AILET 2025 Question Paper

Appendix-l

Question Booklet SI. No.
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST - 2025

Date of Exam : Center's Name :

Duration : 120 Minutes Roll No.

Max. Marks : 150 OMR Sheet No. :

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in the OMR
Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong answer
0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one of the four responses
provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located ?"
a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Bhopal d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

a c d a c d a (b (C d a C d

5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall be considered wrong
answer.

6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with candidate's
copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR Response Sheet to the
invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are strictly not
permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.

DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M.

M

LLB

BREAK-UP OF MARKS

Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.

A English 50 1-50 3-15

Current Affairs
B and General 30 51-80 16-20
Knowledge

C Logical Reasoning 70 81-150 21-42

Total Marks 150

-2-
M

LLB

SECTION-A: ENGLISH

1.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the
most appropriate answer.

The rise of renewable energy sources has become a crucial topic in the global
fight
against climate change. Solar and wind power, in particular, have gained traction
due to their ability to provide clean energy while reducing dependence
on fossil fuels.
Governments worldwide are investing in technology to enhance energy efficiency
and storage solutions, aiming to create a more sustainable energy landscape.
As the costs of renewable technologies continue to decrease, the transition from
traditional energy sources is becoming not only environmentally necessary but
also economically viable. However, this transition faces several challenges. The
intermittent nature of renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind, requires
advancements in energy storage to ensure a reliable supply. Additionally, existing
infrastructure often relies heavily on fossil fuels, necessitating significant investment
to upgrade or replace systems. Policy makers must navigate these complexities,
balancing environmental goals with economic realities. The future of energy will
likely depend on collaboration between governments, industries, and consumers
to foster innovation and implement sustainable practices.

1.
What is one of the major challenges faced in the transition to renewable energy?
a) The decreasing costs of fossil fuels
b) The need for advancements in energy storage
c) The complete lack of government interest
d) The sheer abundance of fossil fuel resources

2. According to the passage, what is essential for a successful transition to renewable
energy?
a) Collaboration among various stakeholders
b) Increased fossil fuel production
c) Over reliance on the existing infrastructure
d) Eliminating all government regulations

3. Why is the transition to renewable energy described as becoming economically
viable?
a) Because fossil fuels are becoming more expensive
b) Due to the decrease in costs of renewable technologies
c) Due to government subsidies for fossil fuels
d) Renewable energy sources are less reliable
-3-
M

LLB

4. What does the term 'intermittent nature' refer to in the context of renewable energy
sources?
a) Their ability to provide consistent energy supply
b) Their integration into existing infrastructure for production
c) Their complete dependence on fossil fuels for energy
d) Variability in energy production due to weather conditions

5. Which of the following best describes the tone of the paragraph?
a) Skeptical b) Dismissive
c) Balanced d) Indifferent

II. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the
most appropriate answer.

The levels of dissolved oxygen in the world's ocean waters are declining precipitously.
Just like humans, fish need oxygen to survive, and so in ocean areas experiencing
significant levels of oxygen scarcity, or hypoxia, fish populations are plummeting.
Although some hypoxic areas, called "dead zones," occur naturally, hypoxia in
coastal areas and inland waters is caused mainly by agricultural run-off and by
discharge of industrial wastewater. More than one hundred permanent dead zones,
many covering thousands of square miles, exist worldwide today. Since reproductive
success is the most critical factor in the sustainability of any species, the extent
of this threat to marine life and genetic diversity can hardly be overstated. After
several months in hypoxic waters, female fish produce fewer eggs. Moreover,
hypoxic conditions serve to alter the normal ratio between two particular hormones
manufactured during the embryonic stage when a fish's gender is determined. During
gestation and under these conditions, the mother produces more testosterone (and
less estradiol), which inhibits the development of female reproductive organs and
other female characteristics in the embryo, while promoting the development of
male traits. The implications of declining oxygen levels extend beyond individual
species to entire ecosystems. Marine biodiversity is at risk as species that cannot
adapt to hypoxic conditions may face extinction, leading to a cascade of effects
throughout the food web. Predators may struggle to find adequate prey, while other
marine organisms, such as coral reefs, which rely on healthy fish populations for
symbiotic relationships, may also deteriorate. The loss of biodiversity can disrupt
ecosystem services that are essential for human communities, including fisheries,
tourism, and coastal protection.

6. How does hypoxia affect female fish reproduction?
a) It increases egg production b) It has no effect on reproduction
c) It decreases egg production d) It improves the survival rate of embryos
-4-
M

T:
LLB

7. What term is used in the passage to describe areas with significantly low levels of
oxygen?
a) Oxygen-rich zones b) Dead zones
c) Marine reserves d) Hypoxic waters

8. What effect do altered hormone levels during gestation have on fish embryos in
hypoxic conditions?
a) They promote the development of female traits
b) They cause all embryos to become hermaphrodites
c) They have no impact on gender determination
d) They inhibit female trait and promote male traits

9. What broader ecological impact does declining oxygen levels have, as mentioned
in the passage?
a) Increase in hypoxic fish populations
b) Enrichment of coral reefs
c) Disruption of entire ecosystems
d) Degradation of marine biodiversity

10. Why is reproductive success
critical for any species, according to the passage?
a) It ensures the continuation of genetic diversity
b) It determines the physical traits of the species
c) It affects the feeding habits of the species
d) It influences the increase in habitat size

11. Which of the following implications of hypoxia is not mentioned in the passage?
a) Permanent loss of fish populations in affected areas
b) Changes in the gender ratio of fish populations
c) Increased competition among fish species
d) Decline in ecosystem services such as fisheries and tourism

12. In the context of the passage, which of the following best characterizes the term
'sustainability'?
a) Maintaining current fish populations at all costs including government
initiatives
b) Ensuring the reproductive success of marine species for future generations
c) Focusing solely on economic benefits derived from marine resources
d) Prioritizing industrial growth over environmental health
-5-
M

LLB

III. Read the book descriptions for three different books and answer the questions
by choosing the most appropriate options.

