CDS 2027 Sample Paper (English)

SAMPLE PAPER

S A M P L E Q U E S T I O N P A P E R

CDS 2027 (English)
Modelled on the actual exam pattern
.

QUESTIONS MAX MARKS TIME MARKING

120 100 120 Min +0.83 / −0.28

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. This paper contains 120 multiple-choice questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. Each question has four options — (A), (B), (C) and (D) — of which only one is correct.

3. Each correct answer carries 0.83 mark; 0.28 mark (one-third of the marks) is deducted for each wrong answer.

4. Total time allowed is 120 minutes. Manage your time across all sections.

5. Use of calculators, mobile phones or any electronic device is not permitted.

6. Attempt the paper first, then check your answers against the Answer Key at the end.

Candidate Name: Roll No.: Date:

SAMPLE PAPER

CDS 2027 (English)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Questions 120 Max Marks 100 Time 120 Min Marking +0.83 / −0.28

Attempt all questions. Choose the one correct option for each.

ENGLISH

1. The following consist of a word in capital letters, 2. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
followed by four words or group of words. Select the followed by four words or group of words. Select the
word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to
the word in capital letters. REPRIMAND the word in capital letters. STALEMATE

(A) Praise (A) Degeneration

(B) Reminder (B) Deadlock

(C) Rebuke (C) Exhaustion

(D) Reward (D) Settlement

3. Read below passages and answer the following. I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe
over the horizon, immediately chased away the grey half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening.
Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand he was holding a cobra
by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and
convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly
put the quarry in. When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was 'struck dumb'. This means that he was

(A) extremely delighted.

(B) very much helpless.

(C) rather surprised.

(D) absolutely shocked.

4. In this section, a word is spelled in four different 5. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose followed by four words or group of words. Select the
the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b), word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the
( c) and ( d). word in capital letters. INDISPENSABLE

(A) Decisive (A) Tolerable

(B) Desisive (B) superfluous

(C) Descisive (C) Expensive

(D) Desicive (D) Hostile

6. The following items in this section consists of a 7. Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by
sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (
parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below a),( b),( c),( d) which is the most appropriate expression.
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) Raising eyebrows.
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
(A) To show surprise
of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. P :
(B) Criticize
for guest teachers Q : in the department of Biotechnology
R : was also held S : a Selection Committee meeting (C) Support

(D) Instruct
(A) SPRO

(B) QRSP

(C) PROS

(D) RSPQ

8. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly. S1: The first great
discovery that man probably made was that of fire. S6: The animals were not clever enough to learn anything from
this. P: Fires sometimes occur by themselves in the forests perhaps by rubbing together of flints or something else. Q:
We light a fire now by a match. R: In olden times fires were made by striking two flints against each other till a spark
came for setting fire to a dry thing. S: But matches are quite recent things. The proper sequence should be

(A) P R S Q

(B) Q S P R

(C) P Q S R

(D) R P Q S

9. Each item in this section has a sentence with three 10. Fill in the blanks. M.S kept that international
parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to __________ Spell-bound with the beauty of her voice and
find out whether there is any error in any underlined part her style of singing.
and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against
(A) spectator
the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find
(B) audience
no error, your response should be indicated as ( d).
(C) viewer
(A) Each student
(D) businessmen
(B) from amongst the hundred students in the class

(C) want to watch this movie.

(D) No error.

11. Read the passages and answer the following. According to the civil laws of most countries obedience is no longer
the duty of a wife; every woman has the political right to vote; but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she
does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful
employment that a woman has travelled most of the distance that separated her from the male; and nothing else can
guarantee her liberty in practice. I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone floor of a hotel lobby, "I
never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self sufficiency as a
Rockefeller, Ford or Birla. However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete
liberation : working, today, is not a liberty. A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would
prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional
feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society
nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men. Why does the writer talk
about the maidservant in the hotel lobby?

(A) The servants of today will one day be freed from their rich masters

(B) A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

(C) Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

(D) Economic independence is necessary for women's liberation

12. Find the error in the following.

(A) The best way in which you can

(B) open the bottle is

(C) by putting it into hot water first.

(D) No error

13. Read the passages and answer the following. In its simple form, science has helped man to protect himself from
Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in
which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature's own gifts, not only of metal but even the human
brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of
deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt in climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to
learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him. Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

(A) scientific developments

(B) nuclear explosion

(C) natural calamity

(D) deforestation

14. The following items in this section consists of a 15. There are P, Q, R and S as sentences. Given below
sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) of the sentence. P- however Q- still held their own in
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts foreign markets R- in spite of these laws S- Indian silk
of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. P : and cotton textiles The correct sequence should be
what we may be Q : but we know not R : we know S :
(A) Q P R S
what we are
(B) S P R Q
(A) RSQP
(C) S R P Q
(B) QPRS
(D) R P S Q
(C) . QRPS

(D) RQPS

16. In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each item have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer
Sheet. S1 : Idioms are a colourful and fascinating aspect of language. S6 : Idioms may also suggest a particular
attitude of the person using them, for example, disapproval, humour, exasperation or admiration, so you must use
them carefully. P : Your language skills will increase rapidly if you can understand idioms and use them confidently
and correctly. Q : They are commonly used in all types of language, informal and formal, spoken and written. R : In
addition, idioms often have a stronger meaning than non-idiomatic phrases. S : One of the main problems students
have with idioms is that it is often impossible to guess the meaning of an idiom from the words it contains. The correct
sequence should be

(A) RQPS

(B) RSPQ

(C) SRQP

(D) QPSR

17. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
an underlined word followed by four words/groups of
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word and mark your response on your Answer
Sheet accordingly. The officer in charge of the operations
has been impugned for the excesses.

