UPSC CDS II 2026 Notification

COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION-II, 2026

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.11/2026-CDS-II
Date of Notification of Examination 20.05.2026
Last date for filling up of Application 09.06.2026
Date of Examination 13.09.2026

(The Commission's website - https://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT INFORMATION FOR THE CANDIDATES
The Online Application Portal of Union Public Service Commission for
registration and filling up of application form online has four
cards/modules, three of which namely, Account creation, Universal
Registration and Common Application Form are common to all
examination applications and can be filled anytime by the candidate
while the fourth card/module is Examination Specific and can be filled
during the time period allowed in notification of an examination.
Applicants are required to apply online by using the website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

Once a candidate has registered on the Online Application Portal, a
Universal Registration Number (URN) is generated which is common for
all the examinations of the Commission. After filling up of the
Examination Specific Form, an Application Number is generated which
is examination specific and is to be retained by the applicant along with
the URN for any future communication with the Commission. The URN
has to be registered only once in a lifetime. While the URN will be unique
and will remain constant, the Application Number will be dynamic in
nature and will vary from examination to examination.

Detailed instructions are available on the home page of the portal as
well as with all profiles/modules to guide the candidates for filling up of
the application form and uploading the documents. Candidates are
advised to first go through these Instructions carefully and prepare
requisite documents in advance to have a smooth flow during filling up
of form and document uploading.
Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID
documents for easy, effortless and seamless verification and
authentication of ID and other details.

1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION :
All the candidates are requested to carefully read the Rules of Combined Defence
Services Examination-II, 2026 notified by the Government (Ministry of Defence) and this
Notice of Examination derived from these Rules. Candidates applying for the examination
should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination.
Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to
satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of e-Admit Card to the
candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the

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Commission. Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents will
be taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General instructions,
Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents before
proceeding to fill up the form. A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Defence
Services Examination-II, 2026 shall be required to submit the requisite information and
supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification,
etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the Universal Registration Number
(URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination Specific
Module (including fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide the required
information/documents along with the Common Application Form (CAF) will entail
cancellation of candidature for the examination.
NOTE 1:- ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:

The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their
Universal Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the
URN Profile will not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated
information will apply only to applications submitted after the candidate has made the
necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN Profile.

NOTE 2- LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION
FORM (CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live
photograph while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure
that the uploaded photograph and the live photograph captured are clear as per instructions
given on “Instructions and FAQs > Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature”
available on the Commission’s website https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE -3: UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:

Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white paper
using black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF).
The uploaded signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are advised to refer to
the instruction for uploading the signature available under the header “Instructions and
FAQs” on the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE - 4: UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated in the
Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.

2.1 WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidate will not be allowed to withdraw his/her applications after the submission
of the same. Further, no correction/alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application
Form is allowed after submission.

2.2 The candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter
Card(EPIC)/PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the
candidate while filling up the Universal Registration Number (URN) Profile. This Photo ID
Card will be used for all future references and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID
Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test/SSB.

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2.3 Applicants are strongly advised to use their Aadhaar Card as ID document for easy,
effortless and seamless verification and authentication of ID and other details.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:

The Online Application can be filled upto 06:00 P.M. of 9th June, 2026.

4. ISSUANCE OF e-ADMIT CARD:

The eligible candidates will be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of the
preceding week of the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on
the Commission’s website (https://upsconline.nic.in) for downloading by the candidates. No
Admit Card will be sent by post or e-mail. All the applicants are requested to provide valid
and active email ID while creating account as the Commission may use electronic mode for
contacting them.

5. MARKING ANSWERS IN THE OMR SHEET :
For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet), candidates
must use black ball pen only. Pen of any other colour is not permitted. Do not use Pencil or
Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of
details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet
Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further
advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix- II of the
Notice.

6. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong
answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers.

7. ONLINE REPRESENTATION PORTAL FOR QUESTION PAPER &
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEYS:

The Commission will be providing an opportunity to the appeared candidates to make
representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination
and on the Provisional Answer Keys of the Objective Type Question Paper(s) of the
Combined Defence Services Examination in a time frame of five (05) days i.e. from the 3 rd
day of the Examination date to 06.00 P.M. of the 7th day. The appeared candidates may login
to the Commission’s website: https://upsconline.nic.in and submit their representation(s), if
any, under the header ‘Examinations > Representations on Question Paper & Provisional
Answer Keys’. No representation by email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted
and the Commission shall not involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this
regard. No representation shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of
five (05) days is over.

8. HELPDESK FOR CANDIDATES :

The Commission has established a dedicated helpline to assist the candidates during the
application process. Candidates seeking clarification, guidance, or assistance related to the
application process or examination details can contact the helpline no. 011-24041001/011-
40303444 or email ID – [email protected]. The helpline will be operational from 10:00 A.M.
to 5:30 P.M. on all working days during the Application Window i.e. from 20.05.2026 to
09.06.2026. Applicants may utilize this service for any issues relating to the application
process, including fee payment, uploading of documents, etc.

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9. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic
equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or
camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working
or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the
examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item
including bags, mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination,
as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the examination.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

10. REPORTING AT EXAMINATION VENUE:

The entry of the candidates into the venue of the Examination shall be closed 30
minutes prior to the commencement of the Examination in each session. No candidates
shall be allowed entry into the examination venue after closure of entry under any
circumstance.
11. FACE AUTHENTICATION FOR CANDIDATES AT THE EXAMINATION
VENUE:
In order to ensure a secure and smooth examination process, all candidates will be
required to undergo face authentication at the examination venue mandatorily.
Candidates are advised to enter the examination venue well in time for face
authentication/identity verification and frisking.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT https://upsconline.nic.in ONLY.
NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER
BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.

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No.F.8/01/2026-E.I(B)—Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2026 will be conducted by the
Union Public Service Commission on 13th September, 2026 for admission to the under mentioned
courses :—

S. Approximate No. of Vacancies
Name of the Course
No. (Refer Note –iii)
100
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun –163rd (DE)
1. [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC
Course commencing in July 2027.
`C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]
26
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala - Course
[including 06 vacancies for NCC ‘C’
2. commencing in July, 2027 Executive Branch
Certificate (Naval Wing) holders and 01
(General Service)/Hydro.
for Hydro]
32
Air Force Academy, Hyderabad - (Pre-Flying)
[including 03 vacancies reserved for NCC
3. Training Course commencing in July, 2027 i.e.
‘C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders
222 F(P) Course.
through NCC Special Entry]
Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)
4. 126th SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course 275
Commencing in October, 2027.
Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras)
5. 126th SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Course 18
commencing in October, 2027.

Total 451

NOTE (i) Indian Army publishes vacancies for Men and Women separately for various entries keeping
into account the operational and administrative needs of the Force as envisaged in the existing and future
scenarios. Though the vacancies for Men and Women categories as per SSC(NT) Courses are being
notified through a common Notification and tested through a common written examination for
administrative purpose, SSC(NT) Men and SSC(NT) Women are separate entries and the selection for
both these categories is done separately but in gender pure manner as per vacancies notified. THE
PREPARATION OF WRITTEN RESULTS AND FINAL MERIT LISTS FOR SSC(NT) MEN AND
SSC(NT) WOMEN CATEGORIES WILL ALSO BE DONE SEPARATELY AS PER VACANCY
NOTIFIED.

