AILET 2026 Question Paper

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AILET 2026
Question Paper
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AILET 2026 Question Paper

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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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Question Booklet Sl. No.
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2026

Date of Exam :
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Center’s Name : ___________________________

: 120co
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Duration
m . Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________
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Max. Marks :e150
s OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________la
l a ag
ag INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in
the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong
answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one of the four
responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN in the OMR Response Sheet.

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Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Bhopal d) Delhi
Right Method
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———————— —————————————————————————

a a b c d

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a b c d a b c d a c d

5. Answering the question by any method g
wrong answer.
a other than the method mentioned above shall be considered
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details
required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR
Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have
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to face criminal prosecution.
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11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are

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strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
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DO NOT OPEN TILL 2 P.M.

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AILET 2026 Question Paper

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BREAK-UP OF MARKS

Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.

A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 18

Current Affairs
B and General 30 51 – 80 19 – 25
Knowledge

C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 26 – 42

Total Marks : 150

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SECTION – A : E g

I. Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate response.
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The advent of social media has dramatically transformed the way individuals

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consume and share information. In earlier times, people largely depended on
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newspapers, radio, or television as their primary sources of knowledge about
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the world. These were institutions that followed established editorial practices
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and fact-checking processes. With the rise of digital platforms, however, the
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traditional ‘gatekeepers’ of information have been bypassed. Today, anyone
with internet access can create content, express an opinion, or broadcast an
idea to a global audience within seconds. This shift has certainly democratized
access and given voice to communities and individuals who were often ignored
by mainstream media. Yet, this democratization comes with challenges.
Alongside genuine voices, social media has also ampli ed misinformation,
rumours, and half-truths. Unlike traditional journalism, where accountability
and veri cation are built into the system, social media thrives on speed,
virality, and emotion. A misleading headline, a misinterpreted statistic, or even
a doctored image can travel across the world before fact-checkers have the
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chance to intervene. The consequences of such unchecked information can be
serious, ranging from the spread of fear and panic to the manipulation of public
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opinion. The impact of this transformation extends beyond individual users
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to institutions and democracies. Political campaigns, corporate branding,

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and even social movements are now shaped by algorithms that decide what
people see and when they see it. These algorithms prioritize engagement,
often promoting content that provokes stronger emotional reactions rather
than balanced analysis. As a result, echo chambers form, online spaces where
people are repeatedly exposed to opinions that mirror their own, reinforcing
biases and reducing openness to differing perspectives. This has contributed to
increasing polarization in societies across the world. Moreover, the competition
for attention has blurred the line between information and entertainment,
leading to the rise of sensationalism even in serious public discourse. The
credibility of expertise too has been undermined, as opinions from unveri ed
sources are often placed on the same footing as evidence-based knowledge.
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In response, several governments and technology companies are exploring

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ways to promote digital literacy, enhance transparency in algorithms, and
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strengthen fact-checking collaborations. Ultimately, the challenge lies in

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balancing the openness of digital spaces with mechanisms that ensure
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a traditional media
responsibility and trustworthiness in public communication.

a and social media?
a) Traditional media is more entertaining than social media.
b) Social media is more regulated by governments than traditional media.
c) Traditional media is based on facts; social media is driven by emotion.
d) Social media cannot reach a global audience as traditional media can.

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2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of the spread of
unchecked information via social media?
a) Spread of fear and panic
b) Improvement in media literacy
c) Manipulation of public opinion
d) Ampli cation of misinformation

3. What is implied by the phrase ‘traditional gatekeepers of information have
been bypassed’?
a) Traditional media is more widely used than ever
b) Social media companies have begun hiring editors
c) Traditional media is no longer the sole source of information
d) Fact-checking has become more robust in the digital era

4. Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage?
a) Traditional journalism has become obsolete due to the rise of social media.
b) Social media has made it easier to spread government propaganda.
c) Social media has democratized information sharing but introduced
challenges such as misinformation.
d) People no longer rely on newspapers and television for any information.

5. In the context of the above passage, consider the following Assertion (A) and
Reason (R), and select the appropriate option:
Assertion (A): Social media allows anyone with internet access to broadcast
ideas to a global audience.
Reason (R): Traditional media platforms were exclusively available to trained
journalists and editors.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

6. Which of the following approaches is identi ed in the passage as a constructive
response to the challenges created by social media’s algorithm-driven
information environment?
a) Integrating digital literacy and promoting greater transparency in platform
algorithms
b) Encouraging governments to regulate all online content before publication
c) Relying on users to self-regulate misinformation without institutional
support
d) Expanding algorithmic reach to ensure content receives maximum
engagement
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7. Which of the following best illustrates the functioning of an ‘echo chamber’
on social media, as described in the passage?
a) A user joins multiple discussion groups with differing viewpoints to
better understand opposing perspectives on current issues.
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b) A fact-checking organization collaborates with social media companies
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to label misleading or false information online.
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c) A user frequently encounters posts that align with their political
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opinions because the platform’s algorithm prioritizes content similar to
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what they have previously liked.
d) A digital news outlet curates trending stories from diverse sources to
ensure balanced coverage of global events.

II. Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate response.
I have still to be brother to a Prince, though I once came near to kinship with

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what might have been a veritable King, and was promised the reversion of a

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Kingdom, army, law-courts, revenue and policy, all complete. But, today, I
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greatly fear that my King is dead, and if I want a crown I must go and hunt

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it for myself. The beginning of everything was in a railway train upon the
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road to Mhow from Ajmir. There had been a de cit in the Budget, which
necessitated travelling, not Second class, which is only half as dear as First
class, but by Intermediate, which is very awful indeed. There are no cushions
in the Intermediate class, and the population is either Intermediate, which is
Eurasian, or native, which for a long night journey is nasty; or Loafer, which
is amusing though intoxicated. Intermediates do not patronize refreshment
rooms. They carry their food in bundles and pots, and buy sweets from the
native sweet meat sellers, and drink the roadside water. That is why in the hot
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weather Intermediates are taken out of the carriages dead, and in all weathers
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are most properly looked down upon. My particular Intermediate happened

m to be empty till I reached Nasirabad, when a huge gentleman in shirt sleeves
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s e entered, and, following the custom of Intermediates, passed the time of day.
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g la He was a wanderer and a vagabond like myself, but with an educated taste a
a for alcohol. He told daring tales of things he had seen and done, of out of the
way corners of the Empire into which he had penetrated, and of adventures
in which he risked his life for a few days’ food. “If India was lled with men
like you and me, not knowing more than the crows where they’d get their next
day’s rations, it isn’t seventy millions of revenue the land would be paying,

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it’s seven hundred million,” said he; and as I looked at his mouth and chin I
was disposed to agree with him. We talked politics, the politics of Loaferdom
that sees things from the underside where the lath and plaster is not smoothed
off, and we talked postal arrangements because my friend wanted to send a
telegram back from the next station to Ajmir, which is the turning off place
from the Bombay to the Mhow line as you travel westward. He had the air
of one who had seen strange countries and stranger men, yet bore himself
without vanity. There was a restless light in his eyes, the sort that belongs to
men who have lived too long without a xed purpose. When he spoke of the
Empire, it was not with loyalty nor with bitterness, but with the detached
amusement of one who has played his part and lost interest in the game.
His laughter came easily, though it seemed to echo from some remembered
hardship. It struck me then that his stories were less of adventure than of
survival.

8. In the context of the passage, what does the word ‘vagabond’ mean?
a) A respected of cer b) Criminal on the run
c) Homeless wanderer d) Spiritual Monk

9. The narrator implies that the Intermediate class is unpleasant because it
lacks _____
a) ventilation and windows
b) cushions and respectable company
c) hygiene and privacy
d) food and friendly passengers

10. What can we infer about the narrator’s attitude toward the man he meets?
a) He sees him as arrogant and unpleasant
b) He envies his wealth and contacts
c) He respects his courage and past life
d) He doubts the truth of his stories

11. What does the narrator mean when he refers to ‘politics of Loaferdom’?
a) High-level political negotiations
b) Corrupt behind-the-scenes dealings
c) Policies crafted by beggars and thieves
d) Observations from society’s lowest ranks
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12. What does the phrase ‘looked at his mouth and chin’ suggest in context?
a) He was assessing his character for trustworthiness.
b) He was noticing his facial features.
c) He was judging the man’s cleanliness.
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d) He found him good looking and decent.
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13. The narrator perceives the stranger as a:
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a) Cynic disillusioned with authority yet unbroken in spirit
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b) Sentimental dreamer longing for recognition
c) Patriot hiding disappointment under forced laughter
d) Contented traveller who found peace in detachment

14. When the narrator observes that the man’s stories were ‘less of adventure
than of survival’ he most likely implies that:
a) The man exaggerated his experiences for dramatic effect
b) His life excitement masked hardship and endurance
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c) He sought sympathy rather than admiration from his listener
d) The narrator had grown weary of hearing tall tales of danger
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III. Read the given passage and answer
as the following questions by choosing
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the most appropriate response.
Democracy, often hailed as the most equitable form of governance, is a system
where power ultimately rests in the hands of the people. The word itself
derives from the Greek words ‘demos’ meaning ‘people’ and ‘kratos’ meaning
‘power’ or ‘rule’. Democracy aims to provide equal political participation
and protect the individual freedoms of all citizens. However, while the ideal
of democracy is simple, its practice is frequently complex and fraught with
challenges. At its core, democracy functions on the principle of majority rule,
yet it simultaneously guarantees the protection of minority rights.
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. decisions
c. o through voting, the fundamental rights of minorities are not
s e trampled upon.
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respect for the rule of

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law. Without these, democracies can devolve into majoritarian tyranny or
authoritarianism. The practice of democracy is not merely limited to voting
in elections. It encompasses freedom of speech, an independent judiciary,
free press, and protection of individual rights. These elements together create
a political environment where citizens can express dissent, hold leaders
accountable, and participate actively in decision-making. When any one
component is weakened, the democratic process becomes vulnerable. In recent

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times, democracies worldwide have grappled with new challenges. The rise of
misinformation and ‘fake news’ has eroded public trust in institutions and
polarized societies. Social media platforms, meant to facilitate communication,
have sometimes ampli ed divisive narratives and falsehoods. This has
resulted in voter manipulation and a growing skepticism towards democratic
processes. Literacy in media and critical thinking is increasingly vital to
safeguard democracy from such threats. Economic inequality poses another
signi cant challenge. While democracies promise equal rights politically,
vast disparities in wealth and opportunity undermine this ideal. Economic
power often translates into political in uence, skewing representation and
policy-making. This phenomenon raises questions about whether true
democracy is achievable without addressing socioeconomic inequalities.
Furthermore, the involvement of citizens is crucial. Democracy thrives when
people are informed, engaged, and willing to participate beyond just casting
votes. Civic education and awareness campaigns play an essential role in
nurturing responsible citizenship. Apathetic or disengaged electorates weaken
the democratic fabric, opening avenues for corruption and authoritarian
tendencies. In conclusion, democracy is a dynamic and evolving system that
requires constant effort to sustain. It is a system built on ideals of equality,
freedom, and justice but challenged by human complexities and contemporary
issues. The survival of democracy depends on the collective responsibility
of governments and citizens to protect its pillars and ensure inclusive, fair
governance.