(A) Expelled

(B) Rewarded

(C) Challenged

(D) Given allowance

18. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response. S1 : Aristotle worked under
limitations. S6 : The age was not a period of experiment. P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention
of God. Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful.
R : The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments. S : The facts on
which modern theories of science have been based had not been discovered. The correct sequence should be

(A) R P Q S

(B) R S P Q

(C) Q S R P

(D) S Q R P

19. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 20. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
an underlined word followed by four words/groups of followed by four words or group of words. Select the
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to
underlined word and mark your response on your Answer the word in capital letters. lMPROMPTU
Sheet accordingly. The exemptions granted to State
(A) Imponant
institutions for acquiring informed consent from
(B) Impressive
processing personal data in many cases appear to be too
blanket. (C) Inspiring

(D) Offhand
(A) Obtain

(B) Lose

(C) Giving

(D) Thinking

21. Each item in this section has a sentence which has 22. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
multiple parts. Find out the error/ no error and indicate underlined word/words The committee should
your response from the options . The real voyage of recommend his name to the government.
discovery consist not in seeking new landscapes, but in
(A) praise
having new eyes.
(B) advise
(A) The real voyage of discovery
(C) counsel
(B) consist not in seeking new landscapes,
(D) suggest
(C) but in having new eyes

(D) No error

23. Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (d ).

You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. No criminal
proceeding P- in any Court during his term of office Q- whatsoever shall be initiated R- or continued against the
President S- or a Governor The correct sequence should be

(A) Q R S P

(B) P Q R S

(C) Q P S R

(D) S Q P R

24. In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each item have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer
Sheet. S1 : Gandhiji reached Newcastle and took charge of the agitation. S6 : The treatment that was meted out to
these brave men and women in jail included starvation and whipping, and being forced to work in the mines by
mounted military police. P: During the course of the march, Gandhiji was arrested twice, released, arrested a third
time and sent to jail. Q: The employers retaliated by cutting off water and electricity to the workers’ quarters, thus
forcing them to leave their homes. R: Gandhiji decided to march this army of over two thousand men, women and
children over the border and thus see them lodged in Transvaal jails. S: The morale of the workers, however, was very
high and they continued to march till they were prosecuted and sent to jail. The correct sequence should be

(A) QRPS

(B) SRQP

(C) QPSR

(D) RQSP

25. Each question in this section has a sentence with 26. Below each sentence are given with three possible
three parts ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to find substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them ( a),
out whether there is any error in any part and indicate ( b) or ( c) is better than the underlined part, indicate
your response against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) your response against the corresponding letter. If none
or ( b) or ( c). If you find no error, your response should of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate ( d)
be indicated as ( d). as your response. I shall be obliged if you could grant me
an interview.
(A) His friends feel that

(B) he will be suspended (A) give

(C) unless he does not report for duty immediately. (B) allow

(D) No error. (C) permit

(D) No improvement

27. Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (d ).
You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. But, Kuala
Lumpur P- where modern Malay executives Q- but will never miss Friday prayers R- might have a cellular phone in
hand, S- is a city firmly rooted in tradition The correct sequence should be

(A) R Q S P

(B) S P R Q

(C) R P S Q

(D) S Q R P

28. Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (d ).
You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. The medical

teams P- at the ground said that the injured Q- by the surging crowds, R- included women and children S- who were
trampled The correct sequence should be

(A) P R Q S

(B) P Q R S

(C) Q P R S

(D) P S Q R

29. Find the error in the following.

(A) The new model costs

(B) twice more than

(C) last year’s model.

(D) No error

30. As soon as I saw the elephant I knew with perfect certainly that I ought not to shoot him. It is a serious matter to
shoot a working elephant - it is comparable to destroying a huge and costly piece of machinery - and obviously one
ought not to do it if it can possibly be avoided. And at that distance peacefully eating, the elephant looked no more
dangerous than a cow. The elephant looked no more dangerous than a cow because

(A) it was quietly doing its work

(B) unlike lions. it is a vegetarian animal

(C) its tusks resemble the cow's horns animal

(D) cows can be very dangerous sometimes

31. The following consist of a word in capital letters, 32. Each of the following items in this section consists of
followed by four words or group of words. Select the a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These
word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each
word in capital letters. PERTINENT sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c) and (d
). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the
(A) Eloquent
sentence and mark your response accordingly. He said
(B) Distant
that P- a small college Q- he'd rather go to R- not
(C) Relevant studying at all S- instead of The correct sequence should
(D) Irrelevant be

(A) Q S P R

(B) P R Q S

(C) Q P R S

(D) Q P S R

33. Fill in the blanks. One of India’s greatest musicians is 34. In each of the items in this section, there is a
M.S. Subbulakshmi, affectionately known to most people sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. You
as M.S. Her singing has brought______ are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled
P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the
(A) sorrow
proper sequence and mark. P- with an idea to reach the
(B) joy
deprived child Q- by the United Nations Organization R-
(C) boredom the year 1979 has been declared as S- the International
(D) pain Year of the Child The correct sequence should be

(A) P Q R S

(B) P S Q R

(C) P R S Q

(D) R S P Q

35. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response. S1 : Ross sent an account of his
work, together with slides and specimens to Manson. S6 : Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in 1901. P :
They produced a profound sensation. Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross's results to the British Medical
Association. R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson's house and inspected Ross's materials and said
that 'it was of remarkable interest and value S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered. The
correct sequence should be

(A) P Q R S

(B) P S R Q

(C) Q P S R

(D) S P Q R

36. Read the passages and answer the following. For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica
have been intrigued by sightings of emerald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. There icebergs are
turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their
green appearance results from sea water that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water
has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the fresh water 'ice shelf' above has a blue ținge. When
the iceberg turns upside down, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below. What are
ice shelves ?

