RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 05 Mar All Shifts (in English)

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 05 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Exam Date 05/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Sandalpur
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
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number is 114. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 195.5

2. 189

3. 190

4. 196.5

Q.2 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 87 metres, if he runs at a speed of 3 km/h?
Ans 1. 417.6
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2. 424

3. 425
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4. 421
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The marked price of an article is ₹5,800. A customer gets two successive discounts, the
first being 12%. Calculate the second discount percentage if the customer pays
₹4,695.68 for it.
Ans 1. 7.5%

2. 8.6%

3. 8%

4. 7%

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Q.4
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a Ans 1. 3.5

2. 2.5

3. 1.5

4. 0.5

Q.5 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 123. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 202
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2. 201

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3. 188

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4. 189

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Q.6 A man riding on a bicycle at a speed of 43 km/h crosses a bridge in 54 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge?
Ans 1. 38.7 km

2. 45.8 km

3. 46.4 km

4. 29.8 km

Q.7

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 A trader offers a 10% discount on the marked price and provides 3 articles free for every
12 articles purchased, thereby earning a profit of 20%. Find the percentage by which the
marked price is increased above the cost price, correct to two decimal places.
Ans 1. 66.67%

2. 62.36%

3. 61.25%

4. 65.86%

Q.9 The monthly incomes of two friends Chetan and Vipul, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
and each of them saves ₹72000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
1 : 3, find the monthly income of Chetan(in ₹).
Ans 1. 90000

2. 91000

3. 126000

4. 89000

Q.10 What is the smallest possible number which when divided by 33, 56 and 84, leaves 6, 29
and 57 as the remainders, respectively?
Ans 1. 1875

2. 1892

3. 1848

4. 1821

Q.11 Find the value of A for which the number 7365A2 is divisible by 9.
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.12 The average of the marks of 15 students in a class is 43. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 30

2. 86

3. 15

4. 43

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 63

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Q.13 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (15 - 6 ÷ 2 × 2)}]
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Ans 1. 24

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4. 19

Q.14 The average of first 109 even numbers is
Ans 1. 109.5

2. 111

3. 110

4. 110.5
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Q.15 A tap can fill a tank in 8 hours. After half the tank is filled, four more similar taps are
opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
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Ans 1. 3 hours, 30 min
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2. 4 hours, 40 min
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3. 5 hours, 30 min

4. 4 hours, 48 min

Q.16 If 35% of k is 15 less than 3600% of 15, then k is:
Ans 1. 1460

2. 1480

3. 1540

4. 1500
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Q.17
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Arun’s salary is increased by 20% in January and his salary is again increased by 35%

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in the month of November. What is the overall percentage increase in his salary?
Ans 1. 55%
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2. 60% a
3. 62%

4. 65%

Q.18

Ans 1.
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a Q.19 A principal amount of ₹8,000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 5% compounded
half-yearly. What will be the compound interest earned after 4 years?
[Use (1.025)8 = 1.2184]
Ans 1. ₹1,757.60

2. ₹1,747.20

3. ₹1,175.20

4. ₹1,475.60

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Q.20 Devvrat sold a commodity at a loss of 3%. If he would have been able to sell it at a profit
of 15%, he would have received ₹1,494 more. What was the cost price (in ₹) of the
commodity?
Ans 1. 8,350

2. 8,400

3. 8,300

4. 8,250

Q.21 Kiran can do a certain piece of work in 15 days. Kiran and Garima can together do the
same work in 10 days, and Kiran, Garima and Mehak can do the same work together in 9
days. In how many days can Kiran and Mehak do the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 The LCM of three numbers is 2400. If the numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5, find the
greatest number among them.
Ans 1. 200

2. 160

3. 250

4. 120

Q.23 In a laboratory, the count of bacteria in a certain experiment was increasing at the rate
of 4.4% per hour. Find the count of bacteria at the end of 2 hours if the count was
initially 8,05,00,000.
Ans 1. 8,44,39,855

2. 8,77,39,884

3. 8,77,39,848

4. 8,78,39,878

Q.24
Find the value of 47 -5 ÷ 47 11 × 47 -15
Ans 1.
47 -41
2.
47 -38
3.
47 -31
4.
-27
47

Q.25 A girl goes to school at a speed of 10 km/hr. She comes back with a speed of 40 km/hr.
Find her average speed for the whole journey.
Ans 1. 10 km/h

2. 6 km/h

3. 16 km/h

4. 14 km/h

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 63

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Q.26 Kavya has to reach Bhopal which is 1011 km away in 19 hours. His starting speed for 7
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hours was 25 km/hr. For the next 152 km his speed was 19km/hr. By what speed he

. co must travel now so as to reach Bhopal in decided time of 19hours?

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se 2. 167 km/hr
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3. 171 km/hr

4. 177 km/hr

Q.27 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 76 and the third
number is 107. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 198

2. 184

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3. 199

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4. 183

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Q.28
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A clay cylinder of height 42 cm is converted into a cone of the same radius as that of
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the cylinder. If the volume of the cylinder is 52,800 cm3, then the radius (in cm) of the
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cone is:

(Use π = )

Ans 1. 20

2. 24

3. 18

4. 22

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Q.29
Ans
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1.

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2.

3.
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4.

Q.30 A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do it in 18 days. With the assistance of C,
they completed the work in 4 days. C alone can do it in ______________days.
Ans 1. 11

2. 8

3. 10
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4. 9
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Q.31
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A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3120 after 3
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s e years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in

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2 years?
1. 480 a
a 2. 240

3. 1920

4. 960

Q.32 Asmita bought a saree for ₹4,800 and sold it for ₹4,200 after 1 year. Find her loss
percentage.
Ans 1. 12.5%

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2. 11%

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3. 11.85%

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4. 10.25%

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Q.33 The value of

Ans 1. -10

2. -7

3. 1

4. -4

Q.34 Simplify the expression:
Ans 1. 0.196

2. 1.96

3. 19.60

4. 0.0196

Q.35 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 4:6:8. They invested their capitals for
8 months, 4 months and 5 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 7:3:5

2. 4:3:5

3. 2:3:5

4. 5:3:5

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘–‘
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷′ are interchanged?
225 × 9 ÷ 10 − 39 + 45 = ?
Ans 1. 244

2. 231

3. 236

4. 229

Q.37 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KR-OM

2. BI-FE

3. EL-IG

4. HO-LJ

Q.38 Neha starts from Point Y and drive 8 km towards north. Then she takes right turn and
drives 9 km and then again she takes right turn and drives 18 km. Then she turns left
and drives 7 km. Then she turns left and drives 2 km and at last she turns left and
drives 16 km and stops at point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again?
Ans 1. 7 km towards north

2. 8 km towards north

3. 7 km towards south

4. 8 km towards south

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 63

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Q.39 MNPL is related to RSUQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, JKMI is related to OPRN. To which of the following is QRTP related,

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3. VWYU

4. WVUY

Q.40 In a certain code language, ‘knowledge is a boon’ is written as ‘if mi nn ku’ and ‘God
gives boon’ is coded as ‘mi in im’. How is ‘boon’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mi

2. if

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3. nn

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4. im

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Q.41
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Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
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below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
l
IFX : LCS
DNG : GKB ag
Ans 1. UIR : XMM

2. KKK : NNG

3. VHP : YJK

4. BFO : ECJ

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Q.42 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.43 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.

GJEZ EHCX CFAV ADYT ?
Ans 1. YRIN

2. YBRI

3. YBRW

4. YBWR

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 63

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Q.44 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All pots are tears.
Some tears are bottles.
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All bottles are cloves.
Conclusions:
(I): All cloves are tears.
(II): Some cloves are pots.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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Q.45 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
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(Left) Ω 9 2 # 1 8 $ 7 3 6 * £ + 5 4 @ % & (Right)
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How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately
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Ans 1. 3 ag
preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by another symbol?

2. 5

3. 2

4. 4

Q.46 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line facing south. D is
sitting to the immediate left of G and immediate right of E. A is sitting to the immediate

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left of E and immediate right of B. C is sitting to the immediate left of F. Who is sitting to

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the immediate left of B?