15. The word ‘democracy’ originally means
a) Rule by kings b) Power of the people
c) Freedom from laws d) Majority rule only

16. What does ‘inclusive’ mean in the phrase ‘inclusive, fair governance’?
a) Exclusive b) Accepting
c) Limited to a few d) Chaotic

17. In the context of the above passage consider the following statements, and
select the appropriate option:
Statement 1: Voting is the only element of democracy.
Statement 2: Freedom of speech and an independent judiciary are essential
for democracy.
a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
b) Both statements are true and 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
c) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true.
d) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
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18. What does ‘vulnerable’ as used in ‘the democratic process becomes vulnerable’
mean?
a) Robust and well-protected
b) Weak or exposed to harm
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c) Balanced and autonomous

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d) Completely undone and destroyed
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19. Which of the following is NOT listed as a challenge faced by democracy?
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a) Shortage of essential natural resources impacting governance
The spread of false information through social platforms
c) Vast disparities in wealth affecting political in uence
d) Low levels of citizen participation and awareness

20. What role does economic inequality play in weakening democracy?
a) It promotes a more equal distribution of power among citizens

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b) It encourages policies that lessen disparities in economic opportunities

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c) It permits the rich to exert undue in uence over political decisions
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d) It results in increased political engagement from all socioeconomic
classes
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21. Identify the sentence in the passage that contains a participial phrase.
a) Democracy aims to provide equal political participation and protect the
individual freedoms of all citizens.
b) Social media platforms, meant to facilitate communication, have
sometimes ampli ed divisive narratives and falsehoods.
c) This has resulted in voter manipulation and a growing skepticism
towards democratic processes.
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md) Civic education and awareness campaigns play an essential c
. role in
c. o nurturing responsible citizenship s e m
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la 22. Which of the following best illustrates the paradox presented
a in the discussion
ag of majority rule in a democracy?
a) The majority rules but must respect minority rights.
b) Democracies rely on citizens to choose leaders fairly.
c) Economic inequality can lead to political inequality.
d) Civic education helps citizens make better voting decisions.

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23. Based on the passage, which statement best captures the author’s perspective
on the link between democracy and inequality?
a) Democracies often tolerate economic inequality to preserve individual
freedom.
b) Socioeconomic inequality is a consequence, not a cause, of weakened
democracies.
c) Democratic systems are capable of functioning fairly despite economic
gaps.
d) Political equality cannot be fully realized without addressing economic
disparities.

IV. Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate response.
In recent years, urban gardening has emerged as a widespread movement in
cities across the globe. Prompted by increasing concerns surrounding food
security, sustainability, and mental well-being, urban dwellers are reimagining
their limited spaces including balconies, rooftops, alleyways, and windowsills,
as viable sites for food cultivation. At the heart of this shift lies the desire for
fresh, organic produce, especially in cities where access to pesticide-free food
remains both costly and inconsistent. By growing their own fruits, vegetables,
and herbs, individuals can reduce their dependence on commercial supply
chains, which often entail extensive transportation, energy consumption, and
synthetic chemical use. This not only empowers consumers to take control of
their dietary choices but also enhances awareness about nutrition, food origins,
and environmental impact. Urban gardening is also lauded for its ecological
contributions. Plants in urban environments combat the urban heat island
effect, a condition where metropolitan areas are signi cantly warmer than their
rural counterparts due to concentrated human activity and infrastructure.
Vegetation improves air quality by absorbing carbon dioxide and releasing
oxygen, while also managing rainwater runoff and reducing pressure on
often-overburdened drainage systems. Yet, the advantages of urban gardening
extend beyond the tangible. On a psychological level, cultivating plants offers
therapeutic bene ts, including reduced stress, improved mood, and greater
mindfulness. In the high-speed urban landscape, tending to a plant provides
a rare opportunity to engage with nature, fostering patience and a sense of
achievement. For many, these small pockets of greenery represent not just a
practical solution but an emotional and symbolic reclamation of space and
agency. However, urban gardening is not without its limitations. Scarcity of

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space, inadequate sunlight, and poor soil quality pose signi cant hurdles.
In response, gardeners have turned to innovative methods such as vertical
farming, hydroponics, and compost enrichment. Moreover, community gardens
in shared spaces have ourished, enabling collective effort, resource sharing,
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and social cohesion. While urban gardening may not supplant industrial

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agriculture, it marks a meaningful shift toward more localized, responsible,
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and connected living, an act as much philosophical as it is practical.
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gl rise in temperature commonly observed in tropical urban locations
24. What is the ‘urban heat island effect’ mentioned in the passage?
a) a
The
b) The condition where urban areas become warmer than rural ones due
to human activity
c) The method of using retained heat energy for rooftop gardening in cities
d) The process through which cities generate and utilize renewable heat
energy

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25. Which innovative method mentioned in the passage directly addresses poor
soil quality?
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a) Collecting rainwater through harvesting systems for irrigation
b) Installing rooftop gardensgwith
a
c) Using compost enrichment to improve the fertility of the soil
d) Growing herbs and vegetables in small boxes on window ledges

26. Why might urban residents be motivated to cultivate their own food rather
than rely solely on commercial sources?
a) To decrease expenses related to gardening equipment
b) To eliminate the need for home meal preparation
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c. o d) To outperform grocery retailers in food production sem
c) To obtain fresher produce free from synthetic chemicals .co
s em27. Which of the following best captures the combined ecological
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la a signi cance of
ag urban gardening?
a) It lowers city temperatures, lters polluted air, and manages rainwater
b) It reduces transport costs while expanding industrial farm production
c) It prevents further growth of infrastructure and building construction
d) It substitutes completely for natural forests in urban environments

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28. Which of the following is NOT identi ed in the passage as a practical challenge
faced by urban gardeners?
a) The lack of organized communal support for local gardening efforts
b) Inadequate access to direct sunlight in densely built environments
c) Spatial constraints that limit the scale of cultivation in cities
d) Soil conditions that are unsuitable for traditional planting methods

29. The phrase ‘symbolic reclamation of space and agency’ most appropriately
refers to:
a) Transforming unused industrial spaces into productive garden plots
b) Using gardening practices as a subtle or direct form of civil protest
c) Requesting access to public land from authorities for food cultivation
d) Gaining emotional and psychological well-being through small-scale
gardening

30. What assumption underlies the author’s argument in favour of community
gardens?
a) Individuals are incapable of gardening alone.
b) Social cooperation enhances the bene ts of gardening.
c) Community gardens are more cost-effective than private ones.
d) Governments support all communal gardening efforts.

31. According to the passage, what deeper motivation underlies urban gardening
beyond access to fresh food?
a) Competing nancially with existing industrial agricultural systems
b) Seeking more autonomy over personal food and environmental choices
c) Avoiding all types of reliance on common community food networks
d) Replacing all large-scale commercial farming with individual gardens

32. Why is urban gardening described as ‘an act as much philosophical as it is
practical?
a) Because it re ects cultural traditions rather than food requirements
b) Because it is mainly a contest with large-scale commercial farming
c) Because it provides a complete substitute for rural food production
d) Because it expresses values of sustainability, choice, and connection
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33. Which of these best describes the role of ‘innovation’ in the success of urban
gardening?
a) It reduces the reliance on large public spaces for carrying out
cultivation
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b) It introduces creative methods to overcome space, soil, and sunlight
limits
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c) It eliminates the need for people to collaborate in shared gardening
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d) It guarantees government funding to replace industrial farming
completely

V. Read the given passage and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate response.
The integration of Arti cial Intelligence (AI) into law enforcement practices has
sparked a global debate on ethics, privacy, and accountability. From facial
recognition systems in public spaces to predictive policing algorithms, AI is
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transforming how crimes are detected and prevented. However, the bene ts
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of ef ciency and data-driven decision-making are accompanied by concerns
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about fairness, bias, and the potential erosion of civil liberties. One of the most

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controversial applications is predictive policing, which uses historical crime
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data to forecast where crimes are likely to occur or who might commit them.
Proponents argue that this allows police to allocate resources more ef ciently
and reduce crime rates. However, critics warn that such systems may
reinforce existing societal biases. If past data re ect biased policing practices,
such as over-policing in marginalized communities, then the algorithm may
perpetuate these injustices by disproportionately targeting the same areas
or groups. Facial Recognition Technology (FRT) is another AI-driven tool that
has gained traction. While it has proven useful in identifying suspects, it
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raises serious concerns regarding surveillance and individual privacy. Studies
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have also shown that FRT is less accurate in identifying people of colour and

m women, increasing the risk of false accusations and wrongful detentions.
s e
s e The lack of transparency in how these systems operate further complicates
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g la the ethical landscape. Many AI tools used in law enforcement are developed a
a by private companies that treat their algorithms as proprietary, meaning that
even law enforcement of cers may not fully understand how decisions are
made by these AI tools. This is often referred to as the ‘Black Box’ problem.
This opaqueness undermines accountability, making it dif cult to challenge
wrongful predictions or decisions in a court of law. As AI continues to evolve,
lawmakers and civil rights advocates are calling for stronger regulations
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to ensure that these technologies are used responsibly. Proposals include
mandatory auditing of algorithms, public disclosure of data sources, and legal
safeguards to protect against discrimination. Without such measures, the
unchecked use of AI could lead to a justice system that prioritizes ef ciency
over equity, ultimately compromising democratic values and rule of law. While
AI holds the promise of revolutionizing law enforcement, its application must
be guided by ethical frameworks that prioritize human rights, transparency,
and fairness. Otherwise, technology intended to protect society may end up
harming the very individuals it seeks to serve.

