepengou (iv) Dollar hiesorou
d. Kiükishü la kemichie kenyi thechü liro _______.
(i) Lahore (ii) Quetta
(iii) Jhang (iv) Kot Isashah
7. Adam-e kedipuo kemhie di Orlando khruohishü ga? 2
8. Kedipuo la kepethamiakoe Yash Pal mhathoko ngu u mecha nu volieya ga? 2
9. Supuoe Polynices mo-u kenyüpie khruwa ga? Grikmia kepele nu kesiamo
kenyüpie khru mota tse kiütaya üsi ga? 1+2=3
10. a. Thebes mu themiakoe Sphinx-u dzie nunu kemezhiekecü zomonyü ka
thor baketa la kedipfüe die puo khashü.
(i) Kedipfü sü supuo ga? 1
(ii) Puo die khakeshüu kicüpuo ga? 1
(iii) Sphinx-e noumhamhale se rüvemia ketsoyakezhau kicüpuo ga? 1
(iv) Supuoe Sphinx dieu kelashüwata ga? 1
Moro
b. Thie nko rakachü theshü ro puo keleu kimhie tou parlie shi icü
silietuo…kedojü nu keleu mejü di ba puo nu lekuokeshü ki mhamo-u gei
puo chüu kimhietuo shi mehotuo üshü.
(i) Die hako supuoe pie suomia ki pu ga? (1)
(ii) Kedojü chükhrielieta sie kimhielie vi üsi ga? (2)
(iii) Kedojü hau supuo la puo keneitho puo chü ga? (1)
11. a. Rosalind mu Celia unie kediki nunu ta kepra dojüko thushülie.
Moro 5
b. Dr. Faustus bavüdo thelau puo ki kevor ki kikemhieta ga?
Geizo
12. Hako donu puotou-u kedashülie: 2x1=2
a. ‘Khe Peziyaluo’ geizo-u nu ükezomiae suomia la zoshü ga?
(i) Nagamia
(ii) Leshükephrümia
(iii) Tsiedo kelhoumia
(iv) Thiedzü Nagamia pfutsanuoko
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b. ‘Vi pekhra vo teigei lhou rüya’. Geizo diecha hau geizo hau kiu nunu
se par ga?
(i) Khe Peziyaluo (ii) Leshükephrüyo
(iii) Rheichie Khrüprei (iv) Themia Kelhou
13. Kedipuo la mhakejümia kethezie se kenyimia tsütaya ga? 2
14. ‘A Kelhou Nu’ geizo-u nu ükezo-ue kedipuo mengu di leshü phrü ga? Kedipuo
la leshü phrülie mota ga? 1+1=2
15. Geizo diecha hanie puo (1) kedapie puoca vatshashülie: 1x4=4
a. Nie siedze la Kenienuo thuo rei
U rhierhu di nie rüli medo,
Ba huya mu nie neisie-i di,
Vi pephu sie miavimia chüluo.
b. Leshü ha rei phrü tseikeliemia,
Re pra mo di puo ba nu ba rei,
Lietho kevi kezha peteko;
Puo ba nu ba puo nei kedatuo.
16. a. U nuolhou ha khrie kethoya ro,
Terhuopfü rei u rüli medo,
Zo batuo mu khe peziyaluo.
(i) Geizo hau nu supuo zoshü ga? 1
(ii) Ükezo-ue suomia tarhoshü ga? 1
(iii) Suomia bu u nuolhou khrie ro kimhielienu pu ga? 2
(iv) ‘Khe Peziyaluo’ puoca liro – 1
(a) kenourhe pezilie (b) u noucha
(c) puo ro vi thienyüsie (d) ngumvümia
Moro
b. Khrüthemvüko teigei rütso chü,
Kehukeli puo thuo puo cha nu,
Geija pejü nousuo sa keduo,
Kemo tuoi lhou u yuonuo chü.
(i) ‘Kehukeli’ puoca liro – (1)
(a) thepfhetheü chü (b) u rükhra chükecü
(c) kenei tei pevo (d) cü mu krie keba
(ii) Teigei khrüthemvüko kimhie baya üsi ga? (2)
(iii) Kimhielie ro themianuo donu mha keviko zie parlietuo ücü
ükezo-ue pu ga? (2)
b. ‘Vi pekhra vo teigei lhou rüya’. Geizo diecha hau geizo hau kiu nunu
se par ga?
(i) Khe Peziyaluo (ii) Leshükephrüyo
(iii) Rheichie Khrüprei (iv) Themia Kelhou
13. Kedipuo la mhakejümia kethezie se kenyimia tsütaya ga? 2
14. ‘A Kelhou Nu’ geizo-u nu ükezo-ue kedipuo mengu di leshü phrü ga? Kedipuo
la leshü phrülie mota ga? 1+1=2
15. Geizo diecha hanie puo (1) kedapie puoca vatshashülie: 1x4=4
a. Nie siedze la Kenienuo thuo rei
U rhierhu di nie rüli medo,
Ba huya mu nie neisie-i di,
Vi pephu sie miavimia chüluo.
b. Leshü ha rei phrü tseikeliemia,
Re pra mo di puo ba nu ba rei,
Lietho kevi kezha peteko;
Puo ba nu ba puo nei kedatuo.
16. a. U nuolhou ha khrie kethoya ro,
Terhuopfü rei u rüli medo,
Zo batuo mu khe peziyaluo.
(i) Geizo hau nu supuo zoshü ga? 1
(ii) Ükezo-ue suomia tarhoshü ga? 1
(iii) Suomia bu u nuolhou khrie ro kimhielienu pu ga? 2
(iv) ‘Khe Peziyaluo’ puoca liro – 1
(a) kenourhe pezilie (b) u noucha
(c) puo ro vi thienyüsie (d) ngumvümia
Moro
b. Khrüthemvüko teigei rütso chü,
Kehukeli puo thuo puo cha nu,
Geija pejü nousuo sa keduo,
Kemo tuoi lhou u yuonuo chü.
(i) ‘Kehukeli’ puoca liro – (1)
(a) thepfhetheü chü (b) u rükhra chükecü
(c) kenei tei pevo (d) cü mu krie keba
(ii) Teigei khrüthemvüko kimhie baya üsi ga? (2)
(iii) Kimhielie ro themianuo donu mha keviko zie parlietuo ücü
ükezo-ue pu ga? (2)
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Noudo Dze
17. Kedipuo la Akhrie khadoumia kekra leshü phrülie mota üsi ga? 2
18. Puoe puo kelhou nu dophi kere kekra ze kese üsi…derei puoe hau la lhou
kekrüta monyü, puoe kesuou mho kuolieta üdi a ki pu.
(i) Supuo dophi kekra ze kese di kuolie üsi ga? 1
(ii) Puo la dophi keretho-u kiu ga? 1
(iii) Kikemhie di puoe kesuou mho kuolie üsi ga? 1
19. a. Akhrie mu Atseinuo unie kiya puorhi kimhiecü puo nunu chü
shiü thushülie.
Moro 5
b. Khrieo se sie Akhrie puo mho kethekhrü secü kimhiecü puo si üsi ga?
***************************
Noudo Dze
17. Kedipuo la Akhrie khadoumia kekra leshü phrülie mota üsi ga? 2
18. Puoe puo kelhou nu dophi kere kekra ze kese üsi…derei puoe hau la lhou
kekrüta monyü, puoe kesuou mho kuolieta üdi a ki pu.
(i) Supuo dophi kekra ze kese di kuolie üsi ga? 1
(ii) Puo la dophi keretho-u kiu ga? 1
(iii) Kikemhie di puoe kesuou mho kuolie üsi ga? 1
19. a. Akhrie mu Atseinuo unie kiya puorhi kimhiecü puo nunu chü
shiü thushülie.
Moro 5
b. Khrieo se sie Akhrie puo mho kethekhrü secü kimhiecü puo si üsi ga?
***************************
Page 43
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/SMI/1
2024
SUMI (SÜTSAH)
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPHA – A (Akiphi)
1. Hi aqhou yehpuakeu akivishi phino iniji akeu khochile lo:
1. Tsüipu ye apumi ashiaji kivimi lakhi khaulipu ghi ilimi Jukivi lakhi. Ikemu
pama ye aphu ayina kütüta. Tsüipu no khaulipu iniache ke apu-aza no pama
amekügha vetsü no tsüipu vilo akhau ghopüzu khaulipu akhau lo no xapu wolo
pive.
2. Tsüipu no angu-ani no pikeu toi akhau ghono khaulipu tile süno xapu
woche, pa ngu-ani no pavilo alalo akho qhikevi lo pi pua. Ikemu pa ye lixapusü
aphu tolu kepu shimove kehu alalo aqho qhiveno pamu kuni ke wove.
3. Tile no muchupili no khaulipu heqhive no li phinhemügha pepuveno ngoa.
Pamu pama hughi, pa mu no muchupili ithulu no tsuipu vilo nono hikithipu saa
kepu kena ipiveno pa khemono wove.
4. Muchupili no tsuipu vilo “ino oju niye kelono inhethi kije shive, ino opütsa
niye kelomo ikichi mütsüsüyive, ino iqa niye kelono ipukhu icheve” ipi. Tsuipu ye
kuchou kughashi li xapusü wono pama küghüna ache.
5. Khaulipu kumo lono akhaubo ipighi keu lono akuthu qhasawo lho akelono
akulholi lono “Muchupili nhapithi muchupili ghekucho” ipi kelo lino chilu veno
akimi vilopi kelo akulho peleve lo pive. Ayephibolo peleve keu lono mushuthi bo
ipeghino kutomo pithi.
6. Tsuipu no aghamiqo xotsü no ashekhau amushuti xope apüza lakhi tsü. Li
no akhaulo süpeqhive no alulo huve aye khaulipu ilhove no apüza kümla shivetsü
no itaghi akhau lo ilove che. Ghulo lakhi apüza no mighe ake laye akhau lono
ipeghi no akümla shithuve ke lono apüza no li kughaluve no pama xü achewuve.
2024
SUMI (SÜTSAH)
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
KOKÜPHA – A (Akiphi)
1. Hi aqhou yehpuakeu akivishi phino iniji akeu khochile lo:
1. Tsüipu ye apumi ashiaji kivimi lakhi khaulipu ghi ilimi Jukivi lakhi. Ikemu
pama ye aphu ayina kütüta. Tsüipu no khaulipu iniache ke apu-aza no pama
amekügha vetsü no tsüipu vilo akhau ghopüzu khaulipu akhau lo no xapu wolo
pive.
2. Tsüipu no angu-ani no pikeu toi akhau ghono khaulipu tile süno xapu
woche, pa ngu-ani no pavilo alalo akho qhikevi lo pi pua. Ikemu pa ye lixapusü
aphu tolu kepu shimove kehu alalo aqho qhiveno pamu kuni ke wove.
3. Tile no muchupili no khaulipu heqhive no li phinhemügha pepuveno ngoa.
Pamu pama hughi, pa mu no muchupili ithulu no tsuipu vilo nono hikithipu saa
kepu kena ipiveno pa khemono wove.
4. Muchupili no tsuipu vilo “ino oju niye kelono inhethi kije shive, ino opütsa
niye kelomo ikichi mütsüsüyive, ino iqa niye kelono ipukhu icheve” ipi. Tsuipu ye
kuchou kughashi li xapusü wono pama küghüna ache.
5. Khaulipu kumo lono akhaubo ipighi keu lono akuthu qhasawo lho akelono
akulholi lono “Muchupili nhapithi muchupili ghekucho” ipi kelo lino chilu veno
akimi vilopi kelo akulho peleve lo pive. Ayephibolo peleve keu lono mushuthi bo
ipeghino kutomo pithi.
6. Tsuipu no aghamiqo xotsü no ashekhau amushuti xope apüza lakhi tsü. Li
no akhaulo süpeqhive no alulo huve aye khaulipu ilhove no apüza kümla shivetsü
no itaghi akhau lo ilove che. Ghulo lakhi apüza no mighe ake laye akhau lono
ipeghi no akümla shithuve ke lono apüza no li kughaluve no pama xü achewuve.
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(a) Tsuipu ye apumi kiutoi kemi kea? 1
(i) ashiaji kivimi apumi (ii) ashi aji lhoküsa apumi
(iii) küpükami apumi lakhi (iv) anhe-au vimo kemi apumi
(b) Khaulipu ghi kiu toi kemi ilimi kea? 1
(i) anhe-au vimo kemi ilimi (ii) aju lhoküsa illimi lakhi
(iii) ilimi jukivi lakhi (iv) topumi toi vekenu ilimi
(c) Amekügha ve kethiu angu-ani no kuu lono li xapu wolo pi kea? 1
(i) amuto ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(ii) akhau ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(iii) akho ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(iv) ashoghi ghono tileno xapu wolopi
(d) Khuu no Khaulipu heqhiveno li a lo ngove kea? 1
(i) Nishela no Khaulipu heqhiveno lia lo ngove
(ii) Khakhuli no li a lo ngove
(iii) Muchupili noli heqhiveno lia lo ngove
(iv) akhushi no li heqhiveno li a lo ngove
(e) A-a kümsa lo shepichi tsülo tsuipu no ________ kuniye aphulo wove. 1
(f) Akivishi phiju no akütsü lo tsa (tille) yelo. 1
(i) Khakhu no ghili
(ii) Tsuipu eno Khaulipu
(iii) Amuto lono xapu keu ghili
(iv) amu kuwu keu ghili
(g) Hipaqo ye kuu kea? 1+1=2
(i) Mushuthi
(ii) Akuthu
(h) Atsamuqo 4 lo akeu lo khu no ino juniye ke lono inhethi kije shive Ino
opütsa niye ke lono ikichi mütsüsüi ve pikeno hipau khudo akivishi yelo. 2
KOKÜPHA – B (Akiye)
2. Hiküma dolo lakhi atsathi 150-200 lono yelo:
a. Oje Ikavi/Ikali shino NOW Principal lau kiphimi ghenguno apujoki
(washroom) akivishi qhitsü peni keu lau yeh (application) lono yelo.
Momu 6
b. Atsapi kiye (speech writing) lono now school inakhe hoho (Assembly)
lo ‘Kiphimi lakhi ye kishi ado peitha thi’ masa keno yelo.
(a) Tsuipu ye apumi kiutoi kemi kea? 1
(i) ashiaji kivimi apumi (ii) ashi aji lhoküsa apumi
(iii) küpükami apumi lakhi (iv) anhe-au vimo kemi apumi
(b) Khaulipu ghi kiu toi kemi ilimi kea? 1
(i) anhe-au vimo kemi ilimi (ii) aju lhoküsa illimi lakhi
(iii) ilimi jukivi lakhi (iv) topumi toi vekenu ilimi
(c) Amekügha ve kethiu angu-ani no kuu lono li xapu wolo pi kea? 1
(i) amuto ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(ii) akhau ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(iii) akho ghono tileno xapu wolo pi
(iv) ashoghi ghono tileno xapu wolopi
(d) Khuu no Khaulipu heqhiveno li a lo ngove kea? 1
(i) Nishela no Khaulipu heqhiveno lia lo ngove
(ii) Khakhuli no li a lo ngove
(iii) Muchupili noli heqhiveno lia lo ngove
(iv) akhushi no li heqhiveno li a lo ngove
(e) A-a kümsa lo shepichi tsülo tsuipu no ________ kuniye aphulo wove. 1
(f) Akivishi phiju no akütsü lo tsa (tille) yelo. 1
(i) Khakhu no ghili
(ii) Tsuipu eno Khaulipu
(iii) Amuto lono xapu keu ghili
(iv) amu kuwu keu ghili
(g) Hipaqo ye kuu kea? 1+1=2
(i) Mushuthi
(ii) Akuthu
(h) Atsamuqo 4 lo akeu lo khu no ino juniye ke lono inhethi kije shive Ino
opütsa niye ke lono ikichi mütsüsüi ve pikeno hipau khudo akivishi yelo. 2
KOKÜPHA – B (Akiye)
2. Hiküma dolo lakhi atsathi 150-200 lono yelo:
a. Oje Ikavi/Ikali shino NOW Principal lau kiphimi ghenguno apujoki
(washroom) akivishi qhitsü peni keu lau yeh (application) lono yelo.
Momu 6
b. Atsapi kiye (speech writing) lono now school inakhe hoho (Assembly)
lo ‘Kiphimi lakhi ye kishi ado peitha thi’ masa keno yelo.
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3. Atsah thi 50 dolono yeh lo:
a. Yekhülha (advertisement) Nono bus lono izüche ke lono süqu (bag) lakhi
ithulu. Khuu no puhave keno ithi peni ke süqu (bag) ye aju kuu toi kuu
tinhemgha aghi keno kishekulu shi yekülha lo.
Momu 4
b. Pithitsa (notice) lono noye Hoto/Holi shino now class miqo no ‘Teachers
Day’ lo akighilhe (choreography) shiniye akeulo kümtsü ighi penike
pithitsa lono yehlo.
KOKÜPHA – C (Tsayeh eno Pekide)
4. Atsajo kümsa lo thizüngo achipiu pe shipichi tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Pa ye Kohima ________ ighi.
b. Anga no aza _______ iqave.
c. Aküxü _________ kiumu tsümla.
d. Kuu no mu aküxü _______ tsükulu pu kuha.
5. Hipaqo ye kiu tsahjoh kikije keno alaxa tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Kumlhomi ye kimiye kepu.
b. No ye khilehi acheni kea?
c. Akiphi phivelo.
d. O pelo axüshu peni.
6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yehlo: 4x1=4
a. Aji küküpütsa
b. Amüghüsü
c. Tunhaqu küküla
d. Amsü küküzü toi
7. Sumi tsahlo pekide suvelo: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
KOKÜPHA – D (Tsaiko)
Kughakiche
8. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 4x1=4
a. Amüghüsü ghili khuu no piche kea?
(i) Milhomi (ii) Swu pishena
(iii) Apu-asü (iv) Khaghilomiqo
b. Khuu ghenguno khakhu ngo Sheyili pama ixave kea?
(i) Apüza ghenguno (ii) Asami ghenguno
(iii) Azakishe ghenguno (iv) Khakhu ghenguno
3. Atsah thi 50 dolono yeh lo:
a. Yekhülha (advertisement) Nono bus lono izüche ke lono süqu (bag) lakhi
ithulu. Khuu no puhave keno ithi peni ke süqu (bag) ye aju kuu toi kuu
tinhemgha aghi keno kishekulu shi yekülha lo.
Momu 4
b. Pithitsa (notice) lono noye Hoto/Holi shino now class miqo no ‘Teachers
Day’ lo akighilhe (choreography) shiniye akeulo kümtsü ighi penike
pithitsa lono yehlo.
KOKÜPHA – C (Tsayeh eno Pekide)
4. Atsajo kümsa lo thizüngo achipiu pe shipichi tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Pa ye Kohima ________ ighi.
b. Anga no aza _______ iqave.
c. Aküxü _________ kiumu tsümla.
d. Kuu no mu aküxü _______ tsükulu pu kuha.
5. Hipaqo ye kiu tsahjoh kikije keno alaxa tsülo: 4x1=4
a. Kumlhomi ye kimiye kepu.
b. No ye khilehi acheni kea?
c. Akiphi phivelo.
d. O pelo axüshu peni.
6. Sülekutho hipaqo kiqi yehlo: 4x1=4
a. Aji küküpütsa
b. Amüghüsü
c. Tunhaqu küküla
d. Amsü küküzü toi
7. Sumi tsahlo pekide suvelo: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
KOKÜPHA – D (Tsaiko)
Kughakiche
8. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 4x1=4
a. Amüghüsü ghili khuu no piche kea?
(i) Milhomi (ii) Swu pishena
(iii) Apu-asü (iv) Khaghilomiqo
b. Khuu ghenguno khakhu ngo Sheyili pama ixave kea?
(i) Apüza ghenguno (ii) Asami ghenguno
(iii) Azakishe ghenguno (iv) Khakhu ghenguno
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c. Nagami ye inahuu ye khilau no ighi kea?
(i) China (ii) Malasia
(iii) Indonesia (iv) Chiangmai
d. Anisüu kümlapu ye kiu kea?
(i) Timi dolo ixa vekemi
(ii) Kukhoixa vepe chekeni
(iii) Tüsütixe tsa lo tchossüche kemi
(iv) Timi dolo atsa küghache kemi
9. Sümi chineh akhoto khijehi ache kea? 2
10. Sülemi ye kiu tinhemügha ame lo pime pea pu-aza tsü chekea? 2
11. “Pinyeh mishi ye ghulo küthü azü mu piyemo no kükhüpe qhipau puzü azüta
pesüakive ghileve tsü no amishi xü apülaghi timi pelo kighinoli kishi luve
chepe.” Ow vethakulu eno ochipi u ye kiu toi keno atsathi 40-50 dolono achipi
keo no keno yelo. 3
12. a. Nagami puasü khunoqo no Nagami sasü phuthe ighi kea? 4
Momu
b. Külakupu ngo külaliu pamaye külawo kiu toi keu kilo ngo che kea?
Pama ye shini ke ghenguno pükapütsa che kea? (2+2=4)
13. a. Kughengu okujo ye Ikümsümave püzü akiniküa kimiyeve nani. Eno Tileno
no amheqive nani “Ivilo iniju mono kiumu shikevilo” Ike aphu tile
sümesüza, tuqutime kije ighi eno pama kighi pitive. Amüghüsü no pikeu
kümsümave.
(i) Khuu pama ye khuu kümsümave kea? 1
(ii) Pama akimi –anipu ye kuu kimiye wuve kea? 1
(iii) Khuuno kiphi la ani kea? 1
(iv) Pama ye pa no pikeu shimove ke lono kuu sholuve kea? 1
(v) Aphu tile kuu ighi ve kea? 1
(a) Azü kuqo kije (b) Amüghazü no chive
(c) Sümesüza tuqutime (d) Pasaphagha kije ighi
Momu
b. “ Nono athe shini aghümi pelono ningu yive peniye anikeke nou yive nia”
ipiuve.
(i) Atsah mqo hiye khuno xülhe lono iniju ani kea? (1)
(ii) Khunno qo no khuu vilo piani kea? (1)
(iii) Kiu ghenguno nou yive nia ipi ani kea? (1)
(iv) ‘Nono athe shino’ ipi akeu kiqi ye kiu kea? (1)
(v) Panonguno ye kiu shi ighi kea? (1)
c. Nagami ye inahuu ye khilau no ighi kea?
(i) China (ii) Malasia
(iii) Indonesia (iv) Chiangmai
d. Anisüu kümlapu ye kiu kea?
(i) Timi dolo ixa vekemi
(ii) Kukhoixa vepe chekeni
(iii) Tüsütixe tsa lo tchossüche kemi
(iv) Timi dolo atsa küghache kemi
9. Sümi chineh akhoto khijehi ache kea? 2
10. Sülemi ye kiu tinhemügha ame lo pime pea pu-aza tsü chekea? 2
11. “Pinyeh mishi ye ghulo küthü azü mu piyemo no kükhüpe qhipau puzü azüta
pesüakive ghileve tsü no amishi xü apülaghi timi pelo kighinoli kishi luve
chepe.” Ow vethakulu eno ochipi u ye kiu toi keno atsathi 40-50 dolono achipi
keo no keno yelo. 3
12. a. Nagami puasü khunoqo no Nagami sasü phuthe ighi kea? 4
Momu
b. Külakupu ngo külaliu pamaye külawo kiu toi keu kilo ngo che kea?
Pama ye shini ke ghenguno pükapütsa che kea? (2+2=4)
13. a. Kughengu okujo ye Ikümsümave püzü akiniküa kimiyeve nani. Eno Tileno
no amheqive nani “Ivilo iniju mono kiumu shikevilo” Ike aphu tile
sümesüza, tuqutime kije ighi eno pama kighi pitive. Amüghüsü no pikeu
kümsümave.
(i) Khuu pama ye khuu kümsümave kea? 1
(ii) Pama akimi –anipu ye kuu kimiye wuve kea? 1
(iii) Khuuno kiphi la ani kea? 1
(iv) Pama ye pa no pikeu shimove ke lono kuu sholuve kea? 1
(v) Aphu tile kuu ighi ve kea? 1
(a) Azü kuqo kije (b) Amüghazü no chive
(c) Sümesüza tuqutime (d) Pasaphagha kije ighi
Momu
b. “ Nono athe shini aghümi pelono ningu yive peniye anikeke nou yive nia”
ipiuve.
(i) Atsah mqo hiye khuno xülhe lono iniju ani kea? (1)
(ii) Khunno qo no khuu vilo piani kea? (1)
(iii) Kiu ghenguno nou yive nia ipi ani kea? (1)
(iv) ‘Nono athe shino’ ipi akeu kiqi ye kiu kea? (1)
(v) Panonguno ye kiu shi ighi kea? (1)
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Leshe
14. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 2x1=2
a. Visheli ye khuu qe achekea?
(i) Apu (ii) Angu
(iii) Ani (iv) Azakishe
b. Ammu püxü nike ala kijehi lono ammu shipivi ju kea?
(i) Ala toku (ii) Ala chighi
(iii) Ala tache (iv) Ala tsuni
15. “Otimi küsakusho thotssü vesülu aye itsüli hi hakuwuna kighi ghalo aye…”
Lesheu ye kushiye pi ani kea? 2
16. Qethapu no khila wuve kelono panipu anuliqo kishive aghi kea? 2
17. Mütsümishei keu lono atsathi 60-90 dolono kuu pi anikeno akivishi
khochile ajo, ajo kiqi lono lakhi yelo: 1x4=4
a. Oh! Inolono vemu yeno,
Gulo küthü kiphi qholo züye,
Oh! Hoishe thoghi tsalah kitheu ye,
Anhewuno ghü ishe wo
Pekishe wu ala.
b. O ishe! Ninu pe timi ki khala lo,
küghüsümo shelo, Lojilimi aji kupuwumi huno,
Ishe he!Nonu hu gahu cheni aye, pilu kighilo.
Apuh aza kisheni no salu ani aye
Pinaimu khileu no ana chulo.
18. a. Ishe! Ni mighimi, no qe ani,
Iphi ghoh, imini ghohtsü ye,
O, hoishe! Achi akiviu no,
Ikhünno tsüye.
Ikhü no mishi pime, Ino avi pime,
Iza Ghohali Inoavi lache,
Shi opiyeni ye iphesülo, Ithiu chelo.
(i) Ishe! Ni mighimi no qe ani khuu no leshe lono kea? 1
(ii) Iphi ghoh, imini ghohtsü yi hiye kushiye pi kea? 1
(iii) Kuu pi ani ke Ikhüno mishi pime Ino avi pime. 1
(iv) Iza Ghohali kuu pi ani kea? 1
(v) Khuu jeno Ikhu kea? 1
Leshe
14. Achipiu khokichile kishe phetsü lo: 2x1=2
a. Visheli ye khuu qe achekea?
(i) Apu (ii) Angu
(iii) Ani (iv) Azakishe
b. Ammu püxü nike ala kijehi lono ammu shipivi ju kea?
(i) Ala toku (ii) Ala chighi
(iii) Ala tache (iv) Ala tsuni
15. “Otimi küsakusho thotssü vesülu aye itsüli hi hakuwuna kighi ghalo aye…”
Lesheu ye kushiye pi ani kea? 2
16. Qethapu no khila wuve kelono panipu anuliqo kishive aghi kea? 2
17. Mütsümishei keu lono atsathi 60-90 dolono kuu pi anikeno akivishi
khochile ajo, ajo kiqi lono lakhi yelo: 1x4=4
a. Oh! Inolono vemu yeno,
Gulo küthü kiphi qholo züye,
Oh! Hoishe thoghi tsalah kitheu ye,
Anhewuno ghü ishe wo
Pekishe wu ala.
b. O ishe! Ninu pe timi ki khala lo,
küghüsümo shelo, Lojilimi aji kupuwumi huno,
Ishe he!Nonu hu gahu cheni aye, pilu kighilo.
Apuh aza kisheni no salu ani aye
Pinaimu khileu no ana chulo.
18. a. Ishe! Ni mighimi, no qe ani,
Iphi ghoh, imini ghohtsü ye,
O, hoishe! Achi akiviu no,
Ikhünno tsüye.
Ikhü no mishi pime, Ino avi pime,
Iza Ghohali Inoavi lache,
Shi opiyeni ye iphesülo, Ithiu chelo.
(i) Ishe! Ni mighimi no qe ani khuu no leshe lono kea? 1
(ii) Iphi ghoh, imini ghohtsü yi hiye kushiye pi kea? 1
(iii) Kuu pi ani ke Ikhüno mishi pime Ino avi pime. 1
(iv) Iza Ghohali kuu pi ani kea? 1
(v) Khuu jeno Ikhu kea? 1
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Momu
b. Ni ghi ni zükighimi no ayewo,
Aki lakhi lo kipeshi,
Asah kiphe vabo kini,
Aghacho mhi shopu kümtsalu
Ighuno lo aqheshi ye,
Timi no nitomo.
(i) Hiye khuu no leshe lo ani kea? (1)
(ii) Nighi ni zükighimi no ayewo kuu pi ani kea? (1)
(iii) Aki lakhi lo kipeshi kuu pi ani kea? (1)
(iv) Aghachomi shopu kümtsalu kulo shopu chekea? (1)
(v) Kuu shi ke lo timino panotomo kea? (1)
Lotsüh Kiyye
19. Asamo lono timi lakhi no pamuqalo akho kimishi pucheghi ikeu ye khuu kea?
Khuu no pa ithulu kea? 1+1=2
20. Pa müqa lo akhokimishi xapu kiu pa u lo peche kea? Pa ye akibo lomi qhiveno
wuche kelo alokivishi chekeo, amlo ghime shi che kea? 1+2=3
21. a. Tsavipeu no pasasü kusholu no ‘Noye khilawu che kea? Pi iniju’
Pa no khochile akijeu inlo kaku hipau philuke, lono ni ye thive
nani, atsakükügha sholu nani ipi philuke niye thive nishimo ke launo
imlo ime pacheni, tsavipeu no pi “Aküxü hipau ye shilu kusano chitoi
ani keghi no ye kushiye thivenishi mokea? Khristou no tsavipeu vilo
ni ye imqa lo akhokimishi no iqaqhi pesü alho mizü lo iloveni cheni.
(i) Tsavipeu ye khuu sasü kusholu kea? 1
(ii) Akijeu iulo kaku hipau philu ke lono niye thive nani pike…
khuuno khuu vilo pikea? 1
(iii) Aküxü hipau ye shilu küsano chitoi ani keghi noye kushiye
thini shimo kea? Khuu no khuu vilo pi kea? 1
(iv) Khuno pa qaqhi no kuu lo ilove ni chenipi khuu vilo pi kea? 2
Momu
b. Naghuto kiqhe shi aghi pimu ighonike puloluva, shilo amlo kumto shino
müsa momo ighoni. Ikemu mlaleyi keu laye ashekha loye amulo ghime
eno ahküsa shive nani.
(i) Hiye khuuno kiu shike lono phe kea? (1)
(ii) Naghuto kiqhi ipi akeu kiqi ye kiu kea? (2)
(iii) Mlaleyi keu laghi ye ku shive nani, kusho kütsü laghi no ku
shive nani kea? (1+1=2)
***************************
Momu
b. Ni ghi ni zükighimi no ayewo,
Aki lakhi lo kipeshi,
Asah kiphe vabo kini,
Aghacho mhi shopu kümtsalu
Ighuno lo aqheshi ye,
Timi no nitomo.
(i) Hiye khuu no leshe lo ani kea? (1)
(ii) Nighi ni zükighimi no ayewo kuu pi ani kea? (1)
(iii) Aki lakhi lo kipeshi kuu pi ani kea? (1)
(iv) Aghachomi shopu kümtsalu kulo shopu chekea? (1)
(v) Kuu shi ke lo timino panotomo kea? (1)
Lotsüh Kiyye
19. Asamo lono timi lakhi no pamuqalo akho kimishi pucheghi ikeu ye khuu kea?
Khuu no pa ithulu kea? 1+1=2
20. Pa müqa lo akhokimishi xapu kiu pa u lo peche kea? Pa ye akibo lomi qhiveno
wuche kelo alokivishi chekeo, amlo ghime shi che kea? 1+2=3
21. a. Tsavipeu no pasasü kusholu no ‘Noye khilawu che kea? Pi iniju’
Pa no khochile akijeu inlo kaku hipau philuke, lono ni ye thive
nani, atsakükügha sholu nani ipi philuke niye thive nishimo ke launo
imlo ime pacheni, tsavipeu no pi “Aküxü hipau ye shilu kusano chitoi
ani keghi no ye kushiye thivenishi mokea? Khristou no tsavipeu vilo
ni ye imqa lo akhokimishi no iqaqhi pesü alho mizü lo iloveni cheni.
(i) Tsavipeu ye khuu sasü kusholu kea? 1
(ii) Akijeu iulo kaku hipau philu ke lono niye thive nani pike…
khuuno khuu vilo pikea? 1
(iii) Aküxü hipau ye shilu küsano chitoi ani keghi noye kushiye
thini shimo kea? Khuu no khuu vilo pi kea? 1
(iv) Khuno pa qaqhi no kuu lo ilove ni chenipi khuu vilo pi kea? 2
Momu
b. Naghuto kiqhe shi aghi pimu ighonike puloluva, shilo amlo kumto shino
müsa momo ighoni. Ikemu mlaleyi keu laye ashekha loye amulo ghime
eno ahküsa shive nani.
(i) Hiye khuuno kiu shike lono phe kea? (1)
(ii) Naghuto kiqhi ipi akeu kiqi ye kiu kea? (2)
(iii) Mlaleyi keu laghi ye ku shive nani, kusho kütsü laghi no ku
shive nani kea? (1+1=2)
***************************
Page 49
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/A/1
2024
AO
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SHILEM – A (Züngang aser langzüang)
1. Agüja aliba olemji junga züngang asu tasüng dangba temji langzüang:
Italy anasa asetkong ka tenüng agi Corsica iba tesem nung 1769, August 15
nung Napoleon aso. Corsica nungeri nüchiso bushiba tensa ka, linük nung
anisüngzük aser yimjung agi kanga anünga liasü, pa tanabuba jabaso liasü. Corsica
nungeri jabaso aser jala aika asoba kibongji yimkongi nükshia reprang. Napoleon
tetsüi jabaso pungu jala asem aso. Italy naruküm pa nem Bonaparte ta jatsü France
chuba Louisi Napoleon tedi aser tenu tetsür ka, par asem anir oa teyari agüja
France lima tamarener azüngdak school ka nung züngdaktsü. Iba school nung
aiben Napoleon mezüngmeshia sensamasa amshia aser timtem aika ajuru. History,
Geography aser ongko tali sapua azüng. Tebui France nunger den tangatetep aser
yimjung yangluba atema pa kanga jashia ain adoka liasü, kechiyong pai kenübo sa
Corsica asoshi nüchiso bener arutsü tebilemba tulu liasü. Anungji pai history tali
bushi.