(A) They are huge pieces of chunks of ice

(B) They are frozen sea water

(C) They are pieces of ice which look like shelves

(D) They are huge pieces of ice which are very old.

37. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 38. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
an underlined word followed by four words/group of followed by four words or group of words. Select the
words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the
the underlined word and mark your response on your word in capital letters. TRANSIENT
Answer Sheet accordingly. The insolent nature of the
(A) Lasting
speaker had provoked the members of the house and this
(B) Moving
led to pandemonium.
(C) Persistent
(A) Respectful
(D) Abiding
(B) Autocratic

(C) Impudent

(D) Thought provoking

39. Each item in this section has a sentence with three 40. Each of the following items in this section consists of
parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
find out whether there is any error in any underlined part parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below
and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
no error, your response should be indicated as ( d). of the sentence and mark your response on the Answer
Sheet accordingly.
(A) How long

(B) you are (A) PRQS

(C) in this profession ? (B) QSPR

(D) No error. (C) RQSP

(D) PSRQ

41. In the following items, some parts of the sentence 42. Fill in the blanks. His property was divided _________
have been jumbled up. You are require to re-arrange his daughters and sons.
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce
(A) between
the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and
(B) among
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. He said that two
years before (P) and that he could produce (Q) he had (C) from

passed his examination (R) his certificate.(S) (D) with

(A) S P Q R

(B) Q S R P

(C) R P Q S

(D) P R S Q

43. The following consist of a word in capital letters, 44. Each question has a sentence with three options (a),
followed by four words or group of words. Select the (b) and (c), Read each sentence to find out whether there
word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the is any error in any part and indicate your answer in the
word in capital letters. DEFILE Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or
(b) or (c). If you find no error. your answer should be
(A) Purify
indicated as (d). Experience has taught me (a) not to
(B) Pollule
ignore any man, high or low (b) not to ignore anything,
(C) Disturb great or small (c) No error(d)
(D) Glorify
(A) a

(B) b

(C) c

(D) d

45. In the following items. each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S ) and the final sentence (S )
1 6
are given in the beginning. The. middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet. S : No daily paper has ever found its way into the village. S : They carry this with them to the trading
1 6
centres in the plains and cities, P : These travellers come from distant places, Q : On their return journey they have
news from the hills. R : The only news the inhabitants gel is from travellers. S : On their way into the hills they bring
news from distant plains and cities of India. The proper sequence should be

(A) P Q S R

(B) R P S Q

(C) Q S P R

(D) R Q P S

46. Nationalism is only a curse when it becomes narrow and fanatical Like so many other things available to man, say.
religion. it can easily lead men astray, Nationalism can lead people into thinking only of themselves, of their own
struggles, of their own misery. It can also cause a nation to become suspicious and fearful of its neighbors. to look
upon itself as superior, and to become aggressive And it is when nationalism impels a state to become expansionist
and seek domination over others that it becomes a positive curse and harmful internationally. From the passage,
which of the following statements most correctly reflects the opinion of the author?

(A) Nationalism makes people self centered and self conceited

(B) It helps a nation to become superior to other nations

(C) It regulates international relation-ships

(D) It helps a nation to expand its territories and become powerful

47. Each question in this section has a sentence with 48. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by
three parts ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to find four alternative meaning to each . Choose the response (
out whether there is any error in any part and indicate a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate
your response against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) meaning. A pearl of wisdom
or ( b) or ( c). If you find no error, your response should
(A) An important piece of news
be indicated as ( d).
(B) An important person
(A) I courteously asked him
(C) An important thing for life
(B) where was he going
(D) An important piece of advice
(C) but he did not reply.

(D) No error.

49. Each item in this section has a sentence which has 50. Each item in this section has a sentence with three
multiple parts. Find out the error/ no error and indicate parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to
your response from the options . Children are not allowed find out whether there is any error in any underlined part
to use the swimming pool unless they are with an adult . and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against
the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find
(A) Children are not allowed
no error, your response should be indicated as ( d).
(B) to use the swimming pool
(A) The duties of the secretary are
(C) unless they are with an adult
(B) to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence,
(D) No error
(C) and calling the members before meeting.

(D) No error.

51. In this section, a word is spelled in four different 52. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose an underlined word followed by four words/groups of
the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b), words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
( c) and ( d). underlined word and mark your response on your Answer
Sheet accordingly. They describe the act as a blatant
(A) Argyument
betrayal of faith.
(B) Argument
(A) Loyal
(C) Arguement
(B) Faithfulness
(D) Argyooment
(C) Treachery

(D) Honesty

53. The following consist of a word in capital letters, 54. Each item in this section has a sentence with three
followed by four words or group of words. Select the parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to
word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part
the word in capital letters. VEHEMENTLY and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against
the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find
(A) Devoutly
no error, your response should be indicated as ( d).
(B) Serenely
(A) Those of us who have a family history of heart disease
(C) HystericalJy
(B) should make a yearly appointment
(D) Forcefully
(C) with their doctors.

(D) No error.

55. Find the error in the following. 56. Each item in this section has a sentence which has
multiple parts. Find out the error/ no error and indicate
(A) The students’
your response from the options ( a), ( b), ( c) and ( d) on
(B) test results
the Answer Sheet. The real voyage of discovery consists
(C) were pleasant not in seeking new landscapes, but in having new eyes.
(D) No error.
(A) The real voyage of discovery

(B) consist not in seeking new landscapes,

(C) but in having new eyes.

(D) No error

57. Find the antonyms of the underlined words in the
given sentences. I would beg of all friends not to rush to
Birla house nor try to dissuade me or be anxious about
me.

