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FOR GOA CLASS 12 PREPARATION
Goa Board Class 12
Sample Paper 2027
Biology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
Goa Class 12 2027 Sample Paper Biology
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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CLASS---- XII ( SYLLABUS)
SUBJECT----- BIOLOGY
SUBJECT CODE----- 4704
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THEORY
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UNIT VI
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g l a REPRODUCTION ( 16 marks)
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Chapter-2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants (6 marks)
Flower- A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms, Pre-Fertilization: structure and Events, Double
Fertilization, Post- Fertilization : structure and Events, Apomixis and Polyembryony.
Chapter-3: Human Reproduction (6 Marks)
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cycle, Fertilization and Implantation, Pregnancy m
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The Male reproductive system, The female reproductive system, Gametogenesis, Menstrual
and. Embryonic development, Parturition and
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Lactation.
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Chapter-4: Reproductive Health (4 Marks)
Reproductive Health- Problems and Strategies, Population explosion and Birth control, Medical
termination of Pregnancy ( MTP), Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs), Infertility.
Unit-VII
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s em Chapter-5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation ( 6 marks) gla
g la Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance, Inheritance of One Gene, Inheritanceaof Two Genes, Polygenic
a Inheritance, Pleiotropy , Sex Determination, Mutation, Genetic Disorders.
Chapter-6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance ( 7 marks)
The DNA, The Search for Genetic Material, RNA World, Replication, Transcription, Genetic
Code, Translation, Regulation of Gene Expression, Human Genome Project, DNA
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Fingerprinting.
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Chapter-7: Evolution ( 5 Marks)
What are the Evidences for Evolution?, What is Adaptive radiation?, Biological Evolution,
Mechanism of Evolution, Hardy- Weinberg Principle, Origin and Evolution of Man.
Unit-VIII
BIOLOGY IN HUMAN WELFARE ( 12 marks)
Chapter-8: Human Health and Diseases ( 8 marks)
Common Diseases in Humans, Immunity, AIDS, Cancer, Drugs and Alcohol Abuse.
Chapter-10: Microbes in Human Welfare (4 marks)
Microbes in Household Products, Microbes in Industrial Products, Microbes in Sewage
Treatment, Microbes in Production of Biogas, Microbes as Biocontrol Agents, Microbes as
biofertilizers.
Unit-IX
BIOTECHNOLOGY (11 marks)
Chapter-11: Biotechnology - Principles and Processes ( 7 marks)
Principles of biotechnology, Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology, Processes of Recombinant
DNA Technology.
Chapter-12: Biotechnology and its Applications ( 4 marks)
Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture, Biotechnological Applications in Medicine,
Transgenic Animals, Ethical Issues.
Unit-X
ECOLOGY ( 13 marks)
Chapter-13: Organisms and Populations (5 marks)
Organism and its Environment, Populations.
Chapter-14: Ecosystem ( 4 marks)
Ecosystem – Structure and Function, Productivity, Decomposition, Energy Flow, Ecological
Pyramids, Ecological Succession, Nutrient Cycling, Ecosystem services.
Chapter-15: Biodiversity and its Conservation ( 4 marks)
Biodiversity, Biodiversity conservation.
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Note:
1. Refer to the latest edition of NCERT Biology text book.
2. There is no deletion of any subtopic under the main topics mentioned in each chapter.
Mrs. Sujata Nagarajan Nayak
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(Convenor)
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Syllabus of Biology Practical – Class XII (2026-2027)
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List of Experiments :
a g Section A – Physiology Experiment ( 6 marks)
1. To determine the pH and water holding capacity of garden or paddy field soil.
2. To detect presence of phosphate, nitrate and sulphate salts in paddy field soil.
3. To study B.O.D. of the given sample of pond water.
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4. To study the effect of different temperature .on the action of salivary amylase on starch.
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5. To study the effect of different a
pHglona the action of salivary amylase on starch.