The Politics of Change The Change in Politics Politics and Change: А
Global Perspective

In "The Politics of Change," This book by veteran In this insightful work,
political analyst journalist Mark Stevens international relations
Dr. Emily Harper examines investigates the shifting scholar Dr. Anika Patel
the dynamics of social political landscape in the presents a global analysis
movements and their 21st century. Focusing of political change across
impact on policy reform. on major elections, various regions. She
Through detailed case emerging political explores the factors that
studies, she explores how parties, and the role of drive political transitions,
grassroots organizations, social media, Stevens including economic shifts,
protests, and advocaсy analyzes how technology cultural movements, and
campaigns shape public and demographics are international influences.
opinion and influence transforming political Dr. Patel emphasizes the
lawmakers. Dr. Harper engagement and voter interconnectedness of
provides insights into the behaviour. Through global politics and how
strategies that successful interviews with political local changes can have
movements employ and leaders, campaign far-reaching implications.
discusses the challenges strategists, and everyday She analyzes various
they face in a complex voters, Stevens uncovers factors driving political
political landscape. She how demographic transitions, including
discusses key strategies, shifts and technological economic upheaval,
such as coalition-building, advancements are cultural shifts, and the
media engagement, and reshaping political impact of globalization.
the use of digital platforms discourse in urban She provides case studies
to amplify voices. areas. He analyzes the from diverse regions,
implications of these such as the Arab Spring,
changes for traditional democratic movements in
political institutions and Latin America, and shifts
explores how movements in power in Asia. The book
like #MeToo and Black serves as a vital resource

Lives Matter have for understanding the
disrupted conventional complexities of political
narratives. evolution in a rapidly
changing world.

-6-
M

LLB

13. In 'The Politics of Change,' Dr. Emily Harper analyzes various grassroots movements.
Which of the following factors does she most likely attribute to the success of these
movements?

a) The use of traditional media over social media
b) The historical context of each movement's emergence
c) The ability to engage a broad coalition of stakeholders
d) The lack of governmental opposition
14.
What major factors does Mark Stevens discuss in 'The Change in Politics' regarding
the evolution of political engagement?
a) Historical events and their consequences
b) The role of technology and demographic changes
c) Economic theories and their application
d) Environmental issues affecting policy
15. In 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,' what does Dr. Anika Patel emphasize
about the influence of local political changes?
a) They have no impact on global politics
b) The broad implications for international relations
c) They only affect neighbouring countries
d) They are primarily driven by economic factors
16. Which of the following strategies does Dr. Emily Harper argue is essential for social
movements to effectively influence policy reform in "The Politics of Change"?
a) Sole reliance on traditional media
b) Engaging in public apathy
c) Utilizing digital platforms for outreach
d) Focusing exclusively on local issues
17. Dr. Anika Patel's 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective' explores the effects
of globalization on local politics. Which of the following concepts is most likely a
focus of her analysis?
a) The isolation of national policies
b) The role of international organizations in local governance
c) The historical significance of colonialism on current political structures
d) The effectiveness of local movements in a globalized world
18. In 'The Change in Politics,' Mark Stevens highlights demographic shifts as a
transformative factor in politics. Which demographic change might, he argue, has
the most significant influence on recent electoral outcomes?
a) The aging population's impact on social security policy
b) The increasing diversity of voters in urban areas
c) The decline trend of rural populations
d) The rise in youth voter participation in midterm elections
-7-
M

LLB

19. In 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,' Dr. Anika Patel emphasizes the
interconnectedness of political systems. According to the passage, which approach
would Dr. Anika Patel be most likely to use to assess the impact of local changes
on global politics?

a) A purely economic lens focusing on trade relations
b) A cultural approach examining regional identities
c) A systemic analysis of international relations theories
d) A narrative approach emphasizing personal stories of political figures
20. In 'The Change in Politics,' Mark Stevens highlights the role of digital platforms in
political engagement. Which of the following outcomes would he most likely argue
is a direct consequence of increased digital engagement?
a) A decrease in overall voter turnout due to information overload
b) Enhanced polarization among voters as a result of targeted content
c) A uniform political discourse across different demographics
d) An increase in apathy as digital engagement replaces real-world activism
21. Dr. Anika Patel's 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective' posits that local
political movements are interconnected with global trends. Which of the following
would best illustrate this relationship?
a) Local protests against environmental policies influencing international climate
agreements
b) National elections occurring independently of global economic conditions
c) Cultural differences leading to isolated local movements without global relevance
d) The presence of international influence in local governance decisions
22. Considering Dr. Anika Patel's arguments in 'Politics and Change: A Global
Perspective,' which of the following statements would best summarize her
perspective on the role of local leaders in a globalized world?
a) Local leaders are primarily responsible for maintaining national sovereignty
b) They have limited influence on global issues and should focus on local
governance
c) Their actions can create a ripple effect that influences international policy
d) They are often overlooked in favour of national leaders in global discussions
IV. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
The intricate world of modern manufacturing is a web of precision and innovation,
where even the tiniest components play a pivotal role. One such element, often
overlooked but crucial, is the sub-subpart. Whether it's a carpenter fashioning a
bespoke piece of furniture or an automobile engineer designing the next generation
of vehicles, the creation of sub-subparts is a fundamental process that demands
meticulous craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology. In the realm of woodworking,
carpenters frequently work with sub-subparts like dowels, screws, and hinges. These
-8-
M