(A) certain

(B) composed

(C) careless

(D) heedless

58. In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only. Despite downsizings, workers' overall job satisfaction actually improved
between 1988 and 1994. Some reasons given were improved work flow, better cooperation between departments, and
increased fairness in supervision. Many firms today rely on attitude surveys to monitor how employees feel about
working in their firms. The use of employee attitude surveys had grown since 1944 when the National Industrial
Conference Board "had difficulty finding fifty companies that had conducted opinion surveys". Today, most companies

are aware of the need for employees' anonymity, the impact of both the design of the questions and their sequence,
the importance of effective communication, including knowing the purpose of the survey before it is taken and getting
feedback to the employees after it is completed. Computerization of surveys can provide anonymity, if there is no
audit trail to the user, especially for short answers that are entered rather than written or typed on an identifiable
machine. Survey software packages are available that generate questions for a number of standard topics and can be
customized by modifying existing questions or by adding questions. If the survey is computerized, reports can be
generated with ease to provide snapshots of a given period of time, trend analysis, and breakdowns according to
various demographics. You may be interested in responses by age, sex, job categories, departments, division,
functions or geography. The survey can be conducted by placing microcomputers in several locations convenient for
employees'use. Employees are advised where the computers will be, for how long, and when the data will be collected
(for instance, daily at 5:00 p.m. for three weeks). The screens should not be viewable to supervisors or passers-by.
While there may be some risk that employees will take the survey more than once, there are comparable risks with
other methods too. Managers may be interested in knowing how they are perceived by their peers and subordinates.
Packages are available that can be customized, which allow the manager to complete a self-assessment tool used to
compare self-perceptions to the anonymous opinions of others. This comparison may assist in the development of a
more effective manager. "The screens should not be viewable to supervisors or passers-by." Why?

(A) To maintain the secrecy of a person

(B) The main problem is to enable everyone to participate

(C) The manager has to be fair enough

(D) To maintain the problems faced by women in job market

59. Below each sentence are given with three possible 60. Fill in the blanks And _____________ me want to run
substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them ( a), away.
( b) or ( c) is better than the underlined part, indicate
(A) shapes
your response against the corresponding letter. If none
(B) makes
of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate ( d)
as your response. I didn't feel like going out yesterday, (C) shields

but on account of my son's illness I had to go to the (D) asks
doctor.

(A) have

(B) might have

(C) ought

(D) No improvement

61. In this section, a word is spelled in four different 62. Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by
ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response
the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b), which is the most appropriate meaning. Gordian knot
( c) and ( d).
(A) Undoable job
(A) Recommand (B) A difficult problem
(B) Reccommend (C) A different problem
(C) Recommend (D) Doable job
(D) Reccommand

63. I was very fond or the old soldier in our little town. He had only one leg. having lost the other somewhere in Assam
in 1942. He used to tell me about his adventures. He told me that he had run away from home to join the army. He had
experienced his first battle in the Libyan desert. Out of his dozens of war stories the one I liked best was the one of
his escape from a Japanese prison-of-war camp in Burma. He told me again and again how he walked two hundred
miles in two weeks, On the way he was bitten on the toe by a poisonous snake and he had to cut off part of the toe in
order to survive. But by the time he got to an Indian camp the wound had turned septic and the leg had to be

amputated. He is however quite contented with his lot. The soldier's leg had to be amputated because

(A) he had walked two hundred miles in two weeks

(B) he was wounded in war

(C) the wounded toe turned septic

(D) he was shot in the leg while escaping from the Japanese camp

64. Read the passages and answer the following. For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica
have been intrigued by sightings of emerald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. There icebergs are
turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their
green appearance results from sea water that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water
has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the fresh water 'ice shelf' above has a blue ținge. When
the iceberg turns upside down, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below. When the
iceberg turns upside down, it appears

(A) green

(B) yellow

(C) blue

(D) white

65. The following items in this section consists of a
sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. P :
while they are small Q : and do the great things R : while
they are easy S : do the difficult things

(A) SRQP

(B) ) PSQR

(C) SRPQ

(D) QPSR

66. As soon as I saw the elephant I knew with perfect certainly that I ought not to shoot him. It is a serious matter to
shoot a working elephant - it is comparable to destroying a huge and costly piece of machinery - and obviously one
ought not to do it if it can possibly be avoided. And at that distance peacefully eating, the elephant looked no more
dangerous than a cow. The author compares the elephant to a costily machine because

(A) ivory is very expensive

(B) itcan do as much work as an expensive machine

(C) elephants look like big machines

(D) elephants and machines have similar prices

67. Read the passages and answer the following. According to the civil laws of most countries obedience is no longer
the duty of a wife; every woman has the political right to vote; but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she
does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful
employment that a woman has travelled most of the distance that separated her from the male; and nothing else can
guarantee her liberty in practice. I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone floor of a hotel lobby, "I
never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self sufficiency as a
Rockefeller, Ford or Birla. However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete
liberation : working, today, is not a liberty. A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would

prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional
feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society
nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men. “These liberties" in the
first paragraph refer to

(A) The right to vote, not to obey and right to a job

(B) The right to vote and not to obey

(C) The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

(D) Women's right to vote and earn money

68. Read below passages and answer the following. I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what
purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the
chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man's folly, not of his wisdom.
Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, inasmuch as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes
which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build
castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the
Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and
ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. As long as we are children
we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by
trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower. Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower ?
(1) Man was foolish to build it. (2) Huge man-made structures did not appeal to him. (3) Men flocked to see it.

(A) 1 only accordingly.