Section B – Preparation of temporary stained slide ( 4 marks)
1. Onion root tip for mitosis
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c. o 2. Onion/Rheo anther for meiosis. m.co
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Section C – Identification/Spotting ( 6 marks)
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1. Adaptations in insect pollinated flower (Ocimum/Leucas/Salvia)
2. Adaptations in wind pollinated flower (Maize/Grass)
3. Study of T.S. of Testis (Any vertebrate)
4. Study of T.S. of Ovary (Any vertebrate)
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5. Study of V.S. of Blastula (Any vertebrate)
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6. Prepared pedigree chart of inability to roll the tongue.
7. Prepared pedigree chart of Widow’s peak.
8. Identification of organisms and symptoms of disease caused.
● Ascaris lumbricoides.
● Entamoeba histolytica.
● Plasmodium vivax.
9. Adaptation of plant to dry condition (Suitable specimen to be given)
10. Adaptation of plant to aquatic condition (Suitable specimen to be given)
11. Adaptation of animal to dry condition (Suitable specimen/chart/model to be given)
12. Adaptation of animal to aquatic condition (Suitable specimen to be given)
13. Identification of Homologous organs in plants. (eg. Thorn of bougainvillea and tendrils of
Cucurbita)
14. Identification of Homologous organs in animals.( eg. Fore limbs of frog and Flipper of
turtle/ Wings of bird).
15. Identification of Analogous organs in plants. ( eg . Tuber of potato and sweet potato).
16. Identification of Analogous organs in animals. (eg. Wings of bird and butterfly).
Mrs. Sujata Nagarajan Nayak.
( Convenor )
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY
ALTO – BETIM 403521
TERMWISE PORTION IN BIOLOGY
ASSESSMENT SCHEME FOR THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2026-27.
STD: XII
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PORTION FOR FINAL EXAM
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Sr No.
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g REPRODUCTION
a Chapter 2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants
16
6
Chapter 3: Human Reproduction 6
Chapter 4: Reproductive Health 4
2. GENETICS AND EVOLUTION 18
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Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variations 6
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Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance 7
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Chapter 7 : Evolution 5
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3. BIOLOGY IN HUMAN WELFARE 12
Chapter 8: Human Health and Diseases 8
Chapter 10: Microbes in Human Welfare 4
4. BIOTECHNOLOGY 11
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Chapter 11: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 7
m . c Chapter 12: Biotechnology and its Applications
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a Chapter 13: Organisms and populations 5
Chapter 14 : Ecosystem 4
Chapter 15: Biodiversity and Conservation 4
TOTAL 70
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO – BETIM 403521
DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER FOR FINAL EXAM (2026-2027)
CLASS: XII
TIME: 3 Hours SUBJECT: BIOLOGY Max. Marks: 70
The weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the question paper shall
be as follows:
1. Weightage to learning outcomes:
Sr Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
No. Marks
1. Knowledge 28 40 %
2. Understanding 21 30 %
3. Application 14 20 %
4. Skill 07 10%
TOTAL 70 100%
2, Weightage to Content / Subject units
Sr No. Unit Marks
1. Reproduction 16
2. Genetics and Evolution 18
3. Biology in Human Welfare 12
4. Biotechnology and its applications 11
5. Ecology 13
TOTAL 70
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3. Weightage to forms of questions:
Sr Form of Questions Marks for No. of Total
No. each Questions Marks
Questions
1. Long Answer types 05 03 15
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(LA)
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2. Short Answer Type (SA 03 06 18
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a – II)
4. Very Short Answer 01 13 13
Type (VSA/ MCQ) (08MCQ+5VSA)
TOTAL 34 70
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4. Expected Time for different types of question would be as follows
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Sr No. Forms of Questions No. of Approx. Time
for each Questions for each form of
Question in mins (n) Questions in
(t) mins (n x t)
1. Long Answer types 14 min 03 03 x 14 min =42
(LA)
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2. Short Answer Type 07min 06 06 x 07 min = 42
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(SA – I)
m s em12 x 5 min = 60
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3. Short Answer Type 05 min 12
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Type (VSA)
TOTAL 34 170min
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As the total time calculated on the basis of number of questions required to be
answered and the length of their anticipated answers, it would therefore, be advisable
for the candidates to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words
and be within the expected time limits.