1784 Military Academy renem, 1785 nung pa sub-lieutenant angu aser
meilungi 1793 nung captain aküm. 1794 nung Brigadier General aküm 1796
March 2 nung Italy ajunga nung sepia ajak madak Commander aküm. Pa lenisüba
kübok Italy nung tongpang tulu ka rara liasü. Rara mapang aonung pai khonta ana
dang mejang aser Tongpang koda raratsü pai ongko inyak. Kenü pai ongko ka
madoki khonta 24 inyak ta otsü jagi ashir. Tongpang tesashi aser lendong mapang
asünung pai mitsa anüker semtui ayaterem nung semtang. Saka mitsa anüker
nangnanga mejanga aliba ngua pai pa prangpong bena arua mesangwa tashi aser
sepaisang mesak tashi mitkar mapaji pai bena ata, kodang sepaji sak pai keja
mashi prangpongji amloka toktsür pa office-i ao. Yamaji tetsübo agi par sepaitemi
kodanga pei mapa nung tamakok maludaktsüi nendaka ajaki inyakta ashir. Pa
mapang teimba ka rara dak endok. 1798 küm Egypt amak, pa meyipa maruteti
Egypt nung ita 18 amung. Kechiyongi England nungeri tzüyim lenmang ajonga
2024
AO
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 19 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
SHILEM – A (Züngang aser langzüang)
1. Agüja aliba olemji junga züngang asu tasüng dangba temji langzüang:
Italy anasa asetkong ka tenüng agi Corsica iba tesem nung 1769, August 15
nung Napoleon aso. Corsica nungeri nüchiso bushiba tensa ka, linük nung
anisüngzük aser yimjung agi kanga anünga liasü, pa tanabuba jabaso liasü. Corsica
nungeri jabaso aser jala aika asoba kibongji yimkongi nükshia reprang. Napoleon
tetsüi jabaso pungu jala asem aso. Italy naruküm pa nem Bonaparte ta jatsü France
chuba Louisi Napoleon tedi aser tenu tetsür ka, par asem anir oa teyari agüja
France lima tamarener azüngdak school ka nung züngdaktsü. Iba school nung
aiben Napoleon mezüngmeshia sensamasa amshia aser timtem aika ajuru. History,
Geography aser ongko tali sapua azüng. Tebui France nunger den tangatetep aser
yimjung yangluba atema pa kanga jashia ain adoka liasü, kechiyong pai kenübo sa
Corsica asoshi nüchiso bener arutsü tebilemba tulu liasü. Anungji pai history tali
bushi.
1784 Military Academy renem, 1785 nung pa sub-lieutenant angu aser
meilungi 1793 nung captain aküm. 1794 nung Brigadier General aküm 1796
March 2 nung Italy ajunga nung sepia ajak madak Commander aküm. Pa lenisüba
kübok Italy nung tongpang tulu ka rara liasü. Rara mapang aonung pai khonta ana
dang mejang aser Tongpang koda raratsü pai ongko inyak. Kenü pai ongko ka
madoki khonta 24 inyak ta otsü jagi ashir. Tongpang tesashi aser lendong mapang
asünung pai mitsa anüker semtui ayaterem nung semtang. Saka mitsa anüker
nangnanga mejanga aliba ngua pai pa prangpong bena arua mesangwa tashi aser
sepaisang mesak tashi mitkar mapaji pai bena ata, kodang sepaji sak pai keja
mashi prangpongji amloka toktsür pa office-i ao. Yamaji tetsübo agi par sepaitemi
kodanga pei mapa nung tamakok maludaktsüi nendaka ajaki inyakta ashir. Pa
mapang teimba ka rara dak endok. 1798 küm Egypt amak, pa meyipa maruteti
Egypt nung ita 18 amung. Kechiyongi England nungeri tzüyim lenmang ajonga
Page 50
-2- NB/XI/A/1
nokdanger liasü. Pai India ajanga arutsü aiben sentong atong, lisem lima tulu
ajanga jajadang pai Suez Canal atutsü tasa asadang aser aji nüngdak ta ajitet.
Küm tenem shi lir Lessep-i Suez Canal pai asateta yutsüba nung amendaker
yanglu. Mapang tajung ka lemteta English Channel tzüküm nung sepai jenti anir
oa England amaktsü penzü aser tasa asa idangiter jenti England-i yoka kenü
English nunger asangur janu ka sepaitemi apu, saka tzüyim nung süngti tulu
punger aoba manung asangur ya jena oya lia tanaben pur arua tamarener Napoleon
dangi anir aru. Napoleoni asangur dang. ‘Tebo kechiba tamaji mulung ulua kotaser
iba süngtem nung England Channel atena otettsü’. Asanger jagi langzü, “Tulur ni
kebu mali ketsü dang lir, aser ni ita nung Fence pezü ni ahhba agi ketsü mesür, ni
melira ketsü süatoktsü, anungji ni ketsü dangi aotsü, asüyonga ni ketsü atema
asütsü ni metsübur ta langzü. Napoleoni tetsü belimtet iba tasütiat asangur ka
asoshi sü ka nung taripi sen aika temtsür tetsü dang salem shiok aser Rong ka
nung anir oa England tzüküm tongtsü.
Tasüngdangbatem: 4x1=4
(a) Napoleon koba küm, Italy ajunga nung sepai ajak madak commander
aküm?
(i) 1785 (ii) 1793
(iii) 1784 (iv) 1796
(b) Napoleon kechi nung azüngdang mepelai liasü?
(i) France (ii) England
(iii) Corsica (iv) Italy
(c) Napoleon ya jabaso kwi buba liasü?
(i) Asembuba (ii) Anabuba
(iii) Pezübuba (iv) Pungububa
(d) 1798 küm Egypt maker külen Napoleon marutet ita kwi amung.
(i) 10 (ii) 14
(iii) 15 (iv) 18
(e) Napoleon-i kaket kobatem sa sapua azüng. 1
(f) Kechiba Napoleon-i pa tebu dang kanga jashia ain adoka liasü. 1
(g) Pai England amaktsü asoshi kechi sa inyak. 2
(h) English nunger asangur janü ka pur külen kechisa asüngdang aser tatem
nung Napoleon-i kechi inyak. 2
nokdanger liasü. Pai India ajanga arutsü aiben sentong atong, lisem lima tulu
ajanga jajadang pai Suez Canal atutsü tasa asadang aser aji nüngdak ta ajitet.
Küm tenem shi lir Lessep-i Suez Canal pai asateta yutsüba nung amendaker
yanglu. Mapang tajung ka lemteta English Channel tzüküm nung sepai jenti anir
oa England amaktsü penzü aser tasa asa idangiter jenti England-i yoka kenü
English nunger asangur janu ka sepaitemi apu, saka tzüyim nung süngti tulu
punger aoba manung asangur ya jena oya lia tanaben pur arua tamarener Napoleon
dangi anir aru. Napoleoni asangur dang. ‘Tebo kechiba tamaji mulung ulua kotaser
iba süngtem nung England Channel atena otettsü’. Asanger jagi langzü, “Tulur ni
kebu mali ketsü dang lir, aser ni ita nung Fence pezü ni ahhba agi ketsü mesür, ni
melira ketsü süatoktsü, anungji ni ketsü dangi aotsü, asüyonga ni ketsü atema
asütsü ni metsübur ta langzü. Napoleoni tetsü belimtet iba tasütiat asangur ka
asoshi sü ka nung taripi sen aika temtsür tetsü dang salem shiok aser Rong ka
nung anir oa England tzüküm tongtsü.
Tasüngdangbatem: 4x1=4
(a) Napoleon koba küm, Italy ajunga nung sepai ajak madak commander
aküm?
(i) 1785 (ii) 1793
(iii) 1784 (iv) 1796
(b) Napoleon kechi nung azüngdang mepelai liasü?
(i) France (ii) England
(iii) Corsica (iv) Italy
(c) Napoleon ya jabaso kwi buba liasü?
(i) Asembuba (ii) Anabuba
(iii) Pezübuba (iv) Pungububa
(d) 1798 küm Egypt maker külen Napoleon marutet ita kwi amung.
(i) 10 (ii) 14
(iii) 15 (iv) 18
(e) Napoleon-i kaket kobatem sa sapua azüng. 1
(f) Kechiba Napoleon-i pa tebu dang kanga jashia ain adoka liasü. 1
(g) Pai England amaktsü asoshi kechi sa inyak. 2
(h) English nunger asangur janü ka pur külen kechisa asüngdang aser tatem
nung Napoleon-i kechi inyak. 2
Page 51
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SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 150-200 tashi nung langzüang:
a. Na Odi Longchar. Ner school Principal dangi, school nung kaket nang
(library) nung kaket tasen kar enokdaktsütsü asoshi temepeshiba shiti ka
züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. Ner school tekülem nung jembitsü onük agüja aliba nung ajemdaker
züluang.
“Opong amshiba tajangzük aser takoksa”
3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 50 shi nung langzüang:
a. Nebu meyong kari anishitsü nisung ka nüngdaker. Iba indang temetettsü
shia aser tongteprateptsü number agüja sangdong ka züluang.
Mesüra 4
b. Na school nung Tir (President) lir aser ner school summer crusade alitsü
atema tanur dang metetdakjang.
SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang: 8x1=8
a. Leplashi teratet shiang.
b. Yange ajak agi tapu kwi lir?
c. Yange ka amshia oren ka yangluang.
d. Rarem leplashi agi oren ka yangluang.
e. Ochi jembitsü nai tsübur (Ramok leni meyipang)
f. Süra, sürra. (Item ojang amshia oren kaka tetezü balala yangluang)
g. Ü agi tenzükba ojang ka agi oren yanglua sayuang.
h. ‘Yamaji’ iba ojang yagi yange amshia oren ka sayuang.
i. Itemi apakijem tetezü agüjang: 4x1=4
(i) Tsünü O angar
(ii) Mesü tongpang jakrep
(iii) Tashikang maket
(iv) Aputsü kuya tsü
5. Itemi Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
SHILEM – B (Olem)
2. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 150-200 tashi nung langzüang:
a. Na Odi Longchar. Ner school Principal dangi, school nung kaket nang
(library) nung kaket tasen kar enokdaktsütsü asoshi temepeshiba shiti ka
züluang.
Mesüra 6
b. Ner school tekülem nung jembitsü onük agüja aliba nung ajemdaker
züluang.
“Opong amshiba tajangzük aser takoksa”
3. Ana rongnung ka shimteta ojang 50 shi nung langzüang:
a. Nebu meyong kari anishitsü nisung ka nüngdaker. Iba indang temetettsü
shia aser tongteprateptsü number agüja sangdong ka züluang.
Mesüra 4
b. Na school nung Tir (President) lir aser ner school summer crusade alitsü
atema tanur dang metetdakjang.
SHILEM – C (Orrlem)
4. Itemi langzüang: 8x1=8
a. Leplashi teratet shiang.
b. Yange ajak agi tapu kwi lir?
c. Yange ka amshia oren ka yangluang.
d. Rarem leplashi agi oren ka yangluang.
e. Ochi jembitsü nai tsübur (Ramok leni meyipang)
f. Süra, sürra. (Item ojang amshia oren kaka tetezü balala yangluang)
g. Ü agi tenzükba ojang ka agi oren yanglua sayuang.
h. ‘Yamaji’ iba ojang yagi yange amshia oren ka sayuang.
i. Itemi apakijem tetezü agüjang: 4x1=4
(i) Tsünü O angar
(ii) Mesü tongpang jakrep
(iii) Tashikang maket
(iv) Aputsü kuya tsü
5. Itemi Ao oshi nung meyipang: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
Page 52
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SHILEM – D (Kaket keno zülu)
Otsü
6. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba agüjang: 4x1=4
a. Longkhum yimtak Imchen kidong nungi jakzükba semchir kwi?
(i) pungu (ii) tenet
(iii) ti (iv) trok
b. Asüngteta aser merükteta litetba taküm kaji ajak rongnung ______ lir?
(i) tajungtiba (ii) tamajungtiba
(iii) tematiba (iv) anempong
c. Nükla aser sendong ya ________ lir.
(i) balala (ii) sentaktepa
(iii) kasa (iv) tarensen
d. Tarutsü limaji shir meyong lir?
(i) tanur (ii) tain
(iii) lanur (iv) tambur
7. Longkhüm sariwartemi kechiba azüji tsübu? 2
8. Tanü putu nung lanur kati ashitsüba tongtibang mapa pezü (4) züluang. 2
9. Nükla tetezü kechi? Kaketshir lanur kati kechiba nükjidong tajung ayutsüla?1+2=3
10. a. Yimeri ya angashi nungbo oda ni tasü mait amai bilemtsü.
(i) Item O ya shibai shiba dang ashiba? 2
(ii) Kechiba tasümaitsü sa akümba otsü jagi ashir, rasaa züluang. 2
Mesüra
b. HIV tashitak aket asü maket aji metettsü atema azü tuzüka reprang nung
dang tejanga metettsü.
(i) HIV ya kechi dang ajar? (2)
(ii) HIV nungi koda kümzüka litettsü? (2)
11. a. Senso tetezü kechi? Senso ka teinyaktsü mapatong trok züluang.
Mesüra 5
b. Molok atakdang nükmen aibelenra kechi ataloker? Nükmen aibelenba
takoksa asem shiang.
SHILEM – D (Kaket keno zülu)
Otsü
6. Agüja aliba nungi shitak telangzüba agüjang: 4x1=4
a. Longkhum yimtak Imchen kidong nungi jakzükba semchir kwi?
(i) pungu (ii) tenet
(iii) ti (iv) trok
b. Asüngteta aser merükteta litetba taküm kaji ajak rongnung ______ lir?
(i) tajungtiba (ii) tamajungtiba
(iii) tematiba (iv) anempong
c. Nükla aser sendong ya ________ lir.
(i) balala (ii) sentaktepa
(iii) kasa (iv) tarensen
d. Tarutsü limaji shir meyong lir?
(i) tanur (ii) tain
(iii) lanur (iv) tambur
7. Longkhüm sariwartemi kechiba azüji tsübu? 2
8. Tanü putu nung lanur kati ashitsüba tongtibang mapa pezü (4) züluang. 2
9. Nükla tetezü kechi? Kaketshir lanur kati kechiba nükjidong tajung ayutsüla?1+2=3
10. a. Yimeri ya angashi nungbo oda ni tasü mait amai bilemtsü.
(i) Item O ya shibai shiba dang ashiba? 2
(ii) Kechiba tasümaitsü sa akümba otsü jagi ashir, rasaa züluang. 2
Mesüra
b. HIV tashitak aket asü maket aji metettsü atema azü tuzüka reprang nung
dang tejanga metettsü.
(i) HIV ya kechi dang ajar? (2)
(ii) HIV nungi koda kümzüka litettsü? (2)
11. a. Senso tetezü kechi? Senso ka teinyaktsü mapatong trok züluang.
Mesüra 5
b. Molok atakdang nükmen aibelenra kechi ataloker? Nükmen aibelenba
takoksa asem shiang.
Page 53
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Sangro
12. Item tasüngdangbatem nungi shitak shimteta langzüang: 2x1=2
a. Kü lima nüngtem sangro shibai mejem?
(i) L. T. Maja
(ii) W. Chubanungba
(iii) T. Akum Kichu
(iv) T. Senka Ao
b. Anepdang ________ den külemi Indian sepai jajaba ola angashi.
(i) sangwa (ii) tammang
(iii) teroto (iv) aonung
13. Yimjung sangdong dang shirnok linüki bilemtettsü aser kechiba? 2
14. Jalatemi tebu mang ayimdang kechisa bilemtet. 2
15. a. Jungdisü ta ali, ki, jen ajak rungtoktsü, alu ayimtsü tamakoktsü aküm.
(i) Koba sangro nungi agitet? 1
(ii) Jen tetezü shiang. 1
(iii) Kechiba alu ayimtsü tamakoktsü aküm, otsü tatsü agi züluang? 2
Mesüra
b. Anogo troknü lepji tzüen nung ayu,
Lepkhumung abensar leper nung ayu.
(i) Koba sangro nungi orenji agitet? (1)
(ii) Tzüen ya kechi? (1)
(iii) Kechiba ya atalok? (2)
16. a. Yimli mapa nung kodanga tatsü talang masadanger.
(i) Koba sangro nungi aser shibai mejem? 2
(ii) Agüja aliba orenji oren pungu shi nung rateta züluang. 3
Mesüra
b. Tasü maiter aika, tatemtsü kuli yur rarai mao.
(i) Koba sangro nungi aser shibai mejem? (2)
(ii) Kechiba tasü maiter rarai mao rasaa züluang? (3)
Yimdangjem
17. Kechiba lensennguba dang laphiba ta ajar? 2
18. Lensennguba kechiba Kohimai atu? Pa Kohimai atudang atalokba kar
tatsü agi shiang. 3
Sangro
12. Item tasüngdangbatem nungi shitak shimteta langzüang: 2x1=2
a. Kü lima nüngtem sangro shibai mejem?
(i) L. T. Maja
(ii) W. Chubanungba
(iii) T. Akum Kichu
(iv) T. Senka Ao
b. Anepdang ________ den külemi Indian sepai jajaba ola angashi.
(i) sangwa (ii) tammang
(iii) teroto (iv) aonung
13. Yimjung sangdong dang shirnok linüki bilemtettsü aser kechiba? 2
14. Jalatemi tebu mang ayimdang kechisa bilemtet. 2
15. a. Jungdisü ta ali, ki, jen ajak rungtoktsü, alu ayimtsü tamakoktsü aküm.
(i) Koba sangro nungi agitet? 1
(ii) Jen tetezü shiang. 1
(iii) Kechiba alu ayimtsü tamakoktsü aküm, otsü tatsü agi züluang? 2
Mesüra
b. Anogo troknü lepji tzüen nung ayu,
Lepkhumung abensar leper nung ayu.
(i) Koba sangro nungi orenji agitet? (1)
(ii) Tzüen ya kechi? (1)
(iii) Kechiba ya atalok? (2)
16. a. Yimli mapa nung kodanga tatsü talang masadanger.
(i) Koba sangro nungi aser shibai mejem? 2
(ii) Agüja aliba orenji oren pungu shi nung rateta züluang. 3
Mesüra
b. Tasü maiter aika, tatemtsü kuli yur rarai mao.
(i) Koba sangro nungi aser shibai mejem? (2)
(ii) Kechiba tasü maiter rarai mao rasaa züluang? (3)
Yimdangjem
17. Kechiba lensennguba dang laphiba ta ajar? 2
18. Lensennguba kechiba Kohimai atu? Pa Kohimai atudang atalokba kar
tatsü agi shiang. 3
Page 54
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19. a. Alimai asenok nem tagütsütsü aika kar.
(i) Iba oren shibai jembi? 1
(ii) Komala tensa ka nung jembi? 1
(iii) Iba oren jagi kechi ashir ratetjang. 3
Mesüra
b. Pistol amshitsü mapang khen danga madok.
(i) Pistolji shibai amshinü? (1)
(ii) Kechi tensa mapang ka nung pistolji amshinü, tatalokba otsüji
rasaa züluang. (4)
***************************
19. a. Alimai asenok nem tagütsütsü aika kar.
(i) Iba oren shibai jembi? 1
(ii) Komala tensa ka nung jembi? 1
(iii) Iba oren jagi kechi ashir ratetjang. 3
Mesüra
b. Pistol amshitsü mapang khen danga madok.
(i) Pistolji shibai amshinü? (1)
(ii) Kechi tensa mapang ka nung pistolji amshinü, tatalokba otsüji
rasaa züluang. (4)
***************************
Page 55
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/L/1
2024
LOTHA
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
CHIRO – A (Ekhao)
1. Yiphongran shi khae zeli oküpoe engao jiang janlana :
1. Kayatha shi jo thithakcho (civilized) okho ejyuesü opvü motsünga. Kyon
joren topvülo kayatha shi ethev lia. Kayatha shi nthev jo khapheni mekana ntssoni
khapheni elhingo jiang npenriala. Rasan jiang elhingo lo Kayatha shi nthe jo elhi
jiang mmhona ntssochetala. Kharakhapni tssiyanphen jiang lo kayatha shi nlia na
elhi mmhona ntssochetala.
2. Kayatha to ephyo ji yichak jo elhingo topvü lo shikhvü jiang küpo vani
elhilan topvü khetsü osi ningangshelüp nlina nsa etsso ji tsala. Kayatha shijo kyon
jiang na oya mmhom litokvü tsükona etsiphen mekana füphen esüa khichoe
evamo ji. Kyon okho lo ochoang sana jo kayatha shi nchokota tvü vanala. Shiang
kyon shiang na shikhvü yesoala, osi okho ninyangshelüp hansi yiala. Osi noyinga
evan jiang khetsütokala .
3. Nkolo jo kayatha shi yichak jo omhyik juki hansi yansaron shikvü jiang
küpi jancho zoa evamo ji tssotokcho. Kayatha ji lo jo etancho evan njücho. Okho
saying topvü kayatha ji rüka tsütsatacho. “Etsi ji nküm vasi nonghori ti yesethoka”
to ephyo ji püngnoyi opvü tssotokcho. Kayatha shijo kija saya oya lo thangshi
yakchia hungala. Kyon na kayatha mmhom ji khichoala ntiotssole hoji eman ji
onte na ntsia.
4. Khaphen ntssoni khaphen jiang lo kayatha shi ethev lia. Kayatha shi nthev
jo ntsinran mmhom epiv ji ntssochetala. Tsükaranka osi pvülyu hanlyu jiang
rankatokvü tsükona ekhae jiang yolo kayatha litokvü lia.
5. Ekhae shiang pono kayatha oya jiang sothayiv linrünga. Yanchi kyon
mmhomden kümtokvü tsükona osi elhi lo kongtsüngrhyua kümtokvü tsükona
kayatha mmhom penphiv lo sokabenkav lia. Kayatha mmhom jina oya mmhom
2024
LOTHA
Total Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 20 questions divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part. Write the correct
number in your answer sheet to indicate the option/s being attempted.
iv) General and Internal choice have been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
CHIRO – A (Ekhao)
1. Yiphongran shi khae zeli oküpoe engao jiang janlana :
1. Kayatha shi jo thithakcho (civilized) okho ejyuesü opvü motsünga. Kyon
joren topvülo kayatha shi ethev lia. Kayatha shi nthev jo khapheni mekana ntssoni
khapheni elhingo jiang npenriala. Rasan jiang elhingo lo Kayatha shi nthe jo elhi
jiang mmhona ntssochetala. Kharakhapni tssiyanphen jiang lo kayatha shi nlia na
elhi mmhona ntssochetala.
2. Kayatha to ephyo ji yichak jo elhingo topvü lo shikhvü jiang küpo vani
elhilan topvü khetsü osi ningangshelüp nlina nsa etsso ji tsala. Kayatha shijo kyon
jiang na oya mmhom litokvü tsükona etsiphen mekana füphen esüa khichoe
evamo ji. Kyon okho lo ochoang sana jo kayatha shi nchokota tvü vanala. Shiang
kyon shiang na shikhvü yesoala, osi okho ninyangshelüp hansi yiala. Osi noyinga
evan jiang khetsütokala .
3. Nkolo jo kayatha shi yichak jo omhyik juki hansi yansaron shikvü jiang
küpi jancho zoa evamo ji tssotokcho. Kayatha ji lo jo etancho evan njücho. Okho
saying topvü kayatha ji rüka tsütsatacho. “Etsi ji nküm vasi nonghori ti yesethoka”
to ephyo ji püngnoyi opvü tssotokcho. Kayatha shijo kija saya oya lo thangshi
yakchia hungala. Kyon na kayatha mmhom ji khichoala ntiotssole hoji eman ji
onte na ntsia.
4. Khaphen ntssoni khaphen jiang lo kayatha shi ethev lia. Kayatha shi nthev
jo ntsinran mmhom epiv ji ntssochetala. Tsükaranka osi pvülyu hanlyu jiang
rankatokvü tsükona ekhae jiang yolo kayatha litokvü lia.
5. Ekhae shiang pono kayatha oya jiang sothayiv linrünga. Yanchi kyon
mmhomden kümtokvü tsükona osi elhi lo kongtsüngrhyua kümtokvü tsükona
kayatha mmhom penphiv lo sokabenkav lia. Kayatha mmhom jina oya mmhom
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tona etssophyo mmhom to soyingala, osi hoji yakcha ete liphong tsükaranka elhi
lo nzanchiala.
Engoa shiang elana janlana: 4x1=4
(a) Ntio jo thilithakcho okho ejyu esü opvü motsünga la?
(i) Ntsanrük (ii) Jancho ezo
(iii) Nonghori shi nthev (iv) Kayatha
(b) _________ jiang elhingo lo kayatha shi nthev jo elhi jiang mmhona
ntssochetala.
(i) Püngnoe (ii) Tsüktssen
(iii) Rasan (iv) Zenkhying
(c) Kayatha ji na ntio soying la?
(i) Etssoephyo mmhom (ii) Etssoephyo nmhom
(iii) Khondarota (iv) Ninyangshelüp
(d) Kayatha shi nthev jo __________ elhingo jiang nbenriala.
(i) Oli (ii) Oki
(iii) Khaphen ki (iv) Matapoe
(e) Kayatha jo ntio la? 1
(f) Kayatha shi nlia tssona khaphenyanphen jiang lo ntio ntssochetala? 1
(g) ‘Nkolo’ yitsüng shina yichak esütao tvü pia. 1
(h) Yitsüng ‘rasan’ shina kholoktsü myingtsayi kümtoka. 1
(i) Oya to ephyo shi yichak jo ntio la? 1
(j) Kyon joren kvülo kayatha shi ethev licho la? 1
CHIRO – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga (1) yitsüng 150-200 na
epemo erana:
a. Nino Abemo/Abeni ni khaphen ki ojü eyuo methaki nte vayile to Kvürio
thüngi jonjia erana.
Mekana 6
b. Ni khapheni enya sanrhyu ji lo oyi nsam tsükona ‘Okho tsütsailan
ndangshom lo ekhaeyan jiang ejan elhi’ to ji nina kvüto nsam sana erana.
3. Oküpoe pi elio shiang lo na motsünga (1) yitsüng 50 na erana:
a. Nina evamo okying jilo tsoyutaphen chonchiv tsükona etüm lia. Yithen
kako lo ntsijanta epiv tsükona erana. Ntsijan ethev elio jiang topvü erana.
Mekana 4
tona etssophyo mmhom to soyingala, osi hoji yakcha ete liphong tsükaranka elhi
lo nzanchiala.
Engoa shiang elana janlana: 4x1=4
(a) Ntio jo thilithakcho okho ejyu esü opvü motsünga la?
(i) Ntsanrük (ii) Jancho ezo
(iii) Nonghori shi nthev (iv) Kayatha
(b) _________ jiang elhingo lo kayatha shi nthev jo elhi jiang mmhona
ntssochetala.
(i) Püngnoe (ii) Tsüktssen
(iii) Rasan (iv) Zenkhying
(c) Kayatha ji na ntio soying la?
(i) Etssoephyo mmhom (ii) Etssoephyo nmhom
(iii) Khondarota (iv) Ninyangshelüp
(d) Kayatha shi nthev jo __________ elhingo jiang nbenriala.
(i) Oli (ii) Oki
(iii) Khaphen ki (iv) Matapoe
(e) Kayatha jo ntio la? 1
(f) Kayatha shi nlia tssona khaphenyanphen jiang lo ntio ntssochetala? 1
(g) ‘Nkolo’ yitsüng shina yichak esütao tvü pia. 1
(h) Yitsüng ‘rasan’ shina kholoktsü myingtsayi kümtoka. 1
(i) Oya to ephyo shi yichak jo ntio la? 1
(j) Kyon joren kvülo kayatha shi ethev licho la? 1
CHIRO – B (Eramo)
2. Oküpoe pi elio jiang lo na ni lümcho motsünga (1) yitsüng 150-200 na
epemo erana:
a. Nino Abemo/Abeni ni khaphen ki ojü eyuo methaki nte vayile to Kvürio
thüngi jonjia erana.
Mekana 6
b. Ni khapheni enya sanrhyu ji lo oyi nsam tsükona ‘Okho tsütsailan
ndangshom lo ekhaeyan jiang ejan elhi’ to ji nina kvüto nsam sana erana.
3. Oküpoe pi elio shiang lo na motsünga (1) yitsüng 50 na erana:
a. Nina evamo okying jilo tsoyutaphen chonchiv tsükona etüm lia. Yithen
kako lo ntsijanta epiv tsükona erana. Ntsijan ethev elio jiang topvü erana.
Mekana 4
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-3- NB/XI/L/1
b. Nino oyan motsünga lo esapvüi ji, oyan nzontsü phyota santa nchüng choro
lo khitav sala. Hoji ntsijanthokvü tsükona oyan ntsijanta vanpheni kvüto
erani vav sana erana.
CHIRO – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)
4. Shiang janlana:
a. Echak shiang yichak pia: 1+1=2
(i) Kenjang eyip
(ii) Hapvüro lantsa
b. Engao yiren kümtoka: 1+1=2
(i) Enhünga meka
(ii) Thüngdemo na ni janhüngala
c. ‘Chena’ yitsüng shi yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 2
5. Etssyuchi epio ji ephan janlana:
a. Myingthong jo ntio la? 1
b. Bhari ji _______ okhyak ji a pia. (Yishenyi khi pyingtoka) 1
c. Onte no ojyua jo thüktüng nshütav. (tssoyio yi ji sekata) 1
d. Ombo kyon mmhom ________. (Etsyukayi khi pyingtoka) 1
e. Mmhorü ________ ora ________ vanala. (Zonkayi khi pyingtoka) 1
f. Ompvü na phyocho, “Ana shi ekhyo tssov”. (Erhüyi kümtoka) 1
6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
CHIRO – D (Motsüran Ekhao)
7. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 4x1=4
a. Potsow na ocho ji elhi tsüphov lo tsütsa hüngcho la?
(i) Newton (ii) Samson
(iii) Delilah (iv) Degon
b. Newton jo ntio nzyu lo bokcho la?
(i) 1624 (ii) 1634
(iii) 1654 (iv) 1642
b. Nino oyan motsünga lo esapvüi ji, oyan nzontsü phyota santa nchüng choro
lo khitav sala. Hoji ntsijanthokvü tsükona oyan ntsijanta vanpheni kvüto
erani vav sana erana.
CHIRO – C (Lothayi Nsanlan)
4. Shiang janlana:
a. Echak shiang yichak pia: 1+1=2
(i) Kenjang eyip
(ii) Hapvüro lantsa
b. Engao yiren kümtoka: 1+1=2
(i) Enhünga meka
(ii) Thüngdemo na ni janhüngala
c. ‘Chena’ yitsüng shi yichak eni pia yiren nsüngrüa. 2
5. Etssyuchi epio ji ephan janlana:
a. Myingthong jo ntio la? 1
b. Bhari ji _______ okhyak ji a pia. (Yishenyi khi pyingtoka) 1
c. Onte no ojyua jo thüktüng nshütav. (tssoyio yi ji sekata) 1
d. Ombo kyon mmhom ________. (Etsyukayi khi pyingtoka) 1
e. Mmhorü ________ ora ________ vanala. (Zonkayi khi pyingtoka) 1
f. Ompvü na phyocho, “Ana shi ekhyo tssov”. (Erhüyi kümtoka) 1
6. Yiren shiang Lothayi na khophia: 3
Shilloi Lake lies on the lower slopes of the hill ranges running along the
Myanmar ridges, Meluri. Located 275 km away from Kohima, one has to
travel east through roads lined with oak trees. The shape of the lake from the top
resembles a giant footprint.
CHIRO – D (Motsüran Ekhao)
7. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 4x1=4
a. Potsow na ocho ji elhi tsüphov lo tsütsa hüngcho la?
(i) Newton (ii) Samson
(iii) Delilah (iv) Degon
b. Newton jo ntio nzyu lo bokcho la?
(i) 1624 (ii) 1634
(iii) 1654 (iv) 1642
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-4- NB/XI/L/1
c. Nkhyim shi jo –
(i) Lepok (ii) Otsso
(iii) Liko jiphen (iv) Liko rhonphen
d. Malilo na zhükhfü ji janale ntio mangkvüi tsankae pankae chiyicho la?
(i) Tsiyu (ii) Siano
(iii) Tssiro (iv) Sepvü
8. Nri Khyingroe ji na ntio tsso ji na oli tae owo yipcho la? 2
9. Halley na eng ji ngkona limhapo jiang lan ji tsükona natüngngaria thüng
Newton na kvüto janlancho la? 2
10. Samson na ombo lümbüm totona chonchi owo etho ejü ji kvülo jücho sana to
ombo na nzana evamo Delilah thüngi ezo ji erana. 3
11. a. Nini lona tsokhying rena yitokvü ka.
(i) Shi jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(ii) Potsow loroe ji na kvütolyui kyon esüa kümi kyon yulo
nzitae vancho la? 3
Mekana
b. Enhünga jana ni na a kyakthechithaka, osi ni na a thüngi ejüngjüng tae
a ezoala.
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
(ii) Kvütolyui ombo chüngchev sana to yenjo enioto jonjia ezoa
thüng Samson na Delilah thüngi kvüto ezocho la? (3)
12. a. Ete Lotha na epensü olan olan tsütsata erowo jiang lona otsso tona
lepok to eni shiang eroroa erana.
Mekana 5
b. Malilo opo na ombo otslov ji Rishanthüng thüng yanpithokvü tsükona
ojang etsso jiang lona eni eroroa erana.
Chungiyi
13. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 2x1=2
a. __________ liyingo ji na ni ha liyingcho alo?
(i) Mmhorü (ii) Olyuoro
(iii) Woro (iv) Zhüro
b. Yonton ni to ephyo ji jo.
(i) Phonglan kvüri (ii) Phonglan küpi
c. Nkhyim shi jo –
(i) Lepok (ii) Otsso
(iii) Liko jiphen (iv) Liko rhonphen
d. Malilo na zhükhfü ji janale ntio mangkvüi tsankae pankae chiyicho la?
(i) Tsiyu (ii) Siano
(iii) Tssiro (iv) Sepvü
8. Nri Khyingroe ji na ntio tsso ji na oli tae owo yipcho la? 2
9. Halley na eng ji ngkona limhapo jiang lan ji tsükona natüngngaria thüng
Newton na kvüto janlancho la? 2
10. Samson na ombo lümbüm totona chonchi owo etho ejü ji kvülo jücho sana to
ombo na nzana evamo Delilah thüngi ezo ji erana. 3
11. a. Nini lona tsokhying rena yitokvü ka.
(i) Shi jo ocho na phyocho la? 1
(ii) Potsow loroe ji na kvütolyui kyon esüa kümi kyon yulo
nzitae vancho la? 3
Mekana
b. Enhünga jana ni na a kyakthechithaka, osi ni na a thüngi ejüngjüng tae
a ezoala.
(i) Yiren shi jo ocho na phyocho la? (1)
(ii) Kvütolyui ombo chüngchev sana to yenjo enioto jonjia ezoa
thüng Samson na Delilah thüngi kvüto ezocho la? (3)
12. a. Ete Lotha na epensü olan olan tsütsata erowo jiang lona otsso tona
lepok to eni shiang eroroa erana.
Mekana 5
b. Malilo opo na ombo otslov ji Rishanthüng thüng yanpithokvü tsükona
ojang etsso jiang lona eni eroroa erana.
Chungiyi
13. Engao shiang akvülo elamo ji ethüngi janlana: 2x1=2
a. __________ liyingo ji na ni ha liyingcho alo?
(i) Mmhorü (ii) Olyuoro
(iii) Woro (iv) Zhüro
b. Yonton ni to ephyo ji jo.
(i) Phonglan kvüri (ii) Phonglan küpi
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(iii) Oküpoe (iv) Oyaki
14. Vanphen ntssomvü lo vanhünga tssona ntio elhi etssov lia to khensoe ji na
phyocho la? 2
15. Khensoe ji na Titapen thera ji kvüto woe na ejyukata erancho la? 2
16. a. Shompo sana opo eli na otssen tssoa kha,
Shompo sana opvü eli na otssen tssoa ka,
Kio opvü opo ejüli lo tssankav nli.
(i) Yantsae ji shom ji jo ntio sükhying evan sana erana. 1
(ii) Yantsae ji na oyam esüa vanchev tsükona kvüto ekhyo tssocho
sana erana. 3
Mekana
b. Yanaloyi ekoni na ni chanchi la thera tssoa,
Zeno pvübüm rilo nchecho esüa ni chanche kana.
Thüngküm oli jonlani ha nte liki pyingthokvü ka,
Ete woden na ha woro tssoa liosangsü nli ehamo njücho alo?