34. What is the central concern raised in the passage regarding AI in law
enforcement?
a) Replacing human of cers
b) High operational costs
c) Reinforcing bias and reducing fairness
d) Inability to analyze real-time data

35. Which of the following would best justify the use of predictive policing, despite
the ethical concerns discussed in the passage?
a) It will allow law enforcement to increase arrest quotas.
b) It helps deploy police more ef ciently in high-risk areas.
c) It can eliminate the need for community engagement.
d) It will replace the need for police training programs.

36. Based on the passage, how does facial recognition technology potentially lead
to injustice?
a) By exhibiting higher error rates for speci c demographic groups
b) By decreasing reliance on human judgment in policing
c) By increasing costs and limiting deployment in critical areas
d) By generating occasional misidenti cations across all populations
equally

37. Why does the lack of transparency in AI algorithms pose a challenge within
judicial proceedings?
a) It complicates efforts to scrutinize and contest algorithm-driven
outcomes
b) It leads to greater reliance on community surveillance
c) It restricts the professional development of law enforcement personnel
d) It discourages investment in emerging AI technologies for policing
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38. The word ‘opaqueness’ in the paragraph refers to:
a) Clear and understandable legal processes
b) Lack of visibility or understanding
c) Openness and transparency in systems
d) Restricted access due to security levels
o m
m . c
39. What measure is
. comost essential to prevent AI systems from reinforcing existing sem
e m l a
s
social biases?

la AI tools to evolve independently without human oversight a
a) Training AI systems on large datasets without reviewing for fairness g
ag
b) Allowing
c) Reviewing training data for historical bias and ensuring algorithmic
accountability
d) Prioritizing ef ciency and rapid deployment over fairness and oversight

40. A government proposes a new AI-driven sentencing tool that assigns prison
terms based on statistical models trained on past sentencing data. The tool

m
is designed to ensure consistency and eliminate human error. Civil liberties

.co
groups oppose the tool, arguing it may encode past judicial biases. Which of

m
the following objections is most consistent with the concerns raised in the
e
passage?
l as
ag
a) AI systems should not be used in criminal justice unless they are
cheaper than traditional methods.
b) Sentencing tools can never make mistakes if trained on real court data.
c) Without transparency and bias audits, AI may reinforce systemic
injustices embedded in the data.
d) Automated sentencing ensures faster trials and should replace human
judges entirely.

m
.co
41. Which of the following assumptions, if true, would undermine concerns raised
m
.co m
in the paragraph?

m s e
la
a) AI models incorporate bias-correction mechanisms that adjust for
s e g
la
historical disparities in sentencing patterns.

g b) The training data used by the AI model re ect systemic inequalities and a
a disproportionate sentencing against certain communities.
c) The AI system operates as a closed algorithm, with no transparency
regarding how sentencing decisions are derived.
d) Studies from other jurisdictions show that similar AI systems have not
ampli ed racial and gender biases in sentencing outcomes.

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VI. Read the given book descriptions and answer the following questions by
choosing the most appropriate response.
The Rule of Law by Justice: What’s the Letters to a Law
Tom Bingham Right Thing to Do? Student by Nicholas J.
by Michael J. Sandel McBride
In The Rule of Law, former Michael Sandel’s Justice: Nicholas McBride’s Letters
Lord Chief Justice Tom What’s the Right Thing to a Law Student is a
Bingham explores how to Do? examines moral practical and re ective
the principle of legality reasoning in law and guide for aspiring lawyers.
underpins modern politics. Through Written as a series of
democratic life. He de nes examples like price letters to a student
the rule of law as more gouging, af rmative beginning law school,
than just adherence to action, and taxation, it explores what legal
formal rules, it is the Sandel invites readers study truly involves:
assurance that power is to explore competing mastering case analysis,
exercised within clear, notions of fairness. He understanding precedents,
fair, and publicly known engages with philosophical and developing critical
boundaries. Bingham traditions, utilitarianism, reasoning. McBride
distills the concept into libertarianism, and distinguishes between
eight principles, including Rawlsian egalitarianism, knowing the law and
equality before the law, to show that questions thinking like a lawyer, the
access to justice, and of justice cannot be latter requiring analytical
respect for fundamental separated from questions discipline and ethical
human rights. Drawing of virtue and the common awareness. He emphasizes
on cases and historical good. Sandel rejects that good lawyers combine
examples, he warns that the idea of a morally intellectual rigor with
national security and ‘neutral’ legal system, moral judgment and
administrative ef ciency arguing that public clarity of expression.
must never override the deliberation about values Beyond academic success,
rights of individuals. is essential to democracy. McBride’s letters urge
The book bridges legal His conversational style students to re ect on law’s
philosophy and practice, makes complex ideas purpose, to balance order,
arguing that law must accessible, while his justice, and compassion in
be both predictable and conclusions challenge human affairs. The book
humane. For Bingham, readers to evaluate how thus offers both pragmatic
the rule of law represents legal principles re ect advice and a deeper
a moral ideal, one that collective moral choices. meditation on the vocation
sustains public trust in Ultimately, Sandel argues of law in shaping a fair
justice and curbs arbitrary that a just society is society.
governance. one that cultivates civic
responsibility, not merely
individual rights.

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42. According to Tom Bingham, the rule of law primarily serves to:
a) Guarantee the enforcement of criminal sanctions and civil penalties in
equal measure.
b) Ensure that the exercise of public power remains fair, transparent, and
subject to moral constraint.
m
co
c) Promote the swift execution of governmental decisions for administrative

om .
convenience.
. c
d) Establish the authority of the judiciary over all branches of governance
e m
in perpetuity.
e m l as
l as ag
g
43. From Sandel’s argument, one may reasonably infer that he would most
a
likely:
a) Support limiting ethical debates in law to preserve neutrality in
governance.
b) Oppose moral discussion in legal reasoning as a source of subjective bias.
c) Encourage public reasoning about moral values as essential to a
democratic legal order.
d) Suggest that moral philosophy and legal practice should remain entirely
independent disciplines.

m
.co
44. The phrase ‘arbitrary governance’ in Bingham’s description most nearly
means:
m
a) Government based on xed and universally accepted principles.
e
l as
b) Authority exercised without consistency, justi cation, or accountability.

ag
c) Decision-making guided by collective moral judgment and civic consensus.
d) Administrative action founded on transparent, legal, and rational reasoning.
45. In the context of the above passage, consider the following Assertion (A) and
Reason (R), and select the appropriate option:
Assertion (A): McBride believes that studying law is not merely about acquiring
knowledge of legal rules.
Reason (R): He argues that true legal understanding requires both analytical
skill and ethical re ection.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
m
.co
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
m
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

.co e m
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

em46. Which l as
las of the following conclusions can be logically deduced
agreement among the perspectives of the three
ag
authors?
as a point of

ag a) Justice is attainable only when laws remain morally neutral and
socially detached.
b) Legal education and moral philosophy are unrelated domains of study.
c) Legal authority should rest solely on codi ed statutes and
administrative precedents.
d) Law must integrate both technical precision and moral purpose to
maintain legitimacy.
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47. If McBride were to respond to Bingham’s conception of the rule of law, he
would most likely argue that:
a) Moral ideals should not interfere with the practical application and
interpretation of legal principles.
b) The cultivation of ethical reasoning in lawyers strengthens, rather than
weakens, the rule of law.
c) Legal predictability and procedural certainty must always prevail over
questions of moral re ection.
d) The ethical dimension of law remains largely irrelevant to the duties
and functions of legal practitioners.

48. Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the combined viewpoints
of Bingham, Sandel, and McBride?
a) Law must balance procedural clarity with the ethical responsibilities of
those who interpret it.
b) Legal education should remain separate from broader moral and civic
discussions in society.
c) The authority of law depends primarily on its technical accuracy and
institutional hierarchy.
d) The legitimacy of justice systems is secured when personal morality is
excluded from legal reasoning.

49. According to the passage, which thinker most directly connects the study of
law to practical skill and ethical re ection for future practitioners?
a) Tom Bingham, by emphasizing moral ideals and public trust in justice.
b) Michael Sandel, by analyzing competing philosophical theories of
fairness and civic virtue.
c) Nicholas McBride, by guiding students on case analysis, critical
reasoning, and ethical judgment.
d) All three equally focus on legal practice rather than theory or moral
reasoning.

50. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophical core
common to all three books?
a) The integrity of law depends upon the harmonious integration of
justice, morality, and human reason.
b) The moral relevance of law diminishes when interpreted through
abstract ethical theories.
c) Legal philosophy and professional ethics must function independently
to preserve objectivity.
d) The practice of law attains legitimacy only when it excludes moral and
civic considerations.
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SECTION – B : CURRENT AFFAIRS AND ENERAL KNOWLED E

51. Iga Swiatek won the Women’s Singles title at the 2025 Wimbledon
Championships. Who did she defeat in the nals?
m
om
a) Marketa Vondrousova b) Amanda Anisimova
. co
. c
c) Barbora Krejcikova d) Jasmine Paolini
e m
em l as
l as
52. Madhubani painting is a famous art form of which Indian state?
ag
ag
a) Rajasthan b) Bihar
c) Gujarat d) West Bengal

53. The Ministry of Defense has decided to observe 2025 as the ‘Year of Reforms’
with the aim of:
a) enhancing defence manufacturing capabilities to achieve full self-reliance
and global competitiveness

m
b) strengthening inter-services collaboration for improved operational synergy
and resource use
m .co
s e
c) enhancing welfare measures for ex-servicemen and their families through

l a
comprehensive support systems, improved resettlement schemes, and
better healthcare access
ag
d) transforming the Armed Forces into a technologically-advanced
combat-ready force capable of multi-domain integrated operations

54. ‘Chu-faat’ is a dance form associated most prominently with the state of ?
a) Tripura b) Sikkim
c) Jharkhand d) Chhattisgarh
m
m
55. The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Maria Corina Machado. She
.co
m.coreceived the prize for:
s e m
s e a) promoting democratic rights for the people of Venezuela and the struggle
g la
g la to achieve a just and peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy
a
a b) efforts to mediate peace negotiations between the State of Israel and Hamas,
and for protection of children orphaned due to conflict
c) advocacy for women’s education and leadership in post conflict communities
affected by drug cartel violence in Columbia
d) championing various on-ground initiatives supporting refugee rights and
humane asylum policies and practices in Hungary
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G