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

69. The following consist of a word in capital letters, 70. There are P, Q, R and S as sentences. Given below
followed by four words or group of words. Select the each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
word or group of words that is furthest in meaning to the and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
word in capital letters. FORTUITOUS of the sentence. P- dress fashions changed and light
cotton Q- of the English R- textiles began to replace S-
(A) Unfortunate
the coarse woollens The correct sequence should be
(B) Accidental
(A) P R S Q
(C) Planned
(B) R S P Q
(D) Ludicrous
(C) Q P R S

(D) S P R Q

71. Each question in this section has a sentence with 72. In each of the items in this section, there is a
three parts ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to find sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. You
out whether there is any error in any part and indicate are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled
your response against the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the
or ( b) or ( c). If you find no error, your response should proper sequence and mark. P- he was a tiny man Q- with
be indicated as ( d). a sprightly walk R- tall S- barely five feet The correct
sequence should be
(A) I waited

(B) for her return (A) R S Q P

(C) with growing unease. (B) S R Q P

(D) No error (C) Q S P R

(D) P S R Q

73. Find the answer based on the given passage. To eat and not be eaten - that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s
existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in
which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that
may foul the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable
hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute
citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.
The main idea of the passage is that caterpillars

(A) like to eat a lot

(B) have to protect themselves while feeding

(C) are good to eat

(D) are not good to eat

74. In this section, a word is spelled in four different 75. In the following items, some parts of the sentence
ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose have been jumbled up. You are require to re-arrange
the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b), these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce
( c) and ( d). the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. When the driver
(A) Decisive
in front of me (P) slammed the brakes on (Q) I was
(B) Desisive
driving in rush hour (R) without warning.(S)
(C) Descisive
(A) P Q S R
(D) Desicive
(B) R S Q P

(C) R P Q S

(D) P Q R S

76. In the following items, some parts of the sentence 77. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
have been jumbled up. You are require to re-arrange an underlined word followed by four words/group of
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to
the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and the underlined word and mark your response on your
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Just as Answer Sheet accordingly. The members have taken a
the goodness of movies like the things which they unanimous decision to discord some of the rulings of the
represent (P) , does not consist in being (Q) so the Managing Committee on problems relating to
goodness of music does not consist (R) in its being like maintenance.
the noises we know (S)
(A) Accord
(A) Q P R S (B) Dissension
(B) P Q R S (C) Dispute
(C) R P S Q (D) Friction
(D) S P R Q

78. Brown and his men huddling round a fire ate the last 79. In this section, a word is spelled in four different
of the food that Kassim had brought them that day, ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose
Cornelius sat among them, half-asleep. Then one of the the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b),
crew remembered that some tobacco had been left in the ( c) and ( d).
boat. and said he would go and fetch it. He didn't
(A) Aggressive
think there was any danger in going to the creek in the
(B) Agresive
dark. He disappeared down the hillside, and a moment
later he was heard climbing into the boat and then (C) Agressive

climbing out again. What does the word "huddling" imply (D) Aggresive
?

(A) Moving around

(B) Falling into a slumber

(C) Being close together

(D) Merrymaking

80. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly. S1: Of course, it is
silly to try to overcome fears that keep us from destroying ourselves. S6 : The only fears you need to avoid are silly
fears which prevent you from doing what you should do. P: This is sensible. Q: You wait until it is out of the way before
crossing, R: You need some fears to keep you from doing foolish things. S: You are afraid of an automobile coming
rapidly down the street you wish to cross. The proper sequence should be

(A) P R S Q

(B) R S Q P

(C) R P S Q

(D) P Q R S

81. Each item in the following consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences. S1 : Mass production has increased the tendency to view
things as useful rather than delightful. S6 : Indeed a lowering of quality usually results when mass production is
substituted for more primitive methods. P : These various things share nothing with the buttons except money value.
Q : All the rest you wish to exchange for food, shelter, and many other things. R : Suppose you are a manufacturer of
buttons : however excellent your buttons may be, you do not want more than a few for your own use. S : And it is not
even the money value of the buttons that is important to you : what is important is profit which may be increased by
lowering their quality. The correct sequence should be

(A) P Q R S

(B) R Q P S

(C) S P Q R

(D) Q R P S

82. In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only. Despite downsizings, workers’ overall job satisfaction actually improved
between 1988 and 1994. Some reasons given were improved work flow, better cooperation between departments, and
increased fairness in supervision. Many firms today rely on attitude surveys to monitor how employees feel about
working in their firms. The use of employee attitude surveys had grown since 1944 when the National Industrial
Conference Board “had difficulty finding fifty companies that had conducted opinion surveys”. Today, most companies
are aware of the need for employees’ anonymity, the impact of both the design of the questions and their sequence,

the importance of effective communication, including knowing the purpose of the survey before it is taken and getting
feedback to the employees after it is completed. Computerization of surveys can provide anonymity, if there is no
audit trail to the user, especially for short answers that are entered rather than written or typed on an identifiable
machine. Survey software packages are available that generate questions for a number of standard topics and can be
customized by modifying existing questions or by adding questions, If the survey is computerized, reports can be
generated with ease to provide snapshots of a given period of time, trend analysis, and breakdowns according to
various demographics. You may be interested in responses by age, sex, job categories, departments, division,
functions or geography. The survey can be conducted by placing microcomputers in several locations convenient for
employees’ use. Employees are advised where the computers will be, for how long, and when the data will be collected
(for instance, daily at 5:00 p.m. for three weeks). The screens should not be viewable to supervisors or passers-by.
While there may be some risk that employees will take the survey more than once, there are comparable risks with
other methods too. Managers may be interested in knowing how they are perceived by their peers and subordinates.
Packages are available that can be customized, which allow the manager to complete a self-assessment tool used to
compare self-perceptions to the anonymous opinions of others. One major benefit of using survey software packages
is