NOTE (ii) : The date of holding the examination as mentioned above may be changed, if so required,
at the discretion of the Commission.
NOTE (iii) : The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage of
selection process by Services H. Q. as per organisation requirement at that point of time.
N.B. (I) (a) : Candidates are required to specify clearly in respective column of the Exam Specific
Module the Services for which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference. A male
candidate is advised to indicate as many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition given at
paras (b) and (c) below, so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be
given to his preferences when making appointment.
(b) (i) : If a male candidate is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should indicate
OTA as the one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service Commission
Course at OTA as well as Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force
Academy should indicate OTA as his last preference; otherwise OTA will be deemed to be the last
choice even if it is given a higher preference by the candidate.

(b) (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commission at OTA. They
should indicate OTA as the only choice.

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(c) Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have
to be administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or AF Medicals at Central
Establishment/Institute of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be
treated as invalid.

(d) Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for
appointment to those courses only for which they exercise their preference and for no other course(s).
It is mandatory for a candidate to exercise at least one preference to be considered for service
allocation.

(e) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her
application will be entertained by the Commission. Further, in view of multiple reconfirmations of
information submitted during the application process, the Commission has decided not to extend the
facility of making any correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form after its submission and
closure of the application window of this Examination. Second choice will come for consideration only
when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by Services HQ. When first choice is offered and a
candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for all other choices for regular
Commission.

N.B. (II) All Left over Finally Qualified candidates of IMA/INA/AFA courses who could not be
inducted for the said course due to the lack of vacancies, will be considered for SSC(NT), even if they
have not indicated their choice for this course, subject to the following conditions:-
i) Vacancies are available after issuing the Joining Letters to those candidates who had applied
and qualified for SSC(NT)
ii) Left over finally qualified candidates are willing to join SSC(NT)
iii) Such left over finally qualified and willing candidates will be placed in order of merit after the
last candidate who had opted SSC(NT), subject to number of vacancies available for SSC(NT).
Accordingly, such Left over candidates will be issued Joining Letter in order of merit.

NOTE 1: NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may also
compete for the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no reservation of
vacancies for them in this course, they will be treated as general candidates for the purpose of filling up
vacancies in this course. Candidates who have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior
Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are otherwise eligible to compete for the reserved
vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof of passing the NCC ‘C’
Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination to reach the IHQ of
MoD (Army) / Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and SSC women entry
for female candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice
candidates and IHQ of MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan,
New Delhi-110 011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba
Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force
first choice candidates by 13th May 2027. To be eligible to compete for reserved vacancies the
candidates should have served for not less than 3 academic years in the Senior Division Army Wing
Air Wing/Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not have been discharged from the NCC for
more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses on the last date of
receipt of Application in the Commission’s Office.

NOTE 2 : In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior
Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to
fill all the vacancies reserved for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy
Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved
and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the
written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test
by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination. The details
regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Special instructions to candidates
for objective type tests (c) Medical Standards and Procedure for Medical Examination of Officers in
the Armed Forces and (d) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian Military
Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in
Appendices I, II, III and IV respectively.

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2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres:

1 AGARTALA 29 GHAZIABAD 57 NASIK

2 AGRA 30 GORAKHPUR 58 NAVI MUMBAI
3 AHMEDABAD 31 GURUGRAM 59 PANAJI (GOA)
4 AIZAWL 32 GWALIOR 60 PATNA
SRI VIJAYA PURAM
5 AJMER 33 HYDERABAD 61
(PORT BLAIR)
6 ALIGARH 34 IMPHAL 62 PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD)
7 ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) 35 INDORE 63 PUDUCHERRY
8 ALWAR 36 ITANAGAR 64 PUNE
ANANTHAPURAMU (ANDHRA
9 37 JABALPUR 65 RAIPUR
PRADESH)
CHHATRAPATI
10 SAMBHAJINAGAR 38 JAIPUR 66 RAJKOT
[AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)]

11 BAREILLY 39 JAMMU 67 RANCHI

12 BENGALURU 40 JODHPUR 68 SAMBALPUR

13 BHOPAL 41 JORHAT 69 SHILLONG
14 BHUBANESWAR 42 KANPUR 70 SHIMLA
15 BILASPUR (CHHATTISGARH) 43 KARGIL 71 SILIGURI
16 CHANDIGARH 44 KOCHI 72 SRINAGAR
17 CHENNAI 45 KOHIMA 73 SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND)
18 COIMBATORE 46 KOLKATA 74 SURAT
KOZHIKODE
19 CUTTACK 47 75 THANE
(CALICUT)
20 DEHRADUN 48 LEH 76 THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
21 DELHI 49 LUCKNOW 77 TIRUCHIRAPALLI
22 DHARAMSHALA 50 LUDHIANA 78 TIRUPATI
23 DHARWAD 51 MADURAI 79 UDAIPUR
MANDI
24 DISPUR 52 (HIMACHAL 80 VARANASI
PRADESH)
25 FARIDABAD 53 MEERUT 81 VELLORE
26 GANGTOK 54 MUMBAI 82 VIJAYAWADA
27 GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR 55 MYSURU 83 VISAKHAPATNAM
HANUMAKONDA
28 GAYA 56 NAGPUR 84
(WARANGAL URBAN)

Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each
of the Centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the
“first-apply-first-allot” basis and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be
frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a Centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a
Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they
could get a Centre of their choice. If any candidate appears at a venue other than the one indicated by
the Commission in his/her e-Admit Card, such candidate will not be allowed to take the examination.
NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, the Commission reserves the right to change the
Centres at their discretion if the situation so demands.
Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places
of examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of Examination Centre will be
entertained.

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NOTE : While filling in his/her Examination Specific module, the candidates should carefully decide
about his/her choice for the Centre for the examination.

If any candidate appears at a Centre/Paper other than the one indicated by the Commission in
his/her e-Admit Card, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be
liable to cancellation.

3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(a) Nationality: A candidate must either be:
(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, and East African
Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia
or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose
favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are
Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the
examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt.
before declaration of result by UPSC.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status:
(i) For IMA— Age: 19 to 24 years. Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 1st July, 2003
and not later than 1st July, 2008 only are eligible.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy— Age: 19 to 24 years. Unmarried male candidates born not earlier
than 1st July, 2003 and not later than 1st July, 2008 only are eligible.
(iii) For Air Force Academy—
Age: 20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2027 i.e. born not earlier than 1st July, 2003 and not later than 1st
July, 2007. Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence
issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 1st July, 2001 and not later
than 1st July, 2007 only are eligible.
Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training.
Married candidates aged 25 years or above are eligible to apply but during training period they will
neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
(iv) For Officers' Training Academy (SSC Course for men) — Age: 19 to 25 years. Unmarried male
candidate born not earlier than 1st July 2002 and not later than 1st July, 2008 only are eligible.
(v) For Officers' Training Academy (SSC Women Non-Technical Course) — Age: 19 to 25 years.
Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession
of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier
than 1st July, 2002 and not later than 1st July, 2008.
NOTE : Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of
their admission in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for
these courses.
The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent
to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which
extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Matriculation/Secondary
School Examination or an equivalent examination certificate. No other document relating to age like

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horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will
be accepted.

The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the
instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date
of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a
candidate must send in addition to the self-attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary School
Examination Certificate a self-attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal
of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination
showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.

NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its
change will be considered or granted.

NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been submitted by them in the
Online Application Form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission
to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other subsequent examination)
on any ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective
column of the Online Application Form. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is
found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination
certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

NOTE 4: The candidates should also note that no addition/deletion/ changes are allowed in the online
application form in the CDS Examination in any circumstances once it is submitted. However, the
Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal
Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile will
not be reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to
applications submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-
locked the URN Profile.