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56. India’s rst woman Chief Minister was:
a) Nandini Satpathy b) Sucheta Kripalani
c) Janaki Ramachandran d) Sheila Dikshit

57. Match the following:

Tribe State
A Damor I Rajasthan
B Reang II Tripura
C Gaddi III Himachal Pradesh
D Sora IV Orissa

Select the most appropriate option:
a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

58. Which of the following is India’s rst indigenously discovered antibiotic noted
for its effectiveness against resistant respiratory infections?
a) Biofungicin b) Cephalexin-M
c) Polymyxin-N d) Na thromycin

59. Which of the following countries has NOT formally recognised Palestine as a
state?
a) France b) Canada
c) Australia d) Japan

60. The India-AI Impact Summit 2026 will be the rst-ever global AI summit to be
hosted in a Global South nation. Deliberations at the Summit will be organized
around seven interconnected Chakras i.e. areas of multilateral cooperation
designed to channel collective energy towards holistic societal transformation.
Which of the following is NOT speci cally noted as a chakra?
a) Resilience, Innovation and Ef ciency
b) AI Governance and Regulation
c) Inclusion for Social Empowerment
d) Science
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61. Recently, India announced its vision of MAHASAGAR, expanding its maritime
engagement from a regional to a global outlook, with particular focus on the
Global South. This initiative seeks to promote security and growth through
cooperative partnerships with maritime and island states, strengthening

m
defence, economic, and developmental collaboration, and advancing

om
humanitarian and capacity-building efforts. What does it stand for?
. co
. c
a) MegaRegional Alliance for Holistic Advancement of Security Across
e m
m
Geopolitical Areas
e l as
as
b) Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across
l ag
g
Regions
a
c) Maritime Alliance for Security and Growth Across the Regions
d) Mutual Advancement for Humanitarian Aid and Security Across Geopolitical
Areas

62. There is a rich diversity of regional music in India. Match the following:
Music State
A Sohar I Manipur
B Sana Lamok II Uttar Pradesh
m
C Laman III Maharashtra
m .co
D Powada
e
IV Himachal Pradesh
s
l a
ag b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Select the most appropriate option:
a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

63. Which 1971 study conducted at a major US University by Philip Zimbardo,
often cited in discussions on abuse of power and institutional accountability,
did college students, randomly assigned contrasting social roles within a
simulated correctional environment, begin exhibiting extreme behaviours that
revealed the powerful in uence of situational factors on human conduct and
m
.co
authority?
m
.co m
a) The Milgram Obedience Experiment

s e
em
b) The Stanford Prison Experiment

s c) The Robbers Cave Experiment
g la
g la d) The Bobo Doll Experiment a
a 64. Who among the following is NOT a Bharat Ratna Awardee?
a) PV Narasimha Rao
b) LK Advani
c) Bhupendra Kumar Hazarika
d) Ratan Naval Tata
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65. International Women’s Day is celebrated on
a) 8th March b) 8th May
c) 8th July d) 8th December

66. In addition to National Literary Awards, many States also confer Literary
Awards. Match the following Awards with the State that presents them:

State Literary Award
A Gujarat I Sur Samman

B Haryana II Ezhuthachan Puraskaram
C Kerala III Thiruvalluvar Award
D Tamil Nadu IV Sahitya Gaurav Puraskar

Select the most appropriate option:
a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

67. Which country instituted proceedings against Israel before the International
Court of Justice, alleging that Israeli military action in Gaza violated the
Genocide Convention?
a) India b) Belgium
c) France d) South Africa

68. Who were the of cers who conducted the press brie ngs on Operation
Sindoor?
a) Wing Commander Vyomika Singh and Colonel So ya Qureshi
b) Wing Commander Bhumika Sharma and Colonel Zainab Iqbal
c) Wing Commander Niharika Vyas and Colonel Fatima Ahmed
d) Wing Commander Vandana Chhatwal and Colonel Amina Khurshid

69. Who recently took charge as the rst Woman Prime Minister of Japan?
a) Yuriko Koike b) Sanae Takaichi
c) Seiko Noda d) Renho Murata
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70. India recently achieved a major breakthrough in gene therapy, marking the
rst successful indigenous clinical trial for Hemophilia treatment. The trial
was supported by Department of Biotechnology, Government of India and
done in which major hospital?
m
co
a) Christian Medical College, Vellore
b) AIIMS, New Delhi
. c om e m .
e m
c) Tata Memorial Hospital, Mumbai
l as
s
d) King George Medical College, Lucknow
a
lfranchise won the 2025 edition of Indian Premier League (IPL)? ag
a g
71. Which
a) Mumbai Indians
b) Royal Challengers Bengaluru
c) Gujarat Titans
d) Chennai Super Kings

72. GRAP framework was introduced as an emergency response mechanism to
m
.co
combat the extreme air quality and pollution conditions in Delhi-NCR. What
does GRAP stand for:
e m
a) Generalised Response Assessment Protocol
l as
ag
b) Graded Response against Air Pollution
c) Graded Response Action Plan
d) Ground-level Restoration and Action Policy

73. Organic sheries cluster focus on ecologically healthy sh farming system
avoiding the use of harmful chemicals, antibiotics and pesticides. This
also ensures minimal environmental pollution and prevents damage to
aquatic ecosystems, contributing to sustainable sh production practices.
A rst-of-its-kind organic sheries cluster in India was launched in:
m
m .co
.co
a) Jangoan, Telangana

e m
s
b) Soreng, Sikkim

s em c) Nanded, Maharashtra
g la
g la d) Birbhum, West Bengal a
a 74. The nPROUD initiative, aimed at collection and safe disposal of unused and
expired medicines in a scienti c manner, was recently launched by which
State?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Telangana
c) Bihar d) Kerala
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75. During the Republic Day parade, states showcase their culture, heritage,
and achievements through vibrant tableaux. Which state won the Best State
Tableau prize for its creative and thematic presentation in 2025?
a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh

76. The National Quantum Mission (NQM), launched in 2023, aims to seed,
nurture, and scale up scienti c and industrial R&D, and create a vibrant
ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT) in India. Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs)
were established under NQM to strengthen India’s position as a global leader
in quantum technology. These hubs are located in:
a) IISC Bengaluru; IIT Madras; IIT Bombay; IIT Delhi
b) National Innovation Foundation Ahmedabad; IIT Kharagpur; IIT Delhi; SN
Bose National Centre for Basic Science Kolkata
c) Institute of Nano Science and Technology Mohali; IIT Roorkee; JNU Delhi;
North East Centre for Technology Application and Reach Meghalaya
d) IIT Madras; National Academy of Sciences Allahabad; IISc Bengaluru; Tata
Institute of Fundamental Research

77. Which of the following series was awarded the Best Series 2025 at the
International India Film Awards (IIFA) Digital Awards 2025, held in Jaipur?
a) Patal Lok
b) Bandish Bandits
c) Panchayat
d) Kota Factory

78. In late 2024, Google announced development of state-of-the-art quantum
chip, which is considered to be a big step towards developing a large-scale,
error-corrected quantum computer. The chip is named:
a) Sentinel
b) Willow
c) Polaris
d) Orion
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79. Indian Railways has introduced a number of initiatives to improve passenger
services. Match the following initiatives with their focus areas:

Initiative Focus areas
m
co
A Amanat I Regular drives are conducted by RPF

. c om against touts and action is taken against
e m .
em persons found involved
l as
B
l as
Matrishakti II Acting against the menace of
ag
ag unauthorized hawking and vending in
Railway premises and in trains
C Uplabdh III Cases of left behind passengers’ luggage
are secured and handed over them to the
right person
D Dusra IV Ladies RPF personnel assist pregnant
o m
. c
women who go into labour during train

e
journeys m
l as
g
Select the most appropriateaoption:
a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

80. NITI Aayog in collaboration with DP World recently announced the ‘We Rise’
o m
m
initiative. The initiative aims to:
c
. through
c. o a) promote rural women’s participation in local self-governance
s e m
e m l a
s
leadership and digital literacy training.

la g
a and industry–academia
b) encourage women in STEM elds through scholarships
ag collaborations.
c) provide micro nance support to women-led self-help groups in aspirational
districts.
d) help women entrepreneurs in India to scale their businesses globally
through trade facilitation, mentorship, and strategic partnerships.
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SECTION – C : LO ICAL REASONIN

81. Complete the series: A1B, D4E, H9I, M16N, ___
a) S25T b) R25S
c) R24S d) S25R

82. All Birds can Fly. All Penguins are Birds. Some Birds Migrate. Some who
Migrate Swim. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?
a) Penguins can y.
b) All who migrate are birds.
c) Penguins migrate long distances.
d) No birds can swim.

83. In a certain code, LIGHT is written as NKKFR. How is CLOUD written in that
code?
a) ENSSA b) FNRRA
c) ENSSB d) DORRB

84. Complete the following series: B2, E4, I8, N16, ___
a) T30 b) S32
c) T32 d) U34

85. Doctor : Hospital = ?
a) Chef : Recipe b) Driver : Engine
c) Soldier : Parade d) Teacher : Classroom

86. Online grocery stores in Delhi have reported a 50% increase in sales over the
past year. Analysts attribute this to the convenience of home delivery and
competitive pricing. Which of the following must be assumed for the analysts’
conclusion to hold?
a) Customers in Delhi value convenience over in-store shopping.
b) Grocery store employees prefer working in delivery services.
c) Online grocery stores are more pro table than physical stores.
d) All customers in Delhi have access to the internet.
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87. Some Birds are Flightless. All Sparrows are Birds. All Birds have Beaks. Which
of the following conclusions necessarily follow?
I. All Sparrow have Beaks.
II. Some Flightless are Sparrows.
III. Some Beaked are Flightless.
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om
Select the most appropriate option
. co
a) Only I follows
. c b) Both I and III follow
e m
e m
c) Both II and III follow d) Only III follows
l as
l as g
a is
ag
88. All Contracts
Enforceable.
are Agreements. Some Agreements are Void. No Void
Which of the following conclusions necessarily follow?
I. Some Contracts are not Enforceable.
II. No Enforceable is Void.
III. Some Agreements are not Enforceable.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Both II and III follow
b) Only II follows
m
c) Only I follows
m .co
d) Only III follows
s e
l a
ag necessarily follow?
89. All Scripts are Code. Some Code is Optimized. No Optimized code is Verbose.
Which of the following conclusions
I. Some Scripts are Verbose.
II. Some Code is not Verbose.
III. All Scripts are Optimized.
Select the most appropriate options:
a) Only II follows
b) Only I follows
m
m c) Both I and II follow
.co
.co d) Only III follows
s e m
s em90. A study shows students in schools with longer library hours
g l a read more books.
g la a reading everywhere.
a
Policymakers conclude extending hours will increase
Which assumption underlies this conclusion?
a) Students will utilize the extended hours to read books.
b) Students in those schools are more intelligent.
c) Infrastructure costs are irrelevant.
d) Reading depends only on hours, not on resources or programmes.

