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FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION
RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE
RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 07 Mar
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Exam Date 07/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ 1 Chinamushidiwada
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 A retailer buys an electronic item for ₹175. His overhead expenses are ₹25. He sells the
l
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electronic item for ₹320 and makes x%' profit. The value of x is:
Ans 1. 80
2. 40
3. 50
4. 60
Q.2 The price of a car was ₹7,50,000 last year. The price increased by 15% this year. What is
the price of the car this year?
Ans 1. ₹8,50,500
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2. ₹7,75,500
3. ₹9,02,500
e m
4. ₹8,62,500
las
Q.3 ag
Ali ordered an LED screen from an online portal. The online portal allows two
successive discounts of 12.5% and 25% on the marked price. If payment is made by
credit card, there is another discount of 10% on the bill. If Ali made a payment of
₹59,062.50 by credit card, then the marked price of the LED screen is:
Ans 1. ₹1,02,500
2. ₹90,650
3. ₹1,00,000
m
4. ₹1,20,075
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.co m
Q.4 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds
of 49 km/h and 31 km/h. The faster train passes the slower train in 42 seconds. The
m s e
s e
length of each train is:
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Ans 1. 124 meters
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2. 95 meters
3. 105 meters
4. 103 meters
Q.5 The sum of 8 numbers is 732. Find their average.
Ans 1. 91.5
2. 92.5
3. 90.5
m .
4. 89.5
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Q.6 Shifa can do a certain piece of work in 22 days. Shifa and Afiya can together do the
same work in 18 days, and Shifa, Afiya and Mariyam can do the same work together in 9
days. In how many days can Shifa and Mariyam do the same work?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.7 The least multiple of 11, which leaves a remainder of 8, when divided by 5, 3, 18 and 20
is:
Ans 1. 1088
2. 1628
3. 908
4. 548
Q.8 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Vijay
borrowed an amount of ₹400000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Vijay after 3 years.
Ans 1. 31500
2. 30000
3. 31000
4. 29500
Q.9 Train A leaves station M at 6:20 AM and reaches station N at 3:20 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:20 AM and reaches station M at 2:20 PM on the same day.
Find the time when Trains A and B meet.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.10 Find the value of 0.38 × 0.5 − 2.35 + 1.96 − 0.25 + 0.85.
Ans 1. 0.4
2. 1.4
3. 0.04
4. 1.04
Q.11 The monthly incomes of two friends Ajay and Amit, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively and
each of them saves ₹72000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 2 : 4,
find the monthly income of Ajay(in ₹).
Ans 1. 121000
2. 120000
3. 168000
4. 119000
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Q.12 Find the compound interest (in ₹) on ₹2,00,000 in 1.5 years at 4% per annum, the
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interest being compounded half-yearly.
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Ans 1. 12,441.60
s e m
m a
se l
2. 12,241.60
3. 12,221.60
ag
4. 12,421.60
Q.13 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
number is 124. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 189.5
2. 202
3. 188.5
m
4. 201
m .co
Q.14
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In what ratio should sugar costing ₹83 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹46 per kg so
s em
s e
that by selling the mixture at ₹80.3 per kg, there is a profit of 46%?
l a
Ans 1. 10 : 27
l a ag
2. 8 : 30
ag
3. 7 : 30
4. 9 : 28
Q.15 A bike goes 48 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 164.8
2. 172.8
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3. 167.6
4. 164.3
e m
Q.16
las
Ans 1. 11
ag
2. 9
3. 7
4. 8
Q.17 What is the amount, including the interest, if ₹45,000 is invested for 3 years at the rate
of 10% per annum compounded annually?
Ans 1. ₹59,895
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2. ₹59,900
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3. ₹59,885
m s e
s e
4. ₹59,890
g l a
g l a Q.18 If 6 girls and 8 boys can complete a project work in 10 days, whereas 26 girls and 48 a
a boys can do the same work in 2 days, then find the time taken by 10 girls and 30 boys to
do the same type of work.
Ans 1. 9 days
2. 10 days
3. 3 days
4. 4 days
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Q.19 Find the largest number which divides 436, 530, 624 and 718, leaving 13 as the
remainder in each case.
Ans 1. 19
2. 43
3. 47
4. 29
Q.20 If 30 , 50 , 96 , and y are in proportion, then the value of y is:
Ans 1. 150
2. 155
3. 158
4. 160
Q.21 What least value must be given to 'a' so that the number 3a4860115 is exactly divisible
by 9?
Ans 1. 8
2. 2
3. 5
4. 9
Q.22 A number when increased by 50 %, gives 2520. The number is:
Ans 1. 5040
2. 3360
3. 1680
4. 840
Q.23
Ans 1. 36 hrs
2. 38 hrs
3. 17 hrs
4. 18 hrs
Q.24 A cube has a surface area of 294 m2. What is the length (in cm) of the side of the cube?