(c) Educational Qualifications:
(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or
equivalent.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy— A degree in Engineering or B.Sc. with Physics as core or elective
subject from recognised University/ Institution (with Physics and Mathematics in 10+2 level).
(iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at
10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.
Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of
Graduation/provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the
final year degree examination can also apply and they will be required to submit proof of passing the
degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’,
CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice
candidates, Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-
110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg,
New Delhi-110001 Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice
candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled:

(i) For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2027, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st July, 2027
and Air Force Academy on or before 13th May, 2027.

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(ii) For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2027.
Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government
as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the
examination.
In exceptional cases, the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the
qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses
qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to
the examination.

NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are
studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final
year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is
only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree
Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the
grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or
any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are
required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College
stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the
specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of
commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if
admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to
learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non-Tech) Branches of the IAF.
This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.

(d) Physical Standards:
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined
Defence Services Examination (II), 2026 as per guidelines given in Appendix-III.

4. FEE :

Candidates (except Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required
to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by using net banking facility of any bank
or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment for appearing in the Combined Defence
Services Examination.

NOTE-1 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the
modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.
Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be
summarily rejected.

NOTE 2 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in
reserve for any other examination or selection.

ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE
EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC/EWS CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE
REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCRIBED FEE.

5. HOW TO APPLY:
(a) Candidates are required to apply online by using the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are advised to go through the General instructions,
Profile/Module-wise instructions and instructions for uploading of documents before proceeding to fill

10

up the form. These instructions are available on the menu bar of the Home page. A candidate who is
willing to apply for Combined Defence Services Examination shall be required to submit the requisite
information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational
qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission along with the Universal Registration Number
(URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and the fourth module i.e. Examination specific module
(including fees and centre etc.). Failure to provide the required information/documents along with the
Common Application Form (CAF) will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination.

NOTE-1: ONE-TIME EDIT FACILITY FOR URN PROFILE:
The Commission provides a one-time facility for candidates to update or modify their Universal
Registration Number (URN) profile. Please note that any changes made to the URN Profile will not be
reflected in applications already submitted. The updated information will apply only to applications
submitted after the candidate has made the necessary changes and successfully re-locked the URN
Profile.

NOTE – 2 : LIVE PHOTO CAPTURE FOR FILLING UP OF COMMON APPLICATION FORM
(CAF):

Applicants are required to upload their photograph and also capture their live photograph while
filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). Applicants must ensure that the uploaded photograph
and the live photograph captured are clear as per instructions given on “Instructions and FAQs >
Instruction for filling the form > Photos and Signature” available on the Commission’s website
https://upsconline.nic.in.

NOTE -3: UPLOADING OF SIGNATURE:
Applicants are required to sign three times (one below the other) on a plain white paper using
black ink and upload the same while filling up the Common Application Form (CAF). The uploaded
signatures should be clear and legible. The candidates are advised to refer to the instruction for
uploading the signature available under the header “Instructions and FAQs” on the Commission’s
website: https://upsconline.nic.in .

NOTE 4 :- UPLOADING OF PHOTOGRAPH:

Please follow the Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph as elaborated in the
Instructions to upload documents in the home page of the online application portal.

NOTE-5:- WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION:

The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the
same. Further no correction /alteration/modification in any field(s) of the Application Form is allowed
after submission.
No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her
application will be entertained by the Commission. Further no correction /alteration/modification in any
field(s) of the Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form (CAF) and
Examination specific module is allowed after its submission and closure of the application window of
this Examination.
No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect of correcting
details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due diligence and caution as the
timely completion of examination process is of paramount importance.
All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the
Armed Forces, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private
employment should submit their applications online directly to the Commission.

N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work
charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public
Enterprises are, however, required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have
applied for the Examination.
11

N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in
writing that they have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this regard
at the time of SSB interview.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the
Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their
applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.

NOTE: APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS
CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE
SUMMARILY REJECTED.

No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any
circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit along with their applications any certificate in
support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, Scheduled Caste/Scheduled
Tribe/OBC and fee remission etc.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility
conditions for admission to the examination.

Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz.
written examination and interview test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the
prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the written examination
or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature
for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

Candidates are advised to keep ready the following documents in original along with their self-
attested copies soon after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination which is
likely to be declared in the month of October, 2026 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ
as the case may be:

(1) Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or its equivalent showing date of birth.
(2) Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree
examination and eligible for award of degree.

In the first instance, all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original
Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree
Certificate/Marks sheet with them while going to the Services Selection Centres for SSB interview.
Candidates who have not yet qualified the final year Degree examination must carry with them a
certificate in original from the Principal of the College/Institution stating that the candidate has
appeared/is appearing at the final year Degree examination. Candidates who do not carry the above
certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not be allowed to appear for
the SSB interview. No relaxation for production of the above certificates in original at the selection
centre is allowed, and candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will
not be permitted to appear for their SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their own
expense.

(1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves
liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions:

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :—

(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely :—
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or
(ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the
examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
12

(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual
photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination,
namely :—
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the
examination;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow
examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for
the conduct of the examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any
electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches
etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in
working or switched off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the
examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their e-Admit card
permitting them to take the examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the
acts specified in the foregoing clauses;

in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution/appropriate legal action as deemed fit
under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, as amended from time
to time, the candidate shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under
these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :-

(i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them;

and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service
under Government; Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the
candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed
for this purpose, into consideration.

(2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in
committing or abetting the Commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will
be liable to action in terms of the Clause (n).

NOTE: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, he/she may not be allowed to
continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination functionaries and
the action against the candidates may be taken in consultation with the Commission. Further, the
candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of the said examination.

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION:
(i) The Online Application can be filled upto 9th June, 2026 till 6:00 P.M. after which the link
will be disabled.
(ii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of
the same.

13

7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION/ARMY/NAVAL/AIR
HEADQUARTERS.

The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their
candidature except in the following cases:

(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of the preceding
week of the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the
Commission’s website [https://upsconline.nic.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admit
Card will be sent by post or email.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication regarding
his/her candidature for the examination Seven (7) days before the commencement of the
examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission.

Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the
Commission's Office either in person or via Helpdesk no. 011-24041001/011-40303444.
In case no communication is received in the Commission's Office from the candidate regarding
non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least three Days before the examination, he/she
himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card.

No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e-Admit
Card for the examination. On downloading of Admit Card, the candidates are requested to check
it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the Commission immediately.

The mere fact that an e-Admit Card to the Examination has been issued to a candidate, will not
imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission or that entries made
by the candidate in his/her Universal Registration Number (URN), Common Application Form
(CAF) and Exam Specific Module for the Combined Defence Services Examination have been
accepted by the Commission as true and correct. Candidates may note that the Commission
takes up the verification of eligibility conditions of a candidate, with reference to original
documents, only after the candidate has qualified for SSB/Interview/Personality Test on the
results of the Written Examination. Unless candidature is formally confirmed, it continues to
be provisional.

The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per
age and educational qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the
candidates.

The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional
based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to
verification of all the eligibility conditions.

(iii) If a candidate receives an e-Admit Card in respect of some other candidate on account of
processing error, it should be notified to the Commission with a request to issue the correct e-
Admit Card. Candidates may note that they will not be allowed to take the examination on the
strength of an e-Admit Card issued in respect of another candidate.

(iv) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and
his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final.

(v) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated
due to technical reasons.

(vi) Candidates must ensure that their e-mail ID & mobile number given in their applications are
valid and active as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while
contacting them at different stage of examination process.

14

IMPORTANT: All communications to the Commission/Army Headquarters should invariably be made
on email- [email protected] and shall contain the following particulars.

1. Name and year of the examination.
2. Universal Registration Number (URN)
3. Application Number
4. Roll Number (if received)
5. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters)
6. Complete Postal Address as given in the application.
7. Valid and active registered e-mail-ID / registered Mobile Number.
N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to.