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Ans 1. E

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2. G

3. D

4. F
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Q.47 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 4 4 5 1 4 6 2 1 9 3 3 7 9 3 7 3 4 6 5 7 7 9 6 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Three
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2. Two

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3. One

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the same way, TGNV is related to QDKS. To which of the given options is FIXL related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. TJKS

2. QDEA

3. TDKS

4. CFUI

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Q.49 In a certain code language, ‘DINE’ is coded as ‘1290’ and ‘BIDE’ is coded as ‘9025’. What
is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 1

3. 5

4. 0

Q.50 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

TWO QTL NQI KNF ?
Ans 1. HLB

2. HLC

3. HKC

4. HKB

Q.51 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 359 725 422 627 435 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9, and third digit = 7)
(Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 13

2. 11

3. 15

4. 10

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 11 18 23 42 47 ?
Ans 1. 98

2. 95

3. 89

4. 90

Q.53 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. JIF

2. TSP

3. POL

4. KJH

Q.54 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘–‘ and ‘+‘
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷′ are interchanged?
270 × 30 ÷ 9 − 76 + 60 = ?
Ans 1. 102

2. 97

3. 106

4. 99

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 63

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Q.55 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

. co BVM EYP HBS KEV ?
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se Ans 1. NHB

2. NYH ag l
3. NBH

4. NHY

Q.56 In a certain code language,
'A : B' means ‘A is the wife of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A < B' means ‘A is the father of B’ and
'A + B' means ‘A is the mother of B’.
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How is C related to G if 'C < D × E + F : G’?
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Ans 1. Wife's mother's sister

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2. Wife's father's daughter
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3. Wife's daughter's son
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4. Wife's mother's father

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Q.57 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at OG as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.58 Vijay starts from Point Y and drives 29 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 68 km, turns right and drives 55 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 27 km.
He takes a right turn, drives 84 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 44 km towards south

2. 46 km towards east

3. 37 km towards east

4. 41 km towards west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 63

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Q.59 If ‘A’ stands for ‘−’, ‘B’ stands for ‘+’, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’, what will
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come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 120 A 90 B 10 C 100 D 20 = ?

s e m
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se 2. 88
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3. 80

4. 85

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
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All towels are boats.
No peanuts are boats.
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All chairs are towels.

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Conclusions:

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(I) Some boats are chairs.

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(II) No towels are peanuts.
Ans
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1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.61 In a row of people all facing North, Fardeen is 4th from the left end. Paras is 6th from the
left end. Paras is exactly between Fardeen and Kapil. If Kapil is 5th from the right end of
the row, how many people are there in the row?
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Ans 1. 10

2. 12
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3. 11
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4. 13
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Q.62 In a certain code language, ‘MINT’ is coded as ‘4286’ and ‘NEAR’ is coded as ‘3879’.
What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 8

4. 3

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Q.63
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Seven students, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only W
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sits to the right of R. Only three people sit to the left of S. Only three people sit between

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R and Y. Q sits at some place to the left of T but at some place to the right of X. How
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s e many people sit to the left of X?

g l a
g l a Ans 1. Three
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a 2. One

3. Two

4. None

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Q.64 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the
numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following number-pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
21, 105
19, 95
Ans 1. 13, 95

2. 24, 65

3. 14, 70

4. 31, 90

Q.65 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All almonds are crows.
Some peanuts are razors.
All razors are crows.
Conclusions:
(I): All peanuts are crows.
(II): Some almonds are razors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.66 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below G. Only one box is kept above B. Only one
box is kept between B and D. A is kept immediately above C. E is kept at some place
below F. Which box is kept at the top?
Ans 1. B

2. F

3. D

4. A

Q.67 In a certain code language,
A @ B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A & B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is S related to T if ‘S + D # R & Y @ T’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Daughter

3. Mother

4. Wife

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

1155, 1034, 985, 960, 951, ?
Ans 1. 947

2. 942

3. 950

4. 951

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 63

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Q.69 Seven friends, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
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of the table. X sits third to the left of Q. R sits third to the left of T. Only four people sit

. co between X and S when counted from the right of X. W is an immediate neighbour of
both S and Q. How many people sit between Y and W when counted from the left of Y?
s e m
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se Ans 1. Three

2. Four ag l
3. One

4. Two

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9 20 42 86 ? 350
Ans 1. 174

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2. 175
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3. 173

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4. 172

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Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following best describes globalisation?
Ans 1. Increasing international interdependence and trade

2. Isolating economies from global markets

3. Reducing international trade

4. Limiting cultural exchange

Q.72 Which group criticised the moderates for their 'mendicancy'?
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Ans 1. Constitutionalists

2. Extremists
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3. Socialists
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4. British government
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Q.73 The principles of social justice incorporated in the Directive Principles are influenced
by which philosophy?
Ans 1. Communism

2. Anarchism

3. Gandhism

4. Capitalism
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Q.74 Which company signed an MoU with NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL) to expand
UPI's impact internationally, in January 2024?
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Ans
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l as
l as 2. Google India Digital Services (P) Limited
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4. PayPal India

Q.75 What is the local name used for the primitive form of cultivation (slash and burn
agriculture) in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh?
Ans 1. Valre

2. Dahiya

3. Bringa
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4. Podu

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Q.76 What is the main function of leukocytes in the human body?
Ans 1. Initiating the immune response

2. Carrying oxygen to tissues

3. Forming blood clots to stop bleeding

4. Transporting nutrients to cells

Q.77 During a special campaign conducted from 2-31 October 2024, with a focus on
minimising pendency and promoting Swachhata, how much revenue did Public Sector
Banks (PSBs) and financial institutions in India realise through scrap disposal?
Ans 1. ₹4.5 crore

2. ₹3.5 crore

3. ₹2 crore

4. ₹4 crore

Q.78 What was the main goal of the Second Five-Year Plan?
Ans 1. Achieving self-sufficiency in agriculture

2. Rapid industrialisation

3. Improving rural infrastructure

4. Increasing exports

Q.79 Which organization promotes rural development and self-employment in India?
Ans 1. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

2. World Trade Organization (WTO)

3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

4. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Q.80 What is the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as per the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 250

2. 225

3. 200

4. 238

Q.81 Which of the following islands is known for having the only active volcano in India?
Ans 1. Madagaskar

2. Maldives Islands

3. Malta

4. Barren Island

Q.82 The process of converting sugar into alcohol by adding yeast is known as:
Ans 1. Respiration

2. Photosynthesis

3. Transpiration

4. Fermentation

Q.83 In June 2024, Mohan Charan Majhi was appointed as chief minister of Odisha. Which
party does he belong to?
Ans 1. Biju Janta Dal

2. Congress (I)

3. Aam Admi Party

4. Bhartiya Janta Party

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 63

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Q.84 Which of the following are the grounds for the removal of a judge of a High Court or the
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Supreme Court?

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Ans 1. Proved incapacity and lack of qualifications
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2. Proved misbehaviour and administrative errors

3. Proved misbehaviour and criminal conviction
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4. Proved misbehaviour and incapacity

Q.85 The Union Budget 2024-25 reduced long-term capital gains (LTCG) tax from 20% to
_____ but removed the indexa on benefit available earlier.
Ans 1. 12.5%

2. 14.5%

3. 16.5%
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4. 10.5%

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Q.86
e m
Recombinant proteins, often seen in the news, are _____.
l as
Ans
as
1. proteins synthesised in animal models
l ag
ag
2. natural proteins found in bacteria

3. proteins synthesised in mutated cell lines

4. proteins synthesised by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology

Q.87 The velocity of an object at time t1 is v1, and at time t2, it becomes v2. The average
acceleration of the object in that time-interval is:
Ans 1. v2 /(t2 − t1)

2. (v2 − v1) /(t2 − t1)
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3. (v2 − v1) /t2

4. v2 /t2
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Q.88
g
Who among the following became the first person to hoist the Indian flag on foreign soil

a
during the International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, Germany, in 1907?
Ans 1. Kalpana Datta

2. S Muthulakshmi Reddy

3. Matangini Hazra

4. Madam Bhikaiji Cama

Q.89 Which of the following events marked the formal end of the Mughal Empire after the
First War of Independence?
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Ans 1. The fall of Delhi