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5. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions
Sr Estimated Difficulty Level of Marks Percentage
No Questions
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1. Easy 21 30 %
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2.
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35 50 %
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3. 14 20 %
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Total 70 100 %
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The question may vary in difficulty level from individual to individual. As such, the
assessment in respect of each question will be made by paper setter, on the basis of general
anticipation from the group as a whole , taking the examination. This provision is only to
make the paper balanced in weightage , rather than to determine the pattern of marking at
any stage.
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. duration.
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● The theory paper will be of 70 marks and 3 hours
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la Sections A,B,C and D
● The questions shall be from all the units.
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● The question paper shall have four(4)
⮚ Section A has 13 questions of 01 mark each.
⮚ Section B has 12 questions of 02 marks each.
⮚ Section C has 06 questions of 03 marks each.
⮚ Section D has 03 questions of 05 marks each.
● The total number of questions will be 34.
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c. o ● There is no overall choice, however an internal choice is provided insetwom questions of .co
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Section B , one question of Section C and two questions of Section
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( (Convenor)
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO – BETIM 403521
PORTION IN BIOLOGY ASSESSMENT SCHEME
FOR THE ACADEMIC YEAR 2026-2027
STD: XII
PORTION FOR FIRST MID TERM EXAMINATION
Sr No. Units Marks
1. Reproduction
Chapter 2 :Sexual Reproduction in Flowering 5
Plants
Chapter 3 : Human Reproduction 5
Chapter 4 :Reproductive Health 4
2. Genetics and Evolution
Chapter 5 : Principles of Inheritance and variation 6
TOTAL 20
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PORTION FOR FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
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Sr No. Units Marks
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1.
. c Reproduction
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Chapter 2 :Sexual Reproduction in Flowering 08
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Chapter 4 :Reproductive Health 06
2. Genetics and Evolution
Chapter 5 : Principles of Inheritance and variation 09
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Chapter 6 : Molecular Basis of Inheritance 09
Chapter 7 : Evolution . c 07
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InlHuman Welfare
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3.
Chapter 10 : Microbes in Human Welfare 06
4. Ecology
Chapter 14 : Ecosystem 07
TOTAL 60
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER
SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO – BETIM 403521
DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER
FIRST MID TERM EXAMINATION (2026-2027)
STD: XII
TIME: 1 hr SUBJECT: BIOLOGY MAX. MARKS: 20
The weightage of the distribution of marks over different dimensions of the question paper shall
be as follows:
1. Weightage to learning outcomes
Sr Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage of
No. Marks
1. Knowledge 07 35 %
2. Understanding 06 30 %
3. Application 05 25 %
4. Skill 02 10 %
TOTAL 20 100 %
2. Weightage to content/ subject units ( First Mid Term Examination)
Sr No. Units Marks
1. Reproduction
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5
Human Reproduction 5
Reproductive Health 4
2. Genetics and Evolution
Principles of Inheritance and variation 6
TOTAL 20
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3. Weightage to forms of questions:
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Sr Form of Questions Marks for each No. of Total
No. Questions Questions Marks
1. Long Answer types (LA) --- --- ---
Short Answer Type (SA – I) m
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2. 03 02 06
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Short Answer Type (SA – II)
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3.
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. Answer Type (VSA)
02 05 10
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e TOTAL
Very Short 01 04 04
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4. Expected Time for different types of question would be as follows :
Sr Forms of Questions Approx. No. of Approx.