(i) Yanaloyi ji ntio thera rilo nchecho esüa chanchecho to phyocho
la? (1)
(ii) Oli janlani ntio khi liki pyingthoka to khensoe ji na phyocho la? (1)
(iii) Yanaloyi ji ntio ntio esüa chanchecho to khenro shi lo na
phyoala? (2)
17. a. Chungiyi ‘Shantiowoe’ miphong jilo ekhen engopvü ji na shantio lona
omi phonga ehungo ji thüng oro zetale to ochoang tsacho la? Shantio
lona omi phonga na ntio kvüto tssov to kyon jiang na longtsütacho la?
Eranpvüi ji na oyamo kyon jiang thüngi ntio lüm etsson picho la? 2+1+2=5
Mekana
b. Chungiyi ‘Mmhorü’ ji yintssen ji erana. (5)
Nchümntan Motsü
18. Ntio tsükona Arilao opvü na zümo müng nmhon ka pyozhü lo ti wo to
ezocho la? 2
19. Arilao ji chüthaka le, ombo shom ndüng ji nchümri eni na rhümao jiang erana. 3
20. a. Nchüngo ntio kvüto etsso kashak na heto etssophyoa ejüa to! Shi yichak
jo ntio ato! Shi jo kia ntsso küma ete na ekhyinga oyamoe yitav
ka to phyota, lilansan yuta njamvü, oyamoe sana yitacho.
(i) Oyamo kyon jiang na oyani oyi zeta jo onte tseoro jiang jo ntio
kvütolyui sithakcho la? 2
(iii) Oküpoe (iv) Oyaki
14. Vanphen ntssomvü lo vanhünga tssona ntio elhi etssov lia to khensoe ji na
phyocho la? 2
15. Khensoe ji na Titapen thera ji kvüto woe na ejyukata erancho la? 2
16. a. Shompo sana opo eli na otssen tssoa kha,
Shompo sana opvü eli na otssen tssoa ka,
Kio opvü opo ejüli lo tssankav nli.
(i) Yantsae ji shom ji jo ntio sükhying evan sana erana. 1
(ii) Yantsae ji na oyam esüa vanchev tsükona kvüto ekhyo tssocho
sana erana. 3
Mekana
b. Yanaloyi ekoni na ni chanchi la thera tssoa,
Zeno pvübüm rilo nchecho esüa ni chanche kana.
Thüngküm oli jonlani ha nte liki pyingthokvü ka,
Ete woden na ha woro tssoa liosangsü nli ehamo njücho alo?
(i) Yanaloyi ji ntio thera rilo nchecho esüa chanchecho to phyocho
la? (1)
(ii) Oli janlani ntio khi liki pyingthoka to khensoe ji na phyocho la? (1)
(iii) Yanaloyi ji ntio ntio esüa chanchecho to khenro shi lo na
phyoala? (2)
17. a. Chungiyi ‘Shantiowoe’ miphong jilo ekhen engopvü ji na shantio lona
omi phonga ehungo ji thüng oro zetale to ochoang tsacho la? Shantio
lona omi phonga na ntio kvüto tssov to kyon jiang na longtsütacho la?
Eranpvüi ji na oyamo kyon jiang thüngi ntio lüm etsson picho la? 2+1+2=5
Mekana
b. Chungiyi ‘Mmhorü’ ji yintssen ji erana. (5)
Nchümntan Motsü
18. Ntio tsükona Arilao opvü na zümo müng nmhon ka pyozhü lo ti wo to
ezocho la? 2
19. Arilao ji chüthaka le, ombo shom ndüng ji nchümri eni na rhümao jiang erana. 3
20. a. Nchüngo ntio kvüto etsso kashak na heto etssophyoa ejüa to! Shi yichak
jo ntio ato! Shi jo kia ntsso küma ete na ekhyinga oyamoe yitav
ka to phyota, lilansan yuta njamvü, oyamoe sana yitacho.
(i) Oyamo kyon jiang na oyani oyi zeta jo onte tseoro jiang jo ntio
kvütolyui sithakcho la? 2
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(ii) Oyamo kyon jiang na ntio sotarasi Lankonrhoni ji phantacho la? 1
(iii) Lankonrhoni jo ntio lo mphoe vancho la? 1
(iv) Oyamo kyon jiang na Lankonrhoni ji nrümche to ntsia le kvüto
lyuitacho la? 1
Mekana
b. Ango a zümo müng elümoto nmhon ka, nzansi ti woa, woko motsünga
echa pio ji na jo epüpvü meka.
(i) Arilao na khochi ti khochia le opvü na kvüto ezoa wotokcho la? (1)
(ii) Ntio tsso ji na oyamo kyon jiang na echa ji woko vüktsü khitav to
methakcho la? (2)
(iii) Oyamo kyon jiang na nothenphen janala ntio elhi tssotacho la? (2)
***************************
(ii) Oyamo kyon jiang na ntio sotarasi Lankonrhoni ji phantacho la? 1
(iii) Lankonrhoni jo ntio lo mphoe vancho la? 1
(iv) Oyamo kyon jiang na Lankonrhoni ji nrümche to ntsia le kvüto
lyuitacho la? 1
Mekana
b. Ango a zümo müng elümoto nmhon ka, nzansi ti woa, woko motsünga
echa pio ji na jo epüpvü meka.
(i) Arilao na khochi ti khochia le opvü na kvüto ezoa wotokcho la? (1)
(ii) Ntio tsso ji na oyamo kyon jiang na echa ji woko vüktsü khitav to
methakcho la? (2)
(iii) Oyamo kyon jiang na nothenphen janala ntio elhi tssotacho la? (2)
***************************
Page 61
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/HIS/I
2024
HISTORY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative: 10x1=10
1. Name the trading town of the pastoral zone in Mesopotamia. 1
(a) Mari (b) Ur
(c) Uruk (d) Sumeria
2 Julius Caesar wrote a history of his war in Gaul and US President Theodore
Roosevelt wrote _____________ 1
(a) Discovery of India (b) Don Quixote
(c) Winning of the west (d) Utopia
3. Christianity became the state religion under which ruler? 1
(a) Romulus Augustus (b) Constantine
(c) Theodosius I (d) Diocletian
4. The claim of supremacy of the Roman Bishop was based on 1
1. Rome’s traditional position as the centre of a traditional empire.
2. The succession of incompetent Bishops.
3. The unwavering orthodoxy of the Roman Bishops
4. The removal of religious authority of the east after AD 339.
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. ______ completed the last section of the Grand Canal, which connected
Peking with the Yangtze. 1
(a) Genghis Khan (b) Ogodei Khan
(c) Mongke Khan (d) Kublai Khan
2024
HISTORY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative: 10x1=10
1. Name the trading town of the pastoral zone in Mesopotamia. 1
(a) Mari (b) Ur
(c) Uruk (d) Sumeria
2 Julius Caesar wrote a history of his war in Gaul and US President Theodore
Roosevelt wrote _____________ 1
(a) Discovery of India (b) Don Quixote
(c) Winning of the west (d) Utopia
3. Christianity became the state religion under which ruler? 1
(a) Romulus Augustus (b) Constantine
(c) Theodosius I (d) Diocletian
4. The claim of supremacy of the Roman Bishop was based on 1
1. Rome’s traditional position as the centre of a traditional empire.
2. The succession of incompetent Bishops.
3. The unwavering orthodoxy of the Roman Bishops
4. The removal of religious authority of the east after AD 339.
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. ______ completed the last section of the Grand Canal, which connected
Peking with the Yangtze. 1
(a) Genghis Khan (b) Ogodei Khan
(c) Mongke Khan (d) Kublai Khan
Page 62
-2- NB/XI/HIS/I
6. Genghis Khan was also known as 1
(a) Temujin (b) Temusin
(c) Abassids (d) Khovasan
7. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement 1
i. Those who held land directly from the king were called tenants-in-chief.
ii. The tenants-in-chief did not give personal services.
(a) Only (i) is correct (b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) & (ii) are correct (d) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
8. Arrange the three orders of the feudal society in France 1
(a) Clergy, Peasantry, Nobility (b) Nobility, Clergy, Peasantry
(c) Clergy, Nobility, Peasantry (d) Nobility, Peasantry, Clergy
9. Complete the following with the correct option. The Prince - Niccolo
Machiavelli, Utopia – Thomas Moore, The Canterbury Tales - ______ 1
(a) Erasmus (b) Michael Montaigne
(c) Geoffrey Chaucer (d) John Colet
10. What is the literal meaning of the word ‘Renaissance’? 1
(a) New birth (b) Revival
(c) Renewal (d) Both (a) and (b)
11. In the Roman society, what was the role played by Senators? 2
12. Mention any two steps in the formation of the Mongol Nomadic culture. 2
13. What was Yasa? 2
14. The Black Death and the Peasant Revolt destroyed the whole
socio-economic basis of the federal system. Explain. 2
15. Give two features of the medieval age. 2
16. What was the importance of discovery of the individual? 2
17. From what word was the name ‘Canada’ derived and when? 2
18. What were the conditions of the Cherokee tribe? 2
19. Describe the causes of downfall of the Mongol empire. 4
20. Illustrate the policy of the Government of Australia towards the emigrants. 4
21. “Different historical conditions in Japan and China led them on widely
divergent paths to building independent and modern nations”. Explain. 4
6. Genghis Khan was also known as 1
(a) Temujin (b) Temusin
(c) Abassids (d) Khovasan
7. Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement 1
i. Those who held land directly from the king were called tenants-in-chief.
ii. The tenants-in-chief did not give personal services.
(a) Only (i) is correct (b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) & (ii) are correct (d) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
8. Arrange the three orders of the feudal society in France 1
(a) Clergy, Peasantry, Nobility (b) Nobility, Clergy, Peasantry
(c) Clergy, Nobility, Peasantry (d) Nobility, Peasantry, Clergy
9. Complete the following with the correct option. The Prince - Niccolo
Machiavelli, Utopia – Thomas Moore, The Canterbury Tales - ______ 1
(a) Erasmus (b) Michael Montaigne
(c) Geoffrey Chaucer (d) John Colet
10. What is the literal meaning of the word ‘Renaissance’? 1
(a) New birth (b) Revival
(c) Renewal (d) Both (a) and (b)
11. In the Roman society, what was the role played by Senators? 2
12. Mention any two steps in the formation of the Mongol Nomadic culture. 2
13. What was Yasa? 2
14. The Black Death and the Peasant Revolt destroyed the whole
socio-economic basis of the federal system. Explain. 2
15. Give two features of the medieval age. 2
16. What was the importance of discovery of the individual? 2
17. From what word was the name ‘Canada’ derived and when? 2
18. What were the conditions of the Cherokee tribe? 2
19. Describe the causes of downfall of the Mongol empire. 4
20. Illustrate the policy of the Government of Australia towards the emigrants. 4
21. “Different historical conditions in Japan and China led them on widely
divergent paths to building independent and modern nations”. Explain. 4
Page 63
-3- NB/XI/HIS/I
22. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Women and changing traditions
The ideas of dignity of individual and citizenship received no attention
during this period. The men belonging to aristocratic families dominated public
life. They were also the decision maker in their families. They educated their
sons only to take part in the business or in public life.
But the position of women in the families of merchants was somewhat
better. Shopkeepers were greatly helped by their wives in running the shops. In
the families of bankers and merchants, women looked after the business when
male members went to other places for some work.
In the field of literature, some women however, did some creative work.
They were sensitive about humanist education. A women scholar Cassandra
Fedele (1465-1558 AD) was one of the few women who questioned the idea
that the women were incapable of achieving the qualities of a humanist thinker.
Fedele was one of the many Venetian writers who criticized the republic for
creating a highly limited definition of freedom that favoured the desires of men
over those of women. The writings of women scholars revealed their conviction
that they should have economic power, property and education to show their
worth in a world dominated by men.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in World History
a. Compare the conditions of women belonging to aristocratic families
and women in the families of merchant. (2)
b. What did the women scholars tried the society to focus on? (2)
23. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Sun-Yat-Sen
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in China in
1911 under Sun-Yat-Sen (1866-1925) who is unanimously regarded as the
father of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary
schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied
medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. His programme
was called the three principles (San Min Chui). These were nationalism. This
meant overthrowing the Manchus who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well
as other foreign imperialist: democracy or establish democratic Government
and socialism regulating capital and equalizing land holdings.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in World History
a. Why was Manchu empire overthrown? (1)
b. Who was regarded as the founder of modern China? (1)
c. What did Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen learn from the missionary school? (1)
d. What was Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen’s programme called? (1)
24. a. Summarize the achievements of Augustus.
Or 6
b. Describe the slave rebellion led by Spartacus.
22. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Women and changing traditions
The ideas of dignity of individual and citizenship received no attention
during this period. The men belonging to aristocratic families dominated public
life. They were also the decision maker in their families. They educated their
sons only to take part in the business or in public life.
But the position of women in the families of merchants was somewhat
better. Shopkeepers were greatly helped by their wives in running the shops. In
the families of bankers and merchants, women looked after the business when
male members went to other places for some work.
In the field of literature, some women however, did some creative work.
They were sensitive about humanist education. A women scholar Cassandra
Fedele (1465-1558 AD) was one of the few women who questioned the idea
that the women were incapable of achieving the qualities of a humanist thinker.
Fedele was one of the many Venetian writers who criticized the republic for
creating a highly limited definition of freedom that favoured the desires of men
over those of women. The writings of women scholars revealed their conviction
that they should have economic power, property and education to show their
worth in a world dominated by men.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in World History
a. Compare the conditions of women belonging to aristocratic families
and women in the families of merchant. (2)
b. What did the women scholars tried the society to focus on? (2)
23. Read the source below and answer the questions that follow:
Sun-Yat-Sen
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in China in
1911 under Sun-Yat-Sen (1866-1925) who is unanimously regarded as the
father of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary
schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied
medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. His programme
was called the three principles (San Min Chui). These were nationalism. This
meant overthrowing the Manchus who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well
as other foreign imperialist: democracy or establish democratic Government
and socialism regulating capital and equalizing land holdings.
Source: Raghunath: Themes in World History
a. Why was Manchu empire overthrown? (1)
b. Who was regarded as the founder of modern China? (1)
c. What did Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen learn from the missionary school? (1)
d. What was Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen’s programme called? (1)
24. a. Summarize the achievements of Augustus.
Or 6
b. Describe the slave rebellion led by Spartacus.
Page 64
-4- NB/XI/HIS/I
25. a. What were the causes of the decline of feudalism?
Or 6
b. Describe the main features of feudalism.
26. a. Write a note on the following: (2x4=8)
i. Ur ii. Uruk iii. Tepe Gawra iv. Kerkuk city
Or
b. Describe the development of writing. What was the legacy of
writing of Mesopotamia? (6+2=8)
27. a. Examine the causes of success of Communist Revolution in China.
Or 8
b. What were the causes of aggressive nationalism in Japan?
28. On the map given below, 6 (six) areas have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 and 6. Name these numbered countries places which represent the
following : 6x1=6
(a) Oldest planned city
(b) Capital of Byzantine Empire
(c) Origin of feudalism
(d) St Peter’s Church
(e) Island founded by Tasman
(f) Meiji Rule
***********************
25. a. What were the causes of the decline of feudalism?
Or 6
b. Describe the main features of feudalism.
26. a. Write a note on the following: (2x4=8)
i. Ur ii. Uruk iii. Tepe Gawra iv. Kerkuk city
Or
b. Describe the development of writing. What was the legacy of
writing of Mesopotamia? (6+2=8)
27. a. Examine the causes of success of Communist Revolution in China.
Or 8
b. What were the causes of aggressive nationalism in Japan?
28. On the map given below, 6 (six) areas have been numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 and 6. Name these numbered countries places which represent the
following : 6x1=6
(a) Oldest planned city
(b) Capital of Byzantine Empire
(c) Origin of feudalism
(d) St Peter’s Church
(e) Island founded by Tasman
(f) Meiji Rule
***********************
Page 65
Total number of printed pages:6 NB/XI/ACC/1
2024
ACCOUNTANCY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximatley 15 mintues is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper contains 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Book-keeping means _________. 1
a) Keeping books
b) Recording in books
c) Recording of business transactions in the books
d) Analyse the business transaction.
2. A person who owes money to the firm is called______________. 1
a) Debtor b) Creditor
c) Supplier d) Financer.
3. If the capital of a business is `1,00,000 and outside liabilities are `60,000. Calculate
total assets of the business. 1
a) `1,60,000 b) `1,00,000
c) `60,000 d) `1,40,000.
4. Recording is made in journal proper of_________.
a) All transactions
b) Those transactions which are not recorded in any subsidiary book 1
c) All cash transactions
d) All credit transactions.
5. Debit balance of real account shows_________. 1
a) Income b) Expenditure
c) Assets d) Liabilities.
6. Trial balance is _________. 1
a) A Personal A/C b) A Real A/C
c) A Nominal A/C d) Not an A/C.
2024
ACCOUNTANCY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximatley 15 mintues is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper contains 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left
side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Book-keeping means _________. 1
a) Keeping books
b) Recording in books
c) Recording of business transactions in the books
d) Analyse the business transaction.
2. A person who owes money to the firm is called______________. 1
a) Debtor b) Creditor
c) Supplier d) Financer.
3. If the capital of a business is `1,00,000 and outside liabilities are `60,000. Calculate
total assets of the business. 1
a) `1,60,000 b) `1,00,000
c) `60,000 d) `1,40,000.
4. Recording is made in journal proper of_________.
a) All transactions
b) Those transactions which are not recorded in any subsidiary book 1
c) All cash transactions
d) All credit transactions.
5. Debit balance of real account shows_________. 1
a) Income b) Expenditure
c) Assets d) Liabilities.
6. Trial balance is _________. 1
a) A Personal A/C b) A Real A/C
c) A Nominal A/C d) Not an A/C.
Page 66
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7. Bank balance is always considered as positive if it is _________________. 1
a) Balance as per cash book b) Debit balance as per cash book
c) Credit balance as per pass book d) All of the above.
8. Calculate the gross profit if rate of gross profit is 25% on sales and cost of goods sold
are `1,80,000. 1
a) `60,000 b) `36,000
c) `45,000 d) `30,000
9. Accured income is ________. 1
a) A liability b) Revenue
c) An asset d) An expense.
10. Net profit before the following adjustments `1,80,000 1
Outstanding Salary `10,000
Prepaid Insurance `13,000
Profit after adjustment is__________.
a) `1,83,000 b) `1,77,000
c) `2,03,000 d) `1,87,000.
11. State any two objectives of accounting. 2
12. Enumerate any two features of accounting principles. 2
13. Write in brief any two principles of double entry system. 2
14. Prepare an imaginary specimen of a debit voucher. 2
15. Mr. A purchases goods for `1,00,000 and sells the same to Mr. B for `1,50,000 and
GST is 12%. Calculate the balance amount which is payable to the government. 2
16. On 1st May 2023, cash book, bank overdraft balance was `2,000, on depositing
`10,000 into bank and giving a cheque of `7,200 for rent. Calculate the cash balance
in the bank. 2
17. Rectify the following errors:- 2
i) Wages paid for the construction of office debited to wages account `13,000.
ii) Wages paid `3,720 were recorded in the cash book as `3,270.
18. Write any two features of reserve. 2
19. Explain any four advantages of accrual basis of accounting. 4
7. Bank balance is always considered as positive if it is _________________. 1
a) Balance as per cash book b) Debit balance as per cash book
c) Credit balance as per pass book d) All of the above.
8. Calculate the gross profit if rate of gross profit is 25% on sales and cost of goods sold
are `1,80,000. 1
a) `60,000 b) `36,000
c) `45,000 d) `30,000
9. Accured income is ________. 1
a) A liability b) Revenue
c) An asset d) An expense.
10. Net profit before the following adjustments `1,80,000 1
Outstanding Salary `10,000
Prepaid Insurance `13,000
Profit after adjustment is__________.
a) `1,83,000 b) `1,77,000
c) `2,03,000 d) `1,87,000.
11. State any two objectives of accounting. 2
12. Enumerate any two features of accounting principles. 2
13. Write in brief any two principles of double entry system. 2
14. Prepare an imaginary specimen of a debit voucher. 2
15. Mr. A purchases goods for `1,00,000 and sells the same to Mr. B for `1,50,000 and
GST is 12%. Calculate the balance amount which is payable to the government. 2
16. On 1st May 2023, cash book, bank overdraft balance was `2,000, on depositing
`10,000 into bank and giving a cheque of `7,200 for rent. Calculate the cash balance
in the bank. 2
17. Rectify the following errors:- 2
i) Wages paid for the construction of office debited to wages account `13,000.
ii) Wages paid `3,720 were recorded in the cash book as `3,270.
18. Write any two features of reserve. 2
19. Explain any four advantages of accrual basis of accounting. 4
Page 67
-3- NB/XI/ACC/1
20. Explain any four utilities of accounting standards. 4
21. Journalise the following transactions: 4
Balance in the books of Rahul, a computer dealer on 1st April 2023
Cash `500; Bank overdraft `1,000; Debtors `7,000; Building `6,500;
Computers `3,500. On the same day, he sold a computer, the book value of which
was `2,000 for `1,950.
22. Explain any four objectives of Goods and Services Tax(GST). 4
23. Calculate cost of goods sold and gross profit from the following: 4
Opening stock `40,000; Wages and salaries `10,000; Net purchases `50,000; Rent paid
`15,000; Net sales `1,90,000; Closing stock `15,000.
24. a) Explain any six functions of accounting.
Or 6
b) Explain the six roles of accounting.
25. a) State the advantages of cash discount ‘to the seller’ and ‘to the buyer’.
Or 3+3=6
b) Journalise the following transactions and post them into ledger.
i) On 1st April 2023, purchased goods for cash `40,000.
ii) On 14th April 2023, sold goods for cash `50,000.
iii) On 20th April 2023, sold goods for `10,000 and received cheque.
26. a) Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book:
2023 Particulars `
Feb 1 Balance in shop- cash 40,000
Feb 5 Bought goods (CGST 6% and SGST 6%) 30,000
Feb 7 Sold goods (CGST 6% and SGST 6%) 45,000
Feb 10 Paid to Yash Pal & Sons on account 6,000
Feb 14 Received from Rahul Brothers 9,800
Discount allowed 200
Feb 16 Loan repaid 7,000
Feb 22 Paid for travelling expenses 500
Feb 23 Received from Dinesh Yadav 6,850
Discount allowed 150
Feb 25 Paid to Yash Pal & Sons 13,750
Discount allowed by them 250
Feb28 Paid rent for godown (CGST 6% and SGST
6%) 10,000
Paid to Manoj General Store in full settlement
of their account of ` 8,000 7,600
20. Explain any four utilities of accounting standards. 4
21. Journalise the following transactions: 4
Balance in the books of Rahul, a computer dealer on 1st April 2023
Cash `500; Bank overdraft `1,000; Debtors `7,000; Building `6,500;
Computers `3,500. On the same day, he sold a computer, the book value of which
was `2,000 for `1,950.
22. Explain any four objectives of Goods and Services Tax(GST). 4
23. Calculate cost of goods sold and gross profit from the following: 4
Opening stock `40,000; Wages and salaries `10,000; Net purchases `50,000; Rent paid
`15,000; Net sales `1,90,000; Closing stock `15,000.
24. a) Explain any six functions of accounting.
Or 6
b) Explain the six roles of accounting.
25. a) State the advantages of cash discount ‘to the seller’ and ‘to the buyer’.
Or 3+3=6
b) Journalise the following transactions and post them into ledger.
i) On 1st April 2023, purchased goods for cash `40,000.
ii) On 14th April 2023, sold goods for cash `50,000.
iii) On 20th April 2023, sold goods for `10,000 and received cheque.
26. a) Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book:
2023 Particulars `
Feb 1 Balance in shop- cash 40,000
Feb 5 Bought goods (CGST 6% and SGST 6%) 30,000
Feb 7 Sold goods (CGST 6% and SGST 6%) 45,000
Feb 10 Paid to Yash Pal & Sons on account 6,000
Feb 14 Received from Rahul Brothers 9,800
Discount allowed 200
Feb 16 Loan repaid 7,000
Feb 22 Paid for travelling expenses 500
Feb 23 Received from Dinesh Yadav 6,850
Discount allowed 150
Feb 25 Paid to Yash Pal & Sons 13,750
Discount allowed by them 250
Feb28 Paid rent for godown (CGST 6% and SGST
6%) 10,000
Paid to Manoj General Store in full settlement
of their account of ` 8,000 7,600
Page 68
-4- NB/XI/ACC/1
Or 6
b) Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement of Shri Bhandani as on 31st December,
2022;
i) The payment of cheque for `550 was recorded twice in the pass book.
ii) Withdrawal column of the pass book under cast by `200.
iii) A cheque of `200 has been debited in the bank column of the cash book but it
was not sent to bank at all.
iv) A cheque of `300 debited to Bank Account of the pass book has been omitted
to be recorded in cash book.
v) A cheque of `500 sent for collection was dishonoured by the bank.
Overdraft as per pass book is `20,000.
27. a) A firm purchased on 1st April 2016 a second-hand machinery for `36,000 and spent
`4,000 on its installation. On 1st October in the same year another machinery costing
`20,000 was purchased. On 1st October 2018, the machinery bought on 1st April
2016, was sold off for `12,000 and on the same date a new machine was purchased
for `64,000. Depreciation is provided annually on 31st March @ 10% per annum on
written down value method.
Prepare the Machinery Account from 1st April 2016 to 31st March 2020. 8
Or
b) What is meant by provision? State any four importance of provisions. Also state
three features of provision. ( 1+4+3=8)
Or 6
b) Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement of Shri Bhandani as on 31st December,
2022;
i) The payment of cheque for `550 was recorded twice in the pass book.
ii) Withdrawal column of the pass book under cast by `200.
iii) A cheque of `200 has been debited in the bank column of the cash book but it
was not sent to bank at all.
iv) A cheque of `300 debited to Bank Account of the pass book has been omitted
to be recorded in cash book.
v) A cheque of `500 sent for collection was dishonoured by the bank.
Overdraft as per pass book is `20,000.
27. a) A firm purchased on 1st April 2016 a second-hand machinery for `36,000 and spent
`4,000 on its installation. On 1st October in the same year another machinery costing
`20,000 was purchased. On 1st October 2018, the machinery bought on 1st April
2016, was sold off for `12,000 and on the same date a new machine was purchased
for `64,000. Depreciation is provided annually on 31st March @ 10% per annum on
written down value method.
Prepare the Machinery Account from 1st April 2016 to 31st March 2020. 8
Or
b) What is meant by provision? State any four importance of provisions. Also state
three features of provision. ( 1+4+3=8)
Page 69
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28 a) From the following trial balance of Ram Kumar, prepare the Trading, Profit& Loss
Account for the year ended 31st March, 2013 and the Balance sheet as at that date.
Name of Accounts Dr (`) Cr (`)
Capital 50,000
Drawings 10,000
Debtors and creditors 24,000 16,000
6% Loan 10,000
Interest on loan 300
Cash 3,000
Provision for bad debts 1,000
Wages 6,000
Stock on 1.4.2012 16,700
Computer 10,000
Bank 7,500
Furniture 20,000
Carriage outward 4,500
Carriage inward 5,000
Salaries 12,000
Rent 8,000
Bad debts 600
Purchases and sales 60,000 1,16,000
Returns 2,000 1,000
Advertising 4,500
Discount 2,600
Insurance premium 2,000
Bills receivables and bills
payable 10,000 8,000
Commission 1,500
Total 2,06,100 2,06,100
Adjustments:-
i) Depreciate furniture by 5% and computer by 10%.
ii) Salaries outstanding by `1,200.
iii) Insurance premium is paid for the year ending 30 th June 2013.
iv) Wages have been paid up to 30th June 2013.
v) Provision for bad debts is to be maintained at 5% on debtors.
vi) Stock on 31st March 2013 was valued at `19,400.
Or 8
28 a) From the following trial balance of Ram Kumar, prepare the Trading, Profit& Loss
Account for the year ended 31st March, 2013 and the Balance sheet as at that date.
Name of Accounts Dr (`) Cr (`)
Capital 50,000
Drawings 10,000
Debtors and creditors 24,000 16,000
6% Loan 10,000
Interest on loan 300
Cash 3,000
Provision for bad debts 1,000
Wages 6,000
Stock on 1.4.2012 16,700
Computer 10,000
Bank 7,500
Furniture 20,000
Carriage outward 4,500
Carriage inward 5,000
Salaries 12,000
Rent 8,000
Bad debts 600
Purchases and sales 60,000 1,16,000
Returns 2,000 1,000
Advertising 4,500
Discount 2,600
Insurance premium 2,000
Bills receivables and bills
payable 10,000 8,000
Commission 1,500
Total 2,06,100 2,06,100
Adjustments:-
i) Depreciate furniture by 5% and computer by 10%.
ii) Salaries outstanding by `1,200.
iii) Insurance premium is paid for the year ending 30 th June 2013.
iv) Wages have been paid up to 30th June 2013.
v) Provision for bad debts is to be maintained at 5% on debtors.
vi) Stock on 31st March 2013 was valued at `19,400.
Or 8
Page 70
-6- NB/XI/ACC/1
b) From the following Trial Balance, extracted from the books of A, prepare
Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31 st March, 2019 and
Balance Sheet as at that date:
Name of Accounts Dr (` ) Cr (`)
Furniture 640
Loose tools 6,250
Buildings 7,500
Capital Account 12,500
Bad debts 125
Provision for bad debts 200
Sundry debtors and creditors 3,800 2,500
Stock on 1st April 2018 3,460
Purchases and sales 5,475 15,450
Bank overdraft 2,850
Sales return and purchases return 200 125
Stationery 450
Interest Account 118
Commission 375
Cash in hand 650
Taxes and insurance 1,250
General expenses 782
Salaries 3,300
Total 34,000 34,000
The following adjustments are to be made:
i) Stock in hand on 31st March 2019, was `3250.
ii) Depreciate building at 5% and furniture at 10%. Loose tools are revalued at
`5,000 at the end of the year.
iii) Salaries `300 and taxes `120 are outstanding.
iv) Insurance amounting to `100 is prepaid.
v) Write off further `100 as bad debts and provision for doubtful debts is to be
made equal to 5% on sundry debtors.
vi) Half of the stationery was used by the proprietor for his personal purposes.
***************************
b) From the following Trial Balance, extracted from the books of A, prepare
Trading and Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31 st March, 2019 and
Balance Sheet as at that date:
Name of Accounts Dr (` ) Cr (`)
Furniture 640
Loose tools 6,250
Buildings 7,500
Capital Account 12,500
Bad debts 125
Provision for bad debts 200
Sundry debtors and creditors 3,800 2,500
Stock on 1st April 2018 3,460
Purchases and sales 5,475 15,450
Bank overdraft 2,850
Sales return and purchases return 200 125
Stationery 450
Interest Account 118
Commission 375
Cash in hand 650
Taxes and insurance 1,250
General expenses 782
Salaries 3,300
Total 34,000 34,000
The following adjustments are to be made:
i) Stock in hand on 31st March 2019, was `3250.
ii) Depreciate building at 5% and furniture at 10%. Loose tools are revalued at
`5,000 at the end of the year.
iii) Salaries `300 and taxes `120 are outstanding.
iv) Insurance amounting to `100 is prepaid.
v) Write off further `100 as bad debts and provision for doubtful debts is to be
made equal to 5% on sundry debtors.
vi) Half of the stationery was used by the proprietor for his personal purposes.
***************************
Page 71
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/PHY/1
2024
PHYSICS
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Which of the following physical quantity is dimensionless? 1
(a) Force (b) Angle
(c) Pressure (d) All of these.
2. The area under (v-t) graph for a particle in a given time interval
represents 1
(a) velocity (b) acceleration
(c) work done (d) displacement.
3. The linear momentum of a body changes at the rate of 10 kgms-1 per
second. What is the force acting on the body? 1
(a) 1N (b) 10N
(c) 1 Kgf (d) 60m
4. Which of the following is a unit of energy? 1
(a) Horse power (b) Joule second
(c) Kilowatt hour (d) Watt.
5. If a stationary firecracker explodes into a number of particles,
then the centre of mass will 1
(a) move in vertical direction (b) move in concentric circles
(c) remain stationary (d) move in parabolic path.
6. As we go from the equator to the poles, value of g 1
(a) remain the same (b) decreases
(c) increases (d) decreases upto a latitude of 45˚.
The density of mercury is 13.6gcm3 at 0˚C and its coefficient of
7.
cubical expansion is 1.82×10-14˚C-1 then density of mercury at 50˚C is 1
(a) 13.48gcm−3 (b) 14 gcm−3
(c) 13.48×10−2gcm-3 (d) none of these.
2024
PHYSICS
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Which of the following physical quantity is dimensionless? 1
(a) Force (b) Angle
(c) Pressure (d) All of these.
2. The area under (v-t) graph for a particle in a given time interval
represents 1
(a) velocity (b) acceleration
(c) work done (d) displacement.
3. The linear momentum of a body changes at the rate of 10 kgms-1 per
second. What is the force acting on the body? 1
(a) 1N (b) 10N
(c) 1 Kgf (d) 60m
4. Which of the following is a unit of energy? 1
(a) Horse power (b) Joule second
(c) Kilowatt hour (d) Watt.
5. If a stationary firecracker explodes into a number of particles,
then the centre of mass will 1
(a) move in vertical direction (b) move in concentric circles
(c) remain stationary (d) move in parabolic path.
6. As we go from the equator to the poles, value of g 1
(a) remain the same (b) decreases
(c) increases (d) decreases upto a latitude of 45˚.
The density of mercury is 13.6gcm3 at 0˚C and its coefficient of
7.
cubical expansion is 1.82×10-14˚C-1 then density of mercury at 50˚C is 1
(a) 13.48gcm−3 (b) 14 gcm−3
(c) 13.48×10−2gcm-3 (d) none of these.
Page 72
-2- NB/XI/PHY/1
8. Even a Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because we cannot 1
(a) prevent radiation (b) find ideal sources
(c) reach absolute zero temperature. (d) eliminate friction
9. According to the kinetic theory of gases at absolute zero temperature 1
(a) water freezes (b) liquid helium freezes
(c) all molecular motions stop altogether (d) liquid hydrogen freezes
10. Water waves are 1
(a) longitudinal
(b) transverse
(c) both longitudinal & transverse
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse
11. Prove that the vector A iˆ 2 ˆj and B 2iˆ ˆj are mutually
perpendicular to each other. 1
12. Name the factors on which the coefficient of friction between two
surfaces depends. 1
13. State Kepler’s law of periods. 1
14. What is the length of the second’s pendulum? 1
15. When do the real gases obey more correctly to the gas equation
PV=nRT? 1
16. Define poisson’s ratio. 1
17. a. How high must a body be lifted to gain an amount of potential
energy equal to kinetic energy it has, when moving at a speed of
20ms−1. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a place is 9.8ms−2.
Or 2
b. Calculate the work done needed to accelerate a car of mass 1400 kg
from rest to 90km/hr within a distance of 40m.
18. The escape velocity on earth is 11.2kms−1. What will be its value on a
planet having double the radius and eight times the mass of earth? 2
19. a. The martain satellite phobos revolves around the planet Mars in a
nearby circular orbit of radius 9.4×106m and a period of 7h39min.
Calculate the mass of the Mars planet.
Or 2
b. Calculate the minimum speed to be imparted to our earth so that it
may leave the solar system and becomes free. Given that mass of
the sun=2×1030kg and orbital radius of the earth is 1.5×1011m.
8. Even a Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because we cannot 1
(a) prevent radiation (b) find ideal sources
(c) reach absolute zero temperature. (d) eliminate friction
9. According to the kinetic theory of gases at absolute zero temperature 1
(a) water freezes (b) liquid helium freezes
(c) all molecular motions stop altogether (d) liquid hydrogen freezes
10. Water waves are 1
(a) longitudinal
(b) transverse
(c) both longitudinal & transverse
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse
11. Prove that the vector A iˆ 2 ˆj and B 2iˆ ˆj are mutually
perpendicular to each other. 1
12. Name the factors on which the coefficient of friction between two
surfaces depends. 1
13. State Kepler’s law of periods. 1
14. What is the length of the second’s pendulum? 1
15. When do the real gases obey more correctly to the gas equation
PV=nRT? 1
16. Define poisson’s ratio. 1
17. a. How high must a body be lifted to gain an amount of potential
energy equal to kinetic energy it has, when moving at a speed of
20ms−1. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a place is 9.8ms−2.