N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held
and it does not give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken
thereon.
N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board
who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application for the
examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the
examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self-addressed envelope, also to
IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen Of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry Section for males and SSC Women Entry
Section for women candidates, West Block-III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Rama Krishna Puram, New
Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates, IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR (OI&R
Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice
candidates, and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No.
23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply with
this instruction will deprive the candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her not
receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board. For all queries regarding
allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other relevant
information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in or contact
in case of candidates having IMA or OTA as their first choice, IHQ of MOD (NAVY) DMPR (OI&R
Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in the case of candidates
having Navy as first choice and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001.
Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in the case of candidates having Air Force as first choice.
Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up
letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine
circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters/Naval
HQ/Air Headquarter will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection
Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB interview has been received. Navy candidates can download
their call letters from the naval website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in or send email at
[email protected] three weeks after publication of results.
N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 2nd week of
February, 2027 and by 2nd week of May 2027 for OTA, he/she should write to IHQ of
MoD(Army)/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women Entry for Officers Training Academy, West Block-III,
Ramakrishna Puram, New Delhi-110066 regarding non-receipt of the call-up letter. For similar query
by the Navy/Air Force candidates, having first choice as given ibid, should write to Naval Hqrs. or
Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non-receipt of call by 4th week of February 2027).

8. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION,
INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS
AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES.

The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the
minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their discretion.
Candidates who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and

15

personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference by the respective service
HQ. CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY IN THE WRITTEN EXAM AND GIVEN THEIR FIRST
CHOICE AS ARMY (IMA/OTA) ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER THEMSELVES ON THE
RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE WWW.JOININDIANARMY.NIC.IN IN ORDER TO
ENABLE THEM TO RECEIVE CALL UP INFORMATION FOR SSB INTERVIEW. THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY REGISTERED ON THE RECRUITING
DIRECTORATE WEBSITE ARE ADVISED NOT TO REGISTER AGAIN. The email ID
registered with DG Recruiting website i.e. www.joinindianarmy.nic.in and that given to UPSC must
be same and unique to the applicant. Results of the test conducted by Service Selection Board will
hold good for all the courses [i.e. Indian Military Academy (DE) Course, Dehradun, Indian Naval
Academy, Ezhimala Course, Air Force Academy (Pre-Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC (NT)
Course at OTA, Chennai] for which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irrespective of
the service HQ conducting it. Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test
and intelligence Test has been introduced at Service Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put
to stage one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres. Only those candidates who qualify at
stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests and all those who fail to pass stage
one, will be returned. Only those candidates who qualify at stage two will be required to submit
photocopy each of:- (i) Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii)
Bachelor’s Degree/Provisional Degree along with mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support
of educational qualification.

Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their
own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in
respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given
to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise.
Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the form appended to the application.

To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i)
written examination and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board
respectively in their discretion. The candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of the
total marks secured by them in the written examination and in the SSB tests. The form and manner
of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the
Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them
regarding the result.

Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian
Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or the Officers' Training Academy as the case may be. The
final selection will be made in order of merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other
respects and number of vacancies available.

NOTE-1: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only
once. The Grade secured by him at the first test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for
every subsequent interview at the Air Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy
Selection Board/Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test earlier
and those who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force.

TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES
WHO APPLY FOR AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE:- There are three
modes of entry in F(P) course CDSE/NCC/AFCAT. Candidates who fail in Computer Pilot Selection
System (CPSS) will be considered for other preferred services only if it is found that they have
applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written examination for IMA(D.E)
Course and/or Navy (S.E) Course and / or Air Force Academy course irrespective of whether they
have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in February-March 2027 and
candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in April to June 2027.

16

8.1 ROUNDING OFF MARKS AND TIE BREAKING PRINCIPLES:

The provisions relating to the rounding off of marks, wherever applicable, and the principles
for resolving cases of tie in scores shall be as prescribed below:-

(A) Rounding off marks:

Marks obtained by the candidates shall be rounded off up to two decimal digits, at all stage(s)
of the examination, by applying the standard rounding off principle, wherever applicable.
Accordingly, while applying the tie-breaking principles, the rounded-off marks upto two decimal
digits shall be considered for resolving all tie cases.

(B) Tie Breaking Principles :

(i) For IMA/INA/AFA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing
more marks in written total (“Paper-I : English, Paper-II : General Knowledge and Paper –
III : Elementary Mathematics” put together ) will be ranked higher;

For OTA : If the marks in aggregate (Final Marks) are equal, the candidate securing more
marks in written total (“Paper-I : English and Paper-II : General Knowledge” put together)
will be ranked higher;
(ii) If the marks at (i) above are equal, the candidate securing more marks in “Paper-II : General
Knowledge” will be ranked higher;
(iii) If the marks at (i) and (ii) above are also equal, the candidate senior in age will be ranked
higher; and
(iv) In cases where a tie persists even after applying the above tie-breaking principles, it will be
resolved at the discretion of the Commission.

9. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian
Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy,
Chennai but were removed therefrom on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to
the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short
Service Commission in the Army.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of
Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.

Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn
from the National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer-like
qualities will not be eligible for admission to the Indian Navy.
Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy,
NCC and Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short
Service Commission in the Army.
Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of
Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy.

10. RESTRICTIONS ON MARRIAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY
ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY
OR OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI:
Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force
Academy Course or Officers' Training Academy, Chennai must undertake not to marry until they
complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application
17

though successful at this or any subsequent examination will not be selected for training. A candidate
who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on
him/her by the Government.

11. OTHER RESTRICTIONS DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY
ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY:
After admission to the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force
Academy, candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be permitted
to appear for any interview or examination after they have been finally selected for training in the Indian
Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy.

12. PRATIBHA SETU PORTAL (erstwhile PUBLIC DISCLOSURE SCHEME):-

As per the policy notified by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job
opportunities, the information of candidates who appeared in the final stage of Examination
(Interview/Personality Test) but not recommended, will be made accessible to any registered Private
Company, Public Sector Undertaking, Statutory and Autonomous Organisations of Government of
India on the dedicated Portal on the website of the Commission to identify suitable candidates in line
of their requirements for providing employment. Short biodata of the candidates with their educational
qualifications, contact numbers, details including their percentile (not absolute or percentage marks),
etc. will also be made accessible on this dedicated Portal. The data available on this Portal shall be
restricted for the purpose of evaluation of suitability of the candidates for employment purpose only to
these registered organisations. These lists will be made available after the Reserve List is
utilized/exhausted after declaration of final result. It may be noted that there is no option for partial
disclosure and choice once opted cannot be changed.

Candidates will be required to give their consent at the time of filling the Exam Specific
Module. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published
by the Commission.

Besides sharing of the information of the non-recommended willing candidates of this
examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner
in which information related to such candidates is utilized by these registered organizations.

(J. K. Mandal)
Under Secretary (Examination)
Union Public Service Commission

18

APPENDIX-I

The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. The Competitive examination comprises:

(a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.

(b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates
as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.

2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each
subject will be as follows:

(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 11 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100
3. Elementary Mathematics 13 2 Hours 100

(b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy:—
Subject Code Duration Maximum
Marks
1. English 11 2 Hours 100
2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100

The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each
course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300,
300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force
Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.

3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test
Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well
as English.

4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and
Measures only will be set.

5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the
help of a scribe to write answers for them.

6. The Commission has discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.

7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test
Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall.

B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

STANDARD
The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard
of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian
University.

19

SYLLABUS
ENGLISH (Code No. 11)
The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and
workmanlike use of words.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 12)
General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday
observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who
has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History
of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 13)
ARITHMETIC
Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations,
addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time
and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss,
ratio and proportion, variation.

Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of
divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M.
Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables.

ALGEBRA
Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials,
solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be
considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions.
Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two
simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable &
their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of
indices.

TRIGONOMETRY
Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°,
60° and 90°
Simple trigonometric identities.
Use of trigonometric tables.
Simple cases of heights and distances.

GEOMETRY
Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel
lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi)
Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram,
rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.

MENSURATION
Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split
up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of
right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.

STATISTICS
Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons,
histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.

INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those
candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-

20

(a) Stage I comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test
(PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and
PP&DT.

(b) Stage II comprises Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference.
These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing
Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for
each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of
the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on
the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these
have equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer
Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not
Recommended at the SSB.

APPENDIX-II
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES FOR OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS
1. ARTICLES PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written), a good quality Black Ball Pen for
marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied
by the invigilator.

2. ARTICLES NOT PERMITTED INSIDE EXAMINATION HALL:
 Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. any
valuable/costly items, mobile phones, Smart/Digital watches other IT gadgets, books, bags,
notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing
instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining
to earlier session(s) etc.
 Possession (even in Switched off mode)/use of Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any
other communication devices or any other incriminating material (notes on e-Admit
Card, papers, eraser etc.) are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is
being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action
including ban from future examinations.
 Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items
including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as no
arrangements for safekeeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Candidates
are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as no
arrangement for safe keeping of the same will be made at the venue of the examination.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

3. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS
MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that
question.

21

(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

4. UNFAIR MEANS STRICTLY PROHIBITED:
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be
copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any
description.

5. CONDUCT IN EXAMINATION HALL:
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination
Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such
misconduct will be severely penalised.

6. ANSWER SHEET PARTICULARS:
(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket),
subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top.
Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number
in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above
particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet
series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report
immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in
the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code,
will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied
to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced
by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the
answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not
write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise
due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to
darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries
made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating
the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully
and accurately.

10. METHOD OF MARKING ANSWERS :
In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question
(hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as
“Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will
be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3.......etc.
Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the
correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you
consider the best response.

In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one
response, your response will be considered wrong.

In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are
circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided
which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by
completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response.

22

For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to
be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :-
Example : (a) • (c) (d).
11. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the
help of a scribe.
12. ENTRIES IN SCANNABLE ATTENDANCE LIST:
Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their
columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.

13. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges
in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or
imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.

ANNEXURE

HOW TO FILL IN THE ANSWER SHEET OF OBJECTIVE TYPE TESTS IN THE
EXAMINATION HALL

Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to be
evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which
you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have
to fill in various particulars in it.

As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is numbered at the
bottom. If it is found, un-numbered he/she should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.

You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus:

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
Centre Subject Subject Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the English Paper* and your Roll
No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.

कें द्र विषय विषय कोड अनुक्रम ांक
Centre Subject Subject Code Roll Number
Delhi English 1 1 0 8 1 2 7 6

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or in Hindi.

The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the
Booklet.
Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admit Card with Black ball pen in the boxes
provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.

23

The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test
Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the
encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.

Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and
confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For English *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you
have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:

विषय
Subject
पुवतिक क्रम (अ) 1 1
Booklet Series (A)
0 0
A
2 2
B 3 3
4 4
C 5 5
6 6
D 7 7
8 8
9 9

अनुक्रम ां क
Roll Number

All that is required is to blacken completely
the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet Series and 0 8 1 2 7 6
below the subject code blacken completely the
Circles for “1” (in the first vertical column) and “1” 0 0 0 0 0
(in the second vertical column). You should then
encode the Roll No.081276. Do it thus similarly: 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
Important: Please ensure that you
have carefully encoded your 3 3 3 3 3 3
Subject, Test Booklet Series and
Roll Number
4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5
* This is just illustrative and may not 6 6 6 6 6
be relevant to your Examination.
7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9

24

APPENDIX-III

MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE FOR MEDICAL EXAMINATION OF
OFFICERS IN THE ARMED FORCES:
The medical standards and procedures for the medical examination of candidates for entry as
officers into the Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force) shall be governed by the “Joint Order
Manual of Medical Standards for Entry into Armed Forces (1st Edition)”.

This document is available on the official website of the Indian Army and can be accessed at
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in under Home Page Policies Policies: Officer’s Selection Medical
Standards for Entry into Armed Forces (1st Edition).

Note: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to
the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. Permanent body tattoos on any
other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates will be barred from further selection. Tribes
with tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be permitted on
a case to case basis. Commandant Selection Centre will be competent authority for clearing such cases.

APPENDIX-(IV)

(Brief particulars of service etc.)
Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
Pay
Rank Level (Pay in Rs.)
Lieutenant Level 10 56,100 -1,77,500
Captain Level 10 B 61,300- 1,93,900
Major Level 11 69,400 - 2,07,200
Lieutenant Colonel Level 12A 1,21,200 - 2,12,400
Colonel Level 13 1,30,600-2,15,900
Brigadier Level 13A 1,39,600-2,17,600
Major General Level 14 1,44,200-2,18,200
Lieutenant General HAG Scale Level 15 1, 82, 200-2,24,100
HAG+Scale Level 16 2,05,400 - 2,24,400
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Lieutenant General Level 17 2,25,000/-(fixed)
COAS Level 18 2,50,000/-(fixed)

MSP to the officer is as follows
Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the Rs. 15,500 p.m. fixed
rank of Lieutenant to Brigadier

Fixed Stipend for cadet Training
Stipend to Officer Cadets during the entire duration of training Rs. 56,100/-p.m.* (Starting pay in
in Service academies i.e. during training period at IMA, INA, Level 10)
AFA and OTA.

* On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed
in first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service and
arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

(i) Other Allowances Risk and Hardship allowance has been introduced by the 7th CPC under which
an individual gets his entitled allowance as per risk and hardship of the area where he/she is serving.

(a) Dearness Allowance Admissible at the same rates and under the same conditions as
are applicable to the civilian personnel from time to time

(ii) Dress allowance *Rs 20,000/- per year.

25

(iii) Free Ration in kind.

In Peace and Field areas.

(iv) Transport Allce (TPTA).

Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities Other Places
(Rs. Per month) (Rs. Per month)
10 and above Rs. 7200+DA thereon Rs. 3600+DA thereon

Note :-

(a) Higher Tpt Cities (UA). Hyderabad, Patna, Delhi, Ahmedabad, Surat, Bengaluru, Kochi,
Kozhikode, Indore, Greater Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Jaipur, Chennai, Coimbatore,
Ghaziabad, Kanpur, Lucknow, Kolkata.
(b) The allowance shall not be admissible to those service personnel who have been provided
with the facility of Government transport.
(c) Officers in Pay Level 14 and above, who are entitled to use official car, will have the option
to avail official car facility or to draw the TPTA at the rate of Rs.15,750+DA per month.
(d) The allowance will not be admissible for the calendar month(s) wholly covered by leave.
(e) Physically disabled service personnel will continue to be paid at double rate, subject to a
minimum of Rs.2250 + DA per month.

(v) Children Education Allowance. *Rs. 2250/- per month

* The rate of DA index Allowances will be calculated at enhanced rate of 25% as the rate of DA
crossed 50% w.e.f. 01-01-2024.

(i) Reimbursement should be done just once a year, after completion of the financial year (which
for most schools coincides with the Academic year).

(ii) Certificate from the head of institution where the ward of government employee studies should
be sufficient for this purpose. The certificate should confirm that the child studied in the school
during the previous academic year.