No. Time for
m Questions
o (n)
Time for each
each
. c form of
e in m
sQuestion
la mins (t)
Questions in
g
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mins (n x t)
1. Long Answer types (LA) --- ---
2. Short Answer Type (SA – I) 10 min 02 2 x 10 min =
20
3. Short Answer Type (SA – II) 05 min 05 5 x 5 min = 25
4. Very Short Answer Type 02 min 04 4 x 2min = 8
(VSA)
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c. o TOTAL
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53 min
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l as As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions g
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ag and the length of their anticipated answers. It would, therefore be advisable for the candidates to
budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and be within the expected time
limits.
Scheme of options
(There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in 01 sub questions of 02
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marks category and 01 sub-questions of 03 marks category)
5. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions :
Sr No. Estimated Difficulty Level of Questions Percentage
1. Easy 30 %
2. Average 50 %
3. Difficulty 20 %
TOTAL 100 %
● Question paper will have three sections A, B, C.
● Section A will have 04 questions of 01 mark.
● Section B will have 05 questions of 02 marks.
● Section C will have 02 questions of 03 marks.
● Question shall be from all the chapters specified above.
● Total number of questions will be 11.
Mrs. Sujata Nagarajan Nayak.
( Convenor)
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARY AND HIGHER
SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO – BETIM 403521
DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION (2026-2027)
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STD: XII
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TIME: 2hrs 30 mins
.co SUBJECT: BIOLOGY
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MAX. MARKS: 60
The weightagesof l as
emthe distribution of marks over different dimensions of the question paper gshall
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be as follows:
1. Weightage to learning outcomes
Sr Learning Outcomes Marks Percentage
No. of
Marks
1. Knowledge
m 18
o 21
30%
2. Understanding
. c 35%
3. Application
e m 15 25 %
4. Skill
las 06 10 %
Total
ag 60 100 %
2. Weightage to forms of questions:
S Form of Questions Marks for No. of Total
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r each Questio Marks
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N Questions ns
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1 Long Answer types 05 02 10
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(LA)
a 2
.
Short Answer Type
(SA– I)
03 15
3 Short Answer Type 02 11 22
. (SA– II)
4 Very Short Answer 01 13 13
. Type (VSA)
TOTAL 31 60
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3. Expected Time for different types of questions should be as follows
Sr No. Forms of Approx. Time for No. of Approx. Time
Questions each Question in Questions for each form
mins (n) of Questions in
(t) mins (n x t)
1. Long Answer 14min 02 2 x14min= 28
types
(LA)
2. Short Answer 07 min 05 5 x 07min = 35
Type
(SA – I)
3. Short Answer 05 min 11 11 x 05min =
Type 55
(SA – II)
4. Very Short 02 min 13 13 x 02min = 26
Answer
Type (VSA)
TOTAL 31 144 mins
As the total time is calculated on the basis of the number of questions required to be
answered and the length of their anticipated answers. It would, therefore be advisable
for the candidates to budget their time properly by cutting out the superfluous words and
be within the expected time limits.
Scheme of options
(There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in 01 sub question
of 05 marks, 03 marks & 02 marks category)
4. Weightage to difficulty level of Questions
Sr No. Estimated Difficulty Level of Percenta
Questions ge
1. Easy 30 %
2. Average 50 %
3. Difficulty 20 %
Total 100%
Question paper will have three sections A, B, C, D.
a. Section A will have 13 questions of 01 mark. (7 MCQ questions)
b. Section B will have 11 questions of 02 marks. (1 internal choice)
c. Section C will have 05 questions of 03 marks. (1 internal choice)
d. Section D will have 02 questions of 05 marks. (1 internal choice)
e. Question shall be from all the chapters specified above.
f. Total number of questions will be 31.
Mrs. Sujata Nagarajan Nayak.