LLB

minute components may appear insignificant, yet they determine the structural
integrity and functionality of the final product. Crafting a dowel, for instance, begins
with selecting the appropriate wood species, followed by precision cutting and
shaping. The result is a perfectly cylindrical, sturdy sub-subpart that seamlessly
joins two larger pieces of wood. The advent of computer-aided design (CAD) and
computer numerical control (CNC) machines has revolutionised this process,
enabling carpenters to create sub-subparts with unparalleled precision. Similarly, in
the automobile industry, sub-subparts are the unsung heroes of vehicle construction.
Take, for instance, the ball bearing-a minuscule but essential component in the
wheels and transmission system. Manufacturing these precision-engineered spheres
involves intricate processes like forging, heat treatment, and precision machining.
Modern techniques such as laser cutting and 3D printing have streamlined
production, ensuring that these sub-subparts meet the demanding standards of
the automotive sector. The manufacturing of sub-subparts is a testament to the
convergence of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology. Whether
it's a carpenter's workshop or a high-tech automotive assembly line, the quest for
perfection in sub-subpart creation remains unwavering. The attention to detail and
precision required in these processes is a testament to the dedication of craftsmen
and engineers alike. To conclude, while sub-subparts may be small in size, their
significance in various industries cannot be overstated. Whether it's a carpenter
working on a timeless piece of furniture or an automotive engineer striving for
superior performance, the manufacturing of sub-subparts is a crucial step towards
achieving excellence in craftsmanship and technology. This fusion of tradition and
innovation accentuates the essence of modern manufacturing.
23. In the intricate world of modern manufacturing, the sub-subpart can be compared to:
a) The foundation of a building
b) The finishing touches on a masterpiece painting
c) The ingredients of a gourmet dish
d) The alphabet in a language
24. According to the passage, what is the primary reason modern carpenters use
computer-aided design (CAD)?
a) To select the most expensive wood species
b) To replace traditional woodworking tools
c) To revolutionise precision and enhance craftsmanship
d) To create unique, one-of-a-kind furniture designs
25. What is the overarching message conveyed by the passage regarding the significance
of sub-subparts in carpentry?
a) Sub-subparts are an outdated concept in modern carpentry
b) Sub-subparts are primarily aesthetic and don't affect functionality
c) Sub-subparts play a pivotal role in ensuring the quality and functionality of
woodworking projects
d) Sub-subparts are exclusively used in the automotive industry
-9-
M

LLB

26. Which term best characterises the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and
cutting-edge technology in the context of creating sub-subparts, as discussed in
the passage?
a) Dichotomy b) Outmodedness
c) Paradох d) Synergy
27. Assertion (A): Sub-subparts like dowels and screws are often overlooked in
woodworking.
Reasoning (R): Sub-subparts play a crucial role in determining the structural integrity
and functionality of the final product.
Select the option that applies correctly to the assertion and reasoning.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
28. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements?
a) Sub-subparts are irrelevant in modern carpentry
b) Modern techniques like laser cutting have improved precision in sub-subpart
creation
c) Traditional craftsmanship has no place in woodworking today
d) Sub-subparts are only used for aesthetic purposes in carpentry
29. Which of the following might the author cite as an example of the fusion of traditional
craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology, as described in the passage?
a) The decline of traditional woodworking methods
b) The exclusive use of 3D printing in carpentry
c The abandonment of sub-subparts in modern carpentry
d) The use of CAD for designing of wood pieces
30. Given the author's position on the importance of sub-subparts in carpentry, what
stand would the author probably take on the issue of using alternative materials in
woodworking?
a) The author would likely advocate for alternative materials
b) The author would likely reject alternative materials in favour of traditional ones
c) The author's stance on alternative materials is unclear
d) The author would likely argue for a balanced approach, incorporating both
traditional and modern materials

31. Which of the following lines best summarises the essence of the conclusion regarding
the significance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing?
a) Traditional craftsmanship is no longer relevant in today's industries
b) Sub-subparts are insignificant in modern manufacturing compared to larger
components
c) The fusion of tradition and innovation stresses the importance of sub-subparts
in modern manufacturing
d) Manufacturers should prioritise speed and quantity over craftsmanship
-10-
M

LLB

V. Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.