(A) reports can be generated easily

(B) privacy of a person is exposed to the supervisors

(C) employees would like to take up the test on computer

(D) employer can get to know the information immediately

83. There are P, Q, R and S as sentences. Given below
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
of the sentence. Mr. John P- who was hardly six months
old Q- Charles R- as his son S- adopted The correct
sequence should be

(A) S Q R P

(B) P S Q R

(C) R S P Q

(D) P R S Q

84. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly. S1: Chandran was
terribly angry. S6 : Saro ran screaming. P: His pen was in her hand and Chandran rushed at her. Q: Just then his sister,
Saro, appeared at the door-step. R: His pen was missing from the place where he had left it. S: He thought it was lost.
The proper sequence should be

(A) P R S Q

(B) R S Q P

(C) P S Q R

(D) S Q Ꮲ R

85. Find the answer based on the given passage. To eat and not be eaten - that’s the imperative of a caterpillar’s
existence. The leaf roller reduces its risks of being picked off by predators by silking together a temporary shelter in
which to feed and rest. Adopting a different line of defense, the jelly slug extrudes a sticky translucent coating that
may foul the mouth-parts of marauding ants. For its part, the aquatic larva, by its watery element, fashions a portable
hideout from fragments of aquatic leaves. Cutting a serpentine trail as it feeds on tender young leaves, the minute
citrus leaf miner spends its entire larval life inside its host plant, thus keeping its appetizing body safely under wraps.
Which one of the following makes itself unpalatable ?

(A) Leaf roller

(B) Jelly slug

(C) Aquatic larva

(D) Leaf miner

86.

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts
have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), ( b), ( c) and (d ). You are
required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. The completion

P- it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment

Q- and makes them take pride in their work;

R- of high quality products

S-. also enhances employee satisfaction, because

The correct sequence should be

(A) P Q R S

(B) R Q P S

(C) P S R Q

(D) R S P Q

87. Fill in the blanks She's genius ________ telling the
wrong thing ________ the wrong time.

(A) For/on

(B) At/at

(C) At/on

(D) on/at

88. In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only. Ever since independence, land reforms have been a major instrument of
State policy to promote both equity and agricultural investment. Unfortunately, progress on land reforms has been
slow, reflecting the resilience of structures of power that gave rise to the problem in the first place. The main
instrument for realizing more equitable distribution of land is the land ceiling laws. These laws were enacted by
several States during the late 1950s and 1960s, and the early 1970s saw more stringent amendments in the laws to
plug loopholes in the earlier laws. But the record of implementation has not been satisfactory. Around 3 million
hectares of land has been declared surplus so far, which is hardly 2 percent of net sown area in India. About 30
percent of this land has not yet been distributed as it is caught up in the litigations. Besides, a number of Benami and
clandestine transactions have resulted in illegal possession of significant amounts of land above ceiling limits. There
are widespread reports of allotment of inferior, unproductive, barren and wasteland to landless household, many of
whom have been forced to sell it off, in the absence of resources to make it productive. In many instances, lands
allotted to the rural poor under the ceiling laws are not in their possession. In some cases, Pattas were issued to the
beneficiaries, but possession of land shown in the Pattas was not given, or corresponding changes were not made in
the records of right. The balance of power in rural India is so heavily weighed against the landless and the poor that
implementing land ceiling laws is difficult. It is clear that without massive mobilization of the rural poor and
depending on democratic governance in rural India, very little can be achieved in this direction. Although half of
India’s population continues to depend on agriculture as its primary source of livelihood, 83 percent of farmers
operate holdings of less than 2 hectares in size, and the average holding size is only 1-23 hectares. This is often in

fragments and unirrigated. There are also those who are entirely landless, although agriculture is their main source of
livelihood. They have inadequate financial resources to purchase and often depend on leasing in small plots, on
insecure terms, for short periods, sometimes only for one season. Hence, many face insecurity of tenure and the
growing threat of land alienation and pressure from urbanization, industrialization and powerful interest. Which
word/group of words in the passage means ‘lawsuit’?

(A) Amendments

(B) Litigations

(C) Mlegal possession

(D) Fragments

89. Each item in this section has a sentence which has 90. Fill in the blanks. Many foreign countries listened to
multiple parts. Find out the error/ no error and indicate her music. __________
your response from the options . Mumbai is largest
(A) attentively
cotton centre in the country.
(B) quietly
(A) Mumbai is
(C) indifferently
(B) largest cotton centre
(D) boldly
(C) in the country

(D) No error

91. In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only. Ever since independence, land reforms have been a major instrument of
State policy to promote both equity and agricultural investment. Unfortunately, progress on land reforms has been
slow, reflecting the resilience of structures of power that gave rise to the problem in the first place. The main
instrument for realizing more equitable distribution of land is the land ceiling laws. These laws were enacted by
several States during the late 1950s and 1960s, and the early 1970s saw more stringent amendments in the laws to
plug loopholes in the earlier laws. But the record of implementation has not been satisfactory. Around 3 million
hectares of land has been declared surplus so far, which is hardly 2 percent of net sown area in India. About 30
percent of this land has not yet been distributed as it is caught up in the litigations. Besides, a number of Benami and
clandestine transactions have resulted in illegal possession of significant amounts of land above ceiling limits. There
are widespread reports of allotment of inferior, unproductive, barren and wasteland to landless household, many of
whom have been forced to sell it off, in the absence of resources to make it productive. In many instances, lands
allotted to the rural poor under the ceiling laws are not in their possession. In some cases, Pattas were issued to the
beneficiaries, but possession of land shown in the Pattas was not given, or corresponding changes were not made in
the records of right. The balance of power in rural India is so heavily weighed against the landless and the poor that
implementing land ceiling laws is difficult. It is clear that without massive mobilization of the rural poor and
depending on democratic governance in rural India, very little can be achieved in this direction. Although half of
India’s population continues to depend on agriculture as its primary source of livelihood, 83 percent of farmers
operate holdings of less than 2 hectares in size, and the average holding size is only 1-23 hectares. This is often in
fragments and unirrigated. There are also those who are entirely landless, although agriculture is their main source of
livelihood. They have inadequate financial resources to purchase and often depend on leasing in small plots, on
insecure terms, for short periods, sometimes only for one season. Hence, many face insecurity of tenure and the
growing threat of land alienation and pressure from urbanization, industrialization and powerful interest. One of the
reasons of selling off the lands by the allottees is that the lands were