(iii) Please note that pay and allowances and rules/provisions thereof are subject to revision from
time to time

(A) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY, DEHRADUN:

1. Before the candidate joins the Indian Military Academy.

(a) He will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he fully understands that he or
his legal heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the Government
in respect of any injury which he may sustain. In the course of or as a result of the training or
where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation
performed upon or anaesthesia administrated to him for the treatment of any injury received as
aforesaid or otherwise.

(b) His parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason
considered within his control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the
course or fails to accept a commission if offered; he will be liable to refund the whole or such
portion of the cost of tuition, food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be decided
upon by Government.

2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training for about 18 months. Candidates
will be enrolled under the Army Act as Officer cadets. Officer cadets will be dealt with the ordinary
disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun.
26

3. While, the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical
treatment will be borne by Government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses
themselves.

4. An outfit allowance at the rate and under the general conditions applicable at the time for each
cadet belonging to the Indian Military Academy will be placed at disposal of the Commandant of
the Academy. The unexpended portion of the allowance will be :—

(a) handed over to the cadet on his being granted a commission or
(b) if he is not granted a commission refunded to the State.

On being granted a commission article of clothing and necessaries purchased from the allowance
shall become the personal property of the cadet. Such articles will, however be withdrawn from a
cadet who resigns while under training or who is removed or withdrawn prior to commissioning.
The article withdrawn will be disposed of to the best advantage of the State.

5. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Officer
Cadet resigning after the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending
acceptance of their resignation by HQ ARTRAC. Cost of training, messing and allied services will
be recovered from them before their departure. They and their parents/guardians will be required to
execute a bond to this effect before the candidates are allowed to join Indian Military Academy. An
Officer Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may with
permission of the Government, be discharged after paying the cost of Training laid down by the
Govt. of India. Service candidates under these circumstances will be reverted back to their parent
Unit.

6. Commission will be granted only on successful completion of training. The date of commission
will be that following the date of successful completion of training. Commission will be permanent.

7. Pay and allowances, pensions, leave and other conditions of service after the grant of commission
will be identified with those applicable from time to time to regular officers of the army.

8. Training: At the Indian Military Academy, Officer Cadets are given strenuous Military training
for a period of 18 months aimed at turning out, officers capable of leading infantry subunits. On
completion of successful training, Officer Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in the rank of
Lt. subject to being medically fit, in S1H1A1P1E1.

9. Army Group Insurance Fund (AGIF). The Officer Cadets when in receipt of stipend are
insured for ₹ 1.25 Cr as applicable to officers of the regular Army. Subscription at the rate of ₹
12,500/- will have to be paid in advance on monthly basis by the Officer Cadets to become members
under the AGI Scheme as applicable to Regular Army Officers. For those who are invalidated out
by IMB on account of disability and not entitled to any pension will be provided ₹ 25 lakhs for 100
percent disability. This will be proportionately reduced to ₹ 5 lakhs for 20 percent disability.
However, for less than 20 percent disability, an ex-gratia grant of ₹ 50,000/- only will be paid.
Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due to diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not
qualify for disability benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, Officer Cadets withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds, expelled as an undesirable or leaving the Academy voluntarily will not be
eligible for disability benefits and Ex-Gratia.

10. The following monetary benefits are available to the Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in the event of
invalidment on medical grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable to or aggravated
by military training:

(a) In Case Of Disablement
(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/- per month.
(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/- per month shall be payable in addition for
100% of disability during period of disablement subject to prorata reduction in case the

27

degree of disablement is less than 100%. No disability award shall be payable in cases
where the degree of disablement is less than 20%.
(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs 6750/- per month for 100% disabled on
the recommendation of Invaliding Medical Board (IMB).

(b) IN CASE OF DEATH
(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.
(ii) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9000/- per month to the NoK.

(c) The Ex-gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) / NoK, shall be sanctioned purely on ex-gratia basis
and the same shall not be treated as pension for any purpose. However, dearness relief at applicable
rates shall be granted on monthly ex-gratia as well as ex-gratia disability award. (Authority:
GOI/MOD letter No.17(01)/2017(01)D(Pension/ Policy) dated 04 Sep 2017 as amended vide para
11 & 12 of GOI/MOD letter No.17(02)/2016 D(Pen/Pol) dated 04 Sep 2017.

11. Terms and Conditions of Service

(i) POSTING
Army officers are liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad.

(ii) PROMOTION

Substantive promotions

The following are the service limits for the grant of the substantive promotion to higher ranks.
By time scale :

Lt. On commission
Capt. On completion of 2 years of reckonable commissioned service

Major On completion of 6 years of reckonable commissioned service

Lt. Col. On completion of 13 years of reckonable commissioned service

Col (TS) On completion of 26 years of reckonable commissioned service

Col.
Brigadier
On Selection basis subject to
Major Gen. fulfilment of requisite
Lt. Gen.
service conditions.
General

(B) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY, EZHIMALA, KERALA

(i) Candidates selected for training at the Indian Naval Academy will be appointed as Cadets under
the Graduate Cadet Special Entry Scheme (GSES) Course. The Selection of the cadets is based on the
candidate qualifying in the Combined Defence Service Examination (CDSE), followed by SSB
interview and Medical Examination. Meritorious candidates who are medically fit are appointed to the
26 vacancies of Executive Branch (General Service/ Hydro) (including 06 for Naval NCC ‘C’ certificate
holding candidates under the NCC Special Entry Scheme).

(ii) Selection of Cadets from the National Cadet Corps. The eligibility, age-limits, educational
qualifications for candidates applying under the NCC Special Entry Scheme are the same as the GSES
candidates except for the following:-

28

a) An NCC Cadet must have served for not less than three academic years in the Senior Division,
Naval Wing of the National Cadet Corps, and must be in possession of Certificate "C" (Naval).
Those who have appeared or intend to appear for certificate "C" examination are also eligible to
apply but their final selection shall depend on producing the Certificate before the commencement
of the course.

b) The NCC Cadet must be in possession of a certificate of good conduct and character from his
University or Principal of his College.

c) An NCC Cadet shall not be eligible to apply after twelve months of leaving the Senior Division,
Naval Wing of the National Cadet Corps.

d) In order to apply, a cadet must submit his application to his Officer Commanding, N.C.C Unit,
Naval Wing, who shall forward it through the Circle Commander concerned to the N.C.C.
Directorate, Ministry of Defence, New Delhi. The N.C.C. Directorate will forward the applications
to the Chief of the Naval Staff. The applications shall be submitted on the prescribed form. These
forms will be available at all N.C.C. Units.

e) Candidates who are considered prima facie suitable shall be required to appear before a
Service Selection Board for interview and other tests.

f) Candidates to be finally selected should at least secure the minimum qualifying marks at the
Services Selection Board. Subject to this condition and to their being declared medically fit,
successful candidates shall be placed in the order of merit based on the total marks secured in the
written examination and the Service Selection Board interview. The final selection shall be made
in the order of merit up to the number of vacancies available.