Or 2
b. Calculate the work done needed to accelerate a car of mass 1400 kg
from rest to 90km/hr within a distance of 40m.
18. The escape velocity on earth is 11.2kms−1. What will be its value on a
planet having double the radius and eight times the mass of earth? 2
19. a. The martain satellite phobos revolves around the planet Mars in a
nearby circular orbit of radius 9.4×106m and a period of 7h39min.
Calculate the mass of the Mars planet.
Or 2
b. Calculate the minimum speed to be imparted to our earth so that it
may leave the solar system and becomes free. Given that mass of
the sun=2×1030kg and orbital radius of the earth is 1.5×1011m.
Page 73
-3- NB/XI/PHY/1
20. Show that the value of acceleration due to gravity at a point situated at a
height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth of radius R(h<<R) is given by,
2h
g , g (1 ) 2
R
21. Give two assumptions of kinetic theory of an ideal gas. 2
22. Give the kinetic interpretation of temperature. 2
23. a. The frequency of oscillation of a mass ‘m’ suspended from a
mass less spring of spring constant ‘k’ is given by a relation
v=amxky, where ‘a’ is a dimensionless constant. Find the value of
x and y.
Or 3
b. Viscous force ‘F’ acting on a small spherical object of radius ‘r’
falling freely through a viscous fluid with velocity ‘v’ is given by
F 6 rv where is the coefficient of viscosity of the given
fluid. Obtain the dimensional formula for .
24. Show that for a uniformly accelerated motion, the area below v-t graph
gives the value of net displacement of the object during the time interval. 3
25. What is the angle of sliding? Show that tangent of the angle of sliding is
equal to the coefficient of static friction. 3
26. Obtain an expression for the tension in the string passing over a fixed
pulley. 3
27. Give the two most common types of potential energy. Derive an
expression for the kinetic energy when an external force applied is
a constant force. 3
28. What is centre of mass? Find an expression for the position vector of the
centre of mass of a system consisting of n-particles. 3
29. a. A steel wire of length 5.0m and cross-section 3.0×10−5m2 stretches
by the same amount as a copper wire of length 3m and cross section
4.0×10−5m2 under a given load. What is the ratio of Young’s modulus
of steel to that of copper?
Or 3
−2 −1
b. If surface tension for a soap solution is 2.8×10 Nm , find the
excess pressure inside a bubble of radius 0.2cm.
20. Show that the value of acceleration due to gravity at a point situated at a
height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth of radius R(h<<R) is given by,
2h
g , g (1 ) 2
R
21. Give two assumptions of kinetic theory of an ideal gas. 2
22. Give the kinetic interpretation of temperature. 2
23. a. The frequency of oscillation of a mass ‘m’ suspended from a
mass less spring of spring constant ‘k’ is given by a relation
v=amxky, where ‘a’ is a dimensionless constant. Find the value of
x and y.
Or 3
b. Viscous force ‘F’ acting on a small spherical object of radius ‘r’
falling freely through a viscous fluid with velocity ‘v’ is given by
F 6 rv where is the coefficient of viscosity of the given
fluid. Obtain the dimensional formula for .
24. Show that for a uniformly accelerated motion, the area below v-t graph
gives the value of net displacement of the object during the time interval. 3
25. What is the angle of sliding? Show that tangent of the angle of sliding is
equal to the coefficient of static friction. 3
26. Obtain an expression for the tension in the string passing over a fixed
pulley. 3
27. Give the two most common types of potential energy. Derive an
expression for the kinetic energy when an external force applied is
a constant force. 3
28. What is centre of mass? Find an expression for the position vector of the
centre of mass of a system consisting of n-particles. 3
29. a. A steel wire of length 5.0m and cross-section 3.0×10−5m2 stretches
by the same amount as a copper wire of length 3m and cross section
4.0×10−5m2 under a given load. What is the ratio of Young’s modulus
of steel to that of copper?
Or 3
−2 −1
b. If surface tension for a soap solution is 2.8×10 Nm , find the
excess pressure inside a bubble of radius 0.2cm.
Page 74
-4- NB/XI/PHY/1
30. a. What is a refrigerator? Discuss the working and write the relation
that gives the value of coefficient of performance of an ideal reversible
refrigerator.
Or 3
b. Derive an expression for work done during an isothermal expansion
of gas.
31. What is spring pendulum? Show that the motion of the pendulum is 3
simple harmonic. Find the expression for period of oscillation.
32. a. State parallelogram law of vector addition. Using the law, derive an
expression for the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two
vectors inclined at an angle . What will be the magnitude and
direction if 2 ?
Or 5
b. Deduce the following relations analytically for a uniform motion
along a straight line, where the terms have their usual meanings.
i) v=u+at ii) s=ut+½ at2 iii) v2-u2=2as
33. a. Derive an expression for the rise of liquid in a capillary tube. Give an
application of capillarity phenomenon.
Or 5
b. State Newton’s law of cooling. Deduce the relation ln(T-T0)=−kt+C
where the letters have their usual meaning.
34. What is an open organ pipe? Show that in an open organ pipe, all
harmonics are present. 5
*******************************
30. a. What is a refrigerator? Discuss the working and write the relation
that gives the value of coefficient of performance of an ideal reversible
refrigerator.
Or 3
b. Derive an expression for work done during an isothermal expansion
of gas.
31. What is spring pendulum? Show that the motion of the pendulum is 3
simple harmonic. Find the expression for period of oscillation.
32. a. State parallelogram law of vector addition. Using the law, derive an
expression for the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two
vectors inclined at an angle . What will be the magnitude and
direction if 2 ?
Or 5
b. Deduce the following relations analytically for a uniform motion
along a straight line, where the terms have their usual meanings.
i) v=u+at ii) s=ut+½ at2 iii) v2-u2=2as
33. a. Derive an expression for the rise of liquid in a capillary tube. Give an
application of capillarity phenomenon.
Or 5
b. State Newton’s law of cooling. Deduce the relation ln(T-T0)=−kt+C
where the letters have their usual meaning.
34. What is an open organ pipe? Show that in an open organ pipe, all
harmonics are present. 5
*******************************
Page 75
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/SGY/1
2024
SOCIOLOGY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives from questions 1 to 10.
1. Who is considered as the father of Sociology? 1
(a) Emile Durkheim (b) Auguste Comte (c) Max Weber (d) Franklin Giddings
2. Auguste Comte divided Sociology into which two parts? 1
(a) Social Statics and Social Structures (b) Social Statics and Social Dynamics
(c) Social Dynamics and Social change (d) Social Structure and Social Change
3. How many types of tertiary kin can an ‘ego’ have? 1
(a) 511 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 115
4. Who said the family is a biological and social unit comprised of husband, wife and
children? 1
(a) Elloitt &Merrill (b) Nimkoff (c) Burgess & Locke (d) Malinowski
5. Fight for justice through court of law is known as: 1
(a) Feud (b) War (c) Conflicts of ideas (d) Litigation
6. The word ‘cooperation’ is derived from a Latin word which means: 1
(a) Assimilation (b) To work together (c) Accommodation (d) Adjustment
7. Which method of data collection is considered as the heart of a survey operation? 1
(a) Interview (b) Survey operation(c) Questionnaire (d) Observation
8. Which of the following is not true for Interview method of data collection? 1
(a) More information in greater depth can be obtained
(b) Greater flexibility to restructure questions
(c) Time saving
(d) Can collect supplementary information
9. The stratification system found in Nagaland is based on: 1
(a) Caste (b) Class (c) Slavery (d) Estate
2024
SOCIOLOGY
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i. Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii. The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iv. Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
v. Answers to question carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
vi. Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vii. Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives from questions 1 to 10.
1. Who is considered as the father of Sociology? 1
(a) Emile Durkheim (b) Auguste Comte (c) Max Weber (d) Franklin Giddings
2. Auguste Comte divided Sociology into which two parts? 1
(a) Social Statics and Social Structures (b) Social Statics and Social Dynamics
(c) Social Dynamics and Social change (d) Social Structure and Social Change
3. How many types of tertiary kin can an ‘ego’ have? 1
(a) 511 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 115
4. Who said the family is a biological and social unit comprised of husband, wife and
children? 1
(a) Elloitt &Merrill (b) Nimkoff (c) Burgess & Locke (d) Malinowski
5. Fight for justice through court of law is known as: 1
(a) Feud (b) War (c) Conflicts of ideas (d) Litigation
6. The word ‘cooperation’ is derived from a Latin word which means: 1
(a) Assimilation (b) To work together (c) Accommodation (d) Adjustment
7. Which method of data collection is considered as the heart of a survey operation? 1
(a) Interview (b) Survey operation(c) Questionnaire (d) Observation
8. Which of the following is not true for Interview method of data collection? 1
(a) More information in greater depth can be obtained
(b) Greater flexibility to restructure questions
(c) Time saving
(d) Can collect supplementary information
9. The stratification system found in Nagaland is based on: 1
(a) Caste (b) Class (c) Slavery (d) Estate
Page 76
-2- NB/XI/SGY/1
10. A person growing his car rental business from 1 car to 50 cars and thus improving his status is
an example of: 1
(a) Inter-generational mobility (b) Intra-generational mobility
(c) Spatial mobility (c) Social mobility
11. How does ‘Likeness’ lead to development of social relationship in our society? 2
12. Define Social control. 2
13. What is material culture? Give an example of material culture. 2
14. What is assimilation? Mention one factor that hinders assimilation. 2
15. Distinguish between associative and dissociative processes. 2
16. Give the relation between norms and values. 2
17. What is the difference between a manifest function and a latent function? 2
18. List two features of Caste system. 2
19. Explain the mechanisms or means of informal social control listed by Crosbie. 4
20. Write any four basic characteristics of religion. 4
21. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. 2+2=4
Culture is a social heritage of men. It refers to the beliefs, values, norms or behaviours and
symbols shared by the members of a society. It shapes the individual to think, act and interact
with others. Man internalise cultural contents and develops his personality through the
process of socialization.
Indians value their customs and traditions immensely. Since childhood we have
been taught to act in certain manner and refrain from indulging in certain practices so as to
remain true to our culture. Indian customs and traditions are beautiful, they encourage us to
stay humble and respect others. We must preserve them; instil the same in our future
generations to build a better society.
(a) How is culture acquired?
(b) How does culture influence socialization?
22. What are social values? Write the importance of values. 1+3=4
23. What are the four major classes of modern society? 4
10. A person growing his car rental business from 1 car to 50 cars and thus improving his status is
an example of: 1
(a) Inter-generational mobility (b) Intra-generational mobility
(c) Spatial mobility (c) Social mobility
11. How does ‘Likeness’ lead to development of social relationship in our society? 2
12. Define Social control. 2
13. What is material culture? Give an example of material culture. 2
14. What is assimilation? Mention one factor that hinders assimilation. 2
15. Distinguish between associative and dissociative processes. 2
16. Give the relation between norms and values. 2
17. What is the difference between a manifest function and a latent function? 2
18. List two features of Caste system. 2
19. Explain the mechanisms or means of informal social control listed by Crosbie. 4
20. Write any four basic characteristics of religion. 4
21. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. 2+2=4
Culture is a social heritage of men. It refers to the beliefs, values, norms or behaviours and
symbols shared by the members of a society. It shapes the individual to think, act and interact
with others. Man internalise cultural contents and develops his personality through the
process of socialization.
Indians value their customs and traditions immensely. Since childhood we have
been taught to act in certain manner and refrain from indulging in certain practices so as to
remain true to our culture. Indian customs and traditions are beautiful, they encourage us to
stay humble and respect others. We must preserve them; instil the same in our future
generations to build a better society.
(a) How is culture acquired?
(b) How does culture influence socialization?
22. What are social values? Write the importance of values. 1+3=4
23. What are the four major classes of modern society? 4
Page 77
-3- NB/XI/SGY/1
24. (a) Define Sociology. Discuss its subject matter and scope.
Or 6
(b) Discuss the differences and relationships between sociology and economics.
25. (a) Explain the differences between collection of data through Questionnaire and Schedule
method. 6
Or
(b) What is participant observation? List out four merits of participant observation. (1+5=6)
26. (a) Identify some of the ways that you can adopt to keep the environment clean and green.
Or 6
(b) Explain any (3) three types of societies on the basis of their relationship to the environment.
27. (a) Explain the meaning and forms of marriage.
Or 8
(b)Explain the social functions of family.
28. (a) Discuss Durkheim’s view on social solidarity.
Or 8
(b) Discuss Max Webber’s concept of bureaucracy.
**********************
24. (a) Define Sociology. Discuss its subject matter and scope.
Or 6
(b) Discuss the differences and relationships between sociology and economics.
25. (a) Explain the differences between collection of data through Questionnaire and Schedule
method. 6
Or
(b) What is participant observation? List out four merits of participant observation. (1+5=6)
26. (a) Identify some of the ways that you can adopt to keep the environment clean and green.
Or 6
(b) Explain any (3) three types of societies on the basis of their relationship to the environment.
27. (a) Explain the meaning and forms of marriage.
Or 8
(b)Explain the social functions of family.
28. (a) Discuss Durkheim’s view on social solidarity.
Or 8
(b) Discuss Max Webber’s concept of bureaucracy.
**********************
Page 78
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/BS/1
2024
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. A profession is an economic activity in which one acquires specialized knowledge
which is used to serve others. For example___________. 1
a) Clerk b) Businessman
c) Doctor d) All of the above.
2. Which of the following is not known as service industry? 1
a) Processing Industry b) Banking Industry
c) Insurance Industry d) Advertising Industry.
3. Which of the following is a type of digital payment? 1
a) Unified Payment Interface b) Quick response code
c) E-Wallet d) All of the above.
4. The word ‘Assurance’ is used for____________. 1
a) Marine insurance b) Theft insurance
c) Life insurance d) Fire insurance.
5. Equity share holders are called____________. 1
a) Partners of the company b) Executives of the company
c) Guardian of the company d) Owners of the company.
6. Its objective is to mobilize the community’s small savings and channelize them
into productive ventures. Which financial institute is this? 1
a) State Finance Corporations b) Unit Trust of India
c) Public deposits d) Investment Bank of India.
2024
BUSINESS STUDIES
Full marks: 80 Time : 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
iv) Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
v) Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
vi) Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
vii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. A profession is an economic activity in which one acquires specialized knowledge
which is used to serve others. For example___________. 1
a) Clerk b) Businessman
c) Doctor d) All of the above.
2. Which of the following is not known as service industry? 1
a) Processing Industry b) Banking Industry
c) Insurance Industry d) Advertising Industry.
3. Which of the following is a type of digital payment? 1
a) Unified Payment Interface b) Quick response code
c) E-Wallet d) All of the above.
4. The word ‘Assurance’ is used for____________. 1
a) Marine insurance b) Theft insurance
c) Life insurance d) Fire insurance.
5. Equity share holders are called____________. 1
a) Partners of the company b) Executives of the company
c) Guardian of the company d) Owners of the company.
6. Its objective is to mobilize the community’s small savings and channelize them
into productive ventures. Which financial institute is this? 1
a) State Finance Corporations b) Unit Trust of India
c) Public deposits d) Investment Bank of India.
Page 79
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7. ________ means the process of establishment of a business unit by an individual. 1
a) Enterprise b) Entrepreneur
c) Entrepreneurship d) All of the above.
8. A small scale industry using power is an enterprise that employees not more
than________. 1
a) 50 persons b) 75 persons
c) 100 persons d) 10 persons.
9. The modern concept of shopping which provides multiple facilities at one place
is known as ____________. 1
a) Retail shop b) Wholesale shop
c) Super bazaar d) Malls.
10. To sell shoes for children, men, women, etc, is the example of ____________. 1
a) Single-product shop b) Single-line shop
c) General store d) Departmental store.
11. Mention any four features of a One Person Company (OPC). 2
12. The government planned to start a medical project but it requires the help of
management specialist and financial help to complete it. The government
contacted the private sector for this requirement. Now, this project will be jointly
done by the Government and the private firm.
i) What type of partnership is this? 1
ii) Write one feature of such partnership. 1
13. What is meant by B2B and C2C? 2
14. What is payment mechanism under E-Commerce? 2
15. Why do we say that environment faces a threat from business? 2
16. Write any two features of Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs). 2
17. Mention any four documents used in export trade. 2
18. Write any two functions of World Trade Organisation (WTO). 2
19. Explain four social objectives of business. 4
7. ________ means the process of establishment of a business unit by an individual. 1
a) Enterprise b) Entrepreneur
c) Entrepreneurship d) All of the above.
8. A small scale industry using power is an enterprise that employees not more
than________. 1
a) 50 persons b) 75 persons
c) 100 persons d) 10 persons.
9. The modern concept of shopping which provides multiple facilities at one place
is known as ____________. 1
a) Retail shop b) Wholesale shop
c) Super bazaar d) Malls.
10. To sell shoes for children, men, women, etc, is the example of ____________. 1
a) Single-product shop b) Single-line shop
c) General store d) Departmental store.
11. Mention any four features of a One Person Company (OPC). 2
12. The government planned to start a medical project but it requires the help of
management specialist and financial help to complete it. The government
contacted the private sector for this requirement. Now, this project will be jointly
done by the Government and the private firm.
i) What type of partnership is this? 1
ii) Write one feature of such partnership. 1
13. What is meant by B2B and C2C? 2
14. What is payment mechanism under E-Commerce? 2
15. Why do we say that environment faces a threat from business? 2
16. Write any two features of Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs). 2
17. Mention any four documents used in export trade. 2
18. Write any two functions of World Trade Organisation (WTO). 2
19. Explain four social objectives of business. 4
Page 80
-3- NB/XI/BS/1
20. Commerce includes not only trade but also various auxiliaries to aid trade.
Discuss any four of such auxiliaries. 4
21. Explain any four elements of business ethics. 4
22. Distinguish between equity share and preference share on four basis. 4
23. The importer usually appoints a clearing agent to make delivery of the goods.
Discuss any four functions of such a clearing agent. 4
24. a) Explain any six advantages of departmental undertaking. 6
Or
b) Refreshing Cola is a Canadian Company, with its head office there. It wants
to branch out and start a production unit and office in India. It did some market
research and found out that there are other Indian and foreign companies which
were producing cold drinks in India. But Refreshing Cola was willing to take a
risk and invest in India. This move will bring some advantages to India but will
pose as a threat to the domestic companies in India.
i) What type of business is Refreshing Cola? (1)
ii) Discuss two advantages it will bring to the Indian Economy. (2)
iii) Explain any three disadvantages of such companies. (3)
25. a) Explain any six agency functions performed by a bank for its customers.
Or 6
b) Explain any six principles of insurance.
26. a) Temjen was always trying to make things easier to use for his mother. During
one of his experiments, he invented a cleaning machine that could sweep and
even mop the floor using very less water. Soon people came to learn about this
wonderful machine and wanted to buy. So, Temjen needed financial assistance to
start his own business to manufacture the cleaning machine. One day, a friend told
him about a government scheme which started in 2015 that helps entrepreneurs
financially, to develop technology.
i) What is the name of this government scheme? 1
ii) If there is any condition given by the government, write any two of such
conditions. 2
iii) Explain any three features of this scheme. 3
Or
b) Theja loved reading books. One day, he hoped to write one novel. It finally
came into reality and he wrote a book on motivation. He wanted to take
20. Commerce includes not only trade but also various auxiliaries to aid trade.
Discuss any four of such auxiliaries. 4
21. Explain any four elements of business ethics. 4
22. Distinguish between equity share and preference share on four basis. 4
23. The importer usually appoints a clearing agent to make delivery of the goods.
Discuss any four functions of such a clearing agent. 4
24. a) Explain any six advantages of departmental undertaking. 6
Or
b) Refreshing Cola is a Canadian Company, with its head office there. It wants
to branch out and start a production unit and office in India. It did some market
research and found out that there are other Indian and foreign companies which
were producing cold drinks in India. But Refreshing Cola was willing to take a
risk and invest in India. This move will bring some advantages to India but will
pose as a threat to the domestic companies in India.
i) What type of business is Refreshing Cola? (1)
ii) Discuss two advantages it will bring to the Indian Economy. (2)
iii) Explain any three disadvantages of such companies. (3)
25. a) Explain any six agency functions performed by a bank for its customers.
Or 6
b) Explain any six principles of insurance.
26. a) Temjen was always trying to make things easier to use for his mother. During
one of his experiments, he invented a cleaning machine that could sweep and
even mop the floor using very less water. Soon people came to learn about this
wonderful machine and wanted to buy. So, Temjen needed financial assistance to
start his own business to manufacture the cleaning machine. One day, a friend told
him about a government scheme which started in 2015 that helps entrepreneurs
financially, to develop technology.
i) What is the name of this government scheme? 1
ii) If there is any condition given by the government, write any two of such
conditions. 2
iii) Explain any three features of this scheme. 3
Or
b) Theja loved reading books. One day, he hoped to write one novel. It finally
came into reality and he wrote a book on motivation. He wanted to take
Page 81
-4- NB/XI/BS/1
measures to protect his property i.e. the book.
i) Under what type of property right can he protect his book? (1)
ii) Write the registration process of such rights. (3)
iii) What is the duration of such rights? (2)
27. a) Explain any eight features of sole proprietorship.
Or 8
b) Explain any eight merits of co-operative organization.
28. a) Distinguish between retailers and wholesalers.
Or 8
b) Explain any eight main terms used under Goods and Services Tax(GST).
**********************
measures to protect his property i.e. the book.
i) Under what type of property right can he protect his book? (1)
ii) Write the registration process of such rights. (3)
iii) What is the duration of such rights? (2)
27. a) Explain any eight features of sole proprietorship.
Or 8
b) Explain any eight merits of co-operative organization.
28. a) Distinguish between retailers and wholesalers.
Or 8
b) Explain any eight main terms used under Goods and Services Tax(GST).
**********************
Page 82
Total number of printed pages: 5 NB/XI/GEO/1
2024
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
15 and 30. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section –A
1. (I) In order to understand the various aspects of geography, we make use of
globe which is the true representative of the earth. However, it is not
convenient to use globe for all intents and purposes and instead we make
use of maps.
(II) Modern scientific techniques such as Geographic Information System
(GIS). Global Positioning System (GPS) and computer cartography are
making a significant contribution in this direction. 1
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct but not related to one another
(d) Both statements are correct and related to one another
2. The atmospheric layer which reflects back radio waves to earth- 1
(a) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere
(b) Ionosphere (d) Troposphere
3. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? 1
(a) Ozone (c) Nitrous oxide
(b) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
4. A current of the North Pacific Ocean 1
(a) Antilles current (c) Florida current
(b) Kuroshio current (d) Gulf current
5. Deepest parts in the oceans are 1
(a) continental slope (c) abyssal plains
(b) submarine ridges (d) submarine trenches
2024
GEOGRAPHY
Total marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into Section A and Section B.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Alternate questions for the visually impaired has been provided in question nos.
15 and 30. ONLY the visually impaired are to attempt this alternate questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section –A
1. (I) In order to understand the various aspects of geography, we make use of
globe which is the true representative of the earth. However, it is not
convenient to use globe for all intents and purposes and instead we make
use of maps.
(II) Modern scientific techniques such as Geographic Information System
(GIS). Global Positioning System (GPS) and computer cartography are
making a significant contribution in this direction. 1
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Only statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct but not related to one another
(d) Both statements are correct and related to one another
2. The atmospheric layer which reflects back radio waves to earth- 1
(a) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere
(b) Ionosphere (d) Troposphere
3. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? 1
(a) Ozone (c) Nitrous oxide
(b) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
4. A current of the North Pacific Ocean 1
(a) Antilles current (c) Florida current
(b) Kuroshio current (d) Gulf current
5. Deepest parts in the oceans are 1
(a) continental slope (c) abyssal plains
(b) submarine ridges (d) submarine trenches
Page 83
-2- NB/XI/GEO/1
6. Write any two main advantages of regional geography. 2
7. According to Wegener, what were the two forces which were responsible for
continental drift? 2
8. What is salinity? What is the average salinity of sea water? 2
9. a. Explain in brief any three indirect sources through which information is
obtained about the interior of the earth.
Or 3
b. Explain in brief, the three types of volcanoes.
10. Define any three. 3
(a) Abrasion in river water (c) Traction in transportation by rivers
(b) Lateral erosion of rivers (d) Stalactite
(e) Doline
11. What is a dew point? How does condensation take place? 3
12. Differentiate between endangered species and vulnerable species. 3
13. a. What is mass wasting? Mention the three types. Under what force does
mass wasting take place?
Or 5
b. Write any five differences between physical weathering and chemical
weathering.
14. a. State five conditions which favor inversion of temperature.
Or 5
b. Mention any five characteristics of westerlies.
15. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below. 1+1=2
a. Atlantic forest
b. Mariana Trench
6. Write any two main advantages of regional geography. 2
7. According to Wegener, what were the two forces which were responsible for
continental drift? 2
8. What is salinity? What is the average salinity of sea water? 2
9. a. Explain in brief any three indirect sources through which information is
obtained about the interior of the earth.
Or 3
b. Explain in brief, the three types of volcanoes.
10. Define any three. 3
(a) Abrasion in river water (c) Traction in transportation by rivers
(b) Lateral erosion of rivers (d) Stalactite
(e) Doline
11. What is a dew point? How does condensation take place? 3
12. Differentiate between endangered species and vulnerable species. 3
13. a. What is mass wasting? Mention the three types. Under what force does
mass wasting take place?
Or 5
b. Write any five differences between physical weathering and chemical
weathering.
14. a. State five conditions which favor inversion of temperature.
Or 5
b. Mention any five characteristics of westerlies.
15. On the given world map, four areas are numbered. Choose any two and match
with the names given below. 1+1=2
a. Atlantic forest
b. Mariana Trench
Page 84
-3- NB/XI/GEO/1
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.15
a. Atlantic forest is located in which country?
b. In which ocean is the Mariana Trench located?
Section - B
16. The southernmost point of India is 1
(a) 8 4 ' North latitude (c) 37 6 ' North latitude
(b) 6 45 ' North latitude (d) 22 North latitude
17. The country which borders India in the north is 1
(a) Myanmar (c) Bangladesh
(b) China (d) Sri Lanka
18. Assertion(A)- The climate of the world has changed in the past and is changing
at present.
Reason(A)- Several natural and man-made factors are responsible for this
change. 1
(a) Only (A) is correct
(b) Only (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but not related to each other
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.15
a. Atlantic forest is located in which country?
b. In which ocean is the Mariana Trench located?
Section - B
16. The southernmost point of India is 1
(a) 8 4 ' North latitude (c) 37 6 ' North latitude
(b) 6 45 ' North latitude (d) 22 North latitude
17. The country which borders India in the north is 1
(a) Myanmar (c) Bangladesh
(b) China (d) Sri Lanka
18. Assertion(A)- The climate of the world has changed in the past and is changing
at present.
Reason(A)- Several natural and man-made factors are responsible for this
change. 1
(a) Only (A) is correct
(b) Only (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct but not related to each other
Page 85
-4- NB/XI/GEO/1
19. The hot weather season of India starts in April and continues up to June
because 1
(a) the sun’s ray is vertical over the Tropic of Cancer
(b) the days are longer
(c) the sun’s ray is vertical over the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) the equation shifts its position
20. Project Elephant was launched in 1
(a) 1973 (c) 1992
(b) 1975 (d) 1986
21. Which part of the country is known as the Central Highlands? 2
22. What is urban forestry? 2
23. What is “monsoon burst”? 2
24. Mention any two types of droughts. 2
25. Read the following passage carefully and answer the following:
The thoughtless and rapid exploitation of our forest resources has damaged our
ecosystem beyond repair. On an average, India has been losing 1.3 million
hectares of forest land every year. This is an alarming situation indeed.
Increasing destruction and degradation of forests is leading to large scale
denudation of hill slopes, soil erosion, and erratic rainfall resulting in floods
and droughts. These have become major problems for us. It is now generally
realised that forests are life-givers and play an important role in maintaining the
ecological balance. It is, therefore, necessary for us to conserve the forest
resources and increase the forest area. This can partially be achieved by
programmes like social forestry. Although limited success has been achieved in
social forestry, its main objective is to fulfil the basic needs of fuel and fodder.
3
a) Name one consequence of increasing destruction and degradation of forests.
b) What plays an important role in maintaining the ecological balance?
c) What is the main objective of social forestry?
26. Give three reasons why ‘the Indian Ocean is truly Indian Ocean’. 3
27. a. Write three usability of rivers.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between watershed and river basin.
28. a. Mention any five differences between Peninsular Plateau and Himalayan
Mountain.
Or 5
b. State any five differences between Bhabar and Tarai.
19. The hot weather season of India starts in April and continues up to June
because 1
(a) the sun’s ray is vertical over the Tropic of Cancer
(b) the days are longer
(c) the sun’s ray is vertical over the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) the equation shifts its position
20. Project Elephant was launched in 1
(a) 1973 (c) 1992
(b) 1975 (d) 1986
21. Which part of the country is known as the Central Highlands? 2
22. What is urban forestry? 2
23. What is “monsoon burst”? 2
24. Mention any two types of droughts. 2
25. Read the following passage carefully and answer the following:
The thoughtless and rapid exploitation of our forest resources has damaged our
ecosystem beyond repair. On an average, India has been losing 1.3 million
hectares of forest land every year. This is an alarming situation indeed.
Increasing destruction and degradation of forests is leading to large scale
denudation of hill slopes, soil erosion, and erratic rainfall resulting in floods
and droughts. These have become major problems for us. It is now generally
realised that forests are life-givers and play an important role in maintaining the
ecological balance. It is, therefore, necessary for us to conserve the forest
resources and increase the forest area. This can partially be achieved by
programmes like social forestry. Although limited success has been achieved in
social forestry, its main objective is to fulfil the basic needs of fuel and fodder.
3
a) Name one consequence of increasing destruction and degradation of forests.
b) What plays an important role in maintaining the ecological balance?
c) What is the main objective of social forestry?
26. Give three reasons why ‘the Indian Ocean is truly Indian Ocean’. 3
27. a. Write three usability of rivers.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between watershed and river basin.
28. a. Mention any five differences between Peninsular Plateau and Himalayan
Mountain.
Or 5
b. State any five differences between Bhabar and Tarai.
Page 86
-5- NB/XI/GEO/1
29. a. What is a cyclone? Mention four measures which are useful for reducing
the impact of damage by cyclone.
Or 5
b. Mention five consequences of earthquakes.
30. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
a. Indira point
b. Brahmaputra basin
c. Narmada River
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.30
a. Indira point is located in which island group of India?
b. Where is Brahmaputra basin located?
c. Narmada river flows into which sea?
****************************************
29. a. What is a cyclone? Mention four measures which are useful for reducing
the impact of damage by cyclone.
Or 5
b. Mention five consequences of earthquakes.
30. On the given map of India, five areas are numbered. Choose any three and
match with the names given below. 1+1+1=3
a. Indira point
b. Brahmaputra basin
c. Narmada River
For visually impaired students in lieu of Q.no.30
a. Indira point is located in which island group of India?
b. Where is Brahmaputra basin located?
c. Narmada river flows into which sea?
****************************************
Page 87
Total number of printed pages : 6 NB-XI/MS/1
2024
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Give the other name for alto clef. Why is it called so? 1
2. Write the main beats for time. 1
3. Define harmonic rhythm. 1
4. What are enharmonic notes? 1
5. Name the scale that uses only semitones. 1
6. What is the other name for the subdominant degree of a major scale? 1
7. Define unaccented passing notes. 1
8. Why is the plagal cadence called an Amen cadence? 1
9. How many semitones are there in a perfect 4th ? 1
10. Draw the V 7 chord of G major on the treble stave. 1
11. Give the meanings of : 1
a) sempre b) largo
12. How are sections in music often shown? 1
2024
MUSIC
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice is given in questions carrying 4 and 6 marks.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Give the other name for alto clef. Why is it called so? 1
2. Write the main beats for time. 1
3. Define harmonic rhythm. 1
4. What are enharmonic notes? 1
5. Name the scale that uses only semitones. 1
6. What is the other name for the subdominant degree of a major scale? 1
7. Define unaccented passing notes. 1
8. Why is the plagal cadence called an Amen cadence? 1
9. How many semitones are there in a perfect 4th ? 1
10. Draw the V 7 chord of G major on the treble stave. 1
11. Give the meanings of : 1
a) sempre b) largo
12. How are sections in music often shown? 1
Page 88
(2) NB-XI/MS/1
13. Write the correct clef before the following notes. 2
14. Add barlines to agree with the time signature. 1+1=2
a)
b)
15. Name the harmonic rhythm in the following music. 1+1=2
a)
b)
16. Continue the rhythm to fit the following phrases. 2
“ A ship there is and she sails the sea,
She’s loaded deep as deep can be.”
A ship there is and she
13. Write the correct clef before the following notes. 2
14. Add barlines to agree with the time signature. 1+1=2
a)
b)
15. Name the harmonic rhythm in the following music. 1+1=2
a)
b)
16. Continue the rhythm to fit the following phrases. 2
“ A ship there is and she sails the sea,
She’s loaded deep as deep can be.”
A ship there is and she
Page 89
(3) NB-XI/MS/1
17. Write two more repeats of the following ostinato. 2
18. Work out the key of the following music: 1+1=2
a)
b)
19. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the key of B major (bass stave) using
the given rhythm, going up then down. 2
20. Add passing notes below the asterisks : 2
21. Write a tune for flute using the first five degrees of the D major scale
to the given rhythm. Use key signature and finish on the tonic.. 2
22. Construct the dominant 7th chord in the key of E major using semibreves,
on the bass stave. Use key signature. 2
17. Write two more repeats of the following ostinato. 2
18. Work out the key of the following music: 1+1=2
a)
b)
19. Write a one-octave arpeggio in the key of B major (bass stave) using
the given rhythm, going up then down. 2
20. Add passing notes below the asterisks : 2
21. Write a tune for flute using the first five degrees of the D major scale
to the given rhythm. Use key signature and finish on the tonic.. 2
22. Construct the dominant 7th chord in the key of E major using semibreves,
on the bass stave. Use key signature. 2
Page 90
(4) NB-XI/MS/1
Answer any five from questions 23-29
23. Write the following tunes using alto clef, so that they sound at the
same pitch. 2+2=4
a)
b)
24. Using minims, construct the following scales with key signature. 2+2=4
a) A major scale, going down and then up (alto clef).
b) G melodic minor scale, going up and then down (treble clef)
25. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord symbols to show
the chord progression . 4
26. Give the key of each cadence. Identify the type of cadence and label
with chord symbols and roman numerals. 2+2=4
27. Draw the following intervals up from the given notes : 4x1=4
Augmented 4th Diminished 5th Minor 3rd Major 6th
28. Transpose the following tune up a perfect 5th . 4
Answer any five from questions 23-29
23. Write the following tunes using alto clef, so that they sound at the
same pitch. 2+2=4
a)
b)
24. Using minims, construct the following scales with key signature. 2+2=4
a) A major scale, going down and then up (alto clef).
b) G melodic minor scale, going up and then down (treble clef)
25. Label the triads with roman numerals and chord symbols to show
the chord progression . 4
26. Give the key of each cadence. Identify the type of cadence and label
with chord symbols and roman numerals. 2+2=4
27. Draw the following intervals up from the given notes : 4x1=4
Augmented 4th Diminished 5th Minor 3rd Major 6th
28. Transpose the following tune up a perfect 5th . 4
Page 91
(5) NB-XI/MS/1
29. Draw the following tonic triads in root position, first inversion and
second inversion as directed. Use minims. 2+2=4
a) F major (alto clef)
b) B minor (treble clef)
Answer any three from questions 30-34.