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2. The exile of Bahadur Shah Zafar to Rangoon (now Yangon)

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3. The signing of the Treaty of Lahore

g l a
g l a 4. The British annexation of Bengal
a
a Q.90 Indian classical ragas, by the number of notes, can be divided into _____ main
categories or Jatis.
Ans 1. four

2. five

3. three

4. seven

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 63

Q.91 Which country is hosting the twenty-ninth Conference of the Parties (COP29) to the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in November 2024?
Ans 1. Azerbaijan

2. India

3. Russia

4. Georgia

Q.92 In which year did India introduce economic reforms, leading to globalisation?
Ans 1. 1991

2. 1985

3. 2010

4. 2001

Q.93 In May 2024, India participated in the 7th edition of Joint Military Exercise 'Shakti' with
which country?
Ans 1. France

2. Chile

3. Italy

4. Japan

Q.94 Arrange the following Mauryan Emperors in chronological order.
I. Bindusara
II. Brihadratha
III. Samprati
IV. Ashoka
Ans 1. I - II - III - IV

2. I - IV - III - II

3. IV - I - III - II

4. II - IV - III - I

Q.95 In August 2024, India's drug regulator approved Siemens Healthineers to manufacture
testing kits for mpox. What does the 'm' in mpox stand for?
Ans 1. Mini

2. Multi

3. Micro

4. Monkey

Q.96 Which of the following tribes is primarily found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
Ans 1. Irular

2. Siddi

3. Kadar

4. Shompen

Q.97 The region known as the Doab is located between:
Ans 1. a river and a mountain range

2. a river and the sea

3. two mountain ranges

4. two rivers

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 63

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Q.98 The Great Bath is one of the special features of which of the following sites of the Indus
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Valley Civilisation?

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Ans 1. Mohenjodaro
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2. Dholavira

3. Rakhigarhi
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4. Chanhudaro

Q.99 What was the role of the public sector in India’s industrial development from 1947 to
1991?
Ans 1. To promote private investment

2. To support small-scale industries

3. To focus on export-oriented industries
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4. To dominate key industries and infrastructure
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Q.100 In June 2024, the Government launched ‘MSME TEAM’, which aims to facilitate _____
s em
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micro and small enterprises for Open Network for Digital Commerce.
l a
Ans 1. 10 lakh
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2. 2 lakh

3. 5 lakh

4. 3 lakh

Q.101 The HIV virus impacts the human immune system. What does the abbreviation HIV
stand for?
Ans 1. Human Immune Virus

2. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
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3. Human Infection Virus

4. Human Inflammatory Virus
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las
according to the Economic Survey 2024?
ag
Q.102 Which sector has been highlighted as a significant contributor to job creation in India,

Ans 1. Private sector

2. Foreign investments

3. Government sector

4. Agricultural sector

Q.103 The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act added the Right to Education in the
Constitution, under which Article?
m
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Ans 1. Article 22

m .co 2. Article 21 A

s e m
s e 3. Article 20

g l a
g l a 4. Article 19
a
a Q.104 To whom among the following is the invention of the Sitar commonly credited?
Ans 1. Raza Khan

2. Ustad Yusuf Ali Khan

3. Maseet Khan

4. Amir Khusrau

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 63

Q.105 In which of the following states is the Marleshwar Yatra held annually on the occasion
of Makar Sankranti?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Jharkhand

3. Haryana

4. Maharashtra

Q.106 Which of the following Acts transferred the power from the British East India Company
to the British Crown in India?
Ans 1. Pitt's India Act

2. Government of India Act, 1935

3. Government of India Act, 1858

4. Indian Councils Act, 1909

Q.107 Which of the following is NOT a part of the definition of a town as per the Census of
India?
Ans 1. More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector

2. Presence of municipality, corporation, etc

3. Population size of more than 5,000 persons

4. Population density of 400 persons per km2

Q.108 In which of the following cities was International WASH (Water, Sanitation, and Hygiene)
Conference held from 17 to 19 September 2024?
Ans 1. Singapore

2. London

3. New Delhi

4. New York

Q.109 Which type of RNA transports genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the
ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where it directs protein synthesis?
Ans 1. rRNA

2. snRNA

3. tRNA

4. mRNA

Q.110 Who among the following is NOT a recipient of the prestigious Bharat Ratna award of
the year 2024?
Ans 1. MS Swaminathan

2. MS Subbulakshmi

3. Karpoori Thakur

4. Charan Singh

Q.111 Which of the following was NOT a provision of the November 1857 Royal Proclamation?
Ans 1. No further extension of territories in India

2. Doctrine of Lapse was abolished

3. Separate electorate was introduced for Muslims

4. Non-interference in the religious affairs of Indians

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 63

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Q.112 Which of the following is NOT a correct classification of the Directive Principles of State
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Policy?

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Ans 1. The economic and social principles
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2. Principles for the International Peace and Security

3. The Gandhian Principles
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4. The Nehru Principles

Q.113 Which of the following dynasties does NOT belong to the Sangam Period?
Ans 1. Chera

2. Pandya

3. Gupta

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4. Chola

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Q.114 By which of the following Amendment Acts was Article 21(A) inserted in the Indian
Constitution?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. 44th Amendment Act

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2. 42nd Amendment Act

3. 86th Amendment Act

4. 73rd Amendment Act

Q.115 In which of the following months does an easterly jet stream flow over the southern part
of the Peninsula, reaching a maximum speed of approximately 90 km per hour?
Ans 1. February

2. June

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3. April

4. December

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Q.116 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution explicitly prohibits the State

Ans
from making any law that violates Fundamental Rights?
1. Article 32 ag
2. Article 13

3. Article 30

4. Article 42

Q.117 The actor Arun Govil, known for playing Lord Ram in the popular Doordarshan series
'Ramayan', won from which Lok Sabha seat in the 2024 General Elections?
Ans 1. Mathura
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2. Muzaffarnagar
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m .co 3. Meerut
s e m
s e 4. Mandi
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g l a a
a Q.118 Lake ‘Chilika’ lies at (the) _______.
Ans 1. Kanniyakumari

2. Mahanadi delta

3. estuary of Narmada

4. Sundarbans Delta

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 63

Q.119 Which ministry and National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to facilitate capital market access for MSMEs on
29 July 2024?
Ans 1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

2. Ministry of Defence

3. Ministry of Home Affairs

4. Ministry of Finance

Q.120 Social or Collective Ownership, Central Planning Authority and Social Welfare are the
features of which type of economy?
Ans 1. Socialism

2. Communism

3. Imperialism

4. Capitalism

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 63

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Exam Date 05/03/2025
a
Centre Name TCS Gito Bitan
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 Vijay can do a piece of work in 4 hours. Ajay can do it in 28 hours. With the assistance
l
ag
of Amit, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Amit alone do it?
Ans 1. 23

2. 20

3. 21

4. 22

Q.2 A person can complete a journey in 9 hours. He covers the first one-third part of the
journey at the rate of 35 km/h and the remaining distance at the rate of 28 km/h. What is
the total distance (in km) of his journey?