Ans 1. 0.7 m
2. 700 cm
3. 0.7 cm
4. 700 m
Q.25 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 3 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radius are 15 cm and 18 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in kg) of the shell ?
( )
Ans 1. 30.888
2. 32.35
3. 32.42
4. 27.888
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Q.26
m
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Ans
.
1.
e m
m as
se
2.
g l
3.
4.
a
Q.27
Ans 1. 3
2. 1.8
m
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3. 0
m
.co m
4. 0.6
m s e
Q.28
s e l a
Find the value of
l a ag
Ans 1. 1568
ag
2. 1577
3. 1563
4. 1562
Q.29 Raju buys a mobile phone for ₹14,500 and sells it at a loss of 25%. What is the selling
price of the mobile phone?
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Ans 1. ₹13,250
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2. ₹12,500
3. ₹10,875
s e
4. ₹11,795
g la
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Q.30
Find the value of 40 -7 ÷ 40 19 × 40 4
Ans 1.
-33
40
2.
40 -29
3.
40 -30
m
m .co
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4.
40 -28
e m
e m l as
l asQ.31 Find the effective discount for the scheme: Buy 3, get 2 free.
ag
ag Ans 1. 60%
2. 40%
3. 30%
4. 20%
Q.32 The value of
Ans 1. 3.62
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.co m
2. 10.51
m s e
3. 12.33
s e l a
4. 16.6
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Q.33 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 312 m in 52 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 156 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 11
2. 5
3. 3
4. 1
Q.34 The average of first 101 even numbers is
Ans 1. 102
2. 103
3. 102.5
4. 101.5
Q.35 The average weight of a class of 82 students is 62.5 kg. If the average weight of half of
the students is 83.6 kg, then find the average weight (in kg) of the remaining students of
the class.
Ans 1. 52.9
2. 48.6
3. 41.4
4. 46.2
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
Q.36 Seven boxes R, E, S, U, L, T and Z are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. No box is kept above E. L is kept immediately below E. Only four boxes are
kept between L and Z. Only two boxes are kept between S and U. R is kept immediately
above T. U is not kept immediately above R. How many boxes are kept below R?
Ans 1. Zero
2. One
3. Three
4. Two
Q.37 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
9 13 21 33 49 ?
Ans 1. 71
2. 70
3. 69
4. 68
Q.38 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. EF
2. DB
3. AD
4. CA
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Q.39 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
. co that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. PFV
2. IXN ag l
3. ZPF
4. JZP
Q.40 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people sits to the left of R. Only three people sit between D and R. Only two people sit
between R and S. E sits third to the left of P. C sits to the immediate right of P. How
many people sit between Q and S?
Ans 1. None
m
2. Two
m .co
3. Three
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4. One
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Q.41
ag
What should come in place of '?' in the given series based on the English alphabetical
order?
NPI LNG JLE HJC ?
Ans 1. FGA
2. FHB
3. FHA
4. FGB
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Q.42 What will be the value of the following expression, if the ‘÷’ and the ‘+’ signs are
m
interchanged?
8−4×2÷7−1÷5−8+4×1
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la
Ans 1. 4
2. 12
ag
3. 9
4. 6
Q.43 In a certain code language, ‘DESK’ is coded as ‘9125’ and ‘SOKE’ is coded as ‘1352’.
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 1
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3. 5
m
m.co 4. 2
s e m
s e
Q.44 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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g l a given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All jaggery are fondants.
No jaggery is a sugar.
All sugars are candies.
Conclusions:
(I): No candy is a fondant.
(II): Some candies are jaggery.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
2. Only conclusion (II) follows.
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3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
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4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
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Q.45 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. QVA
2. GLQ
3. YDI
4. NTY
Q.46 Which signs and numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation
correct?
3 × 5 + 2 − 1 = 12
Ans 1. + and ×, 2 and 5
2. − and +, 5 and 2
3. × and −, 2 and 5
4. + and ×, 3 and 2
Q.47 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
18 27 22 32 30 42 42 ?
Ans 1. 48
2. 54
3. 52
4. 57
Q.48 If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
25 + 7 ÷ 3 − 12 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 27
2. 19
3. 15
4. 11
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Q.49 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
m
will logically complete the series.