( Convenor)
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GOA BOARD OF SECONDARYgAND
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SECONDARY EDUCATION
ALTO – BETIM 403521
DESIGN OF THE QUESTION PAPER
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION (2026-27)
STD: XII
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TIME: 2hrs SUBJECT: BIOLOGY PRACTICAL MAX. MARKS: 20
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Q1. Physiology Experiment --------- 6mks
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Q.2 Temporary mounting--------------- 4mks
Q.3 Identification ------------------------ 6mks
Q.4 Journal / Viva ------------------------4mks
(Only those experiments may be included for the practical exam whichever are
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completed during the first term)
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Blue print of the Model question paper
Std: XII
Sub: Biology
2026-27
Unit Chapter/Co Mar Objectives To
ntent ks tal
Area
Knowledge Understanding Skill Application
40%(28 marks) 30%(21 marks) 10%(7marks) 20%(14 marks)
VS SA SA LA VS SA SA LA VS SA SA LA VS SA SA LA
A (2) (3) (5) A (2) (3) (5) A (2) (3) (5) A (2) (3) (5)
(1) (1) (1) (1)
Reprod 2.Sexual 06 2(1) 1(1) 2(1) 1(1) 06
uction Reproducti
on in
flowering
plants
3.Human 06 1(1) 2(1) 2(1) 1(1) 06
Reproducti
on
4.Reproduc 04 3(1) 1(1) 04
tive Health
Genetic 5.Principles 06 5(1) 1(1) 06
s and of
evolutio inheritance
n and
variations
6.Molecula 07 2(1) 2(1) 2(1) 1(1) 07
r basis of
Inheritance
7.Evolution 05 2(1) 3(1) 05
Biology 8.Human 09 1(2) 5(1) 2(1) 09
in health and
human diseases
welfare
10.Microbe 03 3(1) 03
s in human
welfare
Biotech 11.Biotechn 1(1) 5(1) 2(1) 08
nology ology: 08
and its Principles
applicat and
ions Processes
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12.Biotechn 03 3(1) 03
ology and
its
application
s
Ecology 13.Organis 05 2(1) 3(1) 05
ms and
population
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14.Ecosyste 04 1(2) 2(1) 04
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15.Biodiver a
04 1(1) 2(1) 1(1) 04
sity and
conservatio
n
Total 70 28 21 07 14 70
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NOTE:
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1) Figures within the bracket indicate number of questions and figures outside the
bracket indicate marks.
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2) Internal variation of +1/-1 marks per chapter is permissible provided total marks of
the unit are maintained.
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Biology Model Paper-2026-27
Std : XII Time : 3 Hours
Maximum marks : 70
INSTRUCTIONS
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Draw diagrams in lead pencil only.
(iii) The question paper consists of four (4) Sections A, B, C and D.
● Section A has 13 questions of 01 mark each.
● Section B has 12 questions of 02 marks each.
● Section C has 06 questions of 03 marks each.
● Section D has 03 questions of 05 marks each.
(iv) The total number of questions is 34.
(v) There is no overall choice, however an internal choice is provided in two
questions of Section B, one question of Section C and two questions of Section
D.
(vi) Multiple choice questions should be attempted only once, if attempted more
than once it will not be evaluated. Choose the correct option and rewrite on the
Section A ( 1 mark each )
1. Thermus aquaticus is used to isolate an enzyme used to make billion copies of a
gene. Identify the enzyme.
● DNAse
● DNA polymerase
● RNA ligase
● RNA polymerase
2. E. coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium
containing only lactose as the source of energy because —---
● They cannot absorb lactose
● They cannot produce functional beta galactosidase
● Lactose is not a good energy source
● Mutated E. coli die if lactose enters their cytoplasm.
3. In Indian culture, tracts of forest are set aside, and the trees and wildlife within are
venerated and given total protection. The term used for these tracts of forest is------
● National parks
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se ● Biosphere reserves g l a
● Sacred groves a
● Hot spots
4. A wolf feeding on a deer is a ------
● Primary consumer and herbivore
● Secondary consumer and primary carnivore
● Primary consumer and primary carnivore
● Secondary consumer and secondary carnivore
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5. An example of an ecological succession that leads from xeric to mesic condition
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is seen when -------
● Pioneer species are Phytoplankton’s.