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Ans 1. 268

m
2. 275

3. 270
s e
4. 277
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a
Q.3 If 18 , 36 , 14 , and y are in proportion, then the value of y is:
Ans 1. 36

2. 19

3. 28

4. 34

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Q.4
The value of is:
m
Ans
m.co 1. 2023
s e m
s e 2. 2025
g l a
g l a 3. 2024 a
a 4. 4047

Q.5 Find the value of K for which the five-digit number 68K52 is divisible by 13.
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 8

4. 3

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 63

Q.6 A shopkeeper marks up an item by 25% above its cost price. If the cost price of the item
is ₹500, what is the marked price (in ₹)?
Ans 1. 655

2. 625

3. 650

4. 512.5

Q.7 Prakash and Vinesh can complete a certain piece of work in 10 and 8 days, respectively,
They started to work together, and after 3 days, Vinesh left. In how many days will
Prakash complete the remaining work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 In a class the average marks obtained in a science test by a group
of 12 students is 70, by another group of 15 students is 85 and
that by another group of 18 students is 90. Find the average
marks of all the students.
Ans 1. 84.5

2. 82.5

3. 83

4. 86

Q.9 A bus travelling at 80 km/h completes a journey in 14 hours. At what speed will it have
to cover the same distance in 20 hours?
Ans 1. 53 km/h

2. 51 km/h

3. 56 km/h

4. 48 km/h

Q.10 The length of one side of a regular hexagon is 4 cm. The area (in cm2) of the hexagon is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 After a 20% hike, the cost of a dining cloth is ₹1,740. What was the original price of the
cloth?
Ans 1. ₹1,410

2. ₹1,450

3. ₹1,500

4. ₹1,530

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 63

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Q.12 Evaluate: 2 × {17 - 3 × (9 -5)}
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Ans 1. 14

. e m
m 2. 9
as
se 3. 10
ag l
4. 7

Q.13 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹2400 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 400

2. 200

3. 1600
m
4. 800
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Q.14
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Find the compound interest on an amount of ₹24,000 after three years, when
s em
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compounded annually at the rate of 15% per annum.
l a
Ans 1. ₹12,905
l a ag
2. ₹12,501
ag
3. ₹11,901

4. ₹11,250

Q.15 A bank gives 12% per annum interest on an account. If the interest is compounded half-
yearly, then _______ of the principal would have been earned more in a year as interest
on the account.
Ans 1. 0.36%

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2. 3.6%

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3. 0.18%

4. 1.8%
s e
g la
Q.16 Evaluate:
a

Ans 1. 9

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2. 11

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.co m
3. 12

m s e
s e
4. 8

g l a
g l a Q.17 a
a Find the value of

Ans 1. 105

2. 101

3. 113

4. 111

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 63

Q.18 An amount of ₹351 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 4 : 11 : 3. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 240

2. 124

3. 156

4. 228

Q.19 Two inlet pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 30 minutes and 36 minutes, respectively.
Initially, only A is opened for 10 minutes. After 10 minutes, A is closed and B is opened.
In how much time (in minutes) will the inlet pipe B fill the remaining part of the cistern?
Ans 1. 22

2. 26

3. 24

4. 20

Q.20 Four chimes ring simultaneously at 5:30 a.m. After that, they ring at the intervals of 15
seconds, 20 seconds, 25 seconds and 30 seconds, respectively. How many times will
these chimes ring together till 8:15 a.m., including at 5:30 a.m.?
Ans 1. 32

2. 34

3. 31

4. 33

Q.21 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 300 m in 50 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 150 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 12

2. 3

3. 11

4. 8

Q.22 The sum of 8 numbers is 864. Find their average.
Ans 1. 106

2. 108

3. 107

4. 109

Q.23 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
number is 134. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 211

2. 184.5

3. 212

4. 183.5

Q.24 The difference between a number increased by 17% and the same number decreased by
18% is 28. Find the number.
Ans 1. 0.8

2. 476

3. 80

4. 4.76

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 63

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Q.25 The average weight of 7 persons increases by 3 kg when a new person comes in place
m
of one of them weighing 56 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?

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Ans 1. 66 kg
s e m
m a
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2. 77 kg

3. 59 kg
ag
4. 71 kg

Q.26 A 280 m long train overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/h (in same direction) in
42 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely cross
another 500 m long train, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of 43 km/h?
Ans 1. 52

2. 34

m
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3. 39

m
.co m
4. 38

m s e
Q.27
s e
A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3500. The number is:
l a
Ans 1. 7500
l a ag
2. 1250
ag
3. 5000

4. 2500

Q.28 The radius of the base of a solid cone is 21 cm and its height is 9 cm. What is the
volume of the cone?
Ans 1. 1980 cm3

2. 5940 cm3
m
3. 4158 cm3

m .co
4. 1386 cm3
s e
Q.29
g la
What is the difference in the amounts between two schemes of discount, the first one
a
being a discount of 20%, and the second one, 2 successive discounts of 15% and 5%,
both given on shopping of ₹5,050?
Ans 1. ₹975.75

2. ₹1,010

3. ₹37.875

4. ₹97.225

Q.30
m
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m.co s e m
a
Ans 1. -5

s e g l
g l a 2. 1
a
a 3. 0

4. 0.6

Q.31 A person bought a watch for ₹800 and sold it for ₹600. What is the loss percentage?
Ans 1. 30%

2. 25%

3. 10%

m .
4. 20%

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 63

Q.32 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 46% and its height is
increased by 270%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 8%

2. 28%

3. 22%

4. 19%

Q.33 A person sold 20 dining tables for ₹5,39,000; thereby gaining the cost price of five
dining tables. Find the cost price of each dining table.
Ans 1. ₹26,950

2. ₹25,000

3. ₹21,560

4. ₹27,855

Q.34 The average of first 110 even numbers is
Ans 1. 111.5

2. 112

3. 110.5

4. 111

Q.35 What is the greatest number which, when it divides 2987, 3755 and 4331, leaves a
remainder of 11 in each case?
Ans 1. 92

2. 94

3. 90

4. 96

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 MIKL is related to RNPQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PLNO is related to UQST. To which of the following is TPRS related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. UYXW

2. YUWX

3. UYWX

4. YUXW

Q.37 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 574 941 523 971 563 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the second highest number is added to the
third digit of the second lowest number?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 9

4. 7

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 63

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Q.38 Suresh starts from Point Z and drives 8 km towards west. Then, he takes a right turn,
m
drives 4 km, again takes a right turn and drives 12 km. Then, he turns left and drives 5

. co km. Then, he turns left again and drives 6 km; again he takes a left turn and drives 15
km. Then, again he takes a left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point N. How far (shortest
s e m
m a
se l
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Z again?
Ans 1. 9 km towards North
ag
2. 6 km towards North

3. 6 km towards South

4. 10 km towards North

Q.39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
m
Statements:
m .co
.co m
Some mobiles are tablets.
Some tablets are laptops.
m s e
e
All laptops are cameras.

s l a
Conclusions:
l a ag
ag
(I) Some cameras are tablets.
(II) All laptops are mobiles.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.40 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

m
.co
8 14 24 47 74 114 ?
Ans 1. 145

e m
2. 158

las
3. 185

4. 154 ag
Q.41 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged and ‘+‘and ‘×’ are interchanged?

Ans 1. 14

2. 22
m
.co
3. 17
m
.co m
4. 7

m s e
s e
Q.42 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?
g l a
g l a 35, 8, 43, 47, 11, 58, 59, 14, ? a
a Ans 1. 73

2. 71

3. 70

4. 17

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 63

Q.43 Hari starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 9 km, turns left and drives 8 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 10 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the east

2. 3 km to the west

3. 4 km to the west

4. 1 km to the east

Q.44 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ? B means ‘A is the father of B’
A ~ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
A × B means ‘ A is the wife of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to S if 'L ? I × M + E ~ S’?
Ans 1. Son's wife's father

2. Son's wife's sister

3. Son's sister's mother

4. Son's mother's mother

Q.45 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘−’ and ‘+’
are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?

Ans 1. 98

2. 13

3. 12

4. 26

Q.46 Six people M, A, T, E, R, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. S sits
to the immediate left of T. Only M sits between S and A. R sits to the immediate right of
T. Who sits second to the left of E?
Ans 1. S

2. A

3. E

4. T

Q.47 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. G sits third to
the left of C. A sits second to the left of G. F sits to the immediate right of E. D sits to the
immediate right of A.
How many people sit between B and C when counted from the left of C?
Ans 1. Two

2. Five

3. Three

4. Four

Q.48 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

JWD : KXD
FVQ : GWQ
Ans 1. TCS : UDT

2. DMN : FON

3. HLO : IMO

4. GXT : HWT

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 63

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Q.49 In a certain code language,
m
A + B means 'A is the mother of B'

. co A − B means 'A is the father of B'
A X B means 'A is the sister of B'
s e m
m a
se l
A / B means 'A is the brother of B'
A > B means 'A is the husband of B'
A * B means 'A is the wife of B'
ag
How is M related to O if M / J − O X T + L?
Ans 1. Father's father

2. Father's brother

3. Son

4. Father

m
.co
Q.50 Which of the following letter number-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the

m
given series to make it logically complete?