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91. A company switches to a 4 day workweek and observes no productivity drop.
Leaders claim the schedule is ef cient. Which assumption is needed to support
the leaders’ claim?
a) Productivity was measured accurately and comparably before and after
the change.
b) Employees prefer longer weekends due to higher tendency to burnout in
longer weeks.
c) Of ce rent decreased after the switch since people were only coming in
for four days.
d) Competitors already use a 4 day workweek.

92. Recruiters prefer candidates from top tier colleges, believing they perform
better. Which assumption underpins this practice?
a) Top tier graduates always outperform others.
b) Interviewers dislike screening many applicants.
c) Reputation matters more than skill.
d) College brand is a reliable proxy for a candidate’s likely performance.

93. A survey nds most employees prefer exible hours over a higher salary.
Which inference is most reasonable?
a) Work life balance is highly valued.
b) Salary is unimportant to everyone.
c) Only young workers were surveyed.
d) Employees don’t want promotions.

94. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54, ?
a) 69 b) 74
c) 79 d) 84

95. 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ?
a) 49 b) 57
c) 63 d) 65

96. Oxygen : Lungs = Fuel : ?
a) Car b) Engine
c) Road d) Energy
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97. Author : Book = Composer : ?
a) Piano
b) Symphony
c) Stage
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d) Scorecard
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. c e m
98. 4, 10, 18, 28, ?
em l as
a) 46
l as b) 42
ag
c) 40
ag d) 48

99. Shopkeeper are Big. Some Big persons violate night curfew. All who violate
night curfew are ned. Anil is Big. Examine the following statements:
I. Anil is a Shopkeeper
II. Anil may violate a night curfew
III. Anil will de nitely violate night curfew
IV. If Anil is a shopkeeper, he will get ned
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V. Anil will de nitely get ned
Select the correct option:
e m
a) Only I, III and IV
l as
ag
b) Only II
c) Only I and III
d) Only I and V

100. Some Cyclists are Marathoners. All Marathoners train rigorously. Some
Trainees are Amateurs. Which of the following conclusion necessarily
follows?
a) Some cyclists train rigorously
m
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b) All cyclists are amateurs
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c) No trainee is a marathoner
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d) Some amateurs are marathoners
s g l
g la 101. All Poets write Poems. Some Poets are Critics. No Critic
a ignores Structure.
a Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Some poets do not ignore structure
b) All critics write poems
c) No poet is a critic
d) Some critics do not write poems

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102. University examination department is attempting to devise a schedule for
the end term examination. The subjects are Constitutional Law, Taxation,
Regulatory Governance, Sociology and Criminal Law. The following
considerations must be kept in mind.
I. Regulatory Governance must follow Criminal Law
II. Sociology and Criminal Law cannot immediately precede or follow each
other
III. Regulatory Governance must immediately precede Taxation
IV. Constitutional Law cannot be the rst or the last exam
V. Examinations for all subject are held once.
Which of the following schedule is a valid schedule?
a) Sociology, Criminal Law, Constitutional Law, Regulatory Governance,
Taxation
b) Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Regulatory Governance, Taxation,
Sociology
c) Sociology, Constitutional Law, Criminal Law, Regulatory Governance,
Taxation
d) Criminal Law, Constitutional Law, Taxation, Regulatory Governance,
Sociology

103. Some Apps are Free. All Free Apps have Ads. Some Ad-supported Apps are
high-rated. Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?
a) Some free apps are high-rated
b) All high-rated apps have ads
c) No free app is high-rated
d) All ad-supported apps are free

104. Recycling bins are placed in a mall and trash volume falls. Which assumption
is necessary to claim recycling caused the drop?
a) People are driven towards recycling given the opportunity
b) The aesthetics of the recycling infrastructure drives usage
c) Mall footfall remained stable during the observation period
d) Mall introduced fees for usage of bins
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105. Introducing cycling lanes reduces minor collisions in a district. Which of the
following more strongly supports the causal link between these events?
a) decline in collisions was largely con ned to stretches of road where the
new cycling lanes were introduced, with little change elsewhere in the
district.
m
b) after the introduction of the cycling lanes, the local government also
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launched a citywide awareness campaign promoting road safety for all
commuters. . c s e
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c) data from the same period show that average vehicular traf c volumes
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declined due to fuel price increases and the expansion of public
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transport routes.
d) several nearby districts, which did not introduce cycling lanes, reported
similar reductions in minor collisions during that year.

106. Free school meals increased attendance. Which assumption is needed to claim
free meals caused attendance to rise?
a) Meal distribution was the main change during the period
b) Teachers were more vigilant about taking attendance

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c) School built new classrooms which could accommodate more students
d) Local incomes doubled leading to a ux of new admissions
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a
107. All Architects are Visionary. Some Visionary people are Designers. No Designer
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is a Lawyer. Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?
I. Some Visionary people are not Lawyers.
II. Some Architects are Designers.
III. All Designers are Visionary.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) I and III follow b) Only I follows
c) Only III follows d) I and II follow

108. All Astronauts are Smokers. All Drivers Ski. Some Astronauts are Drivers.
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Kamlesh is an Astronaut.
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m .coI. Kamlesh Skis
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s e II. Kamlesh does not Ski
g la
g la III. Kamlesh is a Smoker
a
a IV. Kamlesh is not a Smoker
V. Kamlesh is a Driver
VI. Kamlesh is not a Driver
Select the most appropriate response:
a) Only III and VI b) Only III
c) Only I and V d) Only V
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109. Complete the following series: C, FGH, MNOPQ, _____
a) XZBDFHI b) YZBCEFG
c) XYZABCD d) YZABCDF

110. All renewable energy plants are environment friendly. Some solar plants are
renewable energy plants. No coal plant is environment friendly.
Which of the following conclusion necessarily follows?
I. Some solar plants are environment friendly.
II. No coal plant is a renewable energy plant.
III. Some coal plants are solar plants.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) I and II follow b) Only I follows
c) II and III follow d) All follow

111. All scientists hold Ph.D. Some engineers are scientists. No scientist works
without access to the laboratory. Which of the following are the most
appropriate conclusions?
I. All scientists work in the laboratory.
II. Some engineers have Ph.D.
III. All engineers are scientists.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) I and II follow b) I and III follow
c) Only I follows d) All follow

For Questions 112-113

The phenomenon of urbanisation has led to signi cant changes in social structures
and community interactions. As people migrate from rural areas to cities, they often
face challenges such as increased cost of living, social isolation, and a disconnection
from their traditional support networks. Studies indicate that urban residents tend to
form new types of relationships, often relying on informal networks and community
groups to adapt to their new environments. While urban living can foster innovation
and economic opportunities, it can also contribute to feelings of loneliness and a
decline in mental health if social connections are not established.

112. If the above is true, which of the following conclusions is most contradicted
by it?
a) Urbanisation creates both opportunities and challenges for individuals
transitioning from rural to urban living.
b) Social isolation in urban areas can negatively impact individuals’
mental health and well-being.
c) People who migrate to cities typically maintain their traditional support
networks from their rural communities.
d) Informal networks and community groups are essential for urban
residents to establish new social connections.
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113. If the above is true, which of the following can be most readily inferred from
the passage?
a) The economic bene ts of urbanisation outweigh its social and
psychological costs for most urban residents.
b) Migration to urban areas invariably leads to social isolation and
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deteriorating mental health among new residents.
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c) Urban living inherently discourages the formation of meaningful
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interpersonal relationships.
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d) Urbanisation transforms traditional social ties but compels individuals
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to seek alternative forms of community to sustain social well-being.
a
114. All teachers are creative people. All creative people are sensitive. No insensitive
person is a teacher. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?
I. Some sensitive people are teachers.
II. All sensitive people are teachers.
III. No teacher is insensitive.
Select the correct option:

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a) Only I b) Only II and III

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c) Only I and III d) I, II and III

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115. Anamika complains that in her debate club, she is always assigned to the

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less-preferred side of the argument, while another member consistently gets
the more popular choice. Which of the following, if true, supports Anamika’s
complaint?
a) Assignments are rotated randomly, and Anamika’s side often ends up
unpopular by chance.
b) The club president privately admits giving the popular side to the other
member due to personal friendship.
c) Both members are equally skilled in debating.
d) Anamika has only recently joined the club.
o m
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.and avoiding
c. o Principle:
116. m
e or unlawfully.
A driver is responsible for controlling their vehicle
s
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harm to pedestrians, unless the pedestrian acted recklessly
a the road outside
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a crosswalk without looking. The driver was obeyingaall traf c rules.
Facts: A driver hits a pedestrian who suddenly runs across

ag
Which of the following is correct?
a) The driver is liable for the pedestrian’s injuries.
b) The pedestrian’s reckless action absolves the driver of liability.
c) Both the driver and pedestrian share liability equally.
d) The driver is always liable in pedestrian accidents.
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AILET 2026 Question Paper

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117. Justice : Law = ?
a) Medicine : Doctor b) Governance : Policy
c) Teacher : School d) Engineer : Bridge

118. Keyboard : Typist = Paintbrush : ?
a) Artist b) Canvas
c) Painting d) Colour

119. Roots : Tree = Foundation : ?
a) House b) Wall
c) Architecture d) Floor

120. Principle: A public of cial must avoid con icts of interest that could undermine
public trust, even if no actual wrongdoing occurs.
Facts: A city mayor awards a major construction contract to a company
owned by her cousin. She discloses the relationship publicly and follows all
procurement procedures.
Apply the principle and select the most appropriate option:
a) contract should proceed since procedures were followed.
b) contract should be avoided to maintain public trust.
c) cousin should sell the company before bidding.
d) mayor should resign.