. co s e m
m a
se ag l
Ans
1.
m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
2.
l a ag
ag
3.
m
m .co
s e
4.
g la
a
Q.50 In a certain code language, ‘WIDE’ is coded as ‘2783’ and ‘DIET’ is coded as ‘8742’. What
is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4
2. 8
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3. 7
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4. 2
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Q.51 mThis question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
l as
l as (Left) 265 876 219 457 356 (Right)
ag
ag (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is multiplied
with the third digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 47
2. 43
3. 45
4. 49
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Q.52 Seven people, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R, are sitting in a straight line facing north. P is
sitting to the immediate right of M and immediate left of L. Q is sitting to the immediate
right of O and immediate left of R. R is sitting at one of the ends of the line. N is sitting
to the immediate left of O. L is sitting to the immediate left of N. Who is sitting between
P and N?
Ans 1. L
2. Q
3. O
4. M
Q.53 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.
10 14 34 62 130 ?
Ans 1. 250
2. 259
3. 254
4. 252
Q.54 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) > < 3 * $ # 2 2 & \ 1 * 4 5 4 ^ * $ 7 \ 8 (Right)
How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. None
Q.55 Mr. F starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards the west. He then takes a left
turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9
km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A
again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km towards the north
2. 3 km towards the west
3. 3 km towards the south
4. 4 km towards the east
Q.56 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(13, 26, 20)
(18, 31, 25)
Ans 1. (21, 34, 28)
2. (37, 24, 18)
3. (14, 27, 33)
4. (15, 27, 21)
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Q.57 Each of A, B, C, D, E, F and G has an exam on a different day of the week starting from
m
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only two people have an exam before
. co F. A has an exam immediately after F. E is not the last person to have an exam. G has an
exam immediately before E which is on Friday. C is not the first person to have the
s e m
m a
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exam. D has an exam immediately before F. Only one person has an exam between A
Ans
and E. Who has an exam on Monday?
1. G ag
2. A
3. B
4. D
Q.58 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
m
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(Left) / < @ * * 2 @ < ^ @ 8 $ 2 $ # ? 4 6 5 ^ < (Right)
m
.co m
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
m s e
Ans 1. Three
s e l a
2. Four
l a ag
3. Two ag
4. One
Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘GOLD’ is coded as ‘3814’ and ‘LOAD’ is coded as ‘4168’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 1
3. 4
m
4. 8
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s e
la
Q.60 In a certain code language,
g
A + B means 'A is the mother of B'
A – B means 'A is the father of B'
A × B means 'A is the sister of B'
A / B means 'A is the brother of B'
a
A > B means 'A is the husband of B'
A * B means 'A is the wife of B'
How is O related to U if O * K – T X U / M?
Ans 1. Mother's mother
2. Father's mother
m
3. Father
m
4. Mother
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a
Q.61 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
s e given series to make it logically complete?
g l
g l a CO 72, KI 76, SC 82, AW 90, ? a
a Ans 1. IQ 100
2. HQ 98
3. HQ 100
4. IQ 98
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s e l a
g l a ag
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Q.62 In a certain code language,
A # B means ‘A is the son of B’
A % B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is C related to K if ‘C − O % M @ P # K’?
Ans 1. Husband's brother's wife
2. Husband's brother's wife's daughter
3. Brother's wife
4. Wife's sister
Q.63 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All coats are hats.
Some shoes are hats.
No balloons are hats.
Conclusions:
(I) No balloons are shoes.
(II) Some shoes are coats.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
2. Only conclusion (I) follows.
3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
Q.64 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
WSR−UQP
FBA−DZY
Ans 1. UQP−ROM
2. UPN−RNM
3. QML−OKJ
4. UPN−SON
Q.65 SIOU is related to WHST in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, ZCGP is related to DBKO. To which of the following is JNRC related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. NMVB
2. MOUA
3. OLWA
4. MLUB
Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bins are lamps.
All fans are lamps.
Conclusions:
(I) : Some bins are fans.
(II) : Some lamps are fans.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
2. Only conclusion (I) follows
3. Only conclusion (II) follows
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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Q.67 Binod starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
m
drives 19 km, turns left and drives 22 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 24 km. He
. co takes a final left turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
s e m
m a
se l
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 4 km to the west
ag
2. 3 km to the east
3. 5 km to the east
4. 6 km to the west
Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
AEC10 FJH15 KOM20 PTR25 ?
Ans 1. TSR27
m
2. XYZ30
m .co
3. UYW30
m.co s em
s e l a
ag
4. KLJ30
l a
Q.69
ag
Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.
Ans
m
m .co
1.
s e
g la
a
2.
m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e
3.
g l a
g l a a
a
4.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
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Q.70 PUCD is related to NTEE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, HQKH is related to FPMI. To which of the following is BNQK related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZMSL
2. MSLK
3. LJSK
4. KLSM
Section : General Awareness
Q.71 Which slogan was associated with the extremist phase of the Indian National
Movement?