JO37 KP44 LQ51 MR58 ?
m.co s em
Ans 1. NS65
s e l a
2. NS64
l a ag
3. NR65 ag
4. NR64

Q.51 FBT is related to IEW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, HUP is related to KXS. To which of the following is ISD related, following the
same logic?
Ans 1. LVG

2. MUG

m
.co
3. MUH

4. LVH
e m
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g
Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘CRIME’ is coded as ‘15432’ and ‘CROME’ is coded as

Ans 1. 9
a
‘13942’. What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?

2. 5

3. 4

4. 3

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 63

Q.53

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.54 In a certain code language, ‘WISE’ is coded as ‘4268’ and ‘SOUP’ is coded as ‘3879’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 3

4. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 63

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Q.55 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All rocks are pens.
ag l
Some flowers are rocks.
All trees are flowers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some trees are rocks.
(II) Some pens are flowers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m .co
.co
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

em
Q.56
e m l as
l as ag
ag

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Ans

e m
1.
las
ag

2.

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a 3.

4.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 63

Q.57 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

RAB 20, TCD 22, VEF 24, XGH 26, ?
Ans 1. YIJ 28

2. YIJ 26

3. ZIJ 28

4. ZJI 26

Q.58 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of the week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Q answers the exam immediately
before T. T answers the exam immediately before P. P answers an exam on Wednesday.
R does not answer the exam on Saturday or Sunday. U answers the exam on Friday. S
answers the exam immediately after U. Who answers the exam on Sunday?
Ans 1. U

2. V

3. T

4. Q

Q.59 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. S sits third to the left of Q. C sits second to the right of R. Only Q sits
between E and R. P is not an immediate neighbour of S. Who sits second to the right of
D?
Ans 1. C

2. Q

3. P

4. R

Q.60 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

FMD −2 HOH −4 JQL −8 LSP −16 ?
Ans 1. NUS −34

2. NUT −32

3. NVS −34

4. MUS −32

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

250 210 175 145 120 ?
Ans 1. 80

2. 100

3. 110

4. 90

Q.62 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LAP

2. APE

3. SWH

4. CRG

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 63

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Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. co that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MLK
ag
2. SRQ

3. EDB

4. XWV

Q.64 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
m
.co
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3

m
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

.co m
19 - 4 - 23
59 - 7 - 66
m s e
Ans 1. 13 - 8 - 23
s e l a
l a
2. 15 - 12 - 17
ag
ag
3. 32 - 9 - 51

4. 17 - 24 - 41

Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘who was it’ is coded as ‘pb tk jk’ and ‘was he present’ is
coded as ‘jo mt pb’. How is ‘was’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. pb

2. mt

3. tk
m
4. jo

m .co
s e
la
Q.66 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

Ans
54 + 6 × 2 ÷ 6 – 5 = 19
1. + and ÷
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2. ÷ and −

3. + and −

4. + and ×

Q.67 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 271 415 612 872 547 (Right) m
m .co
.co m
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

m (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
s e
s e If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) ofgl a
g l a how many numbers will remain unchanged? a
a Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 0

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 63

Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All mints are papers.
All papers are stones.
All stones are cutters.

Conclusions:
(I) : All mints are cutters.
(II) : Some cutters are papers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.69 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 135 746 328 245 679 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit
be exactly divisible by the second digit?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Two

4. Three

Q.70 All 41 people are standing in a row facing North. Nimita is 11th from the left end while
Shivani is 19th from the right end. How many people are there between Nimita and
Shivani?
Ans 1. 10

2. 13

3. 12

4. 11

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of these religious literature was NOT written by Goswami Tulsidas?
Ans 1. Vinay Patrika

2. Ramcharitmanas

3. Surasaravali

4. Hanuman Bahuk

Q.72 What is the tenure of the 'Vijay Fixed Deposits' scheme introduced by RBL Bank in
2024?
Ans 1. 365 days

2. 500 days

3. 1 year

4. 1000 days

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 63

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Q.73 Who took charge as the new Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
m
(NCW) on 22nd October 2024, after being appointed earlier?

. co
Ans 1. Vijaya K Rahatkar
s e m
m a
se 2. Mamta Sharma

3. Pratibha Patil ag l
4. Rekha Sharma

Q.74 What does globalisation primarily involve?
Ans 1. Restricting foreign goods

2. Isolation of countries from global trade

3. Integration of the world economy through trade, technology and investment

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4. Decreasing communication between nations

m
Q.75
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The Ganga Plain extends between the _______ and Teesta rivers.

m s em
Ans 1. Mahi
s e l a
2. Son
l a ag
3. Ghaggar
ag
4. Narmada

Q.76 What is the main benefit of the name look-up facility, introduced by the Reserve Bank of
India for RTGS and NEFT systems?
Ans 1. Free transactions for all users

2. Introduction of new banking apps

3. Verification of the beneficiary's name to reduce errors and fraud
m
.co
4. Faster transaction processing

e m
Q.77
s
Who among the following waged a war against the East India Company in 1857 from the
Ludhiana district in Punjab?
la
Ans 1. Lakshmi Bai
ag
2. Nana Saheb

3. Maulana Shah Abdul Qadir

4. Khan Bahadur Khan

Q.78 The British victory in the Revolt of 1857 led to:
Ans 1. the formation of Indian states under British sovereignty

2. reorganisation of Indian territories and administration
m
m
3. full independence for India
.co
m.co 4. end of British rule in India
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.79 The 7th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, 1956, primarily dealt with the
reorganisation of states based on what criteria? a
a Ans 1. Cultural basis

2. Geographical basis

3. Economic basis

4. Linguistic basis

Q.80 UPI-based digital RuPay Credit Card was first introduced by ________.
Ans 1. IDBI Bank

m .
.co m
2. Punjab National Bank

m s e
3. Bank of Baroda

s e l a
a ag
4. IDFC First Bank

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 63

Q.81 If y = 10x/z and x has the unit of cm, the unit of z will be _____. x, y and z indicate length.
Ans 1. cm2

2. cm−2
3. cm

4. cm−1

Q.82 Which are the three main sector classifications of the Indian economy?
Ans 1. Primary, Secondary, Tertiary

2. Farming, Manufacturing, Trade

3. Agriculture, Finance, Technology

4. Agriculture, Industry, Services

Q.83 In the early Vedic period, the varna system was based on ____________.
Ans 1. religion

2. occupation

3. knowledge

4. birth

Q.84 Adiabatic compression of an ideal gas results in ____________.
Ans 1. decrease in heat flow

2. no work done

3. increase in temperature

4. fall in temperature

Q.85 Pulicat Lake, a brackish water lagoon, is situated between which two states?
Ans 1. Odisha and West Bengal

2. Gujarat and Maharashtra

3. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

4. Kerala and Karnataka

Q.86 As of 30 October 2024, who is the Governor of RBI?
Ans 1. Shaktikanta Das

2. Dr. IG Patel

3. Urjit Patel

4. Dr. Bimal Jalan

Q.87 The economy of the Harappan Civilisation was primarily based on:
Ans 1. nomadic herding

2. metalworking and shipbuilding

3. agriculture and trade

4. fishing and hunting

Q.88 In India, 'Rabi' crops are sown from:
Ans 1. January to March

2. July to September

3. October to December

4. April to June

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 63

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Q.89 M-Prabandh, launched by C-DAC Hyderabad in February 2024, helps organisations
m
reduce the risk of:

. co
Ans 1. adverse climate
s e m
m a
se l
2. price volatility in the market

3. data breaches and theft
ag
4. network congestion

Q.90 For how many days is the Goa Carnival organised, where elaborate and brilliantly
coloured floats, music and dancing form part of the Carnival extravaganza in Goa?
Ans 1. Four

2. Six

3. Three
m
4. Five
m .co
Q.91
m .co
Who among the following propagated the motto 'Back to the Vedas' because he
s em
s e
believed that the Vedas contained the knowledge imparted to men by God?
l a
Ans
l a
1. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
ag
ag
2. E Ramaswamy Naiker Periyar

3. Swami Vivekananda

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.92 What was the Supreme Court's ruling regarding the Lieutenant Governor's (LGs)
powers in Delhi, as per the judgement given by the three-judge bench led by Chief
Justice DY Chandrachud, in August 2024?
Ans 1. The LG must always act on the advice of the Delhi government.