The Story of Coffee

Coffee, a beloved beverage enjoyed by millions around the globe, has a rich and
captivating history that spans centuries. The story of coffee begins in the ancient
highlands of Ethiopia, where, according to legend, a goat herder named Kaldi
discovered the stimulating effects of coffee beans. One day, Kaldi noticed his goats
frolicking with unusual energy after eating red berries from a certain tree. Curious,
he tried the berries himself and experiencedanewfound alertness. This discovery
soon spread to monasteries, where monks used it to stay awake during long hours
of prayer. From Ethiopia, coffee cultivation and consumption spread to the Arabian
Peninsula, particularly in Yemen, where the practice of roasting coffee beans and
brewing the drink began to take shape. By the 15th century, coffee had become a
popularbeverage in the Islamic world, with coffee houses known as 'qahveh khaneh'
emerging as social hubs for conversation, music, and intellectual exchange. These
coffee houses became centers of culture and commerce, influencing the spread of
coffee to Turkey and beyond, eventually reaching Europe. In Europe, coffee initially
faced resistance from religious authorities who considered it a 'Muslim drink' and
tried to ban it. However, its popularity persisted, and by the 17th century, coffee
houses had sprung up in major European cities, becoming important gathering
places for artists, writers, and thinkers. The stimulating effects of coffee were
embraced during the Age of Enlightenment, where it was seen as a catalyst for
intellectual discussion and innovation. The journey of coffee continued with the
establishment of colonial plantations in tropical regions such as the Caribbean,
Central and South America, and Southeast Asia. These plantations fuelled the global
demand for coffee, transforming it from a regional specialty to a major commodity.
The industrial revolution further accelerated coffee production and consumption,
leading to innovations in coffee brewing methods and the development of instant
coffee. In the modern era, coffee has evolved into a deeply ingrained part of daily
life for people worldwide. Its cultural significance spans from the bustling cafes
of Paris to the quiet coffee farms of Colombia. Today, coffee remains not only a
popular beverage but also a symbol of social interaction, productivity, and enjoyment.
Whether sipped slowly over a conversation with friends or grabbed hastily on the
way to work, the story of coffee continues to unfold, intertwining with the histories
and cultures of countless societies across the globe.

32. What did Kaldi observe that led to the discovery of coffee?
a) Monks brewing coffee in a monastery
b) Goats eating red berries and becoming energetic
c) Coffee beans being roasted in a coffee house
d) Coffee plantations being established
-11-
M

LLB

33. How did the Industrial Revolution impact coffee consumption?
a) It led to the decline of coffee popularity
b) It resulted in the establishment of coffee plantations in Europe
c) It accelerated coffee production and introduced new brewing methods
d) It made coffee an exclusive drink for the wealthy

34. Consider the following statement Coffee originated in Ethiopia and quickly spread to
-

the Arabian Peninsula and beyond, where it became popular. Which of the following
best supports the statement?
a) Coffee houses transformed into vital centers of cultural exchange and economic
activity within the Islamic world
b) Monastic communities utilized coffee as a means to enhance concentration
during extended periods of prayer
c) The invigorating properties of coffee gained significant appreciation among
intellectuals during the Age of Enlightenment
d) The dissemination of coffee from Ethiopia catalyzed its cultivation across various
regions, including Turkey and Europe

35. Statement 1: The introduction of coffee to the European market was met with
immediate acceptance and no resistance from religious authorities.
Statement 2: The cultural significance of coffee houses in Europe during the Age
of Enlightenment extended beyond mere beverage consumption to become venues
for political and philosophical discourse.
Choose the correct option:
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
b) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
c) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true
d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false

36. What does the phrase 'emerging as social hubs' mean in the context of the
passage?
a) Gradually becoming popular locations for individual study and reflection
b) Gradually becoming isolated areas with limited social activity and interaction
c) Transforming into commercial businesses with some community involvement
d) Developing into centers for community interaction and cultural exchange

37. Which of the following words is a synonym for "cultivation" as used in the context
of the passage?
a) Development b) Tending
c) Growth d) Destruction
-12-
M

LLB

38. Which among the following sentences uses the word 'frolicking' in the same sense
as used in the passage?
a) The athletes were frolicking about their training regimen before the competition
b) The children were frolicking along the beach, their joy palpable in the cool
evening air
c) She found the frolicking music to be very relaxing during her study session
d) The artist spent the afternoon frolicking with her paintbrushes on the canvas
39. Statement 1: The spread of coffee cultivation in tropical regions was solely
driven
by domestic consumption in Ethiopia.
Statement 2: The global demand for coffee prompted the establishment of
plantations in various parts of the world, significantly influencing trade patterns
.
Choose the correct option :
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
b) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false
c) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true
d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false
40. What factors contributed to the transformation of coffee from a regional specialty
to a major global commodity?
a) The establishment of colonial plantations and the growing global demand for
coffee
b) The initial rejection of coffee by European consumers and its subsequent revival
c) The decrease in the prominence of coffee houses and a transition to home
brewing
d) The popularity of instant coffee and a growing preference for tea instead of
coffee

41. In what ways has coffee maintained its cultural significance in modern society?
a) Coffee is only enjoyed in traditional ceremonies and has lost its daily appeal
b) Coffee is now primarily consumed in fast food chains, diminishing its cultural role
c) Coffee has become a luxury item, only accessible to wealthy consumers
d) Coffee remains a popular beverage and symbolizes social interaction
VI. Read the excerpt from a Handicrafts Manual: 'Advanced Knitting Techniq
ues'
and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.