(iii) Candidates, finally selected for training at the Academy will be appointed as cadets in the Executive
Branch of the Navy. A sum of Rs. 35,000/- should be brought by them and deposited in the bank
account, which they would be opening at the State Bank of India, Ezhimala branch, on arrival. Since it
is a large amount, it is advised that they carry a demand draft payable to self. The deposit money would
be used to meet the following expenditures:—
(a) Pocket/Personal expenses Rs. 5,000/-
@ Rs. 1,000/- per month
(b) Expenses on Laundry, Civilian- Rs. 4,250/-
bearer, Cinema, hair cutting and @ Rs. 850/- per month
other sundry services
(c) Expenses on stitching/purchase of Rs.20,000/-
Academy Blazer, Academy tie, Aca-
demy Mufti, Academy Sportswear,
Jogging shoes, Jungle boots, Swim-
ming Trunk/suits and Satchels.
(d) Travelling expenses for proceeding Rs. 2,000/-
to next duty station/home station
on leave on completion of Naval
Orientation Course on return
Journey at the end of the term.
(e) Insurance: The GSES cadets would have to pay Rs. 2303/-one time non-refundable
contribution for an Insurance cover of Rs. 20,00,000/- (Rupees twenty lakh only) for a period of six
months. Their disability cover and contribution if relegated would be at par with Non-GSES cadets
(NGIF letter No. BA/GIS/215 dated 06 Nov 2018).
(iv) Training: Selected candidates may be appointed as cadets on reporting at the Indian Naval
Academy.
The candidates shall remain under probation till completion of initial training which is as follows:-

29

(a) Naval Orientation Course at 44 weeks
INA, Ezhimala
(b) Officers Sea Training at Training Ship 06 months
(c) Sub-Lieutenant Afloat training 06 months
(d) Sub-Lieutenant (Technical course) 33 weeks
(e) Afloat attachment for award of
Full Naval watch-keeping Certificate 06-09 months

(v) Commissioning & Other Benefits : The cadets shall be commissioned in the rank of Sub-Lieutenant
after successful completion of approximately 18 months of training. The career prospects, leave
benefits, leave and travel concession, pensionary/retirements benefits and all such perks and privileges
provided to officers in the Navy is similar to those being provided by the two services.
(vi) The cost of training including accommodation and allied services, books, uniform, messing and
medical treatment of the cadets of the Indian Naval Academy will be borne by the Government. Parents
or guardians of cadets will, however, be required to meet their pocket and other private expenses while
they are cadets. When a cadet’s parent or guardian has an income less than Rs. 1500 per mensem and
is unable to meet wholly or partly the pocket expenses of the cadet, financial assistance upto Rs.140 per
mensem may be granted by the Government. A candidate desirous of securing financial assistance may
immediately after his selection, submit an application through the District Magistrate of his District,
who will with his recommendations, forward the application to the Principal Director of Manpower
Planning & Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New Delhi-110011.

Note: Further information, if desired, may be obtained from the Directorate of Manpower, Planning &
Recruitment, Naval Headquarters, New Delhi-110011.

(C) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY

1. There are three modes of entry in F(P) Course viz. CDSE/NCC Special Entry/AFCAT. Candidates
who apply for Air Force through more than one source will be tested/interviewed at Air Force Selection
Boards as per type of entry. Common candidate who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS)
cannot be tested for flying branch in IAF.

2. Detailing for Training—Candidates recommended by the AFSBs and found medically fit by
appropriate medical establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and availability
of vacancies. Separate merit list are prepared for Direct Entry candidates through UPSC and for NCC
candidates. The merit list for Direct Entry Flying (Pilot) candidates is based on the combined marks
secured by the candidates in the tests conducted by the UPSC and at the Air Force Selection Boards.
The merit list for NCC candidates is prepared on the basis of marks secured by them at AFSBs.

3. Training—The approximate duration of training for Flying Branch (Pilots) at the Air Force Academy
will be 74 weeks.
Air Force Group Insurance Society would pay Rs. 1,25,00,000 for a monthly contribution of Rs.
8,600/ pm as insurance cover to the next-of-kin of a flight cadet drawn from Civil life and undergoing
flying training in an unfortunate eventuality. In case flight cadet undergoing training is medically
invalidated boarded out, he will be paid Rs. 62,50,000 as disability insurance cover for 100% disability
and this reduces proportionately upto 20%.

Flight Cadets shall receive a fixed stipend of Rs. 56,100/- per month (starting pay in Level 10) for
the period of training. "On successful completion of training, the stipend admitted will be converted as
pay for all purposes. However, the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service."

Once flight cadets are granted pay and allowances by government, the insurance cover will remain
as above for a monthly contribution of Rs 8,600/- pm. The Contribution comprises of Risk Element and
Saving Element. The Saving Element of Rs 5120/- out of Rs 8600/- will continue to earn interest and
paid as Survival Benefit at the time of Retirement.

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4. Career Prospects :
After successful completion of training, the candidates pass out in the rank of Flying Officer and will
be entitled to the pay and allowances of the rank. Time scale promotions to the rank of Flight Lieutenant,
Squadron Leader, Wing Commander and Group Captain are granted on completion of 2 years, 6 years,
13 years and 26 years of successful service respectively. Grant of Group Captain (select) and higher
ranks is only by selections. Promising officers have a fair chance of getting higher promotions to air
ranks—Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal and Air Marshal.

5. Leave and Leave Travel Concession:

Annual Leave—60 days a year.
Casual Leave—20 days a year.
Officers are authorised encashment of Annual Leave upto 10 days along with LTC to the extent of a
total 60 days in a career span to cover incidental expenses on travel.

Officers when proceeding on annual/casual leave, irrespective of its duration, is entitled for free
conveyance from place of duty (unit) to home town and back once in the second year of his service for
the first time and thereafter every alternate year to any place in India in lieu of home town or selected
place of residence without any distance restriction.

In addition, officers of Flying branch employed on regular Flying Duties in vacancies in authorised
establishment are allowed, while proceeding on leave once every year on warrant a free rail journey in
the appropriate class upto a total distance of 1600 kms. for the forward and return journeys both
inclusive.

Officers when travelling on leave at their own expenses are entitled to travel by entitled class or
lower class on payment of 60 per cent of the fare for self, wife and children from unit to any place
within India on 6 one-way journey Form ‘D’ in a calendar year. Two of these Form ‘D’ may be availed
of for the entire family. In addition to wife and children, family includes parents, sisters and minor
brothers residing with and wholly dependent upon the officers.

6. Other Privileges:
The officers and their families are entitled to free medical aid, accommodation on concessional rent,
group insurance scheme, group housing scheme, family assistance scheme, canteen facilities etc.

(D) FOR CANDIDATES JOINING THE OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI

1. Before the candidate join the Officers Training Academy Chennai.
(a) He/she will be required to sign a certificate to the effect that he/she fully understands that he/she
or his/her legal heirs shall not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from the
Government in respect of any injury which he/she may sustain in the course of or as a result of the
training or where bodily infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a surgical operation
performed upon or anaesthesia administered to him/her for the treatment of any injury received as
aforesaid or otherwise.
(b) His/her parent or guardian will be required to sign a bond to the effect that if for any reason
considered within his/her control, the candidate wishes to withdraw before the completion of the
course or fails to accept a commission if offered or marries while under training at the Officers’
Training Academy, he/she will be liable to refund the whole or such portion of the cost of tuition,
food, clothing and pay & allowances, received as may be decided upon by Government.

2. Candidates finally selected will undergo a course of training at the Officers’ Training Academy, for
an approximate period of 49 weeks. Candidates will be enrolled as Officer Cadets. Officer Cadets will
be dealt with the ordinary disciplinary purposes under the rules and regulations of the Officers’ Training
Academy.

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3. While the cost of training including accommodations, books, uniforms, boarding and medical
treatment will be borne by the government, candidates will be expected to meet their pocket expenses
themselves.

4. Initial Deposit. Candidates on arrival will deposit a bank draft for sum of Rs 28,000/- drawn in
favour of the Commandant, OTA Chennai and payable at Chennai for the following purposes:-
(a) Army Group Insurance Fund Premium Rs. 20,000/-
(@Rs 10,000 pm for first two months)

(b) Initial pocket expenses incl cost of initial ordnance items Rs. 8,000/-

Total Rs. 28,000/-

5. No candidate will normally be permitted to resign whilst under training. However, Officer Cadets
resigning after the commencement of training may be allowed to proceed home pending acceptance of
their resignation by HQ ARTRAC. Cost of training, messing and allied services will be recovered from
them before their departure. They and their parents/guardians will be required to execute a bond to this
effect before the candidates are allowed to join Officers’ Training Academy.