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● A pond is newly created l a
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● Rocks start weathering to form soil ag
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● A forest fire destroys all the plants
6. A drawback for natural methods of contraception can be-------
● Hospitalization
● Hormonal imbalance
● Surgery
● Side effects
7. Pistillate flowers of maize are known to exhibit -------
● Autogamy and geitonogamy m
● Autogamy only
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● Xenogamy only
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● Geitonogamy and xenogamy
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8. Formation of corpus luteum occurs during-----------
● Ovulation
● Luteal phase
● Follicular phase
● Menstrual phase
9. Draw a neat diagram of L.S. of Apple.
10. Your classmate complains of cough and headache. The Doctor confirms that he
is suffering from common cold and not pneumonia on the basis of certain symptoms. m
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Deduce any 2 of these symptoms.
11. In case of a venomous snake bite, an injection is given to the patient. What does e m
e m the injection contain?
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las 12. Vedant and his friends rescued an injured Deer from a nearby forest and after ag
ag medical treatment handed it over to the forest officials for conserving it in a
Zoological park. Give the
term used for this approach of biodiversity conservation.
13. Name the type of sex determination pattern seen in the picture.
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Section B ( 2 marks each )
14. Draw a neat diagram of the structure of a typical anatropous ovule.
15. Describe in brief the adaptations seen in flowers pollinated by insects.
OR
Describe in brief the structure of microsporangium.
16. Differentiate between the process of Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis in humans.
( 2 points )
17. The small standing crop of phytoplankton’s feeds a large standing crop of
zooplanktons . Describe the shape of pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy
in this example giving reasons.
18. Define adaptive radiation give an example that Darwin studied on Galapagos
Island.
19. DNA is better genetic material than RNA. Justify the statement.
20. In order to resolve a paternity dispute, the High Court directed Pinto family to
undergo a DNA test. The VNTRs patterns of DNA samples of the parents and the
child were matched by Southern blot hybridization technique. List the major steps
involved in the process.
21. Draw a neat diagram of DNA double helix.
22. Invasion by alien species causes biodiversity loss. Explain with an example.
23. Which enzymes will have to be used to break open cells of the mango tree and
that of mushroom respectively by research students of Biotechnology Institute in
order to release their DNA?
24. Describe the role of Light as an abiotic factor in the environment.
OR
Describe the behavioral responses shown by desert lizard to cope with variations in
their
environment.
25. A cancer patient was advised to go for immunotherapy treatment. What is
administered in his body and how will it work?
Section C ( 3 marks each )
26. Draw a neat diagram of the structure of the Human sperm. Name and label the
part that secretes enzymes for fertilization.
27. Explain the different types of IUDs and their mode of action.
OR
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28. In a population of 1000 parakeets in a given areaathe number of individuals with
Explain the surgical methods of contraception.
long tail feathers ( Allele L is dominant) were 800 and those with short tail feathers
( allele l is recessive) were 200. What would be the frequencies of dominant allele L
and recessive allele l in this population? Also find out the number of heterozygous
dominant individuals using Hardy Weinberg equation. Show your calculations.
29. Gene therapy can be used as a cure for ADA deficiency. Explain.
30. What are ‘flocs’? State their role in effluent treatment and their ultimate fate in
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32. Discuss in detail Haemophilia and Sickle cell anaemia as Mendelian disorders.
OR
Discuss in detail Colour blindness and Thalassemia as Mendelian disorders.
33. What are Restriction enzymes? Describe in detail the role of restriction enzymes
as a tool in
recombinant DNA technology.
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OR
What are cloning vectors? Describe in detail the features that are required to facilitate
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34. Drug and alcohol abuse is common among some youngsters. Explain measures
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