THE FAIR ISLE METHOD: Fair Isle knitting is a traditional technique that involves
using two or more colours of yarn in a single row to create intricate patterns and
designs. This method requires careful tension management to ensure even stitches
and prevent puckering. To begin, select your colours and cast on the desired number
of stitches. As you knit, alternate between colours every few stitches, carrying the
unused yarn along the back of the work. Mastering the Fair Isle technique allows
you to create stunning visual effects in garments, accessories, and home
textiles.
-13-
M

LLB

THE CONTINENTAL STYLE: The Continental knitting style, often referred to as
"picking," involves holding the yarn in the left hand while the right hand manipulates
the needles. This method allows for greater speed and efficiency, particularly when
working with complex patterns or multiple colours. To practice this style, start by
casting on your stitches and using your left hand to tension the yarn. With each stitch,
simply "pick" the yarn with your right needle, forming a quick and fluid motion. As
you become comfortable with this technique, you may find that your overall knitting
speed and comfort improve significantly.
THE SHORT-ROW TECHNIQUE: Short-row knitting is an advanced technique that
allows for the creation of shaped garments, such as sleeves and shoulders, without
the need for complex shaping. To make a sleeve using this technique, begin by
casting on the required number of stitches. Work a portion of the row, then turn your
work and return without completing the full row to create the "short rows" that shape
the curves of the sleeve. To prevent holes at the turn, wrap the stitch before you
turn your work. Repeat this process as needed to achieve the desired shaping and
dimension of the sleeve. Once you have shaped the sleeve, you can then sew the
side seams to connect the pieces of your garment and finally, complete the edges
to ensure a clean finish. This method not only helps shape curves but also adds
dimension to your piece, allowing you to enhance fit and style.

42. Ensuring 'even stitches and prevent puckering' refers to the
a) Tension management b) Colour selection
c) Yarn thickness d) Stitch pattern

43. What is the correct order of stitching steps to make a sleeve using the short-row
technique?
a) Cast on stitches, create short rows, sew side seams, finish edges
b) Create short rows, cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges
c) Sew side seams, cast on stitches, create short rows, finish edges
d) Cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges, create short rows
44. What is the primary focus of the Fair Isle method?
a) Creating seamless garments
b) Using multiple colours for intricate patterns
c) Speed and dexterity in knitting
d) Shaping complex garments using coloured yarns
45. What does the emphasis on wrapping the stitch before turning suggest about the
short-row technique?
a) It is a complicated method that requires extensive practice
b) It is only relevant for advanced knitters
c) Proper execution is crucial to ensure a polished finish
d) It is optional and can be skipped for faster results
-14-
M

LLB

46. Based on the description of the Continental style, which of the following can be
inferred about its efficiency?
a) It is slower than other knitting methods
b) It is best suited for complex patterns only
c) It requires more yarn than traditional methods
d) It enables quicker advancement in design

47.
Considering the techniques discussed, what might be inferred about the overall skill
level required for mastering Fair Isle and Continental knitting?
a) Both techniques can be mastered without any prior experience
b) Advanced techniques require a strong foundation in basic knitting skills
c) They are accessible only to expert knitters with years of experience
d) No specific skills are necessary for these techniques

48.
Which option includes the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in
the given sentence? "With each stitch, simply pick the yarn with your right needle,
forming a quick and fluid motion."
a) Grasp the yarn firmly
b) Lift the yarn easily
c) Catch the yarn smoothly
d) Pull the yarn tightly

49. What can be inferred about the relationship between mastering advanced knitting
techniques and a knitter's design capabilities?
a) Mastering advanced techniques limits a knitter's creativity to specific patterns
b) Advanced techniques enhance a knitter's ability to create innovative and varied
designs
c) Mastery of these techniques is irrelevant to design capabilities
d) A knitter can achieve the same results using only basic techniques

50.
How might the integration of both the Fair Isle method and the short-row technique
influence a knitter's approach to garment construction?
a) It streamlines the process, making it easier for all skill levels to create garments
b) It fosters creativity through intricate designs, needing advanced skills to execute
c) It restricts the knitter to simple patterns, limiting creative possibilities
d) It minimizes the need for precision, allowing for a more relaxed approach to
knitting
-15-
M

LLB

SECTION-B: CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

51. Which nation became the first country to adopt Bitcoin as a legal tender?
a) Nigeria b) El Salvador
c) Republic of Turkey d) Central African Republic
52. Which among the following is considered as the world's largest stateless
population ?
a) Chakmas b) Feyli Kurd
c) Rohingyas d) Tibetan Refugees
53. Which athlete achieved the distinction of becoming the first Indian athlete from
independent India to win two medals in a single edition of the Summer Olympics?
a) Neeraj Chopra b) Harmanpreet Singh
c) Lakshya Sen d) Manu Bhakar
54. Who is credited with being the first oncologist in India to have successfully performed
a bone marrow transplant?

a) Dr. K. K. Agarwal b) Dr. Suresh H. Advani
c) Dr. Mansoor Hasan d) Dr. Indira Hinduja