m
.co
2. The Delhi government has the final say in all LG appointments.

m
3. The LG has the authority to nominate members to the MCD independently.

s e
4. The LG's powers are limited to financial matters only.

g la
Q.93
a
According to Economic Survey of India 2023-24, which is the largest cotton producing
state of India?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Assam

3. Gujarat

4. Odisha

Q.94 Which Five-Year Plan emphasised the development of heavy industries and the
m
.co
secondary sector?

m
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Ans 1. Second Five-Year Plan

e m
e m
2. Third Five-Year Plan

l as
l as 3. First Five-Year Plan
ag
ag 4. Fourth Five-Year Plan

Q.95 Which of the following islands lies in Lakshadweep?
Ans 1. Purbasha

2. Pitti Island

3. Rameswaram

4. New Moore

m .
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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 63

Q.96 When did Pratibha Patil assume the office of President of India and become the first
woman to hold this post?
Ans 1. 2004

2. 2007

3. 2001

4. 2009

Q.97 When did Mahatma Gandhi leave for England to participate in the Second Round Table
Conference?
Ans 1. 1929

2. 1928

3. 1931

4. 1930

Q.98 Which of the following countries celebrated the ninth anniversary of Constitution
Declaration in September 2024?
Ans 1. Finland

2. Nepal

3. Bhutan

4. Poland

Q.99 In 1947, who was the only female Cabinet Minister in the Government led by Prime
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru?
Ans 1. Harsimrat Kaur Badal

2. Bimal Kaur Khalsa

3. Rajinder Kaur Bhattal

4. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Q.100 The 95th Amendment Act of 2009 extended the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assemblies for which categories of citizens?
Ans 1. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SC/ST)

2. Other Backward Classes (OBC)

3. Minorities

4. Women

Q.101 Many gums are used in the food industry as thickening agents or emulsion stabilisers,
it mainly contain _______.
Ans 1. polysaccharides

2. sugars

3. fats

4. polypeptides

Q.102 Which city is known as the 'Silicon Valley of India'?
Ans 1. Pune

2. Hyderabad

3. Chennai

4. Bengaluru

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 63

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Q.103 Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the allocation of seats in the
m
Rajya Sabha to states and union territories?

. co
Ans 1. Eighth Schedule
s e m
m a
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2. Seventh Schedule

3. Sixth Schedule
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4. Fourth Schedule

Q.104 According to the World Intellectual Property Indicators (WIPI) 2024 report, what is
India's rank globally in terms of patents with 64,480 applications?
Ans 1. Second

2. Sixth

3. Fourth
m
4. Ninth
m .co
m .co
Q.105 Who among the following thinkers introduced the Human Development Index for the
s em
first time in 1990?
s e l a
Ans
l a
1. Daniel Disilva
ag
ag
2. Mahabub-Ul-Haq

3. Mohammad Yunus Khan

4. Ariel Sharon

Q.106 The brightest and largest fringe in the centre of an interference pattern is known as:
Ans 1. coherence

2. constructive interference

m
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3. central maximum

4. destructive interference

e m
las
Q.107 In May 2024, Tejas Shirse clocked 13.41 seconds to break the national record in which

Ans 1. Men’s 110 m hurdles ag
event at the Motonet GP – a World Athletics Continental Tour – in Jyvaskyla, Finland?

2. Men's 5000 m

3. Men’s 3000 m steeplechase

4. Men’s 4×100 m relay

Q.108 Which of these festivals is considered the most sacred Buddhist festival,
commemorating the birth, enlightenment and Mahaparinirvana (passing away) of
Buddha Shakyamuni?
m
.co
Ans 1. Tamladu
m
.co m
2. Saga Dawa

m s e
s e 3. Ojiyale

g l a
g l a 4. Sangken
a
a Q.109 What was a major outcome of the Green Revolution in India?
Ans 1. Urbanisation of rural areas

2. Decrease in agricultural employment

3. Increase in food security

4. Rise in export of traditional crops

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 63

Q.110 Which of the following states has the lowest legislative assembly strength of 32
members?
Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Goa

4. Sikkim

Q.111 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: Rain-bearing systems originating in the Bay of Bengal cause rainfall over
the plains of North India.
Statement II: Arabian Sea rain-bearing systems bring rain to the west coast of India.
Ans 1. Both statement I and statement II are correct.

2. Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.

3. Statement II is correct, while statement I is incorrect.

4. Neither statement I nor statement II is correct.

Q.112 In February 2024, the INDUS-X Summit was held in New Delhi, marking a significant
milestone in the collaborative efforts in defence innovation between _____.
Ans 1. India and Germany

2. India and the United States

3. Brazil, India, Russia and China

4. India and Russia

Q.113 India's first helicopter ambulance service, Project _________, was launched on 29
October 2024.
Ans 1. Sanjeevani

2. Amritvahini

3. Navbharatrani

4. Bharatvani

Q.114 Hooke's law establishes the relationship between which two physical quantities in
elastic materials?
Ans 1. Pressure and volume

2. Force and velocity

3. Stress and strain

4. Temperature and resistance

Q.115 When was the third Civil Society Forum of the EU-UK Trade and Cooperation Agreement
held?
Ans 1. August 2024

2. November 2024

3. October 2024

4. September 2024

Q.116 Which organisation provided financial support to India during the 1991 economic
crisis?
Ans 1. United Nations

2. World Trade Organization

3. International Monetary Fund

4. Asian Development Bank

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 63

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Q.117 Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?
m
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Ans 1. Union Public Service Commission

. e m
m 2. National Green Tribunal
as
se 3. Election Commission of India
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4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Q.118 According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT the function of the
Union Public Service Commission?
Ans 1. To advise on claims of legal proceedings instituted against a government servant

2. To advise on disciplinary matters affecting government servants

3. To advise on the suitability of candidates for appointment, promotion and transfer

m
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4. To advise on selection for the posts of high diplomatic nature

m
.co
Q.119 Which of the following statements is true regarding the lending rates of scheduled

m
commercial banks (SCBs) in September 2024, in India?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. The weighted average lending rate decreased for fresh loans and remained unchanged for outstanding loans.

l a
ag
2. The weighted average lending rate decreased for outstanding loans and remained unchanged for fresh loans.

3. The weighted average lending rate remained unchanged for both fresh and outstanding loans.

4. The weighted average lending rate increased for both fresh and outstanding loans.

Q.120 Who among the following headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas under Constituent Assembly?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. JB Kripalani

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3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

4. Dr B R Ambedkar

e m
las
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 63

Exam Date 05/03/2025
Centre Name ION Digital Zone IDZ KIOT-Campus
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹78 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹36 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹86.8 per kg, there is a profit of 24%?
Ans 1. 32 : 9

2. 34 : 8

3. 32 : 10

4. 36 : 10

Q.2 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3360 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
1 year?
Ans 1. 560

2. 140

3. 1120

4. 280

Q.3 If 25% of a number is added to 78, then the result is the same number. 75% of the same
number is:
Ans 1. 108

2. 48

3. 98

4. 78

Q.4
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Evaluate: 1850 - [450 - {210 - (100 - 60 - 7)}]
Ans 1. 1507

2. 1437

3. 1652

4. 1577

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 63

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Q.6
m
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Ans

. 1.
e m
m as
se 2.
ag l
3.

4.