30. Look at the music and answer the questions below. 6x1=6
a) What key is this music in?
b) Which scale is at the start of the melody?
c) Name the harmonic rhythm.
d) Name the interval between the two notes marked with
asterisks in the treble part.
e) Label the last triad with appropriate roman numeral and chord
symbol.
f) Name the rest found in the bass stave. What is its time value?
31. Using minims, write out 4-part chords for SATB, using the chords
shown by the roman numerals. Double the root in each case. Use
key signature. 3+3=6
E major - IV
a) F minor - V
b)
29. Draw the following tonic triads in root position, first inversion and
second inversion as directed. Use minims. 2+2=4
a) F major (alto clef)
b) B minor (treble clef)
Answer any three from questions 30-34.
30. Look at the music and answer the questions below. 6x1=6
a) What key is this music in?
b) Which scale is at the start of the melody?
c) Name the harmonic rhythm.
d) Name the interval between the two notes marked with
asterisks in the treble part.
e) Label the last triad with appropriate roman numeral and chord
symbol.
f) Name the rest found in the bass stave. What is its time value?
31. Using minims, write out 4-part chords for SATB, using the chords
shown by the roman numerals. Double the root in each case. Use
key signature. 3+3=6
E major - IV
a) F minor - V
b)
Page 92
(6) NB-XI/MS/1
32. Use notes from the chords shown by the chord symbols and roman
numerals to create : 3+3=6
a) A bass line for the given melody. Add repeated notes and octaves.
I IV V I
b) A tune for the given bass line. Add some unaccented passing notes.
33. Draw scales in the given keys. Construct triads on the tonic, sub-
dominant and dominant degrees. Label them with chord symbols
a)
and roman numerals.
F harmonic minor scale, treble clef, going down.
3+3=6
b) C melodic minor scale, bass clef, going up.
34. Using triplet quavers, write broken chords as directed. Finish no less
than 2 leger lines above/below the stave. Use key signature. 3+3=6
a) D major tonic triad, going up, treble clef. (start on the D below
the stave)
b) G minor tonic triad, going down, bass clef. (start on the D above
the stave) .
*************************************
32. Use notes from the chords shown by the chord symbols and roman
numerals to create : 3+3=6
a) A bass line for the given melody. Add repeated notes and octaves.
I IV V I
b) A tune for the given bass line. Add some unaccented passing notes.
33. Draw scales in the given keys. Construct triads on the tonic, sub-
dominant and dominant degrees. Label them with chord symbols
a)
and roman numerals.
F harmonic minor scale, treble clef, going down.
3+3=6
b) C melodic minor scale, bass clef, going up.
34. Using triplet quavers, write broken chords as directed. Finish no less
than 2 leger lines above/below the stave. Use key signature. 3+3=6
a) D major tonic triad, going up, treble clef. (start on the D below
the stave)
b) G minor tonic triad, going down, bass clef. (start on the D above
the stave) .
*************************************
Page 93
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB-XI/PSC/1
2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the
top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 10 (1x10=10)
1. Which of the following is a basic element of nation?
(a) Language (b) Territory
(c) Religion (d) Ethnic unity
2. Which of the following can be classified as civil liberty?
(a) Right to vote (b) Freedom to acquire property
(c) Freedom of speech and assembly (d) Right to criticize the government
3. ‘Each person was to count as one and no more than one’ has to do with the principle of
(a) Equality (b) Liberty
(c) Justice (d) Rights
4. The Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 fall in the category of
(a) Cultural and Educational Rights (b) Right to personal liberty
(c) Political rights (d) Right to work
5. Which of the following is not an effect of the British Constitution on the Constitution
of India?
(a) Parliamentary form of government (b) Office of the Speaker
(c) Principle of Judicial Review (d) Law making procedure
6. Over which four states does the Guwahati High Court extends jurisdiction?
(a) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram
(b) Assam, Sikkim, Tripura, Nagaland
(c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
(d) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Nagaland
7. An important way of classifying constitution is the case with which a constitution can
be amended. The Constitution of India falls into which of the following categories?
(a) Rigid constitution (b) Mixture of flexible and rigid element
(c) Static constitution (d) Flexible constitution
8. The qualifications required to be a member of Rajya Sabha are
(i) Must be a citizen of India
(ii) Must be a graduate
(iii) Must not be less than 30 years of age
(iv) Must be a member of a political party
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii)
2024
POLITICAL SCIENCE
Full marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the
top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 – 10 (1x10=10)
1. Which of the following is a basic element of nation?
(a) Language (b) Territory
(c) Religion (d) Ethnic unity
2. Which of the following can be classified as civil liberty?
(a) Right to vote (b) Freedom to acquire property
(c) Freedom of speech and assembly (d) Right to criticize the government
3. ‘Each person was to count as one and no more than one’ has to do with the principle of
(a) Equality (b) Liberty
(c) Justice (d) Rights
4. The Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 fall in the category of
(a) Cultural and Educational Rights (b) Right to personal liberty
(c) Political rights (d) Right to work
5. Which of the following is not an effect of the British Constitution on the Constitution
of India?
(a) Parliamentary form of government (b) Office of the Speaker
(c) Principle of Judicial Review (d) Law making procedure
6. Over which four states does the Guwahati High Court extends jurisdiction?
(a) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram
(b) Assam, Sikkim, Tripura, Nagaland
(c) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland
(d) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura, Nagaland
7. An important way of classifying constitution is the case with which a constitution can
be amended. The Constitution of India falls into which of the following categories?
(a) Rigid constitution (b) Mixture of flexible and rigid element
(c) Static constitution (d) Flexible constitution
8. The qualifications required to be a member of Rajya Sabha are
(i) Must be a citizen of India
(ii) Must be a graduate
(iii) Must not be less than 30 years of age
(iv) Must be a member of a political party
Codes
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii)
Page 94
-2- NB-XI/PSC/1
9. What are the key features of a Federal Government?
(i) Division of power (ii) Two sets of identities
(iii) Centralization (iv) Written and rigid constitution
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
10. What is the significance of Local Government?
(i) People-friendly administration (ii) Self-Government
(iii) Ineffective management (iv) Expensive and difficult
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
Answer the following questions in about 50 words 2x8=16
11. Briefly describe the ancient Indian conception of Politics. (2)
12. Mention any two rights under political liberty. (2)
13. Differentiate between negative and positive rights. (2)
14. Briefly explain the western view of secularism. (2)
15. Briefly explain two roles and functions of the Civil Servants. (2)
16. What is an adjournment motion? (2)
17. Mention any two subjects included in each of the following Lists: (1+1=2)
a) Union List
b) State List
18. Write any two functions of Gram Sabha. (2)
Answer the following questions in about 100 words 4x5=20
19. Examine any two utilities of the study of Political Theory. (4)
20. Justify the significance or importance of a democratic constitution. (4)
21. Write any four measures that have been taken to ensure free and fair elections
in India. (4)
22. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows. (1x4=4)
Self-determination, the process by which a group of people, usually possessing
a certain degree of national consciousness, form their own state and choose their own
government. As a political principle, the idea of self-determination evolved at first as a
by-product of the doctrine of nationalism to which early expression was given by the
French and American Revolution. In the World War I, the Allies accepted self-
determination as a peace aim. In his Fourteen Points – the essential terms for peace,
U.S. President, Woodrow Wilson listed self-determination as an important objective for
the post war world. The result was the fragmentation of the old Austro-Hungarian and
Ottoman empire and Russia’s former Baltic territories into number of new states.
After the World War II, promotion of self-determination among subject people
became one of the chief goals of the United Nations. The UN’s predecessor, the League
of Nations had also recognized the principle but it was in the UN that the idea received
its clearest statement and affirmation.
The UN charter gave two meaning of the term self-determination. First, a state
is said to have the right of self-determination in the sense of having the right to choose
9. What are the key features of a Federal Government?
(i) Division of power (ii) Two sets of identities
(iii) Centralization (iv) Written and rigid constitution
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
10. What is the significance of Local Government?
(i) People-friendly administration (ii) Self-Government
(iii) Ineffective management (iv) Expensive and difficult
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
Answer the following questions in about 50 words 2x8=16
11. Briefly describe the ancient Indian conception of Politics. (2)
12. Mention any two rights under political liberty. (2)
13. Differentiate between negative and positive rights. (2)
14. Briefly explain the western view of secularism. (2)
15. Briefly explain two roles and functions of the Civil Servants. (2)
16. What is an adjournment motion? (2)
17. Mention any two subjects included in each of the following Lists: (1+1=2)
a) Union List
b) State List
18. Write any two functions of Gram Sabha. (2)
Answer the following questions in about 100 words 4x5=20
19. Examine any two utilities of the study of Political Theory. (4)
20. Justify the significance or importance of a democratic constitution. (4)
21. Write any four measures that have been taken to ensure free and fair elections
in India. (4)
22. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows. (1x4=4)
Self-determination, the process by which a group of people, usually possessing
a certain degree of national consciousness, form their own state and choose their own
government. As a political principle, the idea of self-determination evolved at first as a
by-product of the doctrine of nationalism to which early expression was given by the
French and American Revolution. In the World War I, the Allies accepted self-
determination as a peace aim. In his Fourteen Points – the essential terms for peace,
U.S. President, Woodrow Wilson listed self-determination as an important objective for
the post war world. The result was the fragmentation of the old Austro-Hungarian and
Ottoman empire and Russia’s former Baltic territories into number of new states.
After the World War II, promotion of self-determination among subject people
became one of the chief goals of the United Nations. The UN’s predecessor, the League
of Nations had also recognized the principle but it was in the UN that the idea received
its clearest statement and affirmation.
The UN charter gave two meaning of the term self-determination. First, a state
is said to have the right of self-determination in the sense of having the right to choose
Page 95
-3- NB-XI/PSC/1
freely its political, economic, social and cultural system. Second, the right to self
determination is defined as the right of the people to constitute itself in a state or
otherwise freely determine the form of its associations with an existing state. (Internet
source)
i. The main objective of the principle of self-determination is
(a) one race, one nation (b) decolonization
(c) self-governance (d) national development
ii. The political idea of self-determination originated with the rise of
(a) colonialism (b) United Nations
(c) International Organizations (d) nationalism
iii. Which of the following defines the right to self-determination?
(i) Right to choose its political system
(ii) Right to self defense
(iii) Freedom of association with other state
(iv) Right to choose its own government
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
iv. What was the immediate result of the World War I?
(a) Break-up of the Ottoman empire (b) Formation of the United Nation
(c) End of the League of Nations (d) Formation of alliance
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1+2+1=4)
Judicial activism through a process known as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
has emerged as a powerful mechanism of social change in India. The Indian democracy
enables citizens to change the government but not their social and economic conditions.
The implementation of legislation to remove exploitation and discrimination against the
poor and weak has been neglected, and the government has failed to provide basic
education and economic stability. To counter this situation, PIL was created to
empower ordinary citizens. Judicial action initiated through PIL petitions have brought
relief to a wide variety of cases by delivering justice to the weaker sections and has
taken action against political corruption and unaccountability. PIL has become an
integral part of the judicial system. Judicial activism is likely to continue and force the
state to act responsibly for the welfare of the people. (ResearchGate)
i. What is meant by judicial activism?
ii. Why is PIL important in ensuring justice and accountability?
iii. Why was judicial activism introduced in India?
Answers the following questions in about 200 words. 6x3=18
24. (a) Explain the necessity of government as a constituent element of state.
Also highlight the internal and external sovereignty of state.
Or (2+4=6)
(b) What is citizenship? Explain how citizenship is lost in India.
25. (a) What is meant by rights? Explain any three civil rights. (2+4=6)
Or
(b) What is secularism? Suggest any five measures that can be taken to
freely its political, economic, social and cultural system. Second, the right to self
determination is defined as the right of the people to constitute itself in a state or
otherwise freely determine the form of its associations with an existing state. (Internet
source)
i. The main objective of the principle of self-determination is
(a) one race, one nation (b) decolonization
(c) self-governance (d) national development
ii. The political idea of self-determination originated with the rise of
(a) colonialism (b) United Nations
(c) International Organizations (d) nationalism
iii. Which of the following defines the right to self-determination?
(i) Right to choose its political system
(ii) Right to self defense
(iii) Freedom of association with other state
(iv) Right to choose its own government
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
iv. What was the immediate result of the World War I?
(a) Break-up of the Ottoman empire (b) Formation of the United Nation
(c) End of the League of Nations (d) Formation of alliance
23. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: (1+2+1=4)
Judicial activism through a process known as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
has emerged as a powerful mechanism of social change in India. The Indian democracy
enables citizens to change the government but not their social and economic conditions.
The implementation of legislation to remove exploitation and discrimination against the
poor and weak has been neglected, and the government has failed to provide basic
education and economic stability. To counter this situation, PIL was created to
empower ordinary citizens. Judicial action initiated through PIL petitions have brought
relief to a wide variety of cases by delivering justice to the weaker sections and has
taken action against political corruption and unaccountability. PIL has become an
integral part of the judicial system. Judicial activism is likely to continue and force the
state to act responsibly for the welfare of the people. (ResearchGate)
i. What is meant by judicial activism?
ii. Why is PIL important in ensuring justice and accountability?
iii. Why was judicial activism introduced in India?
Answers the following questions in about 200 words. 6x3=18
24. (a) Explain the necessity of government as a constituent element of state.
Also highlight the internal and external sovereignty of state.
Or (2+4=6)
(b) What is citizenship? Explain how citizenship is lost in India.
25. (a) What is meant by rights? Explain any three civil rights. (2+4=6)
Or
(b) What is secularism? Suggest any five measures that can be taken to
Page 96
-4- NB-XI/PSC/1
promote secularism in India. (1+5=6)
26. (a) Examine any three powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Or (6)
(b) Examine the powers and functions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following questions in about 300 words 8x2=16
27. (a) What is economic equality? Explain the three aspects of economic equality.
(2+6=8)
Or
(b) Examine any four measures that have been taken to ensure social justice
in India. (8)
28. (a) Who moved the historic objectives resolution in the Constituent Assembly
in 1946? Enumerate the main points of the resolution. (1+7=8)
Or
(b) What is meant by the Directive Principles of State Policy laid down by the
Constitution of India? Mention the principles based on the Gandhian ideals.
(2+6=8)
************************
promote secularism in India. (1+5=6)
26. (a) Examine any three powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Or (6)
(b) Examine the powers and functions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer the following questions in about 300 words 8x2=16
27. (a) What is economic equality? Explain the three aspects of economic equality.
(2+6=8)
Or
(b) Examine any four measures that have been taken to ensure social justice
in India. (8)
28. (a) Who moved the historic objectives resolution in the Constituent Assembly
in 1946? Enumerate the main points of the resolution. (1+7=8)
Or
(b) What is meant by the Directive Principles of State Policy laid down by the
Constitution of India? Mention the principles based on the Gandhian ideals.
(2+6=8)
************************
Page 97
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/CHE/1
2023
CHEMISTRY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. The mass of one atom of 14C is 1
(a) 1.99×10-23g (b) 2.32×10 g-23
(c) 7.2×1022g (d) 19.2×10-22g
2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible? 1
(a) n=3, l=0, m=0 (b) n=3, l=1, m=1
(c) n=2, l=0, m= −1 (d) n=2, l=1, m=0.
3. Which of the following radiation has largest energy? 1
(a) 30nm (b) 300 pm
12 1
(c) 3 10 S (d) 3 1010 S 1
4. The valence shell configuration of an atom X is 4f145d26s2, it belongs
to ____of the periodic table 1
(a) 4th period (b) 5th period
(c) 6th period (d) 7th period.
5. What is the total number of and -bonds present in CHCl3? 1
(a) 4, 3 (b) 3, 5
(c) 4, 0 (d) 4, 2
6. Which of the following is not a state function? 1
(a) G (b) U (c) H (d) ω
7. A solution has pH=5.It is diluted100 times, then it will become 1
(a) less acidic (b) basic
(c) unaffected (d) more acidic.
2023
CHEMISTRY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. The mass of one atom of 14C is 1
(a) 1.99×10-23g (b) 2.32×10 g-23
(c) 7.2×1022g (d) 19.2×10-22g
2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible? 1
(a) n=3, l=0, m=0 (b) n=3, l=1, m=1
(c) n=2, l=0, m= −1 (d) n=2, l=1, m=0.
3. Which of the following radiation has largest energy? 1
(a) 30nm (b) 300 pm
12 1
(c) 3 10 S (d) 3 1010 S 1
4. The valence shell configuration of an atom X is 4f145d26s2, it belongs
to ____of the periodic table 1
(a) 4th period (b) 5th period
(c) 6th period (d) 7th period.
5. What is the total number of and -bonds present in CHCl3? 1
(a) 4, 3 (b) 3, 5
(c) 4, 0 (d) 4, 2
6. Which of the following is not a state function? 1
(a) G (b) U (c) H (d) ω
7. A solution has pH=5.It is diluted100 times, then it will become 1
(a) less acidic (b) basic
(c) unaffected (d) more acidic.
Page 98
-2- NB/XI/CHE/1
8. In which of the following pair, the oxidation number of chlorine is same? 1
(a) ClO−, ClO3− (b) ICl, NaCl
(c) NaClO, NaClO3 (d) ICl, ClF3
9. CH3CH2Cl undergoes homolytic fission to give 1
(a) ethyl carbocation and chloride ion
(b) ethyl free radical and chlorine free radical
(c) ethyl carbocation and chlorine free radical
(d) ethyl free radical and chloride ion
10. Which of the following has minimum boiling point? 1
(a) n-butane (b) butyne
(c) butene (d) isobutene.
11. How are 0.50mole NaOH and 0.50M NaOH different? 1
12. Write the electronic configuration of chromium. 1
13. Write the general electronic configuration of pseudo transition elements. 1
14. Arrange NH3, H2O and CH4 in the increasing order of bond angle. 1
15. Define decomposition reaction. 1
16. Which of the compound is aromatic? 1
17. Out of F− and F, which is larger in size and why? 2
18. Using VSEPR theory, predict and draw the structure of SF4. 2
19. a. Define equilibrium constant. What does the equilibrium constant
K<1 indicate?
Or 2
b. Mention two characteristics of physical equilibrium.
20. i). Define Bronsted-Lowry concept of acids.
ii). Classify the following as Lewis acid or bases:
BF3, Cl − SiF4 , Ag+ and AlCl3 . 2
8. In which of the following pair, the oxidation number of chlorine is same? 1
(a) ClO−, ClO3− (b) ICl, NaCl
(c) NaClO, NaClO3 (d) ICl, ClF3
9. CH3CH2Cl undergoes homolytic fission to give 1
(a) ethyl carbocation and chloride ion
(b) ethyl free radical and chlorine free radical
(c) ethyl carbocation and chlorine free radical
(d) ethyl free radical and chloride ion
10. Which of the following has minimum boiling point? 1
(a) n-butane (b) butyne
(c) butene (d) isobutene.
11. How are 0.50mole NaOH and 0.50M NaOH different? 1
12. Write the electronic configuration of chromium. 1
13. Write the general electronic configuration of pseudo transition elements. 1
14. Arrange NH3, H2O and CH4 in the increasing order of bond angle. 1
15. Define decomposition reaction. 1
16. Which of the compound is aromatic? 1
17. Out of F− and F, which is larger in size and why? 2
18. Using VSEPR theory, predict and draw the structure of SF4. 2
19. a. Define equilibrium constant. What does the equilibrium constant
K<1 indicate?
Or 2
b. Mention two characteristics of physical equilibrium.
20. i). Define Bronsted-Lowry concept of acids.
ii). Classify the following as Lewis acid or bases:
BF3, Cl − SiF4 , Ag+ and AlCl3 . 2
Page 99
-3- NB/XI/CHE/1
21. a. Write the IUPAC names:
i) CH3−CH2 −CO−CH2−CH3 ii)
Or 2
b. What are carbocations? What are their various types?
22. What is metamerism? Give one example. 2
23. A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen gave the following
percentage composition: C=40.68%, H=5.08% and O=54.24%. The vapour
density of the compound is 59. Calculate the molecular formula of the
compound. 3
24. The kinetic energy of an electron has been found to be 5.76×10 −15J.
Calculate the wavelength associated with the electrons. 3
25. Differentiate between electromagnetic waves and matter waves. 3
26. a. Among the following elements B, Al, C and Si, which has the
highest metallic character?
Or 3
b. Out of Na+ and Ne, which has higher ionization enthalpy and why?
27. Explain the terms with suitable example: 3
i) Enthalpy of combustion
ii) Intensive properties.
28. Derive the relation between Kp and Kc . 3
29. a. Dichromate ion in aqueous acidic medium reacts with ferrous ions to
give ferric and chromium ions. Write the balance equation for the
corresponding reaction.
Or 3
b. i) What is redox reaction? Give one example.
ii) Define standard electrode potential of galvanic cell.
21. a. Write the IUPAC names:
i) CH3−CH2 −CO−CH2−CH3 ii)
Or 2
b. What are carbocations? What are their various types?
22. What is metamerism? Give one example. 2
23. A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen gave the following
percentage composition: C=40.68%, H=5.08% and O=54.24%. The vapour
density of the compound is 59. Calculate the molecular formula of the
compound. 3
24. The kinetic energy of an electron has been found to be 5.76×10 −15J.
Calculate the wavelength associated with the electrons. 3
25. Differentiate between electromagnetic waves and matter waves. 3
26. a. Among the following elements B, Al, C and Si, which has the
highest metallic character?
Or 3
b. Out of Na+ and Ne, which has higher ionization enthalpy and why?
27. Explain the terms with suitable example: 3
i) Enthalpy of combustion
ii) Intensive properties.
28. Derive the relation between Kp and Kc . 3
29. a. Dichromate ion in aqueous acidic medium reacts with ferrous ions to
give ferric and chromium ions. Write the balance equation for the
corresponding reaction.
Or 3
b. i) What is redox reaction? Give one example.
ii) Define standard electrode potential of galvanic cell.
Page 100
-4- NB/XI/CHE/1
30. a. i) Define electromeric and resonance effect.
ii) Draw the resonating structure of acetate ion.
Or 3
b. Explain the following-
i) Substitution reaction.
ii) Elimination reaction.
31. Complete the reaction: 3
i) CH 3 I Mg dry
ether
?
Ni
ii) CH 2 CH 2 H 2 ?
Re d hot Iron tube
iii) 3CH CH 873K
?
32. i). Define bond order.
ii). Compare the relative stabilities of the following species and
indicate their magnetic properties: O2, O2+, O2−. 5
33. a. Using Born-Haber cycle, calculate the lattice enthalpy of magnesium
fluoride(MgF2).
Given:Sublimation enthalpy of Mg=146.4KJmol-1
Dissociation enthalpy of Fluorine=158.8KJmol-1
Ionisation enthalpy of Mg(IE2)=2186 KJmol-1
Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine = -332.6 KJmol-1
Enthalpy of formation of MgF2 = -1096.5 KJmol-1.
Or 5
b. i) Derive the relation Cp-Cv=R.
Cp
ii) What is the ratio for monoatomic gases?
Cv
iii) An ideal gas is allowed to expand against a constant pressure
of 2 bar from 10L to 50L in one step.
Calculate the amount of work done by the gas.[lL bar=100J]
34. a. i) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal
and pentan-3-one. Write the structure and IUPAC name of the
alkene ‘A’.
ii) Explain the mechanism of Friedal Crafts alkylation of benzene.
Or 5
b. i) What happens when ethene undergo oxidation with cold
alkaline KMnO4 and hot alkaline KMnO4 solution?
ii) Define polymerisation reaction with example.
**********************
30. a. i) Define electromeric and resonance effect.
ii) Draw the resonating structure of acetate ion.
Or 3
b. Explain the following-
i) Substitution reaction.
ii) Elimination reaction.
31. Complete the reaction: 3
i) CH 3 I Mg dry
ether
?
Ni
ii) CH 2 CH 2 H 2 ?
Re d hot Iron tube
iii) 3CH CH 873K
?
32. i). Define bond order.
ii). Compare the relative stabilities of the following species and
indicate their magnetic properties: O2, O2+, O2−. 5
33. a. Using Born-Haber cycle, calculate the lattice enthalpy of magnesium
fluoride(MgF2).
Given:Sublimation enthalpy of Mg=146.4KJmol-1
Dissociation enthalpy of Fluorine=158.8KJmol-1
Ionisation enthalpy of Mg(IE2)=2186 KJmol-1
Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine = -332.6 KJmol-1
Enthalpy of formation of MgF2 = -1096.5 KJmol-1.
Or 5
b. i) Derive the relation Cp-Cv=R.
Cp
ii) What is the ratio for monoatomic gases?
Cv
iii) An ideal gas is allowed to expand against a constant pressure
of 2 bar from 10L to 50L in one step.
Calculate the amount of work done by the gas.[lL bar=100J]
34. a. i) An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal
and pentan-3-one. Write the structure and IUPAC name of the
alkene ‘A’.
ii) Explain the mechanism of Friedal Crafts alkylation of benzene.
Or 5
b. i) What happens when ethene undergo oxidation with cold
alkaline KMnO4 and hot alkaline KMnO4 solution?
ii) Define polymerisation reaction with example.
**********************
Page 101
Total no of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/FBM/1
2024
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
iv) Questions 11 to 18 carry 2 marks each.
v) Questions 19 to 23 carry 4 marks each.
vi) Questions 24 to 26 carry 6 marks each.
vii) Questions 27 and 28 carry 8 marks each.
viii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not a pure surd? 1
a) 11 b) 13
c) 5 d) 37
3
81 4 35
2. The value of 5 is__________. 1
1 2
27 9
a) 2 b) 0
c) 1 d) 5
3. Which of the following is a compound surd? 1
3
a) 2 b) 5
c) 2 3 7 d) 37
4. Slope of a line parallel to X axis is____________. 1
a) 0 b) Not defined
c) 1 d) None of these.
3
5
5. 2
is an example of_______________. 1
5
a) Compound fraction b) Proper fraction
c) Complex fraction d) Improper fraction.
2024
FUNDAMENTALS OF BUSINESS MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise
the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Questions 1 to 10 carry 1 mark each.
iv) Questions 11 to 18 carry 2 marks each.
v) Questions 19 to 23 carry 4 marks each.
vi) Questions 24 to 26 carry 6 marks each.
vii) Questions 27 and 28 carry 8 marks each.
viii) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks and 8 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top
left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives in questions 1 to 10.
1. Which of the following is not a pure surd? 1
a) 11 b) 13
c) 5 d) 37
3
81 4 35
2. The value of 5 is__________. 1
1 2
27 9
a) 2 b) 0
c) 1 d) 5
3. Which of the following is a compound surd? 1
3
a) 2 b) 5
c) 2 3 7 d) 37
4. Slope of a line parallel to X axis is____________. 1
a) 0 b) Not defined
c) 1 d) None of these.
3
5
5. 2
is an example of_______________. 1
5
a) Compound fraction b) Proper fraction
c) Complex fraction d) Improper fraction.
Page 102
-2- NB/XI/FBM/1
6. The simple interest on a sum of money P is for d days at r% per annum
is______________. 1
Pdr 2Pdr
a) I b)
100 73000
Pdr Pnr
c) I d) I
365 100
7. What percentage is equivalent to 1 ? 1
16
1 3
a) 6 % b) 6 %
4 4
1 5
c) 5 % d) 6 %
2 4
8. If `240 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3:5:4, which is the
share of B? 1
a) `60 b) `100
c) `70 d) `80.
9. A dealer buys an article at `400 and sells it at `450, profit percentage is__. 1
a) 12% b) 12.5%
c) 15% d) 12.25%.
10. A sells an article to B at a profit of 10%, B sells the article back to A at a loss
of 10%, in this transaction___________________. 1
a) Neither losses nor gains for A b) A makes a profit of 11%
c) A makes a profit of 20% d) B losses 20%.
2 5
11. Rationalize the denominator of . 2
2 3
12. 3,000 is correct to within 1 % . Find the maximum percentage error. 2
3
13. The simple interest on a sum of money at the end of 5 years is one-quarter of
the sum of itself. Find the rate of interest percentage per annum. 2
14. At what rate percent per annum of simple interest of `8,000 will amount to
`10,000 in 5years? 2
15. Find the compound interest on `1,000 for 5 years at 4% per annum. 2
16. After 20% wastage, the net output of flour is 2,400 tons, what is the gross
output? 2
17. If 20% of a number is added to 16, the result is the number itself. Find the
number. 2
6. The simple interest on a sum of money P is for d days at r% per annum
is______________. 1
Pdr 2Pdr
a) I b)
100 73000
Pdr Pnr
c) I d) I
365 100
7. What percentage is equivalent to 1 ? 1
16
1 3
a) 6 % b) 6 %
4 4
1 5
c) 5 % d) 6 %
2 4
8. If `240 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 3:5:4, which is the
share of B? 1
a) `60 b) `100
c) `70 d) `80.
9. A dealer buys an article at `400 and sells it at `450, profit percentage is__. 1
a) 12% b) 12.5%
c) 15% d) 12.25%.
10. A sells an article to B at a profit of 10%, B sells the article back to A at a loss
of 10%, in this transaction___________________. 1
a) Neither losses nor gains for A b) A makes a profit of 11%
c) A makes a profit of 20% d) B losses 20%.
2 5
11. Rationalize the denominator of . 2
2 3
12. 3,000 is correct to within 1 % . Find the maximum percentage error. 2
3
13. The simple interest on a sum of money at the end of 5 years is one-quarter of
the sum of itself. Find the rate of interest percentage per annum. 2
14. At what rate percent per annum of simple interest of `8,000 will amount to
`10,000 in 5years? 2
15. Find the compound interest on `1,000 for 5 years at 4% per annum. 2
16. After 20% wastage, the net output of flour is 2,400 tons, what is the gross
output? 2
17. If 20% of a number is added to 16, the result is the number itself. Find the
number. 2
Page 103
-3- NB/XI/FBM/1
18. Divide `10,500 among A, B and C in such a way that the shares of A and B,
B and C may be 2:3, 4:5 respectively. 2
2 1
19. If x 3 3 3 3 , prove that x3=12+9x. 4
20. An urn contains 6 green, 5 white and 3 red balls. 3 balls are drawn at random.
Determine the number of ways of selecting atleast 1 red ball in this selection. 4
21. By how much the square root of
4 14 3 13 2 12 257 7 5
1 1 1
of is less than 2? 4
4 3 of 2
4 3 2 35 4 40
22. A person borrows `14,000 from A at 5% per annum and `12,000 from B at 6%
per annum, simple interest being considered in both the cases. Find the time
after which debt to A and debt to B become equal. Also find the debt to each. 4
23. A sum of money invested at compound interest becomes `650 and `676 at the
end of first and second years respectively. Find the rate of interest and the sum.
4
1 1 1
24.a) If a + b + c = 0, show that b c
c a
a b
1.
x x 1 x x 1 x x 1
Or 6
2 24 x 8 x 12
b) If x , find the value of
2 3 x 8 x 12
25.a) A person invests `10,000 in a business and earns `500 per month. An
investment of `20,000 would yield an income of `2,000 per month. Find the
linear relationship between investment (x) and monthly income (y). What would
be the annual income on an investment of `12,000?
Or 6
b) Find the equation of the circle passing through the point (5, 1) and centre at the
intersection of the lines x – y = -4 and 2x+3y = 25.
1 a
26. a) If a x 3 b 2 x 5 a 3 2 x b x 1 , prove that 6 log x log
ab b
Or 6
log 27 log 8 log 1000
b) Evaluate
log 1 2
18. Divide `10,500 among A, B and C in such a way that the shares of A and B,
B and C may be 2:3, 4:5 respectively. 2
2 1
19. If x 3 3 3 3 , prove that x3=12+9x. 4
20. An urn contains 6 green, 5 white and 3 red balls. 3 balls are drawn at random.
Determine the number of ways of selecting atleast 1 red ball in this selection. 4
21. By how much the square root of
4 14 3 13 2 12 257 7 5
1 1 1
of is less than 2? 4
4 3 of 2
4 3 2 35 4 40
22. A person borrows `14,000 from A at 5% per annum and `12,000 from B at 6%
per annum, simple interest being considered in both the cases. Find the time
after which debt to A and debt to B become equal. Also find the debt to each. 4
23. A sum of money invested at compound interest becomes `650 and `676 at the
end of first and second years respectively. Find the rate of interest and the sum.
4
1 1 1
24.a) If a + b + c = 0, show that b c
c a
a b
1.
x x 1 x x 1 x x 1
Or 6
2 24 x 8 x 12
b) If x , find the value of
2 3 x 8 x 12
25.a) A person invests `10,000 in a business and earns `500 per month. An
investment of `20,000 would yield an income of `2,000 per month. Find the
linear relationship between investment (x) and monthly income (y). What would
be the annual income on an investment of `12,000?
Or 6
b) Find the equation of the circle passing through the point (5, 1) and centre at the
intersection of the lines x – y = -4 and 2x+3y = 25.
1 a
26. a) If a x 3 b 2 x 5 a 3 2 x b x 1 , prove that 6 log x log
ab b
Or 6
log 27 log 8 log 1000
b) Evaluate
log 1 2
Page 104
-4- NB/XI/FBM/1
27 a) In how many ways can words be formed with the letters of the word
‘COMMERCIAL’ be arranged so that
i) Vowels remain together and
ii) Vowels do not remain together. 4+4=8
Or
b) In how many ways can the letters in the word ‘KOHIMA’ be arranged?
How many of them
i) Do not begin with ‘K’?
ii) ‘K’ and ‘O’ are never together?
iii) Beginning with ‘K’ and end with ‘A’? (2+3+3=8)
28.a) A person purchased a computer and a mobile for `40,000. He sold the mobile
at 10% profit and the computer at 20% profit, there by making a profit of 16%
on the whole. Find the cost price of the computer and the mobile.
Or 8
b) A piano was sold at a loss of 20% on cost price, a second was bought with the
proceeds plus `300 paid, this was also sold at a loss of 15%; a third one was
bought with sale proceeds plus `400. The third piano cost was `4,000,what was
the cost of 1st one?
********************************
27 a) In how many ways can words be formed with the letters of the word
‘COMMERCIAL’ be arranged so that
i) Vowels remain together and
ii) Vowels do not remain together. 4+4=8
Or
b) In how many ways can the letters in the word ‘KOHIMA’ be arranged?
How many of them
i) Do not begin with ‘K’?
ii) ‘K’ and ‘O’ are never together?
iii) Beginning with ‘K’ and end with ‘A’? (2+3+3=8)
28.a) A person purchased a computer and a mobile for `40,000. He sold the mobile
at 10% profit and the computer at 20% profit, there by making a profit of 16%
on the whole. Find the cost price of the computer and the mobile.
Or 8
b) A piano was sold at a loss of 20% on cost price, a second was bought with the
proceeds plus `300 paid, this was also sold at a loss of 15%; a third one was
bought with sale proceeds plus `400. The third piano cost was `4,000,what was
the cost of 1st one?
********************************
Page 105
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XI/ECO/1
2024
ECONOMICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative:
1. The problem of choosing the appropriate technique of production for
producing goods is 1
a) for whom to produce?
b) how to produce?
c) what to produce and in what quantity?
d) when to produce?
2. Which of the following is the reason for downward sloping of production
possibility curve? 1
a) increasing opportunity cost b) decreasing opportunity cost
c) constant opportunity cost d) zero opportunity cost
3. Perfectly elastic supply means 1
a) when percentage change in quantity supplied does not change in
response to percentage change in price
b) when there is percentage change in quantity supplied without any
change in price
c) when percentage change in quantity supplied is more than percentage
change in price
d) when percentage change in quantity supplied is equal to percentage
change in price
2024
ECONOMICS
Total marks : 80 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and
revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Answers to questions carrying 1 mark should not exceed one sentence.
v) Answers to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
vi) Answers to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 80 words.
vii) Answers to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 120 words.
viii) Answers to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 200 words.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternative:
1. The problem of choosing the appropriate technique of production for
producing goods is 1
a) for whom to produce?
b) how to produce?
c) what to produce and in what quantity?
d) when to produce?