55. Which of the following is considered to be the closest equivalent of a 'Nobel Prize
in the field of Mathematics?

a) Hess-Leffler Medal b) Gording-Harmander Award
c) Fields Medal d) Shaw-Wolf Prize
56. The 2024 International Booker Prize was awarded to the book 'Kairos' by Jenny
Erpenbeck. Which of the following makes this win notable?
a) First book translated from German to win the prize
b) First book written by a stateless person to win the prize
c) First book to win both the Booker Prize and Pulitzer Prize in the same year
d) First autobiography to win the prize
57. M.S. Dhoni is considered to be one of the most successful captain and player in
the popular Indian Premier League(IPL). Which other franchise in addition to the
Chennai Super Kings, has Dhoni played for?
a) Rising Pune Supergiants b) Gujarat Titans
c) Rajasthan Royals d) Sunrisers Hyderabad

58. Which Indian football sporting club won the inaugural ASEAN Football Championship
hosted by Indonesia in 2003?
a) Mohan Bagan AC b) Salgaocar FC
c) NorthEast United FC d) East Bengal FC
-16-
M

LLB

59. Perseverance Rover, launched by NASA, is famous for its mission to explore the
surface of which celestial body, particularly to seek signs of ancient life and collect
samples for future return to Earth.
a) Mercury b) Mars
c) Juno d) Titan

60. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 was awarded to
a) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
b) Amnesty International
c) Nihon Hidankyo
d) UN Peacekeeping Force

61. Which of the following is not member of the United Nations?
a) Taiwan b) United States of America
c) Honduras d) Brazil
62. The third Japan-India 2+2 Ministerial Meeting was held in New Delhi in 2024. Which
is a core focus area for these meetings?
a) joint space exploration programme
b) bilateral security and defence cooperation
c) regional migration framework
d) joint climate change action plan
63.
The following listed items are joint military exercises conducted by India, with another
foreign nation. Match the following:

S.no Item S.no. Item
A Veer Guardian Mongolia
B Nomadic Elephant I‫ו‬ United States of America
C Vajra Prahar Japan
D Exercise Maitree IV Thailand

Select the correct option :
a) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-11
c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

64. Nupi Lan, also known, as the 'Women War' was a significant revolt against the
British and is often credited as one of the earliest uprisings in India to be led entirely
by women. In which present-day state did the uprising take place?
a) Manipur b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Chhattisgarh d) Tripura
-17-
M

LLB

65. Who is the current Secretary General of the United Nations?
a) Ban-Ki Moon b) Kofi Annan
c) Ursula von der Leyen d) Antonio Guterres
66. What is the international significance of 21st June?
a) Human Rights Day b) Women's Day
c) International Day of Yoga d) World Day Against Child Labour

67. According to the Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings, which of the following city
was ranked as the cleanest in India?

a) Pune b) Indore
c) Bhopal d) Tirupati
68. The following are various dance forms found in different parts of India. While a
certain dance form may be associated with more than one state, select the most
appropriate response to the noted options below:
S.no Dance form S.no. State
A Bharatanatyam Assam

B Sattriya Andhra Pradesh
C Kathakali III Tamil Nadu
D Kuchipudi IV Kerala

Select the correct option :
a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
69. Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the wrestling competition at the 2024 Paris
Olympics after exceeding the weight limit by 100 grams during the weigh-in for her
50 kg final. Her disqualification was upheld on appeal. To which international body
did Vinesh Phogat and the Indian Olympic Association appeal?
a) Court of Arbitration for Sports
b) International Sports Arbitration Tribunal
c) International Athletic Arbitration Authority
d) Tribunal Internacional de Arbitraje
70. In September, 2024 a new scheme, Bio-RIDE, was approved in the area of
biotechnology. Identify the components of the scheme.
I. Biotechnology Research and Development
II. Industrial & Entrepreneurship Development
III. Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry
IV. Biotechnology parks and International Collaborations
Select the correct option:
a) 1, II, III b) 1, II, IV
c) 1, III, IV d) II, III, IV
-18-
M

LLB

71. The quality of drinking water is regularly measured in terms of TDS. Higher the TDS
poorer the quality of drinking water. What does TDS stand for?
a) Total Dilution Solubility b) Total Dissolved Solids
c) Total De-Salination d) Total Density Solution

72. In 2004, the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages
known as 'Classical Languages'. What are the latest criteria, announced in 2024,
for inclusion of languages within this category?
I. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
II. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a heritage by generations
of speakers.
III. Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry, epigraphical and
inscriptional evidence.
IV. The classical languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or
could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots.
V. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech
community.
Select the correct option:
a) Only I, II, III & V b) Only II III & IV
c) Only I, I| & III d) Only I, II, III & IV

73. The movie 'The Man who knew Infinity' depicts the life story of
a) Apurba Ramchandran b) Ramanbhai Patel
c) Srinivasa Ramanujan d) Venki Ramakrishna

74. Who was known as the 'Bard of Brahmaputra'?
a) Tarali Sarma b) Bhupen Hazarika
c) Bishakh Jyoti d) Niranjan Rout
75.
In 2024, the Government of India introduced the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar,
recognising key contributions in the field of Science and Technology in India. In the
first edition awards were presented in the following four categories:
1. Vigyan Ratna
II. Vigyan Shri
III. Vigyan Yuva
IV. Vigyan Team
V. Vigyan Aavishkar

Select the correct option:
a) Only I, II, III, IV b) Only II, III, IV, V
c) Only I, III, IV, V d) Only I, II, IV, V
-19-
M