Q.7 A merchant sells 60 metre of cloth and gains selling price of 15 metre. Find the gain per
cent (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Ans 1. 33.7%
m
m .co
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2. 36.7%

em
3. 37.3%

e m l as
4. 33.3%

l as ag
Q.8
ag
In covering a distance of 56 km, Anirudh takes 5 hours more than Burhan. If Anirudh
doubles his speed, then he would take 2 hour less than Burhan. Anirudh's speed is:
Ans 1. 4 km/h

2. 14 km/h

3. 3 km/h

4. 8 km/h

Q.9 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (16 - 4 ÷ 3 × 3)}]
m
.co
Ans 1. 19

2. 14
e m
3. 16
las
4. 21
ag
Q.10 The area of the curved surface of a cone is 195π cm2. If the slant height of the cone is
12 cm, find the radius of the base.
Ans 1. 15.5 cm

2. 17 cm

3. 14 cm

4. 16.25 cm
m
m .co
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Q.11 The value of

e m
e m l as
l asAns 1. 14.61

ag
ag 2. 10.13

3. 10.1

4. 12.98

Q.12 A car travels 281 km in the first hour and 163 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 215

2. 222

3. 229
m .
4. 223
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 63

Q.13 The average of first 117 even numbers is
Ans 1. 117.5

2. 118.5

3. 118

4. 119

Q.14 Kanchan bought 52 books for Rs 1130 from one shop and 47 books for Rs 905 from
another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
Ans 1. 1033.18

2. 1038.18

3. 1013.18

4. 1023.18

Q.15 Find the greatest four-digit number which is exactly divisible by 39.
Ans 1. 9945

2. 9906

3. 9867

4. 9984

Q.16
The value of the expression is
_____.
Ans 1. 60

2. 68

3. 64

4. 62

Q.17 How many litres of milk with 24% concentration are to be mixed with 18 litres with 72%
concentration to get a mixture with 36% concentration?
Ans 1. 56

2. 54

3. 52

4. 48

Q.18 5 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days while 2 women can do it in 20 days. In
how many days can 4 women and 2 men complete it?
Ans 1. 4 days

2. 8 days

3. 13 days

4. 5 days

Q.19 If 81 : y :: y : 196, find the positive value of y.
Ans 1. 132

2. 134

3. 126

4. 128

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 63

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Q.20 On the marked price of an item, two successive discounts of 10% each are offered and
m
a profit of 10% is earned. The marked price of the item is approximately _____ times its

. co cost price.

s e m
m Ans 1. 1.34
a
se 2. 1.38
ag l
3. 1.36

4. 1.32

Q.21 If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 20% and its height is
increased by 134%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its
volume?
Ans 1. 50%

2. 63%
m
3. 52%
m .co
4. 22%

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.22 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 66. If the marks of each student
l
ag
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 66

2. 14

3. 132

4. 28

Q.23 The ages of Deeksha and Amit are in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. After 4 years the ratio
of their ages will be 4 : 3. What is the difference in their present ages?

m
Ans 1. 8

2. 17

m .co
3. 15
s e
4. 14
g la
Q.24
a
At 20% per annum rate, an amount is doubled in approximately in ______ years at
compound interest.
Ans 1. 5

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

m
.co
Q.25 On what sum (in ₹) will the compound interest at 2% p.a. for 2 years compounded

m
annually be ₹9,696?
Ans

m.co 1. 2,20,000

s e m
s e 2. 2,70,000

g l a
g l a 3. 2,50,000
a
a 4. 2,40,000

Q.26 The base of a parallelogram is increased by 8% and height is increased by 4%. Find the
net increase percentage in its area.
Ans 1. 12.22%

2. 12.48%

3. 12.05%

4. 12.32%
m .
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 63

Q.27 Find the LCM of 12, 40, 50 and 78.
Ans 1. 7800

2. 9200

3. 15600

4. 3900

Q.28 A bike goes 8 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 34.3

2. 28.8

3. 29.7

4. 31.2

Q.29 The product of two numbers is 5292 and their H.C.F. is 21. The number of such pairs is:
Ans 1. 1

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.30 The list price of a smart fan is ₹5,600 and it is available to a retailer at 25% discount. For
how much should a retailer sell it to gain 15%?
Ans 1. ₹4,890

2. ₹4,850

3. ₹4,830

4. ₹4,875

Q.31 The marked price of a smart watch is ₹4,000 and during a year end sale the seller allows
a discount of 75% on it. Find the selling price (in ₹) of the smart watch.
Ans 1. 1,200

2. 1,000

3. 1,750

4. 1,500

Q.32
The value of up to the seventh term is _____.

Ans 1. 138888.25

2. 138888.75

3. 1388888.75

4. 13888888.75

Q.33 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds
of 90 km/h and 51 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The
length of each train is:
Ans 1. 207 meters

2. 199 meters

3. 195 meters

4. 186 meters

Q.34 If 40% of k is 10 less than 1800% of 10, then k is:
Ans 1. 425

2. 405

3. 385

4. 465
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 63

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Q.35 A pipe can fill a tank in 9 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 12 hours. If
m
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will

. co be two-third filled, is:

s e m
m Ans 1. 24
a
se 2. 96
ag l
3. 48

4. 72

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
(Left) 9 7 * 8 6 4 = 3 1 4 @ 5 8 # 2 9 % 3 6 8 7 & 1 3 + 4 5 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
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number and also immediately followed by an even number?
m
.co m
Ans 1. Three

m s e
2. One

s e l a
3. None
l a ag
4. Two
ag
Q.37 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to
the right of E. C sits second to the left of B. F is the immediate neighbour of D and G. A
sits second to the left of D.
How many people sit between G and C when counted from the left of G?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three
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4. One

e m
Q.38
s
DMQH is related to BOSF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

la
the same way, WARU is related to UCTS. To which of the following is FTYB related,

Ans
following the same logic?
1. CWBA ag
2. DVAZ

3. BVXY

4. BUCX

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

m
4 9 20 43 90 ?

.co
Ans 1. 185
m
c. o 190
2.

s e m
e m 158
3.
l a
l as 4. 175
ag
ag Q.40 In a certain code language, ‘YAXV’ is coded as ‘@%93’ and ‘ABXY’ is coded as
‘9@%5’.What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. %

2. 5

3. 9

4. @

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 63

Q.41 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. DTI

2. AQG

3. HXN

4. SIY

Q.42 Each of D, E, F, H, I, J and K has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. K has the exam on Thursday. H has
the exam on one of the days after D and on one of the days before E. F has the exam on
one of the days after J but on one of the days before I. J has the exam on one of the
days after K. How many people have the exam between F and H?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.43 In a certain code language, 'finish the water' is coded as 'mb tk zb' and 'water or juice' is
coded as 'kj zb mb'. How is 'water' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. zb

2. tk

3. mb

4. kj

Q.44 In three of the following four number pairs, the numbers are related in the same way
and thus form a group. Which number pair DOES NOT belong to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 5 : 30

2. 10 : 110

3. 8 : 70

4. 3 : 12

Q.45 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

JNR -1, LPO -2, NRL -4, ?, RVF -16
Ans 1. IJT -6

2. PTI -8

3. QRT -9

4. TOR -7

Q.46 In a certain code language,
A = B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A ~ B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

Based on the above, how is S related to H if ‘S = M + I ~ T - H’?
Ans 1. Mother's sister's mother

2. Mother's father's sister

3. Mother's mother's son

4. Mother's mother's brother

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 50 of 63

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Q.47 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co TYH RVG PSF ? LMD
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. MGN

2. NPE ag l
3. NQF

4. MQE

Q.48 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

EON HMO KKP NIQ ?
Ans 1. QFR
m
2. PGT
m .co
3. QGR
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
4. PGS

l a
Q.49
ag
Each of D, E, F, H, I, J and K has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. K has the exam on Thursday and E
has the exam on Saturday. H has the exam immediately before I. F has the exam on one
of the days after J. D has the exam immediately after I. How many people have the exam
between F and D?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Four

4. Three
m
Q.50
m .co
If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number

e
7873262, what will be the sum of the digits that are third and fourth from the left in the
s
la
new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 18 ag
3. 10

4. 16

Q.51 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
62478324, then what will be the difference between the highest and the lowest digits in
the number thus formed?
Ans 1. 8
m
m .co
2. 6

m.co 3. 2
s e m
s e 4. 4

g l a
g l a a
a Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards the west. He then takes a right
Q.52
turn, drives 2 km, turns right and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 3 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach
Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km towards the east

2. 1 km towards the south

3. 2 km towards the west

4. 1 km towards the north
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 63

Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some peanuts are engines.
All coats are shoes.
All shoes are engines.