Ans 1. Freedom is My Birthright and I Shall Have It
2. Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna, Ab Humare Dil Me Hai
3. Give me Blood, and I Shall Give Your Freedom
4. Inquilab Zindabad
Q.72 Which industry was the most prominent in India before the British rule, though it had
significant regional variations?
Ans 1. Tea and coffee plantations
2. Sugar mills
3. Mining
4. Cotton textiles
Q.73 Which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered as ‘Tableland’?
Ans 1. The Great Indian Desert
2. The Coastal Plains
3. The Peninsular Plateau
4. The Himalayan Mountains
Q.74 Which of the following archaeologists started excavations in the Harappa site of the
Indus Valley civilisation in 1920-21?
Ans 1. Rakhal Das Banerjee
2. Daya Ram Sahni
3. Sir John Hubert Marshall
4. Ernest Mackay
Q.75 The list of all official languages is given in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Schedule 10
2. Schedule 8
3. Schedule 7
4. Schedule 9
Q.76 TCS has proposed several research initiatives in collaboration with Brazil's Insper
Institution. Which of the following is part of these initiatives?
Ans 1. AI for cybersecurity
2. Space exploration technologies
3. Satellite geo-sensing for agriculture and oil rigs
4. Renewable energy research
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Q.77 Which of the following persons is very famous for his sitar playing in India?
m
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Ans 1. Zia Mohiuddin Dagar
. e m
m 2. Asad Ali Khan
as
se 3. Pt. Ravi Shankar
ag l
4. Pt. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt
Q.78 Which of the following countries collaborated with India in September 2024 to enhance
food safety, aligning regulatory frameworks, simplifying the Food Import Procedure and
fostering technical collaboration?
Ans 1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Afghanistan
m
4. Pakistan
m .co
Q.79
m .co
_________ is a traditional sport of Tamil Nadu, which was introduced as a demo sport
s em
s e
for the first time in Khelo India Youth Games 2023, held in January 2024.
l a
Ans 1. Thang ta
l a ag
ag
2. Kalaripayattu
3. Gatka
4. Silambam
Q.80 Which of the following is an example of social infrastructure?
Ans 1. Railways
2. Roads
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3. Airports
4. Hospitals
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Q.81
las
In December 2024, the Bharat Defence Summit (BDS) 2024 was held in _____.
Ans 1. New Delhi
ag
2. Chennai
3. Ahmedabad
4. Mumbai
Q.82 What was the fate of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi after the Battle of Gwalior in 1858?
Ans 1. She was captured and executed.
2. She became the ruler of Gwalior.
m
m
3. She was exiled to Britain.
.co
m.co 4. She died fighting in battle.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.83
Ans
Which state was carved out of Assam as an autonomous state in 1970?
a
a
1. Meghalaya
2. Tripura
3. Nagaland
4. Manipur
Q.84 Which of the following deities is associated with the festival Onam?
Ans 1. Lord Rama
2. Lord Krishna
m .
3. Lord Vishnu
m .co s e m
4. Lord Ganesha
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 60
Page 17
Q.85 As of 6 September 2024, India’s foreign exchange reserves reached a new all-time high
of USD 689.235 billion. Which institution is responsible for managing India’s foreign
exchange reserves?
Ans 1. Ministry of Finance
2. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3. India International Bank
4. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Q.86 Which of the following tribes is primarily found on the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
Ans 1. Koraga
2. Onge
3. Kadar
4. Totos
Q.87 Which of the following states is the largest producer of coffee in India, according to the
Coffee Board of India's estimates in the 2022-23 crop year?
Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu
Q.88 What was the gross inward Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India during April-August
2024?
Ans 1. US $9.6 billion
2. US $36.1 billion
3. US $23.5 billion
4. US $27.4 billion
Q.89 The government has extended the tenure of M Rajeshwar Rao as Deputy Governor of
the Reserve Bank of India for how long from 9 October 2024?
Ans 1. 2 years
2. 1 year
3. 5 years
4. 3 years
Q.90 Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the river Indus?
Ans 1. Jhelum
2. Beas
3. Mahananda
4. Chenab
Q.91 In October 2024, India signed a major currency swap agreement with the Maldives for
how many millions to help it tide over its current foreign currency crunch?
Ans 1. $950
2. $750
3. $500
4. $250
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 60
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Q.92 During cooking, if water and mustard oil are mixed, oil floats on the top of water
m
because:
. co
Ans 1. the quantity of mustard oil used is less
s e m
m a
se l
2. mustard oil is immiscible in water
3. the density of mustard oil is lesser than water
ag
4. the density of mustard oil is more than water
Q.93 Radioactivity refers to the rate at which a particular nuclide undergoes radioactive
decay. Which of the following units is used to measure radioactivity?