2. Which of the following is the reason for downward sloping of production
possibility curve? 1
a) increasing opportunity cost b) decreasing opportunity cost
c) constant opportunity cost d) zero opportunity cost
3. Perfectly elastic supply means 1
a) when percentage change in quantity supplied does not change in
response to percentage change in price
b) when there is percentage change in quantity supplied without any
change in price
c) when percentage change in quantity supplied is more than percentage
change in price
d) when percentage change in quantity supplied is equal to percentage
change in price
Page 106
-2- NB/XI/ECO/1
4. In the light of the given statement, choose the correct alternative from the
following: 1
Statement I: Marginal Utility (MU) will be negative when Total Utility (TU)
is maximum
Statement II: Marginal Utility (MU) will be negative when Total Utility (TU)
falls
a) Statement I is false and statement II is true
b) Statement I is true and statement II is false
c) Both statement I and II are true
d) Both statement I and II are false
5. Who defined statistics as “the collection, presentation, analysis and
interpretation of numerical data”? 1
a) Lovitt b) Prof. Horace
c) Karl Pearson d) Croxton and Cowden
6. One limitation of statistics is 1
a) it simplifies complex data
b) it facilitates comparison
c) it is only a means and not an end in itself
d) it presents facts in a definite form
7. A frequency distribution with one variable is called 1
a) bi-variate frequency distribution b) multi-variate frequency distribution
c) tri-variate frequency distribution d) uni-variate frequency distribution
8. Bar diagram is a type of 1
a) one dimensional diagram b) two dimensional diagram
c) pictogram d) cartogram
9. In which year, Spearman Rank Correlation coefficient was developed? 1
a) 1900 b) 1902
c) 1904 d) 1906
10. Rise in prices of steel due to strike in the factory is an example of 1
a) seasonal variation b) cyclical variation
c) trend d) irregular variation
11. State any four determinants of supply. 2
4. In the light of the given statement, choose the correct alternative from the
following: 1
Statement I: Marginal Utility (MU) will be negative when Total Utility (TU)
is maximum
Statement II: Marginal Utility (MU) will be negative when Total Utility (TU)
falls
a) Statement I is false and statement II is true
b) Statement I is true and statement II is false
c) Both statement I and II are true
d) Both statement I and II are false
5. Who defined statistics as “the collection, presentation, analysis and
interpretation of numerical data”? 1
a) Lovitt b) Prof. Horace
c) Karl Pearson d) Croxton and Cowden
6. One limitation of statistics is 1
a) it simplifies complex data
b) it facilitates comparison
c) it is only a means and not an end in itself
d) it presents facts in a definite form
7. A frequency distribution with one variable is called 1
a) bi-variate frequency distribution b) multi-variate frequency distribution
c) tri-variate frequency distribution d) uni-variate frequency distribution
8. Bar diagram is a type of 1
a) one dimensional diagram b) two dimensional diagram
c) pictogram d) cartogram
9. In which year, Spearman Rank Correlation coefficient was developed? 1
a) 1900 b) 1902
c) 1904 d) 1906
10. Rise in prices of steel due to strike in the factory is an example of 1
a) seasonal variation b) cyclical variation
c) trend d) irregular variation
11. State any four determinants of supply. 2
Page 107
-3- NB/XI/ECO/1
12. When the price of a commodity rises from ` 10 to ` 11 per unit, its quantity
supplied rises by 100 units. Its price elasticity of supply is 2. Calculate its
quantity supplied at increased price. 2
13. Why is AR curve of a firm parallel to X-axis under perfect competition but
negatively sloped under monopoly? 2
14. Define market demand and market supply. 2
15. How is statistics helpful to the government? 2
16. What is meant by snowball sampling? Mention one case in which it can
be used. 1+1=2
17. What is the difference between head-note and foot-note? 2
18. During a certain period, the cost of living index number goes up from 110 to
200 and the salary of a worker is also raised from ` 350 to ` 600. Does the
worker really gain and if so, by how much in real terms? 2
19. Explain the four factors of production. 4
20. Explain any two reasons for the slope of demand curve from left to right. 4
21. Under monopolistic competition market, products are similar but not
identical. Each firm produces a unique brand of the same product. The
products can be differentiated on the basis of brand, name, shape, colour,
quality, workmanship etc. In this way, each firm enjoys the monopoly
power over the brand of its product. However, the power is limited. 2+2=4
a) Name any four products that are similar but not identical.
b) Why does the firm enjoys limited monopoly power?
22. 30 students obtained the following marks in the statistics examination:
21, 25, 32, 52, 67, 69, 50, 40, 30, 39, 25, 34, 35, 47, 57, 63, 54, 68, 58, 38,
32, 52, 53, 47, 36, 25, 29, 30, 32, 47 4
a) Make a frequency distribution using the following classes:
20 – 29, 30 – 39, 40 – 49, 50 – 59, 60 – 69
b) convert this to continuous class-interval and make a frequency
distribution table
23. State any two merits and two demerits of Arithmetic Mean. 4
12. When the price of a commodity rises from ` 10 to ` 11 per unit, its quantity
supplied rises by 100 units. Its price elasticity of supply is 2. Calculate its
quantity supplied at increased price. 2
13. Why is AR curve of a firm parallel to X-axis under perfect competition but
negatively sloped under monopoly? 2
14. Define market demand and market supply. 2
15. How is statistics helpful to the government? 2
16. What is meant by snowball sampling? Mention one case in which it can
be used. 1+1=2
17. What is the difference between head-note and foot-note? 2
18. During a certain period, the cost of living index number goes up from 110 to
200 and the salary of a worker is also raised from ` 350 to ` 600. Does the
worker really gain and if so, by how much in real terms? 2
19. Explain the four factors of production. 4
20. Explain any two reasons for the slope of demand curve from left to right. 4
21. Under monopolistic competition market, products are similar but not
identical. Each firm produces a unique brand of the same product. The
products can be differentiated on the basis of brand, name, shape, colour,
quality, workmanship etc. In this way, each firm enjoys the monopoly
power over the brand of its product. However, the power is limited. 2+2=4
a) Name any four products that are similar but not identical.
b) Why does the firm enjoys limited monopoly power?
22. 30 students obtained the following marks in the statistics examination:
21, 25, 32, 52, 67, 69, 50, 40, 30, 39, 25, 34, 35, 47, 57, 63, 54, 68, 58, 38,
32, 52, 53, 47, 36, 25, 29, 30, 32, 47 4
a) Make a frequency distribution using the following classes:
20 – 29, 30 – 39, 40 – 49, 50 – 59, 60 – 69
b) convert this to continuous class-interval and make a frequency
distribution table
23. State any two merits and two demerits of Arithmetic Mean. 4
Page 108
-4- NB/XI/ECO/1
24. a. Explain any three degrees of price elasticity of demand with diagrams.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain any two factors determining price elasticity of demand.
Or 6
b. Explain any three reasons why a firm under perfect competition market
cannot influence the price.
25. a. Explain producer’s equilibrium under MC – MR approach with the help
of a diagram.
Or 6
b. Explain Total Fixed Costs and Total Variable Cost with the help of a
diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain any three types of costs.
Or 6
b. State the relationship between TR and MR.
26. a. Draw a frequency polygon and histogram from the information given
below :
Wages (in ` ) No. of workers
0 – 10 16
10 – 20 14
20 – 30 22
30 – 40 6
40 – 50 10
50 – 60 11
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain any three parts of a table.
Or 6
b. Two judges ranked seven candidates based on beauty and intelligence in
the following order:
24. a. Explain any three degrees of price elasticity of demand with diagrams.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain any two factors determining price elasticity of demand.
Or 6
b. Explain any three reasons why a firm under perfect competition market
cannot influence the price.
25. a. Explain producer’s equilibrium under MC – MR approach with the help
of a diagram.
Or 6
b. Explain Total Fixed Costs and Total Variable Cost with the help of a
diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain any three types of costs.
Or 6
b. State the relationship between TR and MR.
26. a. Draw a frequency polygon and histogram from the information given
below :
Wages (in ` ) No. of workers
0 – 10 16
10 – 20 14
20 – 30 22
30 – 40 6
40 – 50 10
50 – 60 11
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
Explain any three parts of a table.
Or 6
b. Two judges ranked seven candidates based on beauty and intelligence in
the following order:
Page 109
-5- NB/XI/ECO/1
Beauty 2 1 4 3 5 7 6
Intelligence 1 3 2 4 5 6 7
Calculate Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient.
27. a. Explain the change in quantity demanded and the change in demand
with the help of a diagram.
Or 8
b. Explain the effects of government intervention in market price with
the help of a diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain any two determinants of individual demand for a commodity.
Or 8
b. Explain the differences between price ceiling and price floor.
28. a. The distribution of age of visitors turning out in a water park during
2015-16 is as follows:
Age (in years) No. of visitors
More than 10 148
More than 20 124
More than 30 109
More than 40 71
More than 50 30
More than 60 16
More than 70 & upto 80 1
Calculate median and mode.
Or 8
b. The mean of the following frequency distribution is 50. But the
frequency f1 and f2 in classes 20 – 40 and 60 – 80 are missing.
Find the missing frequencies.
Daily expenses 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100 Total
(in ` )
No. of workers 17 f1 32 f2 19 120
[Hint : n = 120 = 68 + f1 + f2 = f1 + f2 = 52]
*************************
Beauty 2 1 4 3 5 7 6
Intelligence 1 3 2 4 5 6 7
Calculate Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient.
27. a. Explain the change in quantity demanded and the change in demand
with the help of a diagram.
Or 8
b. Explain the effects of government intervention in market price with
the help of a diagram.
Alternate question for the visually impaired students:
a. Explain any two determinants of individual demand for a commodity.
Or 8
b. Explain the differences between price ceiling and price floor.
28. a. The distribution of age of visitors turning out in a water park during
2015-16 is as follows:
Age (in years) No. of visitors
More than 10 148
More than 20 124
More than 30 109
More than 40 71
More than 50 30
More than 60 16
More than 70 & upto 80 1
Calculate median and mode.
Or 8
b. The mean of the following frequency distribution is 50. But the
frequency f1 and f2 in classes 20 – 40 and 60 – 80 are missing.
Find the missing frequencies.
Daily expenses 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100 Total
(in ` )
No. of workers 17 f1 32 f2 19 120
[Hint : n = 120 = 68 + f1 + f2 = f1 + f2 = 52]
*************************
Page 110
Total number of printed pages : 4 NB/XI/BIO/1
2024
BIOLOGY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contain 15 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
PART - A
1. The predominant stage in the life cycle of a moss consists of leafy stage and
____ stage. 1
(a) prothallus (b) protonema
(c) antheridium (d) archegonium
2. The appendages found at the leaf base is called 1
(a) stipules (b) thorn
(c) tendril (d) petiole
3. Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundle is found in 1
(a) dicot root (b) dicot stem
(c) monocot root (d) monocot stem
4. Quasified structure of lipid layer is essential for the cell to survive because
if it solidifies 1
(i) its permeability will change
(ii) enzymatic proteins will become inactive
(iii) it will not respond to stimuli
(iv) cell recognition will fail
Correct option is
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2024
BIOLOGY
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii) The question paper consists of two parts – Part A and Part B.
Each part contain 15 questions.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Write the answers of Part A and Part B in separate answer books.
Marks shall not be awarded if the answers of both the Parts are written in one
book nor marks awarded if answers of Part A are written in the answer book of
Part B and vice-versa.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
PART - A
1. The predominant stage in the life cycle of a moss consists of leafy stage and
____ stage. 1
(a) prothallus (b) protonema
(c) antheridium (d) archegonium
2. The appendages found at the leaf base is called 1
(a) stipules (b) thorn
(c) tendril (d) petiole
3. Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundle is found in 1
(a) dicot root (b) dicot stem
(c) monocot root (d) monocot stem
4. Quasified structure of lipid layer is essential for the cell to survive because
if it solidifies 1
(i) its permeability will change
(ii) enzymatic proteins will become inactive
(iii) it will not respond to stimuli
(iv) cell recognition will fail
Correct option is
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Page 111
-2- NB/XI/BIO/1
5. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is 1
(a) PS I, Plastoquinone, Cytochromes, PS II, Ferredoxin
(b) PS I, Ferredoxin,PS II
(c) PS II, Plastoquinone, Cytochromes, PS I, Ferredoxin
(d) PS II, Cytochromes, PS I
6. What are the basis of artificial and natural system of classification? 2
7. a. Give any two differences between dicot root and monocot root.
Or 2
b. Mention any two functions of epidermal tissue system.
8. What makes mitochondria and chloroplast semi-autonomous organelles? 2
9. Why is sodium-potassium pump important? 2
10. Why are bryophytes called the amphibians of plant kingdom? Give one
economic importance of bryophytes. 3
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a perigynous flower. 3
12. a. What is Krantz? Mention two features of C4 plants.
Or 3
b. Why is the energy yield in anaerobic respiration less than aerobic respiration?
13. a. Discuss the different phases of plant growth.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between growth promoters and growth inhibitors citing one
example each.
14. a. Explain the structure of chloroplast with the help of a labelled diagram.
Or 5
b. Explain the structure of mitochondria with the help of a labelled diagram.
15. a. What are photosystems? Explain non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
Or 5
b. Explain the process of alcoholic fermentation i.e., from glucose till the
formation of ethanol.
PART –B
1. Slime moulds are___ protists 1
(a) autotrophic (b) heterotrophic
(c) saprophytic (d) parasitic
5. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is 1
(a) PS I, Plastoquinone, Cytochromes, PS II, Ferredoxin
(b) PS I, Ferredoxin,PS II
(c) PS II, Plastoquinone, Cytochromes, PS I, Ferredoxin
(d) PS II, Cytochromes, PS I
6. What are the basis of artificial and natural system of classification? 2
7. a. Give any two differences between dicot root and monocot root.
Or 2
b. Mention any two functions of epidermal tissue system.
8. What makes mitochondria and chloroplast semi-autonomous organelles? 2
9. Why is sodium-potassium pump important? 2
10. Why are bryophytes called the amphibians of plant kingdom? Give one
economic importance of bryophytes. 3
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a perigynous flower. 3
12. a. What is Krantz? Mention two features of C4 plants.
Or 3
b. Why is the energy yield in anaerobic respiration less than aerobic respiration?
13. a. Discuss the different phases of plant growth.
Or 3
b. Differentiate between growth promoters and growth inhibitors citing one
example each.
14. a. Explain the structure of chloroplast with the help of a labelled diagram.
Or 5
b. Explain the structure of mitochondria with the help of a labelled diagram.
15. a. What are photosystems? Explain non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
Or 5
b. Explain the process of alcoholic fermentation i.e., from glucose till the
formation of ethanol.
PART –B
1. Slime moulds are___ protists 1
(a) autotrophic (b) heterotrophic
(c) saprophytic (d) parasitic
Page 112
-3- NB/XI/BIO/1
2. Match the following and choose the correct option. 1
Column A Column B
1) Porifera A) Metameric segmentation
2) Annelida B) Body covered with calcareous shell and mantle
3) Arthropoda C) Jointed appendages with claws
4) Mollusca D) Body perforated by pores called ostia
(a) 1(D), 2(A), 3(C), 4(B)
(b) 1(B), 2(D), 3(A), 4(C)
(c) 1(D), 2(C), 3(A), 4(B)
(d) 1(B), 2(C), 3(D), 4(A)
3. Glycosidic bond occurs in 1
(a) fats (b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates (d) amino acids
4. During inspiration, the diaphragm______ 1
(a) expands
(b) shows no change
(c) contracts and flatten
(d) relaxes to become dome shaped
5. ATPase of the muscle is located in 1
(a) actin (b) troponin
(c) myosin (d) actinin
6. a. Write a note on TMV.
Or 2
b. Write two general characters of phylum arthropoda.
7. List the different mouth parts of cockroach. 2
8. How does cytokinesis in animal cells differ from that in plant cells? 2
9. What is CAD? How is it caused? 2
10. a. Draw a well labelled diagram of the digestive system of cockroach.
Or 3
b. Draw a well labelled diagram of an ommatidium of cockroach.
11. a. Write a short note on the transport of oxygen in blood.
Or 3
b. Explain the role of RAAS in the regulation of kidney function.
2. Match the following and choose the correct option. 1
Column A Column B
1) Porifera A) Metameric segmentation
2) Annelida B) Body covered with calcareous shell and mantle
3) Arthropoda C) Jointed appendages with claws
4) Mollusca D) Body perforated by pores called ostia
(a) 1(D), 2(A), 3(C), 4(B)
(b) 1(B), 2(D), 3(A), 4(C)
(c) 1(D), 2(C), 3(A), 4(B)
(d) 1(B), 2(C), 3(D), 4(A)
3. Glycosidic bond occurs in 1
(a) fats (b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates (d) amino acids
4. During inspiration, the diaphragm______ 1
(a) expands
(b) shows no change
(c) contracts and flatten
(d) relaxes to become dome shaped
5. ATPase of the muscle is located in 1
(a) actin (b) troponin
(c) myosin (d) actinin
6. a. Write a note on TMV.
Or 2
b. Write two general characters of phylum arthropoda.
7. List the different mouth parts of cockroach. 2
8. How does cytokinesis in animal cells differ from that in plant cells? 2
9. What is CAD? How is it caused? 2
10. a. Draw a well labelled diagram of the digestive system of cockroach.
Or 3
b. Draw a well labelled diagram of an ommatidium of cockroach.
11. a. Write a short note on the transport of oxygen in blood.
Or 3
b. Explain the role of RAAS in the regulation of kidney function.
Page 113
-4- NB/XI/BIO/1
12. List three cerebral lobes and state one function of each. 3
13. Write any three roles of insulin in the human body. 3
14. a. Write a note on co-factors of enzymes.
Or 5
b. Why is mitosis known as equational division? Briefly explain the different
stages of mitosis.
15. a. Explain the arterial blood pressure. Write the factors that regulate blood
pressure.
Or 5
b. Explain the structure of a muscle fibre with a well labelled diagram.
************************
12. List three cerebral lobes and state one function of each. 3
13. Write any three roles of insulin in the human body. 3
14. a. Write a note on co-factors of enzymes.
Or 5
b. Why is mitosis known as equational division? Briefly explain the different
stages of mitosis.
15. a. Explain the arterial blood pressure. Write the factors that regulate blood
pressure.
Or 5
b. Explain the structure of a muscle fibre with a well labelled diagram.
************************
Page 114
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/CSC/1
2024
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) How many bits are required to represent a code point in 4-bytes Unicode?
i) 7 ii) 11 iii) 21 iv) none of the above
(b) An algorithm should be
i) Definite ii) Unambiguous
iii) Both iv) None of the above
(c) L_names = [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
L_names.append (‘Jack’)
Print (L_name)
i) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘Jack’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
ii) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
iii) [‘Jack’, ‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
iv) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’, ‘Jack’]
(d) Tuple is
i) non-mutable ii) cannot contain different type of elements
iii) mutable iv) none of the above
(e) Which of the following is used to take out a particular element of a
dictionary?
i) clear ii) pop
iii) push iv) none of the above
(f) Which is the output of “John” = = “John”?
i) False ii) True
iii) Exception is raised iv) none of the above
(g) Which loop can be used when the numbers of iterations are known?
i) while ii) for
iii) both iv) none of the above
2024
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 21 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) How many bits are required to represent a code point in 4-bytes Unicode?
i) 7 ii) 11 iii) 21 iv) none of the above
(b) An algorithm should be
i) Definite ii) Unambiguous
iii) Both iv) None of the above
(c) L_names = [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
L_names.append (‘Jack’)
Print (L_name)
i) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘Jack’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
ii) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
iii) [‘Jack’, ‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’]
iv) [‘John’, ‘King’, ‘boss’, ‘Lilly’, ‘Jack’]
(d) Tuple is
i) non-mutable ii) cannot contain different type of elements
iii) mutable iv) none of the above
(e) Which of the following is used to take out a particular element of a
dictionary?
i) clear ii) pop
iii) push iv) none of the above
(f) Which is the output of “John” = = “John”?
i) False ii) True
iii) Exception is raised iv) none of the above
(g) Which loop can be used when the numbers of iterations are known?
i) while ii) for
iii) both iv) none of the above
Page 115
-2- NB/XI/CSC/1
(h) What will be the output of the following?
n = int(input(‘Enter a three digit number\t:’))
if (n%10)= =(n/100):
print(‘Hi’)
else:
print(‘Bye’)
# The three digit number entered by the user is 453
i) Hi ii) Bye
iii) The code will not compile iv) none of these
(i) Which of the following is true about creating strong password?
(a) Using digit and special characters in the password
(b) The password is long enough and using random character that can be
remembered.
i) only (a) is true ii) only (b) is true
iii) both (a) & (b) are true iv) both (a) & (b) are false
(j) Which of the following gives the owner the right to reproduce it?
i) Copyright ii) Trademark
iii) Patent iv) All of these
2. Explain the three types of computer system bus. 2
3. Convert (1001011011011)2 to decimal. 2
4. Draw the flowchart to subtract two numbers. 2
5. If L1 = [1, 2, 3, 4] and L2 = [5, 6, 7], write the output of L3 = L1 + L2 and
L4 = 2*L1. 2
6. What is a string? For a string str1, what does str1[−1] signify? 2
7. Explain Get construct. 2
8. Explain the importance of the dir( ) function. 2
9. Define plagiarism. How can one avoid plagiarism? 2
10. Explain any three important features of python. 3
11. a. What are the comments in python? What are the various types of comments?
Or 3
b. Define errors in python. Name any three types of errors with suitable
example.
12. a. Explain keys and values functions with respect to dictionary.
Or 3
b. Explain the following functions vis-à-vis python list:
i) reverse ( ) ii) index ( ) iii) count ( )
(h) What will be the output of the following?
n = int(input(‘Enter a three digit number\t:’))
if (n%10)= =(n/100):
print(‘Hi’)
else:
print(‘Bye’)
# The three digit number entered by the user is 453
i) Hi ii) Bye
iii) The code will not compile iv) none of these
(i) Which of the following is true about creating strong password?
(a) Using digit and special characters in the password
(b) The password is long enough and using random character that can be
remembered.
i) only (a) is true ii) only (b) is true
iii) both (a) & (b) are true iv) both (a) & (b) are false
(j) Which of the following gives the owner the right to reproduce it?
i) Copyright ii) Trademark
iii) Patent iv) All of these
2. Explain the three types of computer system bus. 2
3. Convert (1001011011011)2 to decimal. 2
4. Draw the flowchart to subtract two numbers. 2
5. If L1 = [1, 2, 3, 4] and L2 = [5, 6, 7], write the output of L3 = L1 + L2 and
L4 = 2*L1. 2
6. What is a string? For a string str1, what does str1[−1] signify? 2
7. Explain Get construct. 2
8. Explain the importance of the dir( ) function. 2
9. Define plagiarism. How can one avoid plagiarism? 2
10. Explain any three important features of python. 3
11. a. What are the comments in python? What are the various types of comments?
Or 3
b. Define errors in python. Name any three types of errors with suitable
example.
12. a. Explain keys and values functions with respect to dictionary.
Or 3
b. Explain the following functions vis-à-vis python list:
i) reverse ( ) ii) index ( ) iii) count ( )
Page 116
-3- NB/XI/CSC/1
13. Rewrite the following program code in correct form and display result. 3
Def Display (T):
For I in T:
Print (I, end=’,’);
Print (i)
T=(2, 3, 4, 5)
Display (T)
14. a. What is looping? Explain the two types of looping.
Or 3
b. Write a program in python to check whether a number is prime or not.
15. Explain PYTHONPATH variable. 3
16. a. What is computer virus? What are the phases in the life cycle of a virus?
Or 3
b. Explain eavesdropping and PC intrusion.
17. Explain e-waste management. 3
18. a. Prove the following Boolean algebra properties (ORing and ANDing
with 0 and 1) using truth table:
i) 0 + A = A ii) 1 + A = 1 iii) 0.A = 0 iv) 1.A = A
Or 5
b. Realize a digital circuit corresponding to the following logic equation
Y = A.B.C + A . B .C + A .B. C + A. B . C
19. a. Explain any five types of operators in python with suitable example.
Or 5
b. What are data types? Explain any four data types in python.
20. a. What is a package? Differentiate between a package and a module.
Or 5
b. Explain any five methods of the math module.
21. a. Explain the features of IT Act 2000.
Or 5
b. What is a spyware? What are the problems caused by a spyware
installed in the system?
************************
13. Rewrite the following program code in correct form and display result. 3
Def Display (T):
For I in T:
Print (I, end=’,’);
Print (i)
T=(2, 3, 4, 5)
Display (T)
14. a. What is looping? Explain the two types of looping.
Or 3
b. Write a program in python to check whether a number is prime or not.
15. Explain PYTHONPATH variable. 3
16. a. What is computer virus? What are the phases in the life cycle of a virus?
Or 3
b. Explain eavesdropping and PC intrusion.
17. Explain e-waste management. 3
18. a. Prove the following Boolean algebra properties (ORing and ANDing
with 0 and 1) using truth table:
i) 0 + A = A ii) 1 + A = 1 iii) 0.A = 0 iv) 1.A = A
Or 5
b. Realize a digital circuit corresponding to the following logic equation
Y = A.B.C + A . B .C + A .B. C + A. B . C
19. a. Explain any five types of operators in python with suitable example.
Or 5
b. What are data types? Explain any four data types in python.
20. a. What is a package? Differentiate between a package and a module.
Or 5
b. Explain any five methods of the math module.
21. a. Explain the features of IT Act 2000.
Or 5
b. What is a spyware? What are the problems caused by a spyware
installed in the system?
************************
Page 117
Total number of printed pages : 3 NB/XI/IP/1
2024
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) The inbuilt instructions on ROM is referred as:
i) BIOS ii) Software
iii) CMOS iv) Hardware
(b) AutoCAD is a ________ application software.
i) Designing ii) multimedia
iii) image processing iv) none of these
(c) Which window in NetBeans displays the list of swing controls?
i) Pallete ii) Controls
iii) Properties iv) Projects
(d) _______ class can be instanciated to create a list box.
i) JCombobox ii) JList
iii) JdropDown iv) JListBox
(e) Which of the following is a container control?
i) JPanel ii) JLayout Manager
iii) JLabel iv) None of these
(f) Which of the following is not a database model?
i) Network ii) Hierarchical
iii) Relational iv) Operational
(g) Identify the MySQL product that can be used in OLTP.
i) MySQL Enterprise Server ii) MySQL Cluster
iii) MySQL Community Server iv) MySQL MAX D
(h) Which clause is used to filter data in a query?
i) FILTER ii) ORDER BY
iii) WHERE iv) SEARCH
(i) Which of the following is/are benefits of e-Governance?
i) Cost saving ii) Better work
iii) Easy Access iv) All of these
2024
INFORMATICS PRACTICES
Total marks : 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1 = 10
(a) The inbuilt instructions on ROM is referred as:
i) BIOS ii) Software
iii) CMOS iv) Hardware
(b) AutoCAD is a ________ application software.
i) Designing ii) multimedia
iii) image processing iv) none of these
(c) Which window in NetBeans displays the list of swing controls?
i) Pallete ii) Controls
iii) Properties iv) Projects
(d) _______ class can be instanciated to create a list box.
i) JCombobox ii) JList
iii) JdropDown iv) JListBox
(e) Which of the following is a container control?
i) JPanel ii) JLayout Manager
iii) JLabel iv) None of these
(f) Which of the following is not a database model?
i) Network ii) Hierarchical
iii) Relational iv) Operational
(g) Identify the MySQL product that can be used in OLTP.
i) MySQL Enterprise Server ii) MySQL Cluster
iii) MySQL Community Server iv) MySQL MAX D
(h) Which clause is used to filter data in a query?
i) FILTER ii) ORDER BY
iii) WHERE iv) SEARCH
(i) Which of the following is/are benefits of e-Governance?
i) Cost saving ii) Better work
iii) Easy Access iv) All of these
Page 118
-2- NB/XI/IP/1
(j) Which of the following is not a valid scenario of e-Business?
i) e-commerce ii) e-mail
iii) e-auction iv) e-banking
2. Write short note on JCheckBox class. 2
3. Re-write the following statement using while loop. 2
int x;
for (x=0; x<10, x+=2)
{
System.out.print In (x);
}
4. What is the use of Group Button control? Discuss in brief. 2
5. Explain the following types of cardinality ratio in ER model: 2
(i) one to many (1 : m) (ii) one to one (1 : 1)
6. Define cartesian product. 2
7. Compare and contrast between Object based database model and Physical
data model. 2
8. What is MySQL workbench? 2
9. How is a table created in a database? Write the syntax of creating a table in
MySQL database. 2
10. What is the use of creating temporary tables? Explain in brief. 2
11. Define LIKE operator in MySQL. Explain the two wild-card characters used
in LIKE operator. 2
12. How are data sorted using ORDER BY clause in MySQL? 2
13. Explain any three types of viruses. 3
14. a. Describe with example the logical operators of Java.
Or 3
b. Define a variable. What are the various naming conventions rules for
creating a variable?
15. What is SRS? In which phase of SDLC is it prepared? 3
(j) Which of the following is not a valid scenario of e-Business?
i) e-commerce ii) e-mail
iii) e-auction iv) e-banking
2. Write short note on JCheckBox class. 2
3. Re-write the following statement using while loop. 2
int x;
for (x=0; x<10, x+=2)
{
System.out.print In (x);
}
4. What is the use of Group Button control? Discuss in brief. 2
5. Explain the following types of cardinality ratio in ER model: 2
(i) one to many (1 : m) (ii) one to one (1 : 1)
6. Define cartesian product. 2
7. Compare and contrast between Object based database model and Physical
data model. 2
8. What is MySQL workbench? 2
9. How is a table created in a database? Write the syntax of creating a table in
MySQL database. 2
10. What is the use of creating temporary tables? Explain in brief. 2
11. Define LIKE operator in MySQL. Explain the two wild-card characters used
in LIKE operator. 2
12. How are data sorted using ORDER BY clause in MySQL? 2
13. Explain any three types of viruses. 3
14. a. Describe with example the logical operators of Java.
Or 3
b. Define a variable. What are the various naming conventions rules for
creating a variable?
15. What is SRS? In which phase of SDLC is it prepared? 3
Page 119
-3- NB/XI/IP/1
16. a. Explain the following types of record based database models:
(i) Network model (ii) Hierarchical model (iii) Relational model
Or 3
b. Define database. Write down two disadvantages of database management
system.
17. Write short notes on: 3
(i) DDL (ii) DML (iii) DCL
18. a. Write any three characteristics of e-learning.
Or 3
b. Explain any three features of massive open online courses (MOOCs).
19. a. Write short notes on:
(i) Serial port (ii) PS2 port (iii) Parallel port
(iv) USB port (v) VGA port
Or 5
b. What is a file? Explain the different types of files and their uses.
20. a. Write a Java program to print the list of first twenty Fibonacci numbers.
Or 5
b. Write a Java program to print the largest number among three numbers.
21. a. Discuss any five methods of JLabel class.
Or 5
b. Discuss any five methods of JTextfield class.
22. a. Define the following terms:
(i) ER diagram (ii) Alternate key (iii) Flat file database
(iv) Candidate key (v) Foreign key
Or 5
b. Discuss any five characteristics of DBMS.
*************************
16. a. Explain the following types of record based database models:
(i) Network model (ii) Hierarchical model (iii) Relational model
Or 3
b. Define database. Write down two disadvantages of database management
system.
17. Write short notes on: 3
(i) DDL (ii) DML (iii) DCL
18. a. Write any three characteristics of e-learning.
Or 3
b. Explain any three features of massive open online courses (MOOCs).
19. a. Write short notes on:
(i) Serial port (ii) PS2 port (iii) Parallel port
(iv) USB port (v) VGA port
Or 5
b. What is a file? Explain the different types of files and their uses.
20. a. Write a Java program to print the list of first twenty Fibonacci numbers.
Or 5
b. Write a Java program to print the largest number among three numbers.
21. a. Discuss any five methods of JLabel class.
Or 5
b. Discuss any five methods of JTextfield class.
22. a. Define the following terms:
(i) ER diagram (ii) Alternate key (iii) Flat file database
(iv) Candidate key (v) Foreign key
Or 5
b. Discuss any five characteristics of DBMS.
*************************
Page 120
Total number of printed pages: 4 NB/XI/PHI/1
2024
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given option in Questions 1-10.
1. Scientific induction establishes 1
(a) Verbal proposition (b) General verbal proposition
(c) Real proposition (d) General real proposition
2 Experiment enables us to proceed 1
(a) From effect to cause
(b) From cause to effect as well as effect to cause
(c) From cause to effect
(d) Multiple number of investigations
3. The word instancia crusis means 1
(a) Crucial instance (b) Crucial experiment
(c) Crucial phenomena (d) Crucial observation
4. By ‘Form of thought’ we mean 1
(a) the things thought about
(b) the way in which the mind thinks about things
(c) perceiving things
(d) describing things
5. The term ‘The highest mountain in the world’ is a ____ term. 1
(a) Significant singular (b) Non-significant singular
(c) Particular (d) Proper name
6. The sign of relation between the subject term and the predicate term
is called 1
(a) the subject (b) the predicate
(c) the term (d) the copula
2024
PHILOSOPHY
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 28 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
Answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 50 words.
Answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 100 words.
Answer to questions carrying 6 marks should not exceed 200 words.
Answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 300 words.
N.B: Check that all pages are complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given option in Questions 1-10.
1. Scientific induction establishes 1
(a) Verbal proposition (b) General verbal proposition
(c) Real proposition (d) General real proposition
2 Experiment enables us to proceed 1
(a) From effect to cause
(b) From cause to effect as well as effect to cause
(c) From cause to effect
(d) Multiple number of investigations
3. The word instancia crusis means 1
(a) Crucial instance (b) Crucial experiment
(c) Crucial phenomena (d) Crucial observation
4. By ‘Form of thought’ we mean 1
(a) the things thought about
(b) the way in which the mind thinks about things
(c) perceiving things
(d) describing things
5. The term ‘The highest mountain in the world’ is a ____ term. 1
(a) Significant singular (b) Non-significant singular
(c) Particular (d) Proper name
6. The sign of relation between the subject term and the predicate term
is called 1
(a) the subject (b) the predicate
(c) the term (d) the copula
Page 121
-2- NB/XI/PHI/1
7. Assertion: “Hypothesis is the starting point of Induction. 1
Reason:
(a) Hypothesis have the power of prediction
(b) Before we discover and prove a causal connection, we must
start with a provisional supposition
(c) Hypothesis involves deduction and verification.
(d) Hypothesis must be adequate to explain the facts.
8. Assertion: Reasoning is a kind of indirect knowledge based on some
direct knowledge. 1
Reason:
(a) Reasoning may be correct or incorrect.
(b) Reasoning is the question of truth or falsity.
(c) Reasoning means passing from something known to something
unknown.
(d) Reasoning means passing from unknown to known.
9. Assertion: If there is only one statement in a proposition. 1
Reason:
(a) Complex proposition (b) Synthetic proposition
(c) Compound proposition (d) Simple proposition
10. Assertion: A syllogism is a form of mediate deductive inference. 1
Reason:
(a) conclusion is drawn from one premise
(b) conclusion is drawn from two premises taken jointly
(c) the conclusion can be more general than the premises
(d) the conclusion cannot be more general than the premises
11 Distinguish between observation from careless perception. 2
12 Define verification. 2
13 What is consilience of induction? 2
14. Is the experimental method misleading? Why? 1+1=2
15. What is a Fundamental Principle? 2
16. How are terms distributed? 2
17. Define singular and general terms. 2
7. Assertion: “Hypothesis is the starting point of Induction. 1
Reason:
(a) Hypothesis have the power of prediction
(b) Before we discover and prove a causal connection, we must
start with a provisional supposition
(c) Hypothesis involves deduction and verification.