LLB

76. As part of its NTMHP initiative, the Government of India recently introduced the
TELE-MANAS, a 24/7 toll-free helpline (14416). What does TELE-MANAS stand for?
a) Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States
b) Tele Medicine Assistance and National Support
c) Tele Mental Assistance and National Aid Service
d) Tele Medical Aid and Networking Across States
77. Festivals in India are a vibrant reflection of its diverse culture, heritage and traditions.
Match the following festivals with the State with which its most frequently associated.
While a festival may be celebrated in many states, select the most appropriate
response from the noted options below.
S.no Festival S.no State
Kadalekayi Parishe A Gujarat
Bohag Bihu B Orissa
I‫ו‬I Uttarayan C Assam
IV Nuakhai D Karnataka

Select the correct option:
a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV- B b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
c) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A d) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
78. In the ongoing Israeli- Palestinian conflict frequent references have been made to
the 'Iron Dome'. What does it refer to?
a) ancient architectural buildings particularly religious buildings featuring a dome
b) an advanced cyber shield ensuring multilayer protection against invasive
cyberattacks
c) a continuous remote sensing surveillance technology to detect deep underground
tunnels
d) multipurpose missile defense system designed to protect against a wide range
of indirect and aerial threats

79. The Indian Air Force recently inaugurated a new training establishment, the Weapon
Systems School (WSS), with the aim of recalibrating and transforming the Indian
Air Force as a future-oriented force. In which city was the WSS located?
a) Gorakhpur, UP b) Begumpet, Hyderabad
c) Tezpur, Assam d) Jodhpur, Rajasthan
80. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the National Automated
Clearing House (NACH) implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India
(NPCI)?
a) It is a web-based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic
transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature
b) It is utilised to modify in real time individual transactions between bank accounts
c) It facilitates direct government disbursements to beneficiaries under various
schemes
d) It is an RBI mobile app to facilitate international wire transfers and foreign
remittances
-20-
M

LLB

SECTION-C: LOGICAL REASONING

81. Some Hyenas are Lions. All Lions are Cats. Some Cats are Wolves.
Examine the following statements:
1. Some Cats are Lions.

II. Some Wolves are Lions.
III. Some Cats are Hyenas.
Select the correct option:
a) Both 1 & II follows b) Both II & III follows
c) Both I & III follows d) Only III follows

82. All Squirrels are Herbivores. Some Herbivores are Elephants. All Elephants are
Mammals. Some Mammals are Carnivores. Examine the following statements:
I. Some Mammals are Herbivores.
II. All Elephants are Squirrels.
III. Some Carnivores are Herbivores.

Select the correct option :
a) Only I follows b) Both II & III follows
c) Both I & III follows d) Only II follows

83. All Engineers are Mathematicians. Some Mathematicians are Authors. No Author
is a Scientist. Some Engineers are Scientists. Examine the following statements:
I. No Author is an Engineer.
II. Some Scientists are Engineers.
III. Some Mathematicians are not Scientists.

Select the correct option:
a) Only II follows b) Both I & III follows
c) Both II & III follows d) Only I follows

84. All gadgets are machines. Some gadgets are tools. All machines are useful.
Examine the following statements:
I. Some tools are useful.
II. All that is useful are machines.
III. Alltools are gadgets.

Select the correct option:
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Both I & III follows d) Both II| & III follows
-21-
M

LLB

85. All International Court of Justice (ICJ) judgments are binding on parties involved in
the case. Some ICJ judgments have persuasive value in domestic courts. Judgments
of domestic courts can be referenced by the ICJ, but they are not binding.
Examine the following statements:
I. Some ICJ judgments are binding on domestic courts.
II. Some domestic court judgments are binding on the ICJ.
III. ICJ judgments can be used to strengthen arguments in domestic courts.
Select the correct option :
a) Only I follows b) Both I & II follows
c) Both I & III follows d) Only III follows

86. All drivers are Tall. Some Tall persons violate traffic lights. All who violate traffic
lights are fined. B is Tall. Examine the following statements:
I. Bis a driver.

II. B may violate a traffic light.
III. B will definitely violate traffic light.
IV. If B is a driver, he will get fined.
V. B will definitely get fined.
Select the correct option:
a) Only I, III and V
b) Only II
c) Only I and III
d) Only I and V

87. A consumer advocacy group published a report accusing Alpha Electronics Company
of producing faulty products, misleading advertising, and failing to provide adequate
customer service. The report presented various customer testimonials and product
reviews as evidence of these issues.
Which of the following assumptions, if true, most strengthens the advocacy group's
claims?

a) Alpha's competitors made larger profits than Alpha in the immediately previous
year
b) Alpha had recently changed its advertising strategy to highlight customer
satisfaction more prominently
c) Alpha was recently fined by a regulatory body for not complying with consumer
protection standards
d) Alpha recently appointed a new CEO
-22-
M