Ans 1. Roentgen
2. Curie
3. Weber
m
4. Candela
m .co
Q.94
m .co
An electric fan of resistance 110 ohms is plugged into potential difference of 220 V. How
s em
s e
much current flows through the fan?
l a
Ans 1. ½ A
l a ag
2. 4 A
ag
3. ¼ A
4. 2A
Q.95 Which of the following Articles allows the State to make special provisions for socially
and educationally backward classes?
Ans 1. Article 15 (5)
2. Article 14 (5)
m
.co
3. Article 17
4. Article 16 (5)
e m
las
Q.96
Ans 1. Gomati river ag
Which of the following is NOT one of the left-bank tributaries of Ganga river?
2. Ghaghara river
3. Son river
4. Gandak river
Q.97 Under which government initiatives are Indian athletes provided financial assistance,
training support, and international exposure to prepare for the Olympics?
Ans 1. Fit India Movement
m
m
2. Sports Authority of India (SAI)
.co
m.co 3. Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)
s e m
s e 4. Khelo India Youth Games
g l a
g l a a
a Q.98
Ans
The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024, replaces which of the following Acts?
1. The Aircraft Act, 1934
2. The Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020
3. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India (AERA) Act, 2008
4. Air Corporations Act, 1953
Q.99 Classical singer Kishori Amonkar is associated with which of the following music
Gharanas?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Dagari Gharana
2. Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. Mewati Gharana
g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 60
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Q.100 The present system of atomic masses is based on _________ as the standard.
Ans 1. Oxygen-16
2. Hydrogen-1
3. Carbon-12
4. Nitrogen-14
Q.101 Who among the following led the British forces to suppress the rebel movements in
Lucknow in the winter of 1857?
Ans 1. Sir Claude Auchinleck
2. General Roberts
3. Sir Eyre Coote
4. Sir Colin Campbell
Q.102 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the function of root caps?
Ans 1. A root cap helps in the easy movement of the root through soil.
2. A root cap protects the tender part of the root.
3. A root cap helps in the perception of gravity.
4. A root cap participates in the process of transpiration.
Q.103 Who among the following has the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights under
Article 32?
Ans 1. President
2. State Governments
3. Parliament
4. Supreme Court
Q.104 Which fiscal condition related to India's trade balance did the Economic Survey 2024
report for FY24?
Ans 1. Increased trade deficit compared to FY23
2. Narrowed trade deficit
3. Decline in foreign reserves
4. Large trade surplus
Q.105 With respect to the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are:
Ans 1. not written in the Constitution
2. written in the Schedules of the Constitution
3. written in the Constitution
4. not written in the Schedules nor outside the Schedules of the Constitution
Q.106 Which of the following is NOT true regarding the revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. It was a sepoy mutiny.
2. It was a successful revolt against the Britishers.
3. It is known as the first war of independence.
4. Bahadur Shah was the Mughal emperor during the 1857 revolt in India.
Q.107 Which of the following is a primary activity in rural areas?
Ans 1. Manufacturing
2. Software development
3. Banking
4. Agriculture
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Q.108 As of October 2024, Sensex touched an all-time high in which of the following months?
m
co
Ans 1. September 2024
. e m
m 2. July 2024
as
se 3. May 2024
ag l
4. August 2024
Q.109 The right to work is mentioned under _____ of the Indian Constitution.
Ans 1. Article 38
2. Article 40
3. Article 39
4. Article 41
m
m .co
.co
Q.110 In November 2024, the first Asian Summit of which of the following religions was held in
New Delhi?
em
Ans 1. Hinduism
e m l as
2. Buddhism
l as ag
3. Islam
4. Jainism
ag
Q.111 The Gandhian view of development also visualises (a) _______ role for the state in the
development process.
Ans 1. small
2. major
3. full
m
.co
4. no
e m
Q.112 India Post’s Speed Post service was introduced in:
Ans 1. 1991
las
2. 1986 ag
3. 1980
4. 1976
Q.113 ___________ dance form is also known as Ekaharya, where one dancer takes on many
roles in a single performance.
Ans 1. Kathak
2. Kathakali
m
m
3. Sattriya
.co
m .co 4. Bharatnatyam
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.114 The Government of India had launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
a
(DDUGJY) in the year _____ for the rural areas with the objectives of electrification of all
a Ans
un-electrified villages, as per Census 2011.
1. 2018
2. 2014
3. 2017
4. 2011
Q.115 With the launch of Digi Yatra services at nine more airports in September 2024, the
number of airports enabled with this facility in India has reached to _____.