(A) unproductive and barren

(B) salty, not getting water

(C) fertile, but uncultivable

(D) with the powerful people

92. Read below passages and answer the following. Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is
completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do
not realise that through that car window everything you see is just more TV. You are a passive observer and it is all
moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it
all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming. The word
'overwhelming' means

(A) very strong

(B) unavoidable

(C) interesting

(D) humorous

93.  In this section, a word is spelled in four different
ways. You are to identify the one which is correct. Choose
the alternative bearing the correct spelling from ( a), ( b),
( c) and ( d).

(A) Accommodate

(B) Acomodate

(C) Accomdate

(D) Acomodait

94. Read the passages and answer the following. Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economical
condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances,
including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care and education. It results
into a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalised and suffer from
exploitation and loss of human dignity. Why do you think 'cultural identity' is important ?

(A) A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

(B) Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

(C) It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

(D) It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

95. In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage.
First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only. Passage Mankind’s experience of various evolutionary changes from
primitive times to the present day has been extensive and varied. However, man’s problems were never before as
complicated as they seem to be today. Man’s economic activity centres primarily around production. Labour is said to
be the primary factor of production; its role, therefore, has been given a lot of importance. It should be useful to have
an overall view of the economic history of man—from the nomadic times to the modern factory system—and study its
relevance to the various labour problems of today. Initially, man passed through ‘the hunting and fishing stage’.
During this period, his basic needs were adequately met by Nature. Wild animals, birds and fruits satisfied his hunger,
and his thirst was quenched by the waters of springs and rivers. Caves gave him shelter and barks of trees were used
as clothing. During this stage of man’s progress, labour problems did not exist because of the absence of any
economic, political and social systems. Then came ‘the pastoral stage’, which was marked by a certain amount of
economic activity. The nomadic and migratory nature of man persisted, and, together with his goats and cattle, he
moved on to fresh pastures and meadows. Some conflicts would sometimes take place among herd-owners, for, during
this period, the institution of nominal private property ownership was not known. This stage paves the way for ‘the
agricultural stage’, during which the class system began to develop. There was a small artisan class mostly self-
employed; and there were also landed proprietors or Zamindars as well as slaves. Thus, arose the feudal system.
During the fourth stage of these developments, ‘the handicrafts stage’, a number of social and economic changes took
place which marked the beginning of the labour problem in the world. The self-sufficient economy of the village

underwent a drastic change. The community of traders and merchants emerged. Which word in the passage means
‘surfaced’?

(A) Quenched

(B) Emerged

(C) Nomadic

(D) Adequately

96.  Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the 97. The following items in this section consists of a
underlined word/words A truly respectable old man is a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
ripe person. parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
(A) senior
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
(B) mature
of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. P :
(C) perfect has been below normal since last week Q : the minimum
(D) seasoned temperature R : in some part of the city S : when rain and
hailstorm activity recorded

(A) RSPQ

(B) SPRQ

(C) QPSR

(D) PSQR

98. Read below passages and answer the following. I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere
fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the grey half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was
happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand he was
holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow
hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the
box and calmly put the quarry in. From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

(A) calm and courageous.

(B) cunning and crafty.

(C) noisy and dangerous.

(D) active and jumpy.

99. Find the answer based on the given passage. In Delhi, it was forbidden by the law, at one time, to take a Dog into
a public vehicle. One day a lady, accompanied by a pet dog, entered a bus. Wishing to evade the law, she placed her
tiny dog in her dress pocket. It so happened that the person next to this lady was a pick pocket; and during the
journey he carefully placed his hand into her pocket in search of her purse. Great was the horror to find instead a pair
of sharp teeth inserted into his fingers. His exclamation of pain and surprise drew the attention of other passengers to
him. Why did the pick-pocket exclaim with pain ?

(A) He was hit by the lady

(B) He was caught by the fellow- passengers

(C) He was bitten by the dog

(D) He fell of the bus

100. Read the passages and answer the following. Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economical
condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances,
including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care and education. It results
into a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalised and suffer from
exploitation and loss of human dignity. What way do you think 'lack of access to information' affects poor people ?

(A) They don't get information about how to improve their conditions

(B) They didn't get newspapers to read at all

(C) They can't go to school and read books

(D) They don't get information about schemes of getting rich

101. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
followed by four words or group of words. Select the
word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to
the word in capital letters. MOMENTOUS

(A) Time-tested

(B) Momenlary

(C) Very important

(D) Hectic

102. Read below passages and answer the following. Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is
completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do
not realise that through that car window everything you see is just more TV. You are a passive observer and it is all
moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it
all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming. The writer likes
travelling on the motorcycle. What is the most likely reason for this?

(A) The motorcycle has no windows.

(B) The motorcycle does not go as fast as a car.

(C) As the traveller is used to cars, travelling by motorcycle is a change.

(D) Travelling by motorcycle, the writer feels that he is part of the scenery.