(d) Hypothesis must be adequate to explain the facts.
8. Assertion: Reasoning is a kind of indirect knowledge based on some
direct knowledge. 1
Reason:
(a) Reasoning may be correct or incorrect.
(b) Reasoning is the question of truth or falsity.
(c) Reasoning means passing from something known to something
unknown.
(d) Reasoning means passing from unknown to known.
9. Assertion: If there is only one statement in a proposition. 1
Reason:
(a) Complex proposition (b) Synthetic proposition
(c) Compound proposition (d) Simple proposition
10. Assertion: A syllogism is a form of mediate deductive inference. 1
Reason:
(a) conclusion is drawn from one premise
(b) conclusion is drawn from two premises taken jointly
(c) the conclusion can be more general than the premises
(d) the conclusion cannot be more general than the premises
11 Distinguish between observation from careless perception. 2
12 Define verification. 2
13 What is consilience of induction? 2
14. Is the experimental method misleading? Why? 1+1=2
15. What is a Fundamental Principle? 2
16. How are terms distributed? 2
17. Define singular and general terms. 2
Page 122
-3- NB/XI/PHI/1
18. “Brazil will protest to the UN only if either Argentina mobilizes
or Chile calls for a meeting of all the Latin American states”
Choose the correct answer from the given options. 2
a) B (A v C) b) B (A C)
c) B v (A • C) d) B ≡ (A C)
19. What are the marks of scientific induction? 4
20. What are the conditions of a legitimate hypothesis? 4
21. Read the source given and answer the questions that follows:
“Deduction no doubt, aims at formal truth merely not at material truth.
In formal Logic, we do not question the truth of the premises. Material
logic deals whether the particular objects about which we are thinking
actually corresponds to the real things of the world”.
a) Is logic concerned with formal truth or material truth or both? (1)
b) What is formal truth? (1½ )
c) What is the material truth? (1½ )
22. State and illustrate the law of contradiction and law of excluded middle. 4
23. Define proposition according to quality as well as quantity. 4
24. a) What is scientific induction? Illustrate the classification of
induction. (2+4=6)
Or
b) Define parity of reasoning. Explain the formal grounds of
induction. (2+4=6)
25. a) State the advantages of experiment over observation and
observation over experiment. (3+3=6)
Or
b) What is natural experiment? ‘Observation and experiment do not
differ in kind but only in degree. Explain. (2+4=6)
26. a) What is symbolic logic? State the importance of symbolic
logic. (2+4=6)
Or
b) Construct truth table of the following (Any two) (3+3=6)
i. (p • q) p
ii. (p v q) (q v p)
iii. ̴ (p ≡ q) r
18. “Brazil will protest to the UN only if either Argentina mobilizes
or Chile calls for a meeting of all the Latin American states”
Choose the correct answer from the given options. 2
a) B (A v C) b) B (A C)
c) B v (A • C) d) B ≡ (A C)
19. What are the marks of scientific induction? 4
20. What are the conditions of a legitimate hypothesis? 4
21. Read the source given and answer the questions that follows:
“Deduction no doubt, aims at formal truth merely not at material truth.
In formal Logic, we do not question the truth of the premises. Material
logic deals whether the particular objects about which we are thinking
actually corresponds to the real things of the world”.
a) Is logic concerned with formal truth or material truth or both? (1)
b) What is formal truth? (1½ )
c) What is the material truth? (1½ )
22. State and illustrate the law of contradiction and law of excluded middle. 4
23. Define proposition according to quality as well as quantity. 4
24. a) What is scientific induction? Illustrate the classification of
induction. (2+4=6)
Or
b) Define parity of reasoning. Explain the formal grounds of
induction. (2+4=6)
25. a) State the advantages of experiment over observation and
observation over experiment. (3+3=6)
Or
b) What is natural experiment? ‘Observation and experiment do not
differ in kind but only in degree. Explain. (2+4=6)
26. a) What is symbolic logic? State the importance of symbolic
logic. (2+4=6)
Or
b) Construct truth table of the following (Any two) (3+3=6)
i. (p • q) p
ii. (p v q) (q v p)
iii. ̴ (p ≡ q) r
Page 123
-4- NB/XI/PHI/1
27. a) Define plurality of causes. Explain the instances by which
we can overcome the plurality of causes. (2+6=8)
Or
b) Mention the defects or disadvantages of the Method of
Agreement and the Method of Difference. (4+4=8)
28. a) Determine the general rules of a categorical syllogism.
Or 8
b) Explain the structure of a syllogism. Determine the function
of the middle term. (4+4=8)
***********************
27. a) Define plurality of causes. Explain the instances by which
we can overcome the plurality of causes. (2+6=8)
Or
b) Mention the defects or disadvantages of the Method of
Agreement and the Method of Difference. (4+4=8)
28. a) Determine the general rules of a categorical syllogism.
Or 8
b) Explain the structure of a syllogism. Determine the function
of the middle term. (4+4=8)
***********************
Page 124
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/FMM/1
2024
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMENT
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. One of the important reason why we need to invest wisely is to meet the
cost of 1
a) Inflation b) interest
c) shares d) supply of money
2. The primary market provides the channel for 1
a) sale of old securities b) sale of already existing securities
c) sale of new securities d) sale of new and old securities
3. ADR stands for 1
a) American Depository Reserve b) American Depository Receipt
c) American Demutualised Receipt d) American Documents Receipt
4. A company uses a financial instrument for bridge financing. The instrument
here is short term, low risk, unsecured and highly liquid. It needed to buy
machinery for which it issued equity. This turned out to be expensive as this
issue involved floatation costs. The company is a large and credit worthy and
this method has come up as a great help to it. Which financial instrument is
indicated in the above case? 1
a) commercial paper b) 91 days T-bill
c) bonds d) rights issue
5. The relationship between value of a rupee today and value of a rupee in
future is known as 1
a) compound interest b) investment
c) supply of money d) time value of money
2024
FINANCIAL MARKETS MANAGEMENT
Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in 6 marks questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
1. One of the important reason why we need to invest wisely is to meet the
cost of 1
a) Inflation b) interest
c) shares d) supply of money
2. The primary market provides the channel for 1
a) sale of old securities b) sale of already existing securities
c) sale of new securities d) sale of new and old securities
3. ADR stands for 1
a) American Depository Reserve b) American Depository Receipt
c) American Demutualised Receipt d) American Documents Receipt
4. A company uses a financial instrument for bridge financing. The instrument
here is short term, low risk, unsecured and highly liquid. It needed to buy
machinery for which it issued equity. This turned out to be expensive as this
issue involved floatation costs. The company is a large and credit worthy and
this method has come up as a great help to it. Which financial instrument is
indicated in the above case? 1
a) commercial paper b) 91 days T-bill
c) bonds d) rights issue
5. The relationship between value of a rupee today and value of a rupee in
future is known as 1
a) compound interest b) investment
c) supply of money d) time value of money
Page 125
-2- NB/XI/FMM/1
6. Mutual fund in India follows a 1
a) 2-tier structure b) 3-tier structure
c) 4-tier structure d) 5-tier structure
7. An index ETF is one where the underlying is 1
a) an index b) gold
c) real estate d) debt
8. If the last traded price of a G-ETF is ` 1,000, then Authorised Participants (AP)
will give a two way quote by offering to buy an ETF unit at ` 999 and offering
to sell an ETF unit ` 1,001. Thus, whenever the AP buys, he will buy @ ` 999
and when he sells, he will sell at ` 1,001, thereby earning ` 2 as the difference.
It should also be understood that the impact of this transaction is that AP does
not increase or decrease his holding in the ETF. This is known as 1
a) earning through dealer spreads b) earning through primary market
c) earning from initial public offer d) earning through secondary market
9. An important factor in bond pricing is 1
a) yield to investment b) interest on investment
c) yield to maturity d) yield to revenue
10. Association of Mutual Funds in India is the industry association for the mutual
funds industry, in India which was incorporated in the year 1
a) 1992 b) 1994
c) 1990 d) 1995
11. State any two short-term financial options for investment. 2
12. What are the various options available for investment? 2
13. What is pay-in and pay-out? 2
14. Define any two groups of financial ratios. 2
15. Mention any two points that one should look for in a profit and loss account
of a company. 2
16. State the two salient features of ETF. 2
17. What is a debt instrument? Explain the features of a debt instrument. 1+3 =4
18. Mention the features of an annual report that one should read carefully. 4
6. Mutual fund in India follows a 1
a) 2-tier structure b) 3-tier structure
c) 4-tier structure d) 5-tier structure
7. An index ETF is one where the underlying is 1
a) an index b) gold
c) real estate d) debt
8. If the last traded price of a G-ETF is ` 1,000, then Authorised Participants (AP)
will give a two way quote by offering to buy an ETF unit at ` 999 and offering
to sell an ETF unit ` 1,001. Thus, whenever the AP buys, he will buy @ ` 999
and when he sells, he will sell at ` 1,001, thereby earning ` 2 as the difference.
It should also be understood that the impact of this transaction is that AP does
not increase or decrease his holding in the ETF. This is known as 1
a) earning through dealer spreads b) earning through primary market
c) earning from initial public offer d) earning through secondary market
9. An important factor in bond pricing is 1
a) yield to investment b) interest on investment
c) yield to maturity d) yield to revenue
10. Association of Mutual Funds in India is the industry association for the mutual
funds industry, in India which was incorporated in the year 1
a) 1992 b) 1994
c) 1990 d) 1995
11. State any two short-term financial options for investment. 2
12. What are the various options available for investment? 2
13. What is pay-in and pay-out? 2
14. Define any two groups of financial ratios. 2
15. Mention any two points that one should look for in a profit and loss account
of a company. 2
16. State the two salient features of ETF. 2
17. What is a debt instrument? Explain the features of a debt instrument. 1+3 =4
18. Mention the features of an annual report that one should read carefully. 4
Page 126
-3- NB/XI/FMM/1
19. Write the full form of AMC. Explain the role of AMC. 1+3 =4
20. Raman, who is a broker in a stock exchange, has to face challenging
questions from the society. His own family sometimes asked him to think
about his decisions to become a broker. He however, has full faith in the
stock exchange. He knows that the membership of a stock exchange is
properly regulated abiding the legal system and public doing investment
is safe in making deals. His children one day asked him the reason behind
ups and downs in the stock market. He clarified their doubts by telling them
those forces of supply and demand in the secondary market. Off late he has
decided to write a book on the functioning of stock exchange and its
significance in the Indian economy. He is trying to highlight in his book how
through the process of investment and disinvestment, existing securities are
sold and resold and savings are channelized into the most productive
opportunities. Definitely Raman is justifying his presence in his job. 1+3 =4
i) What is the meaning of stock exchange?
ii) Identify and briefly explain the functions of stock exchange discussed in
the above case.
21. Explain the valuation of securities. 4
22. Discuss the objectives of AMFI. 4
23. a. What is a depository? Explain the benefits of participation in a depository.
1+5 =6
Or
b. Mention any six do’s and don’ts that an investor should bear in mind
while investing in the stock market. (6)
24. a. What is meant by share holder’s fund? What do the terms: Authorized,
issued, subscribed, call-up and paid up capital mean? 1+5 =6
Or
b. Write the formulae to calculate profitability ratios. (6)
25. a. Discuss any six investor’s rights and obligations.
Or 6
b. What is the Key Information Memorandum (KIM)? State the important
contents of KIM. (1+5 =6)
26. a. Explain the various schemes available under mutual funds.
Or 6
b. Explain the salient features of debt market.
**********************************
19. Write the full form of AMC. Explain the role of AMC. 1+3 =4
20. Raman, who is a broker in a stock exchange, has to face challenging
questions from the society. His own family sometimes asked him to think
about his decisions to become a broker. He however, has full faith in the
stock exchange. He knows that the membership of a stock exchange is
properly regulated abiding the legal system and public doing investment
is safe in making deals. His children one day asked him the reason behind
ups and downs in the stock market. He clarified their doubts by telling them
those forces of supply and demand in the secondary market. Off late he has
decided to write a book on the functioning of stock exchange and its
significance in the Indian economy. He is trying to highlight in his book how
through the process of investment and disinvestment, existing securities are
sold and resold and savings are channelized into the most productive
opportunities. Definitely Raman is justifying his presence in his job. 1+3 =4
i) What is the meaning of stock exchange?
ii) Identify and briefly explain the functions of stock exchange discussed in
the above case.
21. Explain the valuation of securities. 4
22. Discuss the objectives of AMFI. 4
23. a. What is a depository? Explain the benefits of participation in a depository.
1+5 =6
Or
b. Mention any six do’s and don’ts that an investor should bear in mind
while investing in the stock market. (6)
24. a. What is meant by share holder’s fund? What do the terms: Authorized,
issued, subscribed, call-up and paid up capital mean? 1+5 =6
Or
b. Write the formulae to calculate profitability ratios. (6)
25. a. Discuss any six investor’s rights and obligations.
Or 6
b. What is the Key Information Memorandum (KIM)? State the important
contents of KIM. (1+5 =6)
26. a. Explain the various schemes available under mutual funds.
Or 6
b. Explain the salient features of debt market.
**********************************
Page 127
Total number of printed pages : 5 NB/XI/MAT/1
2024
MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Use of simple calculators (non-scientific and non-programmable) only is permitted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) If B = { x : x Z and x 2 < 16}, then n(B) is 1
(i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii) 6 (iv) 7
(b) The value of 25 49 is 1
(i) 35 (ii) 35 (iii) 35i (iv) 35i
(c) If 3 x 9 , then 1
(i) x 3 (ii) x 3 (iii) x 3 (iv) x 3
1 1 n
(d) If , then the value of n is 1
9! 10! 11!
(i) 12 0 (ii) 125 (iii) 121 (iv) 130
(e) If the nth term of a GP is 2n, the sum of its first 6th terms is 1
(i) 124 (ii) 126 (iii) 190 (iv) 254
5
(f) The value of tan is 1
4
1
(i) 1 (ii) 0 (iii) 1 (iv)
2
2024
MATHEMATICS
Full marks: 80 Time: 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 22 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
v) Use of simple calculators (non-scientific and non-programmable) only is permitted.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
Section – A
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives:
(a) If B = { x : x Z and x 2 < 16}, then n(B) is 1
(i) 3 (ii) 4 (iii) 6 (iv) 7
(b) The value of 25 49 is 1
(i) 35 (ii) 35 (iii) 35i (iv) 35i
(c) If 3 x 9 , then 1
(i) x 3 (ii) x 3 (iii) x 3 (iv) x 3
1 1 n
(d) If , then the value of n is 1
9! 10! 11!
(i) 12 0 (ii) 125 (iii) 121 (iv) 130
(e) If the nth term of a GP is 2n, the sum of its first 6th terms is 1
(i) 124 (ii) 126 (iii) 190 (iv) 254
5
(f) The value of tan is 1
4
1
(i) 1 (ii) 0 (iii) 1 (iv)
2
Page 128
-2- NB/ XI /MAT/1
(g) The equation of a line passing through the point (3, 4 ) and parallel to the
x-axis is 1
(i) x 4 0 (ii) x 4 0 (iii) y 4 0 (iv) y 4 0
(h) lim
1 cos x is equal to 1
x 0 sin 2 x
1 1
(i) (ii) (iii) 1 (iv) 2
2 2
2
4x 1
(i) lim1 is equal to 1
x
2
2 x 1
(i) 0 (ii) 1 (iii) 2 (iv) 2
(j) If n coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the total number of outcomes? 1
(i) 2 n 1 (ii) 2 n 1 (iii) 2 n (iv) 2 n 2
Section – B
2. Write down all the subsets of { 1 , 0, 1}. 2
3. Let R = {(a, b) : a, b Z and b = 2a – 4}. If (a, 2 ) R and (4, b2) R. Then,
write the values of a and b. 2
4. Find the smallest positive integer n for which 1 i 1 i .
2n 2n
2
5. If 2 n C3 : n C3 12 : 1 , find n. 2
6. The sum of some terms of a G.P. is 315, whose first term and the common
ratio are 5 and 2 respectively. Find the last term and the number of terms. 2
3
7. The radian measure of one angle of a triangle is , the second angle is 70. Find
10
the third angle in radian measure. 2
x y
8. Prove that: cos x cos y 2 sin x sin y 2 4 sin 2 . 2
2
9. Find the point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points A(3, 1, 2) and
B(5, 5, 2). 2
10. In a single throw of three dice, find the probability of getting:
(i) a total of 5 (ii) a total of at most 5. 2
(g) The equation of a line passing through the point (3, 4 ) and parallel to the
x-axis is 1
(i) x 4 0 (ii) x 4 0 (iii) y 4 0 (iv) y 4 0
(h) lim
1 cos x is equal to 1
x 0 sin 2 x
1 1
(i) (ii) (iii) 1 (iv) 2
2 2
2
4x 1
(i) lim1 is equal to 1
x
2
2 x 1
(i) 0 (ii) 1 (iii) 2 (iv) 2
(j) If n coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the total number of outcomes? 1
(i) 2 n 1 (ii) 2 n 1 (iii) 2 n (iv) 2 n 2
Section – B
2. Write down all the subsets of { 1 , 0, 1}. 2
3. Let R = {(a, b) : a, b Z and b = 2a – 4}. If (a, 2 ) R and (4, b2) R. Then,
write the values of a and b. 2
4. Find the smallest positive integer n for which 1 i 1 i .
2n 2n
2
5. If 2 n C3 : n C3 12 : 1 , find n. 2
6. The sum of some terms of a G.P. is 315, whose first term and the common
ratio are 5 and 2 respectively. Find the last term and the number of terms. 2
3
7. The radian measure of one angle of a triangle is , the second angle is 70. Find
10
the third angle in radian measure. 2
x y
8. Prove that: cos x cos y 2 sin x sin y 2 4 sin 2 . 2
2
9. Find the point on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points A(3, 1, 2) and
B(5, 5, 2). 2
10. In a single throw of three dice, find the probability of getting:
(i) a total of 5 (ii) a total of at most 5. 2
Page 129
-3- NB/ XI /MAT/1
Section – C
1
11. Find the domain and range of the function f x . 4
x2 1
1
x y
12. a. If x iy3 a ib , then prove that 4 a 2 b 2 .
a b
Or 4
ci b 2c
b. If a ib , where c is real. Prove that a 2 b 2 1 and 2 .
ci a c 1
7x 5
13. Solve 4, x R 4
8x 3
14. a. In how many ways can the letters of the word “ASSASSINATION” be
arranged so that all S’s are together?
Or 4
b. In an examination, a student has to answer 10 questions, choosing at least 4
from each of part A and part B. If there are 6 questions in part A and 7 in part
B, in how many ways can these questions be chosen?
A B C
15. a. If A + B + C = , prove that sin A sin B sin C 4 sin sin cos .
2 2 2
Or 4
b. If A + B + C = , prove that cos 2A cos 2B cos 2C 1 4sin A cos B sin C .
16. Case Study based question: 2+2=4
Akhrie starts walking from position A and Y
stops at position B. From position B, she takes 4 km
B C
a right turn and walks 4 km to reach position
C. From position C, she takes a right turn and 2 km
walks 2 km to reach position D. Assuming O O
X A 3 km D X
as the origin, AD is along the x-axis and OB is
along y-axis. Y
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the slope of the line parallel to CD.
(ii) Find the equation of the line AB.
Section – C
1
11. Find the domain and range of the function f x . 4
x2 1
1
x y
12. a. If x iy3 a ib , then prove that 4 a 2 b 2 .
a b
Or 4
ci b 2c
b. If a ib , where c is real. Prove that a 2 b 2 1 and 2 .
ci a c 1
7x 5
13. Solve 4, x R 4
8x 3
14. a. In how many ways can the letters of the word “ASSASSINATION” be
arranged so that all S’s are together?
Or 4
b. In an examination, a student has to answer 10 questions, choosing at least 4
from each of part A and part B. If there are 6 questions in part A and 7 in part
B, in how many ways can these questions be chosen?
A B C
15. a. If A + B + C = , prove that sin A sin B sin C 4 sin sin cos .
2 2 2
Or 4
b. If A + B + C = , prove that cos 2A cos 2B cos 2C 1 4sin A cos B sin C .
16. Case Study based question: 2+2=4
Akhrie starts walking from position A and Y
stops at position B. From position B, she takes 4 km
B C
a right turn and walks 4 km to reach position
C. From position C, she takes a right turn and 2 km
walks 2 km to reach position D. Assuming O O
X A 3 km D X
as the origin, AD is along the x-axis and OB is
along y-axis. Y
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the slope of the line parallel to CD.
(ii) Find the equation of the line AB.
Page 130
-4- NB/ XI /MAT/1
17. a. Differentiate sin 2 x 3 from the first principle.
Or 4
1 x dy
b. If y , prove that 1 x 2 y 0 .
1 x dx
18. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that at least one of the two throws
comes up with the number 4? 4
Section – D
19. a. In a town of 10,000 families, it was found that 40% of the families buy
newspaper A, 20% buy newspaper B, 10% buy newspaper C, 5 % buy A
and B; 3 % buy B and C and 4% buy A and C. If 2% buy all the three
newspapers, find the number of families which buy
(i) at least one of the newspaper,
(ii) exactly one newspaper,
(iii) none of A, B and C.
Or 5
b. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {2, 4, 6, 8} and B = {2, 3, 5, 7}, verify
that (i) A B' A ' B ' (ii) A B' A ' B '
20. a. A GP consists of an even number of terms. If the sum of all the terms is 5
times the sum of the terms occupying the odd places, find the common
ratio of the GP.
Or 5
b. The sum of first three terms of a GP is 16 and the sum of its next three
terms is 128. Find the sum of n terms of the GP.
21. a. Find the equation of the circle whose centre lies on the line x 4 y 1 and
which passes through the points (3, 7) and (5, 5).
Or 5
b. Find the lengths of the major and minor axes; coordinate of the vertices;
coordinate of the foci; eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the
ellipse 9 x 2 16 y 2 144.
17. a. Differentiate sin 2 x 3 from the first principle.
Or 4
1 x dy
b. If y , prove that 1 x 2 y 0 .
1 x dx
18. A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that at least one of the two throws
comes up with the number 4? 4
Section – D
19. a. In a town of 10,000 families, it was found that 40% of the families buy
newspaper A, 20% buy newspaper B, 10% buy newspaper C, 5 % buy A
and B; 3 % buy B and C and 4% buy A and C. If 2% buy all the three
newspapers, find the number of families which buy
(i) at least one of the newspaper,
(ii) exactly one newspaper,
(iii) none of A, B and C.
Or 5
b. If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {2, 4, 6, 8} and B = {2, 3, 5, 7}, verify
that (i) A B' A ' B ' (ii) A B' A ' B '
20. a. A GP consists of an even number of terms. If the sum of all the terms is 5
times the sum of the terms occupying the odd places, find the common
ratio of the GP.
Or 5
b. The sum of first three terms of a GP is 16 and the sum of its next three
terms is 128. Find the sum of n terms of the GP.
21. a. Find the equation of the circle whose centre lies on the line x 4 y 1 and
which passes through the points (3, 7) and (5, 5).
Or 5
b. Find the lengths of the major and minor axes; coordinate of the vertices;
coordinate of the foci; eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the
ellipse 9 x 2 16 y 2 144.
Page 131
-5- NB/ XI /MAT/1
22. a. Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data
Class 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60
Frequency 6 7 15 16 4 2
Or 5
b. Using short cut method, find the mean, variance and standard deviation for
the following data.
Class 25 – 35 35 – 45 45 – 55 55 – 65 65 – 75
Frequency 64 132 153 140 51
*************************************
22. a. Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data
Class 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60
Frequency 6 7 15 16 4 2
Or 5
b. Using short cut method, find the mean, variance and standard deviation for
the following data.
Class 25 – 35 35 – 45 45 – 55 55 – 65 65 – 75
Frequency 64 132 153 140 51
*************************************
Page 132
Total number of printed pages: 3 NB/XI/EE/1
2024
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION
Total marks: 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. More than two-third of the earth’s surface is covered with 1
(a) Water (b) Soil
(c) Air (d) Rocks
2. Which of the following species from Nagaland is recorded in Guinness
Book of World Records? 1
(a) Tallest orchid (b) Tallest Rhododendron
(c) Longest hornbill feather (d) Biggest bison
3. The strain imposed on natural resources by human population is called 1
(a) Population pressure (b) Population explosion
(c) Resource pressure (d) Over population
4. Soil erosion is rampant everywhere except in 1
(a) Asia (b) Antarctica
(c) Australia (d) Europe
5. In modern age, which of the following has become the most important
sector of development? 1
(a) Industry (b) Tourism
(c) Agriculture (d) Entertainment
6. Unwanted sound released into the atmosphere without any concern to the
adverse effects is 1
(a) Radiation pollution (b) Air pollution
(c) Noise pollution (d) Water pollution
7. When is ‘World Ozone Day’ celebrated ? 1
(a) 15th September (b) 16th September
(c) 15th December (d) 16th December
2024
ENVIRONMENTAL EDUCATION
Total marks: 70 Time : 3 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 15 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) The question paper consists of 26 questions. All questions are compulsory.
iii) Marks are indicated against each question.
iv) Internal choice has been provided in some questions.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper is complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. More than two-third of the earth’s surface is covered with 1
(a) Water (b) Soil
(c) Air (d) Rocks
2. Which of the following species from Nagaland is recorded in Guinness
Book of World Records? 1
(a) Tallest orchid (b) Tallest Rhododendron
(c) Longest hornbill feather (d) Biggest bison
3. The strain imposed on natural resources by human population is called 1
(a) Population pressure (b) Population explosion
(c) Resource pressure (d) Over population
4. Soil erosion is rampant everywhere except in 1
(a) Asia (b) Antarctica
(c) Australia (d) Europe
5. In modern age, which of the following has become the most important
sector of development? 1
(a) Industry (b) Tourism
(c) Agriculture (d) Entertainment
6. Unwanted sound released into the atmosphere without any concern to the
adverse effects is 1
(a) Radiation pollution (b) Air pollution
(c) Noise pollution (d) Water pollution
7. When is ‘World Ozone Day’ celebrated ? 1
(a) 15th September (b) 16th September
(c) 15th December (d) 16th December
Page 133
-2- NB/XI/EE/1
8. Incineration is a process of destroying waste by 1
(a) Composting (b) Burning
(c) Washing (d) Dusting
9. Marcaptan added to liquefied petroleum gas is to 1
(a) Prevent accident (b) Decrease usage of LPG
(c) Detect LPG leakage (d) Increase heat
10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy? 1
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy
(c) Hydel energy (d) Natural gas
11. Mention any two important objectives of conservation of environment. 2
12. Name any two social factors that affect development. 2
13. Write two consequences of tobacco smoke. 2
14. Write any two strategies to reduce air pollution. 2
15. Write any two reasons why energy consumption in India is rising? 2
16. List two advantages of the internet. 2
17. Mention any two uses of coal. 2
18. State four importance’s of sacred groves of India. 4
19. Write any four effects of deforestation. . 4
20. Write four causes of marine pollution. . 4
21. List any four benefits of compost. 4
22. Write any four effects of noise pollution on the human body. 4
23. a. List any six factors contributing to land degradation in Nagaland. 6
Or
b. How is acid deposition caused? Write four effects of acid rain. (2+4=6)
8. Incineration is a process of destroying waste by 1
(a) Composting (b) Burning
(c) Washing (d) Dusting
9. Marcaptan added to liquefied petroleum gas is to 1
(a) Prevent accident (b) Decrease usage of LPG
(c) Detect LPG leakage (d) Increase heat
10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy? 1
(a) Wind energy (b) Solar energy
(c) Hydel energy (d) Natural gas
11. Mention any two important objectives of conservation of environment. 2
12. Name any two social factors that affect development. 2
13. Write two consequences of tobacco smoke. 2
14. Write any two strategies to reduce air pollution. 2
15. Write any two reasons why energy consumption in India is rising? 2
16. List two advantages of the internet. 2
17. Mention any two uses of coal. 2
18. State four importance’s of sacred groves of India. 4
19. Write any four effects of deforestation. . 4
20. Write four causes of marine pollution. . 4
21. List any four benefits of compost. 4
22. Write any four effects of noise pollution on the human body. 4
23. a. List any six factors contributing to land degradation in Nagaland. 6
Or
b. How is acid deposition caused? Write four effects of acid rain. (2+4=6)
Page 134
-3- NB/XI/EE/1
24. a. List any six factors on which the development of a country depends on. 6
Or
b. What is eco-club? Mention five aims of eco-club. (1+5=6)
25. a. Write three advantages and three limitations of solar energy. 3+3=6
Or
b. List six ways to reduce the amount of energy which we use in our daily life.
(6)
26. a. What are cyclones? Mention four impacts of cyclones and two preventive
measures of cyclones. 2+4+2=8
Or
b. What are earthquakes? Mention three impacts and three preventive measures
of earthquakes. (2+ 3+3=8)
************************
24. a. List any six factors on which the development of a country depends on. 6
Or
b. What is eco-club? Mention five aims of eco-club. (1+5=6)
25. a. Write three advantages and three limitations of solar energy. 3+3=6
Or
b. List six ways to reduce the amount of energy which we use in our daily life.
(6)
26. a. What are cyclones? Mention four impacts of cyclones and two preventive
measures of cyclones. 2+4+2=8
Or
b. What are earthquakes? Mention three impacts and three preventive measures
of earthquakes. (2+ 3+3=8)
************************
Page 135
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/IT(V)/1
2024
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Another name for haptics is
(a) Appearance (b) Touch
(c) Smell (d) Artifacts
ii. The short cut key for find and replace in libre office writer is
(a) Ctrl+A (b) Ctrl+H
(c) Ctrl+R (d) Ctrl+F12
iii. What is considered as the highest point in business cycle?
(a) Expansion (b) Peak
(c) Contraction (d) Trough
iv. Which of the following mission’s objective is to clean towns, cities and villages of
India?
(a) Green Mission India (b) National Green Tribunal
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (d) National Solar Mission
v. Which of the following is a type of legal process outsourcing (LPO) service?
(a) Recruitment (b) Payroll
(c) Employee training (d) Drafting and reviewing contracts
vi. Customer relationship management is a business strategy that focuses on creating
and maintaining strong relationships with
(a) Software supply (b) Market analysis
(c) Companies (d) Customers
vii. Which of the following refers to the length of time a customer spends talking to an
agent?
(a) Hold time (b) Average talk time
(c) Response time ` (d) Call volume
viii. With free CRM, one can integrate with e-mail services like
(a) Netflix (b) Amazon
(c) Gmail and outlook (d) Facebook
ix. Data entry typically involves typing information into a form or cell using
(a) Microsoft excel (b) Microsoft word
(c) Microsoft outlook (d) Microsoft edge
2024
Information Technology ES (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Another name for haptics is
(a) Appearance (b) Touch
(c) Smell (d) Artifacts
ii. The short cut key for find and replace in libre office writer is
(a) Ctrl+A (b) Ctrl+H
(c) Ctrl+R (d) Ctrl+F12
iii. What is considered as the highest point in business cycle?
(a) Expansion (b) Peak
(c) Contraction (d) Trough
iv. Which of the following mission’s objective is to clean towns, cities and villages of
India?
(a) Green Mission India (b) National Green Tribunal
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (d) National Solar Mission
v. Which of the following is a type of legal process outsourcing (LPO) service?
(a) Recruitment (b) Payroll
(c) Employee training (d) Drafting and reviewing contracts
vi. Customer relationship management is a business strategy that focuses on creating
and maintaining strong relationships with
(a) Software supply (b) Market analysis
(c) Companies (d) Customers
vii. Which of the following refers to the length of time a customer spends talking to an
agent?
(a) Hold time (b) Average talk time
(c) Response time ` (d) Call volume
viii. With free CRM, one can integrate with e-mail services like
(a) Netflix (b) Amazon
(c) Gmail and outlook (d) Facebook
ix. Data entry typically involves typing information into a form or cell using
(a) Microsoft excel (b) Microsoft word
(c) Microsoft outlook (d) Microsoft edge
Page 136
-2- NB/XI/IT(V)/1
x. Hazards that include extreme heat or cold, loud noise levels, exposure to
radiations are called
(a) Physical hazards (b) Chemical hazards
(c) Biological hazards (d) Environmental hazards
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. State one importance of communication. 1
3. What is personal hygiene? 1
4. What is cloud computing? 1
5. Who are DVRs? 1
6. Name two challenges during a telesales call. 1
7. What is free CRM? 1
8. What is workplace safety? 1
9. What is telemarketing? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between inbound and outbound call. 2
11. Define customer relationship management. 2
12. State any two benefits of teamwork. 2
13. What is call volume? 2
14. List any two key features of free CRM. 2
15. Define sustainable development. 2
16. Differentiate between surveys and collections of voice process. 2
17. What are accidents at workplace? Give an example. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) List any four key growth factors of IT sector in India. 4
Or
(b) What is outsourcing? Differentiate between offline and online data entry.
(1+3=4)
19. Write any four roles and responsibilities of a CRM domestic voice
representative. 4
20. What is information security? Briefly explain any three best practices of
information security in CRM call centre. 1+3=4
21. (a) What are standard organizational procedures? Write any three examples of
standard organizational procedures.
Or 1+3=4
(b) What are workplace safety rules? List any three workplace safety rules.
******************************************
x. Hazards that include extreme heat or cold, loud noise levels, exposure to
radiations are called
(a) Physical hazards (b) Chemical hazards
(c) Biological hazards (d) Environmental hazards
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. State one importance of communication. 1
3. What is personal hygiene? 1
4. What is cloud computing? 1
5. Who are DVRs? 1
6. Name two challenges during a telesales call. 1
7. What is free CRM? 1
8. What is workplace safety? 1
9. What is telemarketing? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between inbound and outbound call. 2
11. Define customer relationship management. 2
12. State any two benefits of teamwork. 2
13. What is call volume? 2
14. List any two key features of free CRM. 2
15. Define sustainable development. 2
16. Differentiate between surveys and collections of voice process. 2
17. What are accidents at workplace? Give an example. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) List any four key growth factors of IT sector in India. 4
Or
(b) What is outsourcing? Differentiate between offline and online data entry.
(1+3=4)
19. Write any four roles and responsibilities of a CRM domestic voice
representative. 4
20. What is information security? Briefly explain any three best practices of
information security in CRM call centre. 1+3=4
21. (a) What are standard organizational procedures? Write any three examples of
standard organizational procedures.
Or 1+3=4
(b) What are workplace safety rules? List any three workplace safety rules.
******************************************
Page 137
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/T&H(V)/1
2024
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Pointing, waving and using hands while speaking is an example of
(a) gestures (b) kinesics
(c) haptics (d) proxemics
ii. The central white area where the pointer may be seen to be blinking is known as
(a) status bar (b) menu bar
(c) document area (d) sidebar
iii. Principles that encourage entrepreneurs to think beyond their core business are
(a) personal values (b) social values
(c) professional values (d) interpersonal values
iv. Which of the following have the objective to protect, maintain and preserve
forest area?
(a) National Action Plan on Climate Change
(b) National Green Tribunal
(c) Swachh Bharat Mission
(d) Green India Mission
v. To which state does the Santhali tribal dance belong to?
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha
vi. Meet and greet services at the airport are provided by
(a) airport representative (b) airport officer
(c) airport security (d) travel agent
vii. Which of the following is also known as retailer in tourism industry?
(a) Tour operator (b) Travel agency
(c) Tour guide (d) Logistic department
viii. Which section of the travel agency is responsible for guest transfer at arrival
and departure?