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 14
2. 24
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. 19
g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 60
Page 21
Q.116 Who was responsible to look after forts and also known as Head of Royal Fort in the
Maurya empire?
Ans 1. Durgapala
2. Samsthadhyaksha
3. Rajjukas
4. Annapala
Q.117 The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with ____________.
Ans 1. powers of panchayats
2. disqualification on ground of defection
3. administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes
4. provisions regarding languages
Q.118 How did the drain of wealth theory, as proposed by Dadabhai Naoroji, explain India’s
poverty under British rule?
Ans 1. Excessive population growth in India
2. Lack of agricultural development
3. Decline of traditional industries
4. Export of Indian resources and wealth to Britain without fair compensation
Q.119 Who is considered the de facto executive authority at the state level in India's
parliamentary system?
Ans 1. Chief Minister
2. State Advocate General
3. Governor
4. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Q.120 In the Indian tradition, which of the following is NOT one of the six two-monthly
seasons?
Ans 1. Pravara
2. Hemant
3. Vasanta
4. Sharada
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 60
Page 22
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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 07/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kuberpur
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 Find x in the following expression:
l
Ans
ag
1.
2.
3.
m
.co
4.
e m
Q.2
s
The marked price of a water cooler is ₹5,420. The shopkeeper offers an off season
la
discount of 15% on it and an additional discount of 5% for cash payment customer. Find
Ans 1. ₹4,390 ag
the cost price for a customer who pays cash payment.
2. ₹4,336
3. ₹4,325.38
4. ₹4,354.50
Q.3 Aryan has to reach Ahmedabad which is 889 km away in 17 hours. His starting speed
for 5 hours was 29 km/hr. For the next 96 km his speed was 24km/hr. By what speed he
m
must travel now so as to reach Ahmedabad in decided time of 17hours?
.co
Ans 1. 86 km/hr
m
m.co 2. 85 km/hr
s e m
s e 3. 87 km/hr
g l a
g l a 4. 81 km/hr
a
a
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 60
Page 23
Q.4 Priya can do a certain piece of work in 30 days. Priya and Varsha can together do the
same work in 18 days, and Priya, Varsha and Nisha can do the same work together in 9
days. In how many days can Priya and Nisha do the same work?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.5 A 145 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 9.5 km/h in the opposite
direction in 30 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train ?
Ans 1. 4.4
2. 7.9
3. 6.1
4. 7.5
Q.6 If the side length of a square decreases from 7 cm to 5 cm, find the percentage
decrease in its area. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places.)
Ans 1. 49.98%
2. 48.99%
3. 58.98%
4. 48.98%
Q.7 How many pairs of positive integers p, q exist such that the HCF of p, q is 37 and the
sum of p and q is 1961?
Ans 1. 54
2. 26
3. 53
4. 28
Q.8 If the length of cuboid is 8 cm, breadth is 3 cm and the volume of cuboid is 3384 cm3,
then find the height of cuboid (in cm).
Ans 1. 145
2. 141
3. 148
4. 151
Q.9 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 115. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 197
2. 194
3. 192
4. 193
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Page 24
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.co
Q.10 A shopkeeper buys a laptop for ₹30,000 and sells it for ₹35,000. Calculate the profit
m
percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
. co
Ans 1. 17.67%
s e m
m a
se l
2. 15.67%
3. 16.67%
ag
4. 14.67%
Q.11 Aryan takes 12 hours to mow a large lawn. He and Armaan together can mow it in 7
hours. How long will Armaan take to mow the lawn if he works alone?
Ans 1. 16 hours 45 minutes
2. 16 hours 48 minutes
3. 16 hours 40 minutes
m
4. 16 hours 36 minutes
m .co
Q.12
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
Find the value of
l a
Ans 1. 142
ag
2. 146
3. 147
4. 141
Q.13 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (16 - 4 ÷ 2 × 3)}]
Ans 1. 21
m
.co
2. 16
3. 18
e m
4. 23
las
Q.14 If 36 : y :: y : 9, find the positive value of y.
ag
Ans 1. 18
2. 24
3. 13
4. 22
Q.15 A bus travelling at 87 km/h completes a journey in 15 hours. At what speed will it have
to cover the same distance in 9 hours?
m
.co
Ans 1. 143 km/h
m
.co m
2. 147 km/h
m s e
s e
3. 145 km/h
g l a
g l a 4. 155 km/h
a
a Q.16 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 108. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 184
2. 199.5
3. 198.5
4. 183
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 60
Page 25
Q.17 The average of first 133 even numbers is
Ans 1. 134
2. 135
3. 134.5
4. 133.5
Q.18 The difference between compound interest, compounded annually, and simple interest
on a certain sum at 10% per annum for 2 years is ₹1,060. Find the sum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 1,06,000
2. 1,06,060
3. 1,60,000
4. 1,06,600
Q.19 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 78 minutes and 39 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 25 minutes?