6. On joining OTA, cadets will be allowed to apply and proceed for civil central job interview/SSB in
the first term of the training only. However, no cost of training including messing charges will be
recovered from these Officer Cadets, who may resign from the Officers Training Academy, Chennai to
undergo pre-commission training at the Indian Military Academy, Dehradun or corresponding cadet
training establishment in Navy and Air Force, if so selected.

7. An Officer Cadet who is not considered suitable to complete the full course of training may, with
permission of Government, be discharged after paying cost of training laid down by the Government of
India. An Army candidate under these circumstances will be reverted to his Regiment or Corps.

NOTE. Candidates reporting to Indian Military Academy (IMA) and Officer Training
Academy (OTA) are required to meet the following Physical Standards:-

Ser Activity Minimum Physical Standards on Arrival
No Officer Cadet (Men) Officer Cadet (Women)
(a) 2.4 Km Run 10 Minutes 30 Second 13 Minutes
(b) Push Up 40 15
(c) Pull UP 06 02
(d) Sit Up 30 25
(e) Squats Two Sets of 30 Repetitions
(f) Lunges Two Sets of 10 Repetitions
(g) Swimming Should know fundamentals of swimming
8. Training :

Selected candidates will be enrolled as Officer Cadets and will undergo a course of training at the
Officers’ Academy for an approximate period of 49 Weeks. On successful completion of training,
Officer Cadets are granted Short Service Commission in the rank of Lt. from the date of successful
completion of training. University of Madras will award "Post Graduate Diploma in Defence
Management and Strategic Studies" to all cadets who successfully complete Pre-commissioning
training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai. Candidates withdrawn from Officers' Training
Academy on disciplinary grounds are not eligible to apply.

9. Terms and conditions of Services:

(a) Period of probation:
An officer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her
commission. If he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her

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commission, he/she may be terminated any time whether before or after the expiry of the probationary
period.

(b) Liability of Service:
Personnel granted Short Service Commission is liable to serve anywhere in India and abroad on
selected appointments as decided by IHQ MOD (Army) from time to time.

(c) Tenure of Appointment:
Short Service Commission will be granted to Male and Female in the regular Army for 14 years i.e.
for an initial period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male and Female officers
who are willing to continue to serve in the Army after the expiry of period of ten years Short Service
Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all respects, be considered for the grant of Permanent
Commission in the 10thyear of their Short Service Commission in accordance with the relevant policies
as issued from time to time.
Those SSC officers (Male and Female) who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise
considered fit and suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years
(including the initial tenure of 10 years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army.
(d) Special Provision for Release for SSC on completion of 5th Year of Service:
SSC (Non-Tech) Male & Female Officers, other than those who have undergone or are undergoing
Degree Engineering Course or any other specialized course of such nature, who are desirous of leaving
the service after completion of five years service may, during the fifth year of service, apply to the
Army HQs. for release. Army HQ will consider the applications of such officers on merits and the
decision of the Army HQ will be final and irrevocable. On approval such officers will be released from
service on completion of 5th year of service. Those SSC (Non-Tech) Male & Female Officers who have
undergone or are undergoing Degree Engineering Course or any other specialised course of such nature,
will not be released before expiry of full tenure of 14 years unless the cost of training of such specialized
course as prescribed is recovered from them. The Combat Aviation Course which is mandatory for
Aviators is specialized course for Short Service Commissioned Officers. They will be required to
execute a bond to this effect on being nominated for undertaking Degree Engineering Course/Special
Course of such nature.

(e) Special Provisions during Extended Tenure:
During extended tenure, they will be permitted to seek release from the Army on the following
grounds:—
(i) Taking up civil Job.
(ii) Pursuing higher education.
(iii) Starting own business/joining family business.

(f) Substantive Promotion :
SSCOs male and female granted Short Service Commission under these rules will be eligible for
substantive promotion as under:—
(i) To the rank on completion of 2 years
of Capt. reckonable commissioned service
(ii) To the rank of on completion of 6 years
Major reckonable commissioned service.
(iii) To the rank of on completion of 13 years
Lt. Col. reckonable commissioned service.

(g) Mandatory Conditions:
Mandatory conditions for grant of above substantive ranks laid down for Permanent Commissioned
officers as well as the eligibility, time limit and penalties for promotions exam Part B and D as
applicable to permanent commission officers also be similarly applicable to SSCOs male and female.
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(h) Adjustment of Seniority:

To make adjustment for shorter training of SSC male and female vis-a vis PC officers, the seniority of
SSC male and female officers will be depressed by the period corresponding to the difference in training
period between the SSC course under consideration and the training period of its equivalent PC Course.
This adjustment of seniority will be carried out at the time of grant of first substantive rank of captain.
The revised seniority will have no effect on the pay and allowances granted in the rank of Capt. Major
and Lt.Col.
(i) Reckonable Commissioned Service:
Subject to provision of Para 9 (h) above, reckonable commissioned service for the purpose of these
orders will count from the date of grant of Short Service Commission to an officer. The period of
service forfeited by sentence of Court Martial or any summary award under the Army Act and the period
of absence without leave will not be reckonable. The period during which furlough rates of pay are
drawn and the period of captivity at POWs rates of pay will be reckonable. The period of service for
promotion lost by an officer in consequence of his/her having been granted leave without pay will also
be reckonable. Such an officer will, however, become entitled to the pay and allowances of the higher
substantive rank granted by the inclusion of this period only from the date on which he/she would have
qualified by service if this period had not been so reckoned and not with effect from the date of grant
of substantive rank.

(j) Leave: Leave will be admissible in accordance with the Leave Rules for the Service Vol.1-Army as
amended from time to time.

For leave, officers will be governed by rules applicable to Short Service Commission officers as given
in Chapter IV of the Leave Rules for the Service Vol.I-Army. They will also be entitled to leave on
passing out of the Officers Training Academy and before assumption of duties under the provision of
the Rule 69 ibid.
SSC Women Officers will also be eligible for following kinds of Leave:

• Maternity Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56 of Chapter-IV of Leave Rule for
the Services Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition.
• Child Care Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56A of Chapter-IV of Leave Rules
for the Services Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition as amended vide GOI MoD letter
No.B/33922/AG/PS-2(b)/3080/D(AG-II) dated 19 Nov 2018.
• Child Adoption Leave: Women Officers of the Army – Rule 56B of Chapter-IV of Leave
Rules for the Services Vol.I-Army, Fourth Edition.

(k) Termination of Commission
The Commission of an officer may be terminated at any time by the Government of India for the
following reasons:-
(i) For misconduct or if services are found to be unsatisfactory: or
(ii) on account of medical unfitness; or
(iii) if his/her services are no longer required or
(iv) if he/she fails to qualify in any prescribed test or course.
An officer may on giving 3 months notice be permitted to resign his/her commission on compassionate
grounds of which the Government of India will be the sole judge. An officer who is permitted to resign
his/her commission on compassionate grounds will not be eligible for terminal gratuity.

(l) Terminal Gratuity:
SSCO recruited from civil side are entitled to terminal gratuity @ 1/2 months emoluments for each
completed six monthly period of service.
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(m) Reserve Liability:
On being released on the expiry of contractual length of service of Short Service Commission or
extension thereof (as the case may be) they will carry a reserve liability for a period of five years plus
two years on voluntary basis or upto the age of 40 years in case of Male Officers and 37 years in case
of Women Officers which is earlier.

(n) Miscellaneous:
All other terms and conditions of service where not at variance with the above provisions will be the
same as for regular officers.

*****

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