Conclusions:
(I) All coats are engines.
(II) Some peanuts are coats.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.54 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 318 136 253 713 572 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is added to the second
digit of the highest number?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

Q.55 7A is related to 6B in a certain way. In the same way, 5C is related to 4D. To which of the
following is 3E related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. 1E

2. 2F

3. 3F

4. 4F

Q.56 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 458 652 748 351 591 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is multiplied with the
third digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 9

4. 5

Q.57 Mridul starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 15 km, turns left and drives 20 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 22 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 6 km to the south

2. 7 km to the south

3. 8 km to the north

4. 5 km to the south

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 63

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Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 6 4 5 11 39 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 189
a
se 2. 188
ag l
3. 187

4. 186

Q.59 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
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Some belts are socks.
Some socks are pants.
m
Conclusions:
m.co s em
e
(I) All pants are belts.

s l a
ag
(II) Some socks are belts.

l a
ag
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.60 Each letter in the word SEATING is changed to the letter immediately following it in the
English alphabetical order and then all the letters thus formed are arranged in the
English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be third from the left in the
letter-cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. H
m
2. J
m .co
3. O
s e
4. F
g la
Q.61
a
Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All cakes are breads.
All cakes are pastries.

Conclusions:
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(I) Some breads are pastries.

m
(II) All pastries are cakes.
Ans

m.co 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

s e m
s e 2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

g l a
g l a 3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
a
a 4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.62 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second right
to A. E is immediate left neighbour of A. C sits second right to E.
What is the position of D with respect to B?
Ans 1. Immediate neighbour

2. Third from the left

3. Second from the left

m .
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4. Second from the right

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 53 of 63

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. EGB

2. PMJ

3. JLG

4. SUP

Q.64 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

121 32 −57 −146 −235 ?
Ans 1. −289

2. −324

3. −334

4. −342

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 63

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Q.66 ADFJ is related to CFHL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
m
same way, EBKM is related to GDMO. To which of the given options is HLPX related,

. co following the same logic?

s e m
m Ans 1. GKOW
a
se 2. XPHL
ag l
3. KOSA

4. JNRZ

Q.67 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
25 A 5 B 1 C 4 D 2 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7
m
3. 10
m .co
4. 3

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.68 In a certain code language,
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A $ B means ‘A is the son of B’
A : B means ‘A is the father of B’
A + B means ‘ A is the wife of B’
A < B means ‘A is the sister of B’
Based on the above, how is T related to N if 'T < R $ U + E : N’?
Ans 1. Father

2. Sister

3. Brother

4. Mother

m
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Q.69 In a certain code language, ‘WILD’ is coded as ‘3721’ and ‘LIDS’ is coded as ‘1873’. What

m
is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
s e
2. 1
g la
3. 8 a
4. 7

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 63

Q.70 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
and logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 In which year did the British East India Company lose all its administrative powers in
India?
Ans 1. 1877

2. 1858

3. 1847

4. 1873

Q.72 Which of the following statements best describes India’s foreign trade during the
colonial period?
Ans 1. India imported raw materials and exported finished goods.

2. India’s foreign trade greatly benefited the economy and eliminated shortages of essential goods.

3. India primarily traded with European nations other than Britain.

4. India’s trade was largely controlled by Britain, with limited trade with other nations like Sri Lanka, China and Iran.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 56 of 63

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Q.73 ICICI Bank’s net interest margin (NIM) in Q3 2024 was ___________.
m
co
Ans 1. 4.35%

. e m
m 2. 4.43%
as
se 3. 4.53%
ag l
4. 4.65%

Q.74 In June 2024, who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh for the fourth
time?
Ans 1. N Kiran Kumar Reddy

2. Chandrababu Naidu

3. DK Shivkumar

m
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4. YS Jagan Mohan Reddy

m
Q.75
.co
Which of the following south Indian states won the prestigious Gulbenkian Prize in 2024

m
for their Natural farming model?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Karnataka

l a
ag
2. Tamil Nadu

3. Kerala

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.76 Under which Article of the Constitution can the President of India direct that the
provisions related to the Public Service Commissions be extended to any Union
Territory?
Ans 1. Article 335

2. Article 323
m
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3. Article 315

4. Article 321
e m
las
Q.77
g
Which region of British India did most of the soldiers who participated in the revolt of
1857 come from?
a
Ans 1. Awadh

2. Jhansi

3. Bareilly

4. Kanpur

Q.78 Which type of cultivation mainly involves the use of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds,
chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides to obtain higher productivity?
m
.co
Ans 1. Commercial Farming
m
.co m
2. Intensive Subsistence Farming

m s e
s e 3. Primitive Subsistence Farming

g l a
g l a 4. Dryland Farming
a
a Q.79 The Oersted unit is used to measure which of the following?
Ans 1. Electric field strength

2. Electric potential

3. Magnetic field strength

4. Current intensity

Q.80 The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution states which of the following?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Forms of oaths or affirmations

2. Official languages
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 57 of 63

Q.81 According to the Economic Survey 2024, the Indian economy is described as being on a
'strong wicket'. What does this imply?
Ans 1. Increasing dependence on foreign investment

2. High inflation rates

3. Resilience and stability despite challenges

4. Growth has slowed significantly

Q.82 Which of the following age durations is considered as Early Adulthood stage of human
life?
Ans 1. Starts around 25 years until around 45 years

2. Starts around 18 years until 25 years

3. Starts at 6 years and continues till the onset of puberty

4. Begins with the onset of puberty until 18 years

Q.83 In October 2024, the Uttar Pradesh government launched a scholarship scheme for
students studying which language across the state?
Ans 1. Urdu

2. Pali

3. Hindi

4. Sanskrit

Q.84 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the status of the
Council of Ministers?
Ans 1. Article 72

2. Article 74

3. Article 78

4. Article 76

Q.85 Which of the following states has the Sundarbans mangrove forest?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. West Bengal

3. Odisha

4. Gujarat

Q.86 The Drain Theory, highlighting economic exploitation by the British, was popularised
by:
Ans 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

2. Dadabhai Naoroji

3. Lala Lajpat Rai

4. Mahatma Gandhi

Q.87 Who among the following was felicitated with the Best Male award at the FIDE 100
Awards ceremony in Hungary in September 2024?
Ans 1. Hikaru Nakamura

2. Fabiano Caruana

3. Magnus Carlsen

4. Gukesh Dommaraju

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 63

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Q.88 With which organizations did Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) and
m
Women's World Banking (WWB) sign an MoU to extend the Prayaas scheme to SHG

. co individual women in April 2024?

s e m
m Ans
a
1. Jeevika, Bihar State Rural Livelihoods Mission and UMED, Maharashtra State Rural Livelihoods Mission

se ag l
2. Suvidha, Gujarat State Rural Livelihoods Mission and Ministry of Rural Development, Government of Gujarat

3. Ministry of Women and Child Development and Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India

4. Advait, Kerala State Rural Livelihoods Mission and RUDSET, Karnataka State Rural Livelihoods Mission

Q.89 In which state is the Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project located?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Tamil Nadu
m
4. Maharashtra
m .co
Q.90
m .co
What is the name given to the Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS) GNU/Linux
s em
s e
version 10.0, which was released in March 2024?
l a
Ans 1. Urja
l a ag
2. Unnati
ag
3. Pragya

4. Drishti

Q.91 In the Indus Valley Civilisation, Great Bath was found at which place?
Ans 1. Surkotada

2. Ganweriwala

m
.co
3. Daimabad

4. Mohenjo-Daro

e m
Q.92
las
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is the scientific name of which of the following?
Ans 1. A type of virus
ag
2. A species of amoeba

3. A type of bacteria

4. A species of yeast

Q.93 One of the primary goals of the New Economic Policy of 1991 was to control which of
the following?
Ans 1. Environmental issues

m
.co
2. Inflation
m
.co m
3. Regional imbalances

m s e
s e
4. Population growth

g l a
g l a Q.94 What is the relationship between poverty and unemployment? a
a Ans 1. Unemployment leads to wealth redistribution.

2. Unemployment often leads to higher poverty levels due to lack of income.

3. Poverty reduces unemployment.

4. Poverty and unemployment are unrelated.

Q.95 The revolt of 1857 was seen as a turning point because it:
Ans 1. led to the fall of the British Empire

m .
.co
2. was entirely peaceful

e m
e m
3. marked the first large-scale organised resistance against the British rule in India

l as
as
4. led to immediate independence for India

l ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 63