Ans 1. 28 min
2. 45 min
3. 38 min
4. 35 min
Q.20 If 35% of k is 20 less than 3000% of 10, then k is:
Ans 1. 800
2. 780
3. 840
4. 760
Q.21 The value of
Ans 1. 3.88
2. 9.15
3. 3.44
4. 13.97
Q.22 A girl goes to school at a speed of 28 km/hr. She comes back with a speed of 21 km/hr.
Find her average speed for the whole journey.
Ans 1. 21 km/h
2. 16 km/h
3. 24 km/h
4. 17 km/h
Q.23 What will be the smallest value of m such that the five-digit number 1m813 is divisible
by 11?
Ans 1. 1
2. 3
3. 0
4. 2
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Page 26
m
.co
Q.24 Find the value of p so that the expression
m
co
is a perfect cube.
. e m
s
Ans 1. 0.000027
m a
se 2. 4096
3. 16 ag l
4. 47.91
Q.25 The sum of 8 numbers is 756. Find their average.
Ans 1. 93.5
2. 92.5
3. 94.5
m
.co
4. 95.5
m
Q.26
.co
The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
m s em
e
number is 118. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
s l a
a ag
Ans 1. 194
l
ag
2. 193
3. 194.5
4. 193.5
Q.27 Amit bought 50 pencils from a shopkeeper at a price of ₹3 per pencil, and then sold 15
pencils for ₹3.5 per pencil and the remaining at ₹2.5 per pencil. Calculate the
percentage loss/profit that Amit had (rounded off to two decimal places).
Ans 1. Loss 6.67%
2. Profit 6.67%
m
3. Profit 3.27%
m .co
4. Loss 3.27%
s e
g la
Q.28
a
A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3600 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 600
2. 1200
3. 2400
4. 300
Q.29 The LCM of two numbers is 315. If the numbers are in the ratio 7 : 9, then the sum of the
m
.co
numbers is _____.
m
.co m
Ans 1. 90
m s e
a
2. 100
s e g l
g l a 3. 80
a
a 4. 70
Q.30 A shopkeeper purchases a wrist watch for ₹3,800 and fixes its marked price in such a
way that after allowing a discount of 24%, he earns a profit of 30%. Find the marked
price of the wrist watch.
Ans 1. ₹6,550
2. ₹6,400
3. ₹6,450
4. ₹6,500
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 60
Page 27
Q.31 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 5600 cm2. If the length of the rod is
92 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:
Ans 1. 10.99
2. 9.68
3. 8.38
4. 12.28
Q.32 Out of the total profit of ₹15,500 in a business of A and B, A gets ₹5,500 as profit. If the
investment of A is ₹67,500 less than the investment of B, then the investment of B (in ₹)
is:
Ans 1. 1,25,000
2. 1,50,000
3. 1,60,000
4. 1,55,000
Q.33 Two years ago, the population of a city was 1,10,000. The population increased by 10%
in the first year and decreased by 10% in the second year. Find the present population.
Ans 1. 1,08,500
2. 1,08,600
3. 1,08,800
4. 1,08,900
Q.34 In an election between two candidates 90 % of the registered voters cast their vote and
15 % of the votes polled were found invalid. Winning candidate got 51% of the valid
votes and won the election by a margin of 2142 votes. How many voters were
registered?
Ans 1. 140000
2. 140002
3. 139999
4. 140001
Q.35 Calculate the area of the isosceles triangle with length of equal sides 5 cm and the third
side 8 cm.
Ans 1. 12 cm2
2. 10 cm2
3. 6 cm2
4. 24 cm2
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
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Page 28
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.co
Q.36 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is
m
placed at MN as shown below.
. co s e m
m a
se ag l
Ans
1.
m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
2.
l a ag
ag
3.
m
4.
m .co
s e
g la
Q.37 a
'STEP' is related to 'WXIT' in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, 'FILL' is related to 'JMPP'. To which of the following is 'THAT' related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. WLFW
2. XLEX
3. WLEW
4. XLFX
m
.co
Q.38 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
.co
English alphabetical order?
e m
e mVNQ SKN PHK MEH ?
l as
l asAns 1. JCE
ag
ag 2. JBE
3. JCF
4. JBF
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 60
Page 29
Q.39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some bulbs are mats.
Some peanuts are mats.
Conclusions:
(I) All bulbs are peanuts.
(II) Some peanuts are bulbs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
Q.40 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
PTV 73 YCE 76 HLN 79 QUW 82 ?