121. The numbers in the series 3, 9, 27, __, 243, follow a pattern. What is the
missing number?
a) 30 b) 60
c) 81 d) 90

122. Every Mathematician is a Statistician. Some Statisticians are also Computer
Scientists. No Computer Scientist is a Mathematician. Which of the following
conclusion necessarily follows?
I. Some Statisticians are not Mathematicians.
II. All Statisticians are Computer Scientists.
III. Some Mathematicians are Computer Scientists.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only I b) Only II and III
c) Only I and III d) I, II and III
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For Questions 123-124

Research indicates that regular physical activity is crucial for maintaining overall
health and preventing severe diseases. Engaging in moderate exercise can improve
overall health, enhance mood, and boost immune function. Despite these bene ts,
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many individuals remain sedentary due to a lack of motivation or resources. Studies
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have shown that community programmes aimed at increasing physical activity,
. e m
such as group tness classes and public parks, signi cantly enhance participation
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a s
levels and improve community health.
a g
lof the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument presented
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123. Which
above?
a) Individuals who engage in regular physical activity are more likely to
have access to health care services.
b) Communities that have implemented tness programs report higher
levels of overall satisfaction with their health on a long term basis.
c) Many people cite a lack of time as the primary reason for not
participating in physical activity.
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d) Group tness classes are often less expensive than personal training
sessions.
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l as most seriously weaken the argument
124. Which of the following, if true, would
above?
ag
a) Participants of community exercise programs tend to revert to sedentary
habits once the programs conclude, leading to no lasting improvement
in health outcomes.
b) Some individuals prefer exercising alone rather than in group-based or
community tness programs.
c) Communities with greater access to public parks often report higher
levels of general well-being and lower stress.
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d) Local governments that invest in community health programs typically
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experience reduced long-term healthcare costs.

s e
s em125. InI. aAfamily, g la
g la is the father of B. a
a II. C is the son of A.
III. D is the brother of E.
IV. E is the daughter of B.
How is C related to D?
a) Brother b) Uncle
c) Cousin d) Nephew
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126. All renewable energy sources reduce carbon emissions. Some renewable energy
sources are expensive to install. Solar energy is a renewable energy resource.
Consider the following conclusions:
I. Solar energy reduces carbon emissions.
II. All expensive energy sources are renewable.
III. Some renewable energy resources are not expensive.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only I follows.
b) Both I and III follow.
c) Only III follows.
d) Both II and III follow.

127. Artist : Painting = ?
a) Author : Novel
b) Teacher : Student
c) Doctor : Prescription
d) Athlete : Coach

128. All Parathas are Sustainable. Some Sustainable are Cost-Effective. All
Cost-Effective are Popular. Consider the following conclusions necessarily
follows:
I. Some Popular are Parathas.
II. All Parathas are Popular.
III. Some sustainable are Popular.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only I follows. b) Only III follows.
c) Both I and III follow. d) Both II and III follow.

129. Roorkee City plans to replace all diesel buses with electric buses within ve
years to reduce air pollution. Of cials claim this will signi cantly improve
air quality and reduce respiratory illnesses. Which of the following is an
assumption made by the of cials?
a) Electric buses are affordable for the city to maintain.
b) Air pollution in Roorkee City is primarily caused by diesel buses.
c) Residents will support the transition to electric buses.
d) Other sources of pollution will also be reduced during this period.

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130. Many schools have introduced digital textbooks, arguing that they are more
cost-effective and environmentally friendly than printed books. Which of the
following, if true, would most weaken this argument?
a) Digital textbooks require devices that many students cannot afford.
b) Printed books are more fragile than electronic devices.
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c) Some teachers prefer using printed books.
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d) Students nd digital textbooks more engaging.
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131. The city’s new bike-sharing programme has been widely adopted, reducing
traf c congestion and promoting healthy lifestyles. Which of the following is ag
ag
a necessary assumption?
a) The bike-sharing programme has improved air quality.
b) Many residents prefer biking to driving.
c) There has been a quanti able increase in the usage of bikes by city
residents
d) The city will expand the programme to all neighbourhoods.

132. Researchers claim that planting trees in urban areas can signi cantly reduce
m
summer temperatures. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens this
claim?
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a) Trees provide shade and release water vapor through transpiration.

as
b) Planting trees is more expensive than other cooling measures.
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c) Urban residents enjoy spending time in green spaces.
d) Trees improve air quality by absorbing pollutants.

133. Principle: A person who keeps or engages with hazardous or inherently
dangerous substances or activities is liable for any or all harm resulting from
their escape or impact, regardless of the precautions taken, unless the harm
was caused by an act of God, act of a third party, or consent of the victim.
Fact: Seema owns a perfume factory that lawfully stores large quantities of
chemicals used in fragrance production. One night, a sudden lightning strike
causes a re, leading to the release of toxic fumes that harm nearby residents. m
m
Seema had complied with all safety requirements and had reproof storage
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facilities in place.
s e m
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Applying only the given principle to the fact, is Seema liable? Select the most

las appropriate option:
ag
ag a) No, because the harm resulted from an act of God, not from her
negligence
b) Yes, because the chemicals were hazardous, and she owns the factory.
c) No, because she had taken all reasonable precautions to prevent such
an accident.
d) Yes, because she failed to anticipate natural disasters while storing
dangerous substances.
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134. All Samosas are Delicious. Some Delicious is Spicy. No Spicy is Steamed.
Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?
I. Some Samosas are Spicy.
II. Some Delicious are not Steamed.
III. No Samosa is Steamed.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only I follows
b) Both I and II follow
c) Only III follows
d) Only II follows

135. All Engineers know Mathematics. Some Coders are Engineers. No Artist is
an Engineer. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?
I. Some Coders know Mathematics.
II. Some Mathematicians can also Code.
III. Some Artists know Mathematics.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only II follows
b) Only I follows
c) Both I and II follow
d) Only III follows

136. All Emails are Messages. Some Messages are Urgent. No Urgent Messages
are Casual. Which of the following conclusions necessarily follows?
I. Some Emails are Casual.
II. Some Messages are not Casual.
III. All Urgent Messages are Emails.
Select the most appropriate option:
a) Only II follows
b) Only III follows
c) Both I and II follow
d) Both I and III follow

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137. Principle - Negligence may be inferred when the incident causing harm is
of a kind that ordinarily does not occur without someone’s negligence, the
instrumentality or control that caused the harm was under the defendant’s
management, and the plaintiff did not contribute to the harm.
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Fact - Anita visits a hospital for a routine check-up. While waiting in the

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lobby, a large ceiling fan suddenly detaches and falls, injuring her shoulder.
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The hospital authorities claim that the fan had been regularly serviced and
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no defect was known before the accident.
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Applying only the given principle to the fact, is the hospital liable? Select the
ag
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most appropriate option:
a) No, because Anita cannot prove which employee was responsible for the
fan.
b) Yes, because a ceiling fan does not ordinarily fall without some
negligence in its maintenance.
c) No, because the hospital claims regular maintenance was carried out.
d) Yes, but only if Anita can prove that the fan was installed more than
ve years ago.

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138. A city plans to replace cash bus fares with a QR-only system to reduce revenue

m
leakage. Critics argue ridership among the elderly will drop. Which assumption
best supports the critics?
s e
l a
a) A large proportion of elderly commuters lack smartphones or nd QR
payments dif cult.
ag
b) Younger commuters prefer QR payment due to higher smartphone use.
c) Conductors are not trained to handle QR codes.
d) A study found that QR systems reduce revenue leakage in other cities
with similar public transport systems.

139. Excessive sugar sweetened beverage intake correlates with higher cavity
rates. A claim is made that such beverages cause cavities. Which, if true,
most weakens the causal claim?
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a) Participants with high sugar-sweetened beverage consumption were also

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found to have poorer oral hygiene and less frequent dental check-ups

s e compared to low-consumption participants.
g la which may have
g la a
b) The study’s large sample size included diverse populations,
a introduced uncontrolled variability affecting the observed correlation.
c) Surveys indicate that many dental professionals believe sugar contributes
to cavities, regardless of other lifestyle factors.
d) Evidence shows that cavity formation depends on multiple factors,
including genetics, diet, and oral microbiome, and sugar alone may not
be suf cient to cause cavities.
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140. Congestion pricing approach reduces peak hour car trips in several cities.
Which assumption supports using it in a new city?
a) Drivers will respond to price signals by shifting time or mode of travel.
b) Public transport would be able to ful l the demand.
c) Drivers dislike road taxes and would therefore stop using cars to avoid
them.
d) Fuel prices will fall due to lower consumption.

141. B2, D4, G7, K11, ?
a) O14
b) N15
c) P16
d) Q17

142. If WORD = GVDI, then QUEEN = ?
a) BCRKC
b) ABQJB
c) ABRKB
d) ACQJD

143. An econometric study using difference-in-differences technique nds no
signi cant employment effect from a minimum-wage hike. Which evidence
most strengthens this nding?
a) Some rms in the treated region reported dif culty in hiring, even
though aggregate employment did not change signi cantly.
b) Overall labour costs increased slightly in the treated region, but wages
for most workers remained unchanged.
c) Employment trends in similar regions without a minimum wage hike
were nearly identical to the trends in regions with the hike before and
after the policy change.
d) Workers’ hours declined in certain industries, despite stable
employment levels.

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For Questions 144-145
Diversity may bring people to the same room, but inclusion ensures that every
voice is heard, valued, and allowed to shape the conversation. It demands that
institutions go beyond representation to transformation, to question who holds the
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power, who de nes norms, and whose stories remain unheard. It is the process of

.
of courage at a time.c om
turning the promise of democracy into practice, one case, one reform, and one act
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144. Based onse g l
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the passage above, which of the following can be most logically

a) a
inferred?
Inclusion requires active structural and cultural change within
institutions, not merely diverse representation.
b) Diversity and inclusion are interchangeable concepts referring to
representation of different groups.
c) Democracy automatically ensures inclusion without further
institutional effort.
d) Increasing the number of under-represented individuals in decision-
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making spaces is adequate to secure inclusion.

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in the passage above?
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145. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument

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a) Institutions that create deliberate mechanisms for inclusive
participation tend to make more equitable and widely supported policy
decisions.
b) Employees value visible diversity in workplaces as a sign of progressive
leadership.
c) Efforts to improve inclusion sometimes face resistance from individuals
who feel existing structures are already fair.
d) In some organizations, diverse representation has increased, but
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c o m decision-making continues to be dominated by a small core group.
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. In a study on workplace productivity, employees with se
em reported higher job satisfaction. However, productivityglevels
146. exible schedules
s l a between exible
la a Which of the following
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and xed schedule employees were almost the same.
conclusion can be logically drawn?
a) Job satisfaction always leads to higher productivity.
b) Productivity is in uenced by factors other than work schedules.
c) Flexible schedules harm team coordination.
d) Most employees prefer xed schedules.