LLB

88. In scientific inquiry, the hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts the relationsh
ip
between variables. According to the scientific method, the validity of a hypothesis
is determined by its ability to withstand empirical testing and produce consistent
results. Critics of this approach argue that relying solely on empirical data can lead
to the neglect of theoretical frameworks that provide context for understanding
phenomena.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly
made?
a) Empirical data alone can be sufficient to explain complex scientific phenomena
b) Theoretical frameworks often provide critical insights that cannot be derived
from empirical testing alone
c) Many scientific theories are based on assumptions that cannot be empirically
tested
d) Both b) and c) above
89.
Recent studies indicate that the implementation of remote work policies has led
to an increase in employee productivity in many companies. Factors contributi
ng
to this trend include reduced commuting time, greater flexibility in work hours, and
the ability for employees to create personalised work environments. However
the studies also note that employees who work remotely may experien
,
ce feelings
of isolation and disconnection from their colleagues, which could impact team
cohesion and communication. Companies that have adopted remote
work policies
are now considering whether to continue, modify,
or return to traditional in-office
work arrangements.
Which of the following conclusion can be most accurately drawn from the above?
a) Remote work policies are universally beneficial for all companies and
employees
b) The increase in productivity from remote work is solely due to employees' ability
to create personalized work environments
c) Companies that implement remote work policies may need to address potential
feelings of isolation among employees to maintain team cohesion
d) Traditional in-office work arrangements are more effective in promoting team
communication and collaboration than remote work
90. In education policy, the concept of inclusive education advocates for integrating
students with disabilities into mainstream classrooms to promote diversity and equal
opportunities. However, critics claim that focusing too much on inclusion can strain
resources and may lead to a decline in educational quality for students both with
and without disabilities.
Which of the following arguments would most strengthen the critics position?
a) Many parents prefer traditional classrooms for their children over inclusive settings
b) Schools often lack the resources needed to effectively implement inclusive
education practices
c) The academic performance of students without disabilities is negatively impacted
by inclusive classrooms
d) The academic performance of students with disabilities is negatively impacted
by inclusive classrooms
-23-
M

LLB

91. In business strategy, the concept of diversification involves expanding a company's
operations into new markets or product lines to reduce risk and enhance growth
potential. Though, diversification can lead to increased revenue streams and a
more resilient business model, critics contend that diversification can dilute a

company's core competencies and result in inefficiencies, ultimately harming overall
performance.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly
drawn?
a) Companies often face significant challenges when trying to manage multiple
product lines effectively
b) Diversification strategies usually require little investment and resources
c) A strong focus on core competencies is essential for maintaining optimal output
d) Both a) and c) above
92. A recent survey of smartphone users revealed that 70% of respondents believe
that data privacy is important. However, only 30% actively use privacy settings on
their devices. The survey indicates that a major reason for this is that many users
find privacy settings confusing and difficult to navigate.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly
drawn?
a) The majority of smartphone users are not concerned about data privacy at all
b) Users who care about data privacy often do not have the technical skills to
manage privacy settings
c) Most smartphone manufacturers do not provide sufficient information on privacy
settings
d) Many users believe that their data is safe without needing to adjust privacy settings
93. Statement: Urban gardening has gained traction in recent years as a way for
city dwellers to grow their own food and improve their mental well-being. This
movement was partly fuelled by growing concerns about food deserts, environmental
sustainability, and the desire for a connection to nature. However, critics argue that
urban gardening often does not address the systemic issues of access to fresh food
and can sometimes lead to gentrification, where original community members are
displaced as property values rise. Despite these criticisms, many individuals find
personal fulfilment and community among fellow urban gardeners.
Conclusion:
I. Urban gardening can heighten food insecurity in cities.
II. Many individuals benefit emotionally and socially from participating in urban
gardening.
III. Urban gardening can unintentionally contribute to the gentrification of
neighbourhoods, harming long-term residents.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Only IIl follows d) Both Il and III follows
-24-
M

LLB

94. Statement: A fundamental principle of artificial intelligence (Al) development is to
ensure that Al systems are designed with fairness
and inclusivity in mind. Developers
are expected to implement algorithms that do not discrimi
nate against any
demographic group, as bias in Al can lead to significant societal harm. Furthermore,
transparency in how Al models make decisions is essential to building trust among
users and stakeholders.
Conclusion:
I. It is inappropriate to criticize Al developers for biased outcomes if they have
made efforts to promote fairness and transparency in their models.
II. Al developers must prioritize eliminating biases in their algorithms as a key
objective.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Both I and II follows d) Neither I nor II follows
95.
Statement: The discovery of electricity centuries ago led to profound changes in
communication, transportation, and industry, significantly altering daily life and
economic structures. It is also important to note that the rapid industrialization that
followed was accompanied by notable environmental degradation, giving rise to early
conservation movements that sought to protect natural resources. Some modern
political movements propagate a narrative that portrays technological progress as
inherently beneficial, often overlooking the environmental costs associated with it.
Conclusion:
I. Many political movements today ignore the environmental impacts of technological
advancements.
II. It is not possible to have industrial progress without environmental degradation.
III. The discovery of electricity has had both positive and negative effects on society.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows d) Both I and III follows
96.
Statement: The invention of antibiotics in the early 20th century revolutionised
healthcare by drastically reducing mortality rates from infectious diseases and
enabling more complex surgeries. However, the overuse of antibiotics in recent
decades has contributed to the rise of drug-resistant bacteria, posing new health
risks. Simultaneously, public health policies have had to balance the benefits
of antibiotic use with the dangers of resistance. Some modern pharmaceutical
practices focus primarily on maximizing profits, often sidelining the long-term risks
of resistance.
Conclusion:
I. Profit-driven motives always undermine public health priorities.
II. Overuse of antibiotics has resulted in significant health challenges.
III. Advances in healthcare can introduce unintended risks over time.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Only I follows b) Only Il follows
c) Both I and II follows d) Both Il and III follows
-25-
M