(a) Planning (b) Reception
(c) Reservation (d) Operation
ix. When handling a complaint, it is important to start with
(a) giving excuses (b) apologizing for the inconvenience
(c) finding the cause of the problem (d) giving alternative solution
2024
Tourism & Hospitality (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Pointing, waving and using hands while speaking is an example of
(a) gestures (b) kinesics
(c) haptics (d) proxemics
ii. The central white area where the pointer may be seen to be blinking is known as
(a) status bar (b) menu bar
(c) document area (d) sidebar
iii. Principles that encourage entrepreneurs to think beyond their core business are
(a) personal values (b) social values
(c) professional values (d) interpersonal values
iv. Which of the following have the objective to protect, maintain and preserve
forest area?
(a) National Action Plan on Climate Change
(b) National Green Tribunal
(c) Swachh Bharat Mission
(d) Green India Mission
v. To which state does the Santhali tribal dance belong to?
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha
vi. Meet and greet services at the airport are provided by
(a) airport representative (b) airport officer
(c) airport security (d) travel agent
vii. Which of the following is also known as retailer in tourism industry?
(a) Tour operator (b) Travel agency
(c) Tour guide (d) Logistic department
viii. Which section of the travel agency is responsible for guest transfer at arrival
and departure?
(a) Planning (b) Reception
(c) Reservation (d) Operation
ix. When handling a complaint, it is important to start with
(a) giving excuses (b) apologizing for the inconvenience
(c) finding the cause of the problem (d) giving alternative solution
Page 138
-2- NB-XI/T&H(V)/1
x. Movement of information from subordinates to superior is known as
(a) upward communication (b) downward communication
(c) vertical communication (d) horizontal communication
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are the two types of greeting? 1
3. Which menu allows you to add images to a document? 1
4. When coming up with a concept, there are few elements to think about.
In this regard, list any two principles of idea creation. 1
5. State any two sectors that are crucial for an environment-friendly economy. 1
6. Define the term ‘package deal’. 1
7. Write two ways of welcoming guest in Indian culture. 1
8. What is the universal checked in/out time in hotels? 1
9. What is pareto principle? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write two benefits of working in team. 2
11. Write the meaning of A La Carte and Table d’ hote. 1+1=2
12. List any four benefits of customer need anticipation. 2
13. What are soft skills? State any two soft skills required for meet and greet
services. 1+1=2
14. Write two importance of duty roster in meet and greet services. 2
15. Mention any two procedures to be considered while receiving guests at
the reception. 2
16. Explain in brief any two ways to encourage consumers to file complaint. 2
17. Briefly explain two recommendations on how to establish rapport with clients. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain the primary and secondary types of accommodation. 4
Or
(b) Who is Meet and Greet Officer? Explain the need and importance of
meet and greet service. (1+3=4)
19. Enumerate four protocols for serving special needs customers in hotel. 4
20. (a) What is reservation? Explain any two types of reservation in hotel
business. (1+3=4)
Or
(b) Explain four abilities and conducts required for efficient handling of
complaint. 4
21. What is horizontal communication? Explain three benefits of
horizontal communication. 1+3=4
******************************************
x. Movement of information from subordinates to superior is known as
(a) upward communication (b) downward communication
(c) vertical communication (d) horizontal communication
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are the two types of greeting? 1
3. Which menu allows you to add images to a document? 1
4. When coming up with a concept, there are few elements to think about.
In this regard, list any two principles of idea creation. 1
5. State any two sectors that are crucial for an environment-friendly economy. 1
6. Define the term ‘package deal’. 1
7. Write two ways of welcoming guest in Indian culture. 1
8. What is the universal checked in/out time in hotels? 1
9. What is pareto principle? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write two benefits of working in team. 2
11. Write the meaning of A La Carte and Table d’ hote. 1+1=2
12. List any four benefits of customer need anticipation. 2
13. What are soft skills? State any two soft skills required for meet and greet
services. 1+1=2
14. Write two importance of duty roster in meet and greet services. 2
15. Mention any two procedures to be considered while receiving guests at
the reception. 2
16. Explain in brief any two ways to encourage consumers to file complaint. 2
17. Briefly explain two recommendations on how to establish rapport with clients. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain the primary and secondary types of accommodation. 4
Or
(b) Who is Meet and Greet Officer? Explain the need and importance of
meet and greet service. (1+3=4)
19. Enumerate four protocols for serving special needs customers in hotel. 4
20. (a) What is reservation? Explain any two types of reservation in hotel
business. (1+3=4)
Or
(b) Explain four abilities and conducts required for efficient handling of
complaint. 4
21. What is horizontal communication? Explain three benefits of
horizontal communication. 1+3=4
******************************************
Page 139
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/R(V)/1
2024
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is not an example of oral communication?
a) Television b) Telephone
c) Email d) Radio
ii. It is defined as character traits or skills that are considered positive.
a) Strength b) Grooming
c) Self-awareness d) Motivation
iii. The central white part where the insertion pointer may be seen to be blinking
in a computer is known as
a) status bar b) side bar
c) menu bar d) document area
iv. The objective of this mission is to clean towns, cities as well as villages of India.
a) Swachh Bharat b) Green India Mission
c) National Green Tribunal d) National Action Plan
v. Retail is the sale of goods or services directly to the final consumer for
a) consumption b) re-sale
c) production d) business
vi. What does Section 12(2) of the Sale of Goods Act,1930 define?
a) Credit b) Warranty
c) Condition d) Debt
vii. A numerical expression that represents the creditworthiness of a borrower is
known as
a) credit term b) credit check
c) credit facility d) credit score
viii. It is also known as the ‘question close’ in which the sales associate moves to the
close with an indirect or soft question.
a) Direct close b) Indirect close
c) Assumptive close d) Need close
2024
Retail (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following is not an example of oral communication?
a) Television b) Telephone
c) Email d) Radio
ii. It is defined as character traits or skills that are considered positive.
a) Strength b) Grooming
c) Self-awareness d) Motivation
iii. The central white part where the insertion pointer may be seen to be blinking
in a computer is known as
a) status bar b) side bar
c) menu bar d) document area
iv. The objective of this mission is to clean towns, cities as well as villages of India.
a) Swachh Bharat b) Green India Mission
c) National Green Tribunal d) National Action Plan
v. Retail is the sale of goods or services directly to the final consumer for
a) consumption b) re-sale
c) production d) business
vi. What does Section 12(2) of the Sale of Goods Act,1930 define?
a) Credit b) Warranty
c) Condition d) Debt
vii. A numerical expression that represents the creditworthiness of a borrower is
known as
a) credit term b) credit check
c) credit facility d) credit score
viii. It is also known as the ‘question close’ in which the sales associate moves to the
close with an indirect or soft question.
a) Direct close b) Indirect close
c) Assumptive close d) Need close
Page 140
-2- NB/XI/R(V)/1
ix. In manufacturing, products are bought as raw materials and sold as
a) initial goods b) intermediate goods
c) finished goods d) primary goods
x. It is the science of matching work-place requirements to sales associates capabilities.
a) Safety b) Productivity
c) Ergonomics d) Ability
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are the two types of greetings? 1
3. What is self-motivation? 1
4. Write one advantage of using word processor. 1
5. Define green economy. 1
6. Name two types of customers. 1
7. Write any two techniques of closing sale. 1
8. What is customer motivation? 1
9. Mention any one tip to avoid health and safety incidents in retail store. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain two values of an entrepreneur. 2
11. Why is customer satisfaction important for a retailer? State two reasons. 2
12. Briefly explain two essential elements in a contract of sale. 2
13. What is meant by sales promotion? List any one objective of sales
promotion. 1+1=2
14. Suggest two helpful tips to handle an angry or irate customer. 2
15. What is a product? State any two features of a product. 1+1=2
16. What is personalized sales service? Mention any two personalized services
that a retail store can offer. 1+1=2
17. Write two procedures that should be adopted by sales associate in times of
emergency and accident. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) What is retail business? Explain three significance of retail business.
1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain the 4Ps of customer service. (4)
19. (a) What is creditworthiness? Describe any three Cs of creditworthiness.
1+3=4
Or
(b) Describe four factors influencing the successful closing of sale. (4)
20. Explain four reasons why product information is important. 4
21. What is risk? Explain any three different types of risk in retailing. 1+3=4
*********************************
ix. In manufacturing, products are bought as raw materials and sold as
a) initial goods b) intermediate goods
c) finished goods d) primary goods
x. It is the science of matching work-place requirements to sales associates capabilities.
a) Safety b) Productivity
c) Ergonomics d) Ability
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are the two types of greetings? 1
3. What is self-motivation? 1
4. Write one advantage of using word processor. 1
5. Define green economy. 1
6. Name two types of customers. 1
7. Write any two techniques of closing sale. 1
8. What is customer motivation? 1
9. Mention any one tip to avoid health and safety incidents in retail store. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain two values of an entrepreneur. 2
11. Why is customer satisfaction important for a retailer? State two reasons. 2
12. Briefly explain two essential elements in a contract of sale. 2
13. What is meant by sales promotion? List any one objective of sales
promotion. 1+1=2
14. Suggest two helpful tips to handle an angry or irate customer. 2
15. What is a product? State any two features of a product. 1+1=2
16. What is personalized sales service? Mention any two personalized services
that a retail store can offer. 1+1=2
17. Write two procedures that should be adopted by sales associate in times of
emergency and accident. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) What is retail business? Explain three significance of retail business.
1+3=4
Or
(b) Explain the 4Ps of customer service. (4)
19. (a) What is creditworthiness? Describe any three Cs of creditworthiness.
1+3=4
Or
(b) Describe four factors influencing the successful closing of sale. (4)
20. Explain four reasons why product information is important. 4
21. What is risk? Explain any three different types of risk in retailing. 1+3=4
*********************************
Page 141
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/H(V)/1
2024
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The initial and urgent care given to anyone who has either a minor or serious illness
or injury is called
(a) First aider (b) Medical emergency
(c) First aid (d) Emergency medical service
ii. A condition that damages the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss is known as
(a) Presbyopia (b) Cataract
(c) Glaucoma (d) Diabetic retinopathy
iii. The ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment despite of
changes in the external environment is called
(a) Thermoregulation (b) Normothermia
(c) Homeotherm (d) Homeostasis
iv. What is the short cut key to open the insert table dialog box?
(a) Ctrl+F12 (b) Shift+F12
(c) Ctrl+S (d) Ctrl+I
v. It refers to the things that people do to keep themselves clean and make their face,
skin and hair look nice
(a) Make up (b) Grooming
(c) Skin care (d) Messy
vi. What is used to shock the heart to get it back to normal rhythm?
(a) Cardiogenic shock (b) Hypovolemic shock
(c) Vasodilator (d) Defibrillator
vii. Which of the following has the objectives that include protecting, maintaining and
preserving forest area?
(a) Clean India Mission (b) National Action Plan on Climate Change
(c) Green India Mission (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission
viii. The triage category which could mean that someone has passed away or been
seriously injured
(a) Red (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Blue
ix. A medical care that focuses on relieving the symptoms and stress of a serious illness
(a) Palliative medical care (b) Emergency medical care
(c) Rehabilitation care (d) Intensive care
2024
Healthcare (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The initial and urgent care given to anyone who has either a minor or serious illness
or injury is called
(a) First aider (b) Medical emergency
(c) First aid (d) Emergency medical service
ii. A condition that damages the optic nerve and can lead to vision loss is known as
(a) Presbyopia (b) Cataract
(c) Glaucoma (d) Diabetic retinopathy
iii. The ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment despite of
changes in the external environment is called
(a) Thermoregulation (b) Normothermia
(c) Homeotherm (d) Homeostasis
iv. What is the short cut key to open the insert table dialog box?
(a) Ctrl+F12 (b) Shift+F12
(c) Ctrl+S (d) Ctrl+I
v. It refers to the things that people do to keep themselves clean and make their face,
skin and hair look nice
(a) Make up (b) Grooming
(c) Skin care (d) Messy
vi. What is used to shock the heart to get it back to normal rhythm?
(a) Cardiogenic shock (b) Hypovolemic shock
(c) Vasodilator (d) Defibrillator
vii. Which of the following has the objectives that include protecting, maintaining and
preserving forest area?
(a) Clean India Mission (b) National Action Plan on Climate Change
(c) Green India Mission (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission
viii. The triage category which could mean that someone has passed away or been
seriously injured
(a) Red (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Blue
ix. A medical care that focuses on relieving the symptoms and stress of a serious illness
(a) Palliative medical care (b) Emergency medical care
(c) Rehabilitation care (d) Intensive care
Page 142
-2- NB/XI/H(V0/1
x. Which of the following is not a medical emergency?
(a) Heart attack (b) Allergic reaction
(c) Seizures (d) HIV/Aids
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define triage. 1
3. Write any two types of tissues. 1
4. Define fever. 1
5. Mention any two objectives of the Millennium Development Goals that focus
explicitly on health. 1
6. What is on call doctor? 1
7. List any two techniques of self-exploration. 1
8. What is sustainable development? 1
9. What is word processor? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two types of nutrients with examples. 2
11. What is daily care plan of a patient? What is its objective? 1+1= 2
12. Briefly describe any two functions of a hospital in patient care. 2
13. Differentiate between oral and written communication. 2
14. What is personal hygiene? Mention one importance of personal hygiene.1+1=2
15. List any four entrepreneurial attitudes. 2
16. Write four importance’s of Fowlers position in post-operative care. 2
17. State any four reasons why knowledge of products or services is important in
answering enquiries. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain any four roles and functions of general duty assistant in the hospital.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four types of quaternary care.
19. (a) Explain four various types of diets and their importance with regard to nutrition.
Or 4
(b) State and explain any four reasons why nutrition and hydration are essential for
infant and children.
20. What are vitamins? Briefly explain any three roles of vitamins. 1+3=4
21. Explain four emergency admission procedures in a hospital. 4
******************************************
x. Which of the following is not a medical emergency?
(a) Heart attack (b) Allergic reaction
(c) Seizures (d) HIV/Aids
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. Define triage. 1
3. Write any two types of tissues. 1
4. Define fever. 1
5. Mention any two objectives of the Millennium Development Goals that focus
explicitly on health. 1
6. What is on call doctor? 1
7. List any two techniques of self-exploration. 1
8. What is sustainable development? 1
9. What is word processor? 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Write any two types of nutrients with examples. 2
11. What is daily care plan of a patient? What is its objective? 1+1= 2
12. Briefly describe any two functions of a hospital in patient care. 2
13. Differentiate between oral and written communication. 2
14. What is personal hygiene? Mention one importance of personal hygiene.1+1=2
15. List any four entrepreneurial attitudes. 2
16. Write four importance’s of Fowlers position in post-operative care. 2
17. State any four reasons why knowledge of products or services is important in
answering enquiries. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain any four roles and functions of general duty assistant in the hospital.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four types of quaternary care.
19. (a) Explain four various types of diets and their importance with regard to nutrition.
Or 4
(b) State and explain any four reasons why nutrition and hydration are essential for
infant and children.
20. What are vitamins? Briefly explain any three roles of vitamins. 1+3=4
21. Explain four emergency admission procedures in a hospital. 4
******************************************
Page 143
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/B&W(V)/1
2024
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The process of converting messages into communication symbols which
may be understood by the receiver is known as
a) decoding b) encoding
c) feedback d) channel
ii. Which of the following is considered to be the highest point in the business cycle?
a) Expansion b) Contraction
c) Trough d) Peak
iii. The objective of this mission is to clean towns, cities as well as villages of India.
a) Swachh Bharat Mission b) Green India Mission
c) National Green Tribunal d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission
iv. Acupuncture, chiropractic, herbal medicine and homeopathy are an example of
a) Rejuvenation b) Beauty salon
c) Fitness and Slimming d) Alternate Therapies
v. A cosmetic product that is used to darken, thicken, lengthen and define the
eyelashes is known as
a) Foundation b) Eyeliner
c) Mascara d) Eye shadow
vi. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin?
a) Epidermis b) Hypodermis
c) Derma d) Subcutaneous layer
vii. It is a device that uses heat to penetrate deep into the skin, helping to
open up pores and promote blood circulation.
a) Facial sauna b) Infrared light devices
c) Heat mask d) Ultrasound facial device
viii. How many bones are there in a human hand?
a) 17 b) 27
c) 37 d) 47
ix. The most active growth phase of the hair cycle is the
a) Telogen b) Exogen
c) Catagen d) Anagen
2024
Beauty & Wellness (Vocational)
Total marks : 50 Time : 2 hours
General instructions :
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check to ensure that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top
left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The process of converting messages into communication symbols which
may be understood by the receiver is known as
a) decoding b) encoding
c) feedback d) channel
ii. Which of the following is considered to be the highest point in the business cycle?
a) Expansion b) Contraction
c) Trough d) Peak
iii. The objective of this mission is to clean towns, cities as well as villages of India.
a) Swachh Bharat Mission b) Green India Mission
c) National Green Tribunal d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission
iv. Acupuncture, chiropractic, herbal medicine and homeopathy are an example of
a) Rejuvenation b) Beauty salon
c) Fitness and Slimming d) Alternate Therapies
v. A cosmetic product that is used to darken, thicken, lengthen and define the
eyelashes is known as
a) Foundation b) Eyeliner
c) Mascara d) Eye shadow
vi. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin?
a) Epidermis b) Hypodermis
c) Derma d) Subcutaneous layer
vii. It is a device that uses heat to penetrate deep into the skin, helping to
open up pores and promote blood circulation.
a) Facial sauna b) Infrared light devices
c) Heat mask d) Ultrasound facial device
viii. How many bones are there in a human hand?
a) 17 b) 27
c) 37 d) 47
ix. The most active growth phase of the hair cycle is the
a) Telogen b) Exogen
c) Catagen d) Anagen
Page 144
-2- NB/XI/B&W(V)/1
x. Which of the following is not a tool used in waxing?
a) Tweezer b) Tissues
c) Facial cloths d) Non-woven disposable towel
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is oral communication? 1
3. Define entrepreneurship. 1
4. Name any two main sectors of green economy. 1
5. Name any two different career paths in beauty & wellness industry. 1
6. What is bleach in beauty treatment? 1
7. Mention any two major organ systems of the human body. 1
8. What are nail files used for? 1
9. List two layers of hair. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. State any two benefits of team work. 2
11. Define ‘status bar’ and ‘menu bar’. 1+1=2
12. Write any two reasons for the growth of beauty & wellness
sector. 2
13. What is skin warming technique? How is it performed? 1+1=2
14. Why is it important for a beauty therapist to know the structure
of the nail? Give two reasons. 2
15. Suggest any two aftercare advice for pedicure. 2
16. Write any two guidelines to be followed for waste disposal after
waxing in a salon. 2
17. Briefly explain any two benefits of threading. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) Explain any four types of services in beauty therapy.
Or 4
b) Explain four ways to ensure hygienic environment in a salon.
19. a) Explain four types of skin.
Or 4
b) Explain the importance of bleach patch test.
20. What is nail contraindication? Explain any three classifications
of nail contraindication. 1+3=4
21. Name any four equipments and products used in waxing and write
their uses. 2+2=4
******************************************
x. Which of the following is not a tool used in waxing?
a) Tweezer b) Tissues
c) Facial cloths d) Non-woven disposable towel
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is oral communication? 1
3. Define entrepreneurship. 1
4. Name any two main sectors of green economy. 1
5. Name any two different career paths in beauty & wellness industry. 1
6. What is bleach in beauty treatment? 1
7. Mention any two major organ systems of the human body. 1
8. What are nail files used for? 1
9. List two layers of hair. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. State any two benefits of team work. 2
11. Define ‘status bar’ and ‘menu bar’. 1+1=2
12. Write any two reasons for the growth of beauty & wellness
sector. 2
13. What is skin warming technique? How is it performed? 1+1=2
14. Why is it important for a beauty therapist to know the structure
of the nail? Give two reasons. 2
15. Suggest any two aftercare advice for pedicure. 2
16. Write any two guidelines to be followed for waste disposal after
waxing in a salon. 2
17. Briefly explain any two benefits of threading. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. a) Explain any four types of services in beauty therapy.
Or 4
b) Explain four ways to ensure hygienic environment in a salon.
19. a) Explain four types of skin.
Or 4
b) Explain the importance of bleach patch test.
20. What is nail contraindication? Explain any three classifications
of nail contraindication. 1+3=4
21. Name any four equipments and products used in waxing and write
their uses. 2+2=4
******************************************
Page 145
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/E(V)/1
2024
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The person who conveys his thoughts, message or ideas to the receiver is called
(a) Encoder (b) Sender
(c) Receiver (d) Channel
ii. The short cut key for paste is
(a) Ctrl+P (b) Ctrl+Q
(c) Ctrl+V (d) Ctrl+X
iii. Which of the following is considered as the highest point in business cycle?
(a) Expansion (b) Contraction
(c) Trough (d) Peak
iv. The unit of measurement for current is
(a) Volt (b) Ohm
(c) Ampere (d) Joule
v. An LED works on which of the following supply
(a) AC (b) DC
(c) AC and DC (d) Linear supply
vi. A polarised capacitor has
(a) Only positive terminal (b) Only negative terminal
(c) Both positive and negative (d) No terminals
terminals
vii. The average resistance of human body is
(a) 400-1000 ohm (b) 500-1000 ohm
(c) 600-1000 ohm (d) 700-1000 ohm
viii. Which of the following is used as wire connector?
(a) Lug (b) Screw driver
(c) Stripper (d) Hammer
ix. Which type of assembly is used in food, pharmaceutical, waste water treatment and
mining industries?
(a) Bucket (b) Door
(c) Shelf (d) Cabinet
x. Which of the following is not a type of joint?
(a) Western union joint (b) Fixture joint
(c) Knotted tap joint (d) Axial joint
2024
Electronics (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. The person who conveys his thoughts, message or ideas to the receiver is called
(a) Encoder (b) Sender
(c) Receiver (d) Channel
ii. The short cut key for paste is
(a) Ctrl+P (b) Ctrl+Q
(c) Ctrl+V (d) Ctrl+X
iii. Which of the following is considered as the highest point in business cycle?
(a) Expansion (b) Contraction
(c) Trough (d) Peak
iv. The unit of measurement for current is
(a) Volt (b) Ohm
(c) Ampere (d) Joule
v. An LED works on which of the following supply
(a) AC (b) DC
(c) AC and DC (d) Linear supply
vi. A polarised capacitor has
(a) Only positive terminal (b) Only negative terminal
(c) Both positive and negative (d) No terminals
terminals
vii. The average resistance of human body is
(a) 400-1000 ohm (b) 500-1000 ohm
(c) 600-1000 ohm (d) 700-1000 ohm
viii. Which of the following is used as wire connector?
(a) Lug (b) Screw driver
(c) Stripper (d) Hammer
ix. Which type of assembly is used in food, pharmaceutical, waste water treatment and
mining industries?
(a) Bucket (b) Door
(c) Shelf (d) Cabinet
x. Which of the following is not a type of joint?
(a) Western union joint (b) Fixture joint
(c) Knotted tap joint (d) Axial joint
Page 146
-2- NB/XI/E(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List the applications of a transistor. 1
3. Name one method for manually reading and identifying value of a resistor. 1
4. State one use of coxial cable. 1
5. What is entrepreneurship? 1
6. What is crimping? Name one crimping tool. 1
7. List any two signs to repair damage electrical equipment. . 1
8. What is feedback? 1
9. Define green economy. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors. 2
11. What is electrical wiring? State one importance of earthing. 1+1=2
12. What are the causes of electrostatic discharge? 2
13. What is soldering? How does it differ from welding? 1+1=2
14. What is electromechanical assembly? Name two devices that uses
electromechanical system. 1+1=2
15. List any four items that must be kept in a first aid box. 2
16. List any two advantages of using a word processor. 2
17. Write any two importance’s of personal hygiene. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly (i) Alternating current (ii) Direct current. 2+2=4
Or
(b) Explain the difference between active and passive electronic components. (4)
19. Write four differences of PVC and XLPE cables. 4
20. List any eight general guidelines that a wireman needs to follow at the workplace.
4
21. (a) List any two points that lead to hazards and two precautions to avoid electrical
hazards. 2+2=4
Or
(b) Write four measures undertaken when a worker is electrocuted. (4)
**********************************
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. List the applications of a transistor. 1
3. Name one method for manually reading and identifying value of a resistor. 1
4. State one use of coxial cable. 1
5. What is entrepreneurship? 1
6. What is crimping? Name one crimping tool. 1
7. List any two signs to repair damage electrical equipment. . 1
8. What is feedback? 1
9. Define green economy. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Differentiate between extrinsic and intrinsic semiconductors. 2
11. What is electrical wiring? State one importance of earthing. 1+1=2
12. What are the causes of electrostatic discharge? 2
13. What is soldering? How does it differ from welding? 1+1=2
14. What is electromechanical assembly? Name two devices that uses
electromechanical system. 1+1=2
15. List any four items that must be kept in a first aid box. 2
16. List any two advantages of using a word processor. 2
17. Write any two importance’s of personal hygiene. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain briefly (i) Alternating current (ii) Direct current. 2+2=4
Or
(b) Explain the difference between active and passive electronic components. (4)
19. Write four differences of PVC and XLPE cables. 4
20. List any eight general guidelines that a wireman needs to follow at the workplace.
4
21. (a) List any two points that lead to hazards and two precautions to avoid electrical
hazards. 2+2=4
Or
(b) Write four measures undertaken when a worker is electrocuted. (4)
**********************************
Page 147
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/AG(V)/1
2024
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following flower is also called pinwheel flower?
(a) Lantana (b) Adenium
(c) Crape jasmine (d) Crossandra
ii. Which of the following media is commercially used as a rooting media in air
layering?
(a) Peat (b) Garden soil
(c) Sand (d) Sphagnum moss
iii. An approach that is used to produce large number of plants from an explant within a
short time is called
(a) Cutting (b) Micropropagation
(c) Grafting (d) Layering
iv. A gardening tool used for clearing the ground of any stones, rocks or blockages
before planting is
(a) Secateur (b) Mower
(c) Wheel barrow (d) Rake
v. The soil’s red colour results from the presence of
(a) Iron oxide (b) Compost
(c) Humus (d) Minerals
vi. In SMART goals, the acronym A stands for
(a) Achieve (b) Attainable
(c) Active (d) Align
vii. Which of the following is considered as the highest point in business cyle?
(a) Expansion (b) Contraction
(c) Trough (d) Peak
viii. IT is a combination of hardware and
(a) Software (b) Middleware
(c) Courseware (d) Processor
ix. Another name for haptics is
(a) Appearance (b) Artifacts
(c) Smell (d) Touch
2024
Agriculture (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following flower is also called pinwheel flower?
(a) Lantana (b) Adenium
(c) Crape jasmine (d) Crossandra
ii. Which of the following media is commercially used as a rooting media in air
layering?
(a) Peat (b) Garden soil
(c) Sand (d) Sphagnum moss
iii. An approach that is used to produce large number of plants from an explant within a
short time is called
(a) Cutting (b) Micropropagation
(c) Grafting (d) Layering
iv. A gardening tool used for clearing the ground of any stones, rocks or blockages
before planting is
(a) Secateur (b) Mower
(c) Wheel barrow (d) Rake
v. The soil’s red colour results from the presence of
(a) Iron oxide (b) Compost
(c) Humus (d) Minerals
vi. In SMART goals, the acronym A stands for
(a) Achieve (b) Attainable
(c) Active (d) Align
vii. Which of the following is considered as the highest point in business cyle?
(a) Expansion (b) Contraction
(c) Trough (d) Peak
viii. IT is a combination of hardware and
(a) Software (b) Middleware
(c) Courseware (d) Processor
ix. Another name for haptics is
(a) Appearance (b) Artifacts
(c) Smell (d) Touch
Page 148
-2- NB/XI/AG(V)/1
x. Which is the major flower producing state in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(c) Jammu and kashmir (d) Goa
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are biennials? 1
3. What is a seed? 1
4. Define pruning. 1
5. Name the garden tool used for slicing flowers and their stalks. 1
6. What is pedogenesis? 1
7. What are ornamental flowers? 1
8. What is visual communication? 1
9. Write one importance of personal hygiene. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What are loose flowers? Give an example 1+1=2
11. State any two criteria to select a nursery site. 2
12. What is grafting? State one use of grafting. 1+1=2
13. Why is cleaning of tools and equipments necessary? Name any two
sharpening tools. 1+1= 2
14. Write any two characteristics of arid soil. 2
15. Differentiate between root stock and scion. 2
16. Differentiate between status bar and menu bar. 2
17. What is sustainable development? Name two examples of sustainable
development. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain the classification of ornamental plants based on the modes of
propagation. Or 4
(b) Write four necessary precautions taken during seed sowing.
19. (a) Write four differences between sexual and asexual propagation.
Or 4
(b) Explain in brief any four steps of tissue culture.
20. Explain any four precautions taken during the use of tools and equipments. 4
21. Briefly explain any four methods of soil reclamation. 4
******************************************
x. Which is the major flower producing state in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(c) Jammu and kashmir (d) Goa
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What are biennials? 1
3. What is a seed? 1
4. Define pruning. 1
5. Name the garden tool used for slicing flowers and their stalks. 1
6. What is pedogenesis? 1
7. What are ornamental flowers? 1
8. What is visual communication? 1
9. Write one importance of personal hygiene. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. What are loose flowers? Give an example 1+1=2
11. State any two criteria to select a nursery site. 2
12. What is grafting? State one use of grafting. 1+1=2
13. Why is cleaning of tools and equipments necessary? Name any two
sharpening tools. 1+1= 2
14. Write any two characteristics of arid soil. 2
15. Differentiate between root stock and scion. 2
16. Differentiate between status bar and menu bar. 2
17. What is sustainable development? Name two examples of sustainable
development. 1+1=2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain the classification of ornamental plants based on the modes of
propagation. Or 4
(b) Write four necessary precautions taken during seed sowing.
19. (a) Write four differences between sexual and asexual propagation.
Or 4
(b) Explain in brief any four steps of tissue culture.
20. Explain any four precautions taken during the use of tools and equipments. 4
21. Briefly explain any four methods of soil reclamation. 4
******************************************
Page 149
Total number of printed pages : 2 NB/XI/Auto(V)/1
2024
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following drawing tools is used to construct the most common angles
i.e. 30°, 45°, 60°?
(a) Clinograph (b) Protractor
(c) Pencils (d) Triangles
ii. A type of fastener that does not have thread is
(a) Screw (b) Bolt
(c) Nail (d) Nut
iii. It is a gauge that calculates and shows the current speed of moving object
(a) Speedometer (b) Tachometer
(c) Odometer (d) Fuel gauge
iv. Where should the fluid level of the clutch be situated in the reservoir?
(a) ‘MIN’ level (b) ‘MAX’ level
(c) ‘Full’ level (d) In between ‘MIN and ‘MAX’ level
v. After how many kilometres is tyre balancing advised?
(a) 1000 (b) 5000
(c) 10,000 (d) 15000
vi. The person who conveys his thoughts, message or ideas to the receiver is called
(a) Encoding (b) Sender
(c) Channel (d) Feedback
vii. Which short cut key is used to paste a file?
(a) Ctrl+C (b) Ctrl+P
(c) Ctrl+V (d) Ctrl+X
viii. An automobile’s gearbox is also referred to as
(a) Axles (b) Transmission
(c) Differential (d) Friction disc
ix. ‘I can settle disputes involving buddies’ is an example of
(a) Ability (b) Interest
(c) Motivation (d) Self awareness
x. Which of the following is not a mission of National Action Plan on climate change?
(a) Green India (b) Population control
(c) Sustainable habitat (d) Enhanced energy efficiency
2024
Automotive (Vocational)
Total marks: 50 Time: 2 hours
General instructions:
i) Approximately 10 minutes is allotted to read the question paper and revise the
answers.
ii) All questions are compulsory.
iii) The question paper consists of 21 questions.
iv) Marks allocated to every question are indicated against it.
N.B: Check that all pages of the question paper are complete as indicated on the top left side.
1. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives: 10x1=10
i. Which of the following drawing tools is used to construct the most common angles
i.e. 30°, 45°, 60°?
(a) Clinograph (b) Protractor
(c) Pencils (d) Triangles
ii. A type of fastener that does not have thread is
(a) Screw (b) Bolt
(c) Nail (d) Nut
iii. It is a gauge that calculates and shows the current speed of moving object
(a) Speedometer (b) Tachometer
(c) Odometer (d) Fuel gauge
iv. Where should the fluid level of the clutch be situated in the reservoir?
(a) ‘MIN’ level (b) ‘MAX’ level
(c) ‘Full’ level (d) In between ‘MIN and ‘MAX’ level
v. After how many kilometres is tyre balancing advised?
(a) 1000 (b) 5000
(c) 10,000 (d) 15000
vi. The person who conveys his thoughts, message or ideas to the receiver is called
(a) Encoding (b) Sender
(c) Channel (d) Feedback
vii. Which short cut key is used to paste a file?
(a) Ctrl+C (b) Ctrl+P
(c) Ctrl+V (d) Ctrl+X
viii. An automobile’s gearbox is also referred to as
(a) Axles (b) Transmission
(c) Differential (d) Friction disc
ix. ‘I can settle disputes involving buddies’ is an example of
(a) Ability (b) Interest
(c) Motivation (d) Self awareness
x. Which of the following is not a mission of National Action Plan on climate change?
(a) Green India (b) Population control
(c) Sustainable habitat (d) Enhanced energy efficiency
Page 150
-2- NB/XI/Auto(V)/1
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is effective communication? 1
3. Write any two techniques of self-exploration. 1
4. What is a word processor? 1
5. Write one aim of green economy. 1
6. What is plane of projection? 1
7. Name any two types of gauge. 1
8. What is the purpose of fastener? 1
9. Define brakes. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain any two principles to follow for growing a business. 2
11. Name any two tools used for removing fasteners in vehicle and write
their uses. 2
12. Name any two non-ferrous metals used in automobile engineering and
write their uses. 2
13. Differentiate between automatic and semi-automatic transmission. 2
14. What is meant by reduced fuel efficiency? 2
15. Mention two functions of wheels. 2
16. Describe two procedures of using combination tyre repair patch. 2
17. Briefly describe two types of brakes. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain four different types of projections.
Or 4
(b) Explain the special tools used for handling of fasteners.
19. What is machining? Explain any two machining tools in brief. 1+3=4
20. (a) Explain any four steps of tuning lubrication system of an engine.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four essential requirements of transmission system.
21. Explain any four methods involved in maintenance of brakes. 4
*********************************
AglaSem Earn while Learn Program. Send your papers and get paid.
Contact: support@
Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence:
2. What is effective communication? 1
3. Write any two techniques of self-exploration. 1
4. What is a word processor? 1
5. Write one aim of green economy. 1
6. What is plane of projection? 1
7. Name any two types of gauge. 1
8. What is the purpose of fastener? 1
9. Define brakes. 1
Answer the following questions in 20-50 words:
10. Briefly explain any two principles to follow for growing a business. 2
11. Name any two tools used for removing fasteners in vehicle and write
their uses. 2
12. Name any two non-ferrous metals used in automobile engineering and
write their uses. 2
13. Differentiate between automatic and semi-automatic transmission. 2
14. What is meant by reduced fuel efficiency? 2
15. Mention two functions of wheels. 2
16. Describe two procedures of using combination tyre repair patch. 2
17. Briefly describe two types of brakes. 2
Answer the following questions in 60-100 words:
18. (a) Explain four different types of projections.
Or 4
(b) Explain the special tools used for handling of fasteners.
19. What is machining? Explain any two machining tools in brief. 1+3=4
20. (a) Explain any four steps of tuning lubrication system of an engine.
Or 4
(b) Explain any four essential requirements of transmission system.
21. Explain any four methods involved in maintenance of brakes. 4
*********************************
AglaSem Earn while Learn Program. Send your papers and get paid.
Contact: support@