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147. Public health of cials warn that air pollution increases the risk of respiratory
disease. A recent drop in pollution levels coincided with a fall in new respiratory
disease cases. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the of cials’
warning?
a) Respiratory disease cases usually peak in winter.
b) The cities with the largest drop in pollution saw the largest fall in cases.
c) The decline in cases was higher in rural areas than urban areas.
d) There was a major health awareness campaign during the period.

148. The government announced subsidies for electric vehicles (EVs) to encourage
consumers to buy more EVs. However, sales of EVs remained stagnant. Which
of the following, if true, would best explain the outcome?
a) Charging infrastructure for EVs remains inadequate.
b) EV manufacturers released new affordable models.
c) Petrol prices fell marginally during the period.
d) Public awareness about EVs increased signi cantly.

149. A vaccine trial reports a 60% reduction in disease incidence in the trial
population. Which is the safest inference?
a) The vaccine is effective in similar populations under similar conditions.
b) The vaccine eliminates the disease everywhere.
c) No further studies are needed.
d) Effectiveness is identical across all age groups.

150. Series: A2, C6, F12, J20, _____?
a) O30
b) N32
c) P32
d) M34

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S g

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a IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII ag Appendix-II

IIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIIII
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Question Booklet Sl. No.
LL.M. ADMISSION TEST – 2026

Date of Exam : Center’s Name : ___________________________
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Duration
.
: 120
co Minutes Roll No. : ___________________________
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Max. Marks e:m OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________ a
as 100
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a INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There will be 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to be answered in the
OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 100. Answer ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For every wrong
answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one of the four
responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL OINT EN in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
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a) Kolkata b) Agra c) Bhopal d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
————————
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e a b c d
a b c d
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a b c d
a
a c d

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5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above shall be
considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than the details
required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet along with
candidate’s copy of the OMR esponse heet. Candidate will hand over the original OMR
esponse heet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have
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to face criminal prosecution.
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11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators etc. are
strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
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e m 12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
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DO NOT O EN TILL 2 .M.

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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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1. “Delegated legislation is a growing child called upon to relieve the parent of
the strain of overwork and capable of attending to minor matters, while the
parent manages the main business” is a metaphor by:
a) Sir Carleton Kemp Allen
b) Sir John William Salmond
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c) James Finn Garner
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d) Sir Cecil Carr
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2.
as
The Droit administratif is of ____________ model.
l ag
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a) ndian
c) Britain
b) French
d) German

3. ‘ The Path of the Law’ is the most famous essay by:
a) Lon L. Fuller
b) David Kennedy
c) Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr
d) William W. Fisher
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4. ‘Law as a Means to an .co
nd’ is the famous work of:
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a) Friedrich Carl Von Savigny
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b) Rudolf Von hering
c) ugen hrlich
d) Karl Heinrich Marx

5. Which of the following code regarding the expression ‘Counterfeit’ de ned under
the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is true?
a) mitation should be exact
b) mitation should be partly exact
c) mitation should be reasonably exact
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c.6.o n which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of ndia mheld that the .co
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s em Governor must perform his role of a friend, philosopher g l a and guide with
la a
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dispassion, guided not by considerations of political expediency but by the
sanctity of the constitutional oath he undertakes?
a) State of Kerala v. The Governor for State of Kerala, WPC 1264/2023
b) State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu, 2025 NSC 48
c) B.P. Singhal v. Union of India, (2010) 6 SCC 331
d) Shivraj Singh Chouhan v. Speaker, Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly,
(2020) NSC 335
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AILET 2026 Question Paper

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7. Under the Factories Act,1948 which of the following statements is correct about
overtime and its calculation?
a) Piece-rated workers are excluded from overtime calculations under all
circumstances
b) Overtime is payable only if a worker works more than ten hours a day
c) Overtime for work beyond nine hours a day or forty-eight hours a week is
payable at twice the ordinary rate; the de nition of “ordinary rate” includes
basic wages and certain allowances but excludes bonuses and overtime
itself
d) State Governments have no power to prescribe registers or compute cash
equivalents of concessional supplies when calculating ordinary rate

8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the powers of the
High Court under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita,
2023 for quashing the proceedings emanating from application under
Section 12(1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?
a) Remedy is not available for quashing the proceedings
b) nterference of High Court is warranted only in case of gross illegality or
gross abuse of the process of law
c) Proceedings are predominantly of a civil nature therefore the provisions of
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 do not apply
d) High Court must adopt a hands-off approach while dealing with welfare
legislation specially enacted to give justice to women who suffer from
domestic violence

9. Criminal trials and proceedings held under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
Sanhita, 2023 in electronic mode, by use of electronic communication or use
of audio-video electronic means are____________ .
a) permissible as a rule of convenience
b) not permissible
c) expressly provided
d) implicit

10. An advocate who practices in the Court of any Magistrate___________ .
a) may sit as a Magistrate in that Court
b) may sit as a Magistrate in any Court within the local jurisdiction of that
Court
c) may sit as a Magistrate in that Court or in any Court within the local
jurisdiction of that Court with special permission of High Court
d) shall not sit as a Magistrate in that Court or in any Court within the local
jurisdiction of that Court
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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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11. n exercise of power vested under Section 524 of the Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the State Government may, after consultation with
the High Court, by noti cation, direct that references in ections__________to an
xecutive Magistrate shall be construed as references to a Judicial Magistrate
of the rst class. m
a) 125, 126, 135, m
o 164 and 166 . co
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b) 127, 128,m
e 129, 164 and 166
l as
s 139, 164 and 166
c) 137,a138,
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ag 154, 155, 164 and 166
d) 153,

12. n computing the period of limitation under the provisions of Bharatiya Nagarik
Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, in relation to an offender, the day from which such
period is to be computed__________ .
a) shall be excluded

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b) shall be included
c) may be included
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d) may be excluded
s e
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13. According to Section 49 of thea
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, in criminal
proceedings, the fact that the accused has a bad character is __________ ,
unless evidence has been given that he has a good character in which case it
becomes __________.
a) admissible, not admissible
b) not admissible, admissible
c) relevant, irrelevant
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d) irrelevant, relevant
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em14. ofAccording to Section 61 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam,a
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electronic or digital record in the evidence, have the same
2023, admissibility
g __________ as other
ag document.
a) relevancy, admissibility and enforceability
b) legal effect, validity and enforceability
c) reliability, validity and enforceability
d) relevancy, admissibility and validity
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15. Consider the following statements
(i) The identi cation of an accused by a witness in court is substantive
evidence.
(ii) The evidence of identi cation in test identi cation parade is primary evidence
but not substantive evidence.
(iii) Test identi cation parade can be used only to corroborate identi cation of
the accused by a witness in the court.
Choose the correct answer
a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) incorrect
b) (i) and (ii) are incorrect but (iii) is correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) incorrect
d) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

16. Which of the following Latin maxims is related to relevancy of dying
declaration?
a) Actus Curias Neminem Gravabit
b) Nemo Moriturus Proesumitur Mentiri
c) Nullum Tempus Aut Locus Occurrit Regi
d) Lex Non Cogit Ad Impossibilia

17. Choose the correct answer regarding the doctrine of restitution under Section 144
of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908:
a) The expression ‘restitution’ is clearly de ned under Section 144 of the Code
of Civil Procedure 1908
b) Section 144 confers a new substantive right on the parties for the tortious
act caused due to erroneous decree or order passed by the court
c) Section 144 does not confer any new substantive right. t merely regulates the
power of the court to restore the parties so far as they can be restored
d) The courts do not have the inherent power to make restitution under Section 144
of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908

18. Which of the following maxims is not related to doctrine of res judicata?
a) Nemo Debet Bis Vexari Pro Una Et Eadem Causa
b) Nemo Tenetur Se Ipsum Prodere
c) Interest Reipublicae Ut Sit Finis Litium
d) Res Judicata Pro Veritate Occipitur
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19. Where the court has passed a decree for the payment of money and the decree
is silent with respect to the payment of interest during the period from the date
of the decree to the date of payment, it shall be deemed that
a) Court has refused such interest and therefore no separate suit shall be
instituted for the payment of interest
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b) Court has refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be instituted
. co
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for the payment of interest
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c) Court has not refused such interest; however, a separate suit may be
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instituted for the payment of interest
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d) Court has not refused such interest but adjusted the payment of interest
in the cost of the suit

20. All questions relating to executability or non-executability of a decree have been
conferred within the exclusive jurisdiction of the court executing the decree by
virtue of the provision __________ of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908.
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 33
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d) Section 47
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21.
a
Section 135 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 deals with the provision for
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the assignment of rights under the policy of __________ insurance.
a) Life b) Marine
c) Fire d) Agriculture

22. ‘X’ transfers his property in favor of an unborn person ‘Y’ in accordance with
the principle of Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882. ‘Y’ acquires
interest in the property upon his birth, although ‘Y’ is not entitled to enjoy the
property immediately on his birth. The interest of ‘Y’ in the property is

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a) Contingent interest

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b) Vested interest

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The general rule for the apportionment of income between transferor and
a under Section 36 of the Transfer
income shall be deemed to accrue due from
of Property 1882 is that such

a) Day to day basis
b) very fortnight basis
c) Monthly basis
d) Yearly basis
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24. Choose the correct answer regarding the doctrine of part performance.
a) The transferee, being already in possession, merely continuing in possession
of the property is suf cient to constitute a part performance of the contract
in his favor
b) It is to be shown that the person claiming the bene t of part performance
was not willing to perform his part of the contract, even though he is entitled
for the protection of doctrine of part performance
c) It is obligatory upon the person claiming the bene t of part performance
to show that he was ready and willing to perform his part of the contract
d) It is suf cient to show that the transferor had orally or in writing contracted
to transfer for consideration any immovable property and the transferee
has taken possession of the property

25. The Universal Donee is liable for
a) All the debts and liabilities of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent
of the property comprised therein
b) All the debts and liabilities of the donor undertaken by the donee irrespective
of the value of the gift
c) All the debts of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent of the half of
the value of the gift
d) All the debts and liabilities of the donor at the time of the gift to the extent
of the three-fourth of the value of the gift

26. Which of the statements regarding the characteristics of ‘Charges’ given under
Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, is not true?
a) A charge may be created on the property by act of parties
b) A charge may be created on the property by operation of law
c) A charge on the property amounts to a mortgage
d) All the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 relating to simple
mortgage shall, so far as may be, apply to charge