103. In the following items, some parts of the sentence
have been jumbled up. You are require to re-arrange
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce
the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Like energy crisis
(P) is one of the most talked about (Q) population
explosion (R) topics of the world these days (S) The
correct sequence should be

(A) S R Q P

(B) R Q P S

(C) S P Q R

(D) P R Q S

104. In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are
required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly. S1: The teaching
work for the term is over. S6: For this, weekend trips do not suffice, and a longer stay is necessary. P: That will end on
October 13 and the Diwali vacation will begin from October 14. Q: After I complete the assessment of examination
papers, I plan to go and stay at our house in Lonavla for at least a week. R: Next week the terminal examination
begins. S: There is a lot of repair work that needs to be carried out in the house. The proper sequence should be

(A) S Q R P

(B) Q S P R

(C) R P S Q

(D) R P Q S

105. In the following items, some parts of the sentence 106. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with
have been jumbled up. You are require to re-arrange an underlined word followed by four words/groups of
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the
the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and underlined word and mark your response on your Answer
mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly. Some Sheet accordingly. This is akin to a contractual
educationists should not be exposed to (P) believe that relationship that places obligations on the entities
(Q) young children (R) too much television viewing.(S) entrusted with data.
The correct sequence should be
(A) Removed
(A) R S P Q (B) Narrow
(B) Q P R S (C) Similar
(C) Q R P S (D) Unparalleled
(D) P Q R S

107. Given below are some idioms / phrases followed by 108. Each of the following items in this section consists
four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response ( of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled.
a),( b),( c),( d) which is the most appropriate expression. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given
Best of both worlds. below each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b),
( c) and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled
(A) A happy person who is the best with all
parts of the sentence and mark your response on the
(B) All the advantages
Answer Sheet accordingly.
(C) To take on a task that is way too big
(A) QPRS
(D) Someone whom everybody likes
(B) SRPQ

(C) PORS

(D) RSQP

109. Fill in the Blanks. The whole lot of young men was 110. Given below are a few sentences. Identify the part
very enthusiastic but your friend alone was _______ of speech of the underlined words. Choose the response (
a), ( b), ( c) or ( d) which is the most appropriate
(A) quarrelsome
expression. The children were walking through the
(B) complaining
forest.
(C) a wet blanket
(A) Verb
(D) sleepy
(B) Adverb

(C) Adjective

(D) Preposition

111. Each item in this section consists of a sentence with 112. Each item in this section has a sentence with three
an underlined word followed by four words/groups of parts labelled ( a), ( b) and ( c). Read each sentence to
words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the find out whether there is any error in any underlined part
underlined word and mark your response on your Answer and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against
Sheet accordingly. Cognitivist and linguists believe that the corresponding letter i.e., ( a) or ( b) or ( c). If you find
every child is born with innate qualities. no error, your response should be indicated as ( d).

(A) Biological (A) The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised

(B) Intrinsic (B) for not having much required courses

(C) Extrinsic (C) scheduled for this semester.

(D) Unnatural (D) No error.

113. Read the passages and answer the following. In its simple form, science has helped man to protect himself from
Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in
which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature's own gifts, not only of metal but even the human
brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of
deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt in climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to
learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him. The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it
is seen in

(A) the fall in production of our factories

(B) the fall in our standard of living

(C) the unfavourable changes in climate

(D) frequent occurrence of epidemics

114. Fill in the Blanks. You must go to the station now, 115. The following consist of a word in capital letters,
your brother______ o just yet as his train leaves after followed by four words or group of words. Select the
g
three hours. word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to
the word in capital letters. LUCRATIVE
(A) shouldn’t

(B) mustn’t (A) Profitable

(C) wouldn’t (B) Important

(D) needn’t (C) Challenging

(D) Worthwhile

116. Find the error in the following. 117. Each question has a sentence with three options (a),
(b) and (c), Read each sentence to find out whether there
(A) A prism is used to refract white light
is any error in any part and indicate your answer in the
(B) so it spreads out
Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or
(C) in a continuous spectrum (b) or (c). If you find no error, your answer should be
(D) No error indicated as (d). Our first trip was the most interesting
one (a) but our second one (b) was even more interesting
(c) No error(d)

(A) a

(B) b

(C) c

(D) d

118. Identify the part of speech of the underlined words.
Choose the response which is the most appropriate
expression. Rita eats her dinner quickly.

(A) Verb

(B) Preposition

(C) Adjective

(D) Adverb

119. In the following items. each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S ) and the final sentence (S )
1 6
are given in the beginning. The. middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled
P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the
Answer Sheet. S : One winter afternoon she had been buying something in a little antique shop in Curzon Street. S :
1 6
He clasped his hands: he was so gratified he could scarcely speak. P: Therefore she visited this shop once again. Q: It
was a shop she always liked to visit R: He beamed whenever she came in. S: And the man who kept it was very fond of

serving her. The proper sequence should be

(A) P S Q R

(B) Q P S R

(C) P R Q S

(D) Q S P R

120. The following items in this section consists of a
sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These
parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below
each sentence are four sequences namely ( a), ( b), ( c)
and ( d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts
of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. P :
for the ordinary Q : not willing to risk the unusual R : if
you are S : you will have to settle

(A) PRQS

(B) SPQR

(C) RQSP

(D) QSRP

ANSWER KEY

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (A)

8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D)

15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (B)

22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (D)

29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C)

36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (B)

43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (A)

50. (B) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B)

57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (B) 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C)

64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A)

71. (D) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A)

78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (B) 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (B)

85. (B) 86. (D) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (A) 91. (A)

92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (A)

99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (C) 102. (D) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (C)

106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (D) 111. (B) 112. (B)

113. (C) 114. (D) 115. (A) 116. (B) 117. (A) 118. (A) 119. (B)

120. (C)