27. Which of the following is not required to prove a Will?
a) Will is executed by the testator
b) t was the last will executed by the testator
c) t must pass test of satisfaction of prudent mind
d) t must pass test of mathematical accuracy

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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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28. Who is not a domestic worker under the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
a) Woman who is directly employed to do household work for remuneration
in cash
b) Woman who is employed to do household work for remuneration in cash
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through any agency on a temporary basis
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c) Woman who is a member of employer’s family and directly employed to do
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household work for remuneration in cash
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d) Woman who is employed to do household work for remuneration in kind
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a the following statement is false regarding settlement of matter through
29. Which of
conciliation under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
a) Settlement may be initiated at the request of the aggrieved woman
b) Monetary settlement can be made as a basis of conciliation
c) Monetary settlement cannot be made as a basis of conciliation
d) Once a settlement is arrived, no further inquiry shall be conducted by the
nternal Committee
o m
c
30. Taking measurements of convicts for .the purposes of identi cation and
e m authorized under the________ .
l a s
investigation in criminal matters is expressly

ag Sanhita, 2023
a) The Constitution of ndia
b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
c) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
d) The Criminal Procedure (Identi cation) Act, 2022

31. The child born through assisted reproductive technology shall be deemed to
be a biological child of __________ .
a) Donor couple

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b) Commissioning couple

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c) Woman who approaches assisted reproductive technology clinic

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d) Aggrieved biological mother

em32. (Regulation) l as
las Act, 2021?
ag
Which of the following is not a commercial surrogacy under the Surrogacy

ag a) Trading the services of surrogate motherhood by way of giving payment
b) Trading the services of surrogate motherhood by way of giving incentives
in kind
c) nsurance coverage for the surrogate mother during the process of
surrogacy
d) Buying of human embryo
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33. The Parliament has enacted an Act to provide for the constitution of the
Commission for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the air
in the National Capital Region and adjoining areas. The name of the Act is
a) The Air Quality Management in National Capital Region Act, 2021
b) The Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas
Act, 2021
c) The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region
Act, 2021
d) The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region
and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021

34. Which of the following is not a Social Security Organisation under the Code
on Social Security, 2020 ?
a) The Central Board of Trustees of mployees’ Provident Fund
b) The Life nsurance Corporation
c) The mployees’ State nsurance Corporation
d) The National Social Security Board for Unorganised Workers

35. Person with intersex variations means a person who at birth shows variation
in his or her primary sexual characteristics, external genitalia, chromosomes
or hormones from __________of male or female body.
a) biological standard
b) social standard
c) normative standard
d) legal standard

36. ‘Harm’, in relation to a product liability under the Consumer Protection Act,
2019 does not include
a) Damage to any property on account of breach of warranty conditions
b) Damage to any property, other than the product itself
c) motional distress attendant to damage to property
d) Mental agony attendant to damage to property

37. The de nition of ‘Wages’ under the Code on Wages, 2019 includes
a) Conveyance allowance
b) Retaining allowance
c) House rent allowance
d) Overtime allowance

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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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38. An offence punishable under the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on
Marriage) Act, 2019 is__________ .
a) cognizable and compoundable
b) non-cognizable and compoundable
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c) cognizable and non-compoundable
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.
d) non-cognizableco and non-compoundable s e m
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la a
39. Any pronouncement
g
shall be__________.
a and invalid
a) void
b) void and illegal
c) voidable and illegal
d) voidable and immoral

40. According to ndia nternational Arbitration Centre Act 2019, the ndia
nternational Arbitration Centre is an institution of__________importance.
m
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a) public
b) commercial
e m
c) national
l as
d) economic ag
41. Under the Mental Healthcare Act 2017, offering an option for treatment or a
setting for treatment which meets the person’s treatment needs and imposes
the least restriction on the person’s rights is called
a) Least restrictive alternative
b) Least restrictive environment

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c) Less restrictive option
md) All the above
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s em42. disabilities
Which of the following is not a principle for empowerment
g l a of persons with

l a a
adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 13 December

ag 2006 in its Convention
a) quality of opportunity
on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities?

b) Accessibility
c) Freedom of Religion
d) quality between men and women
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43. Which court is designated to be a Special Court to try the offences under the
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016?
a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
b) Court of Session
c) Metropolitan Magistrate
d) District Court

44. The term ‘claim’ de ned under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
includes right to remedy for__________ .
a) breach of contract
b) breach of trust
c) breach of fundamental rights
d) tort

45. Which of the following entity is not expressly named as a ‘ nancial sector
regulator’ under the nsolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
a) Reserve Bank of ndia
b) World Bank
c) Securities and xchange Board of ndia
d) nsurance Regulatory and Development Authority of ndia

46. Which section of the nsolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 is not related to
extortionate credit transactions?
a) Section 50
b) Section 51
c) Section 167
d) Section 173

47. f a bankrupt dies, the bankruptcy proceedings shall __________ .
a) become barred
b) cease
c) continue as if the deceased were alive
d) cease against the deceased and continue against the other debtors

48. Which of the following range of age is provided for aftercare under the Juvenile
Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?
a) 16 to 21
b) 18 to 21
c) 16 to 18
d) 15 to 18

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m .co s e m AILET 2026 Question Paper

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49. According to ection 2(34) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015, the ‘ nter-country adoption’ means
a) Adoption of a child from one country to another country
b) Adoption of a child from any country by an ndian resident
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c) Adoption of a child from ndia by a nonresident ndian

. c om
d) Adoption of a child from any country by an ndian citizen
e m .
50.
em
n which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of ndia has directed to
l as
as
install CCTV cameras and recording equipment in the of ce of agency which
l ag
ag
carries out interrogations and holding of accused takes place in the same
manner as it would in a police station?
a) State of Maharashtra v. Keshao Vishwanath Sonone, 2020 SCC OnLine SC
1040
b) Paramvir Singh Saini v. Baljit Singh, A R 2020 SC 64
c) Rohtas v. State of Haryana, A R 2012 SC 2297
d) Chaman Lal v. State of Himachal Pradesh, A R 2021 SC 46

51. ‘Solidarite par similitude’ means:
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a) Society rests on the need for satisfying common interests
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b) Need for division of work
s e
l a
c) No judge is free to refuse to decide a case on the ground that legal authority

ag
provides no precise answer
d) Answer to every conceivable legal problem is implicit in social facts

52. Auguste Comte in his famous work ‘The Course in Positive Philosophy’ developed
an idea of the law of the progression of three stages of sociology. Which of the
following is not part of three stages notion of Auguste Comte?
a) Theological Stage b) Political Stage
c) Metaphysical Stage d) Positive Stage

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53. Consider the following statements.
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(i) Prorogation puts an end to a session of the House and the same House
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cannot meet again after prorogation.

e m (ii) The power to prorogue a House is formally vested in the President, but he
la
las acts on the advice of the Prime Minister.
ag
ag (iii) A Bill pending in the House gets lapsed by the prorogation of the House.
Choose the correct answer from the options provided below:
a) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) incorrect
b) (i) and (ii) are incorrect but (iii) correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) incorrect
d) (i) and (iii) are incorrect but (ii) correct

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54. Consider the below given statements.
(i) Reservation provided for women in public employment is characterized as
‘horizontal reservation’.
(ii) Reservation provided for women in public employment is characterized as
‘vertical reservation’.
(iii) Reservation provided for Other Backward Class in public employment is
characterized as ‘horizontal reservation’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) (i) and (ii) are true, but (iii) is untrue
b) (i) and (iii) are true, but (ii) is untrue
c) (ii) and (iii) are untrue, but (i) is true
d) (i) and (iii) are untrue, but (ii) is true

55. One person is said to be ______ of another if the two are related by blood or
adoption wholly through males.
a) Cognate b) Agnate
c) Uterine blood d) Full blood

56. Consider the given statements.
(i) After the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005,
the court shall not recognise any pious obligation of a son under the Hindu
law to discharge any debt due from his father.
(ii) Right of creditor to proceed against a son to recover any debt due from his
father solely on the ground of the pious obligation under the Hindu law
shall not be affected if the debt was contracted before the commencement
of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act 2005.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Both (i) and (ii) are true b) Both (i) and (ii) are untrue
c) (i) true and (ii) untrue d) (ii) true and (i) untrue

57. Consider the given statements.
(i) The expression ‘Property’ in Article 300A of the Constitution of ndia includes
land and building.
(ii) The expression ‘Property’ in Article 300A of the Constitution of ndia includes
intangibles like copyrights and other intellectual property.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) (i) true and (ii) untrue
b) (ii) true and (i) untrue
c) Both (i) and (ii) are true
d) Both (i) and (ii) are untrue

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58. Which of the following is not necessary for the expression ‘religious denomination’
considered under Article 26 of the Constitution of ndia?
a) Collection of individuals who have a common faith
b) Common organization
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c) Designation of a distinctive name

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d) Common community or societal status
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59.
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Which of the following philosopher made a famous argument usually called as
l as
as
the ‘function argument’?
l ag
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a) Aristotle
b) Socrates
c) Saint Augustine
d) Jeremy Bentham

60. Mr. Rao holds 99.9% of the equity of Timber Co. Ltd. Timber Co.’s timber
stock was insured in Mr. Rao’s individual name and was destroyed by re.
Timber Co. sues the insurer for the loss. Which outcome is most consistent

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with the well settled principle of separate corporate personality ?

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a) The insurer must pay Mr. Rao because he is the bene cial owner of the
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shares
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b) The claim fails because courts will always pierce the veil where one

ag are jointly liable; each must bear a portion
shareholder controls a company
c) Mr. Rao and Timber Company
of the loss
d) Timber Company can recover because the company is a separate legal
person and alone owns the insured property

61. De nition of ‘Plant’ given under Section 43(3) of the Income Tax Act 1961 does
not include
a) Tea bushes used for the purposes of the business or profession
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c. o c) Vehicles used for the purposes of the business or profession
b) Ships used for the purposes of the business or profession
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Scienti c apparatus and surgical equipment used for lthe purposes of the
la or profession
ag
ag 62. The standard of care to be taken by bailee for the goods bailed is same as
a) Owner takes care of his own goods
b) Man of ordinary prudence takes care of his own goods
c) Man of ordinary prudence is expected to take care the goods of others
d) Man of high prudence takes care of his own goods
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