Ans 1. ZBF 87
2. ZDF 85
3. YBE 87
4. YDE 85
Q.41 Seven people, P, Q. R, S, T, U and V, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people are sitting to the right of S. P is sitting to the immediate left of S. V is sitting to
the immediate left of Q and immediate right of U. Q is sitting to the immediate left of P. T
is not the immediate neighbour of S. Who is sitting to the immediate right of S?
Ans 1. P
2. U
3. Q
4. R
Q.42 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
780 770 772 766 762 ?
Ans 1. 764
2. 766
3. 760
4. 762
Q.43 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FI - IJ
2. QV - SX
3. KP - MR
4. NS - PU
Q.44 In a certain code language, ‘BALM’ is coded as ‘7246’ and ‘LAMP’ is coded as ‘2765’.
What is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2
2. 6
3. 7
4. 5
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Q.45 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se l
Statements:
Some sheep are crows.
All crows are frogs.
ag
Some crows are bats.
Conclusions:
I. Some sheep may or may not be bats.
II. At least some blankets are frogs.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
4. Both conclusions I and II follow
m
m .co
.co m
Q.46 Seven friends, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. T sits to the immediate right of X. T sits second to the left of S. Only two
m s e
e
people sit between S and Y when counted from the left of Y. Q sits third to the left of X.
s l a
ag
W is not an immediate neighbour of Q. How many people sit between R and T when
l a
counted from the right of R?
Ans 1. Two
2. Three
ag
3. One
4. Four
Q.47 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).
(Left) 8 8 6 2 8 2 9 9 2 6 2 6 7 8 3 2 8 3 3 2 9 6 6 (Right)
m
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
m .co
How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
s e
la
Ans 1. None
2. Two
ag
3. One
4. Three
Q.48 Seven boxes E, F, G, H, K, L and M are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below E. Only one box is kept above H. Only one
box is kept between H and G. L is kept immediately above M. K is kept at some place
below F. How many boxes are kept between F and L?
Ans 1. Two
m
.co
2. Four
m
.co m
3. One
m s e
s e
4. Three
g l a
g l a Q.49 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads a
a given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.
DK-GN-JM
FM-IP-LO
Ans 1. GO-KS-NP
2. HO-KR-NQ
3. HO-KR-NP
4. GO-KR-NP
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 60
Page 31
Q.50 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the husband of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P x Q ÷ R – S + T’?
Ans 1. Father’s father
2. Wife’s brother
3. Mother’s father
4. Father’s brother
Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
395 366 337 308 279 ?
Ans 1. 266
2. 250
3. 229
4. 237
Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘phone error rate’ is coded as ‘ku ni pt’ and ‘pronunciation
error rate’ is coded as ‘pt jk ni’. How is ‘pronunciation’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. pt
2. ku
3. ni
4. jk
Q.53 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).
(Left) 1 2 6 5 6 8 1 5 8 6 9 8 3 3 8 5 8 9 4 7 8 (Right)
How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
Q.54 Prakhar starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 10 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 1 km to the south
2. 2 km to the north
3. 1 km to the north
4. 2 km to the south
Q.55 What should come in place of the ques on mark (?) in the given series?
31 32 41 66 115 ?
Ans 1. 167
2. 169
3. 196
4. 195
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Q.56 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at
m
'MN' as shown below.
. co s e m
m a
se ag l
Ans 1.
2.
m
.co
3.
m
4.
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.57
l a
If ‘+’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
ag
ag
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
30 – 2 ÷ 6 + 18 × 6 = ?
Ans 1. 57
2. 81
3. 34
4. 63
Q.58 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
4173685, which of the following digits will be second from the right?
m
.co
Ans 1. 7
2. 4
e m
3. 6
las
4. 2
ag
Q.59 Seven boxes D, E, F, H, I, J and K are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. J is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between J and
E. K is kept at one of the positions below J. Only F is kept between E and H. D is kept at
one of the positions above E. How many boxes are kept between I and K?
Ans 1. One
2. Two
3. Four
m
.co
4. Three
m
Q.60
m.co
In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
s e m
s e mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
g l a
a
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
g l (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
a
a the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
10 - 15
19 - 24
Ans 1. 63 - 68
2. 42 - 48
3. 1 - 7
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4. 51 - 57
e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 60
Page 33
Q.61 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some goats are hens.
All hens are cows.
All cows are tigers.
Conclusions:
(I) All cows are goats.
(II) Some tigers are hens.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
2. Only conclusion (I) follows.
3. Only conclusion (II) follows.
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Q.62 In a certain code language,
A # B means ‘A is the son of B’
A % B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is C related to K if ‘C # O − M % P @ K’?
Ans 1. Mother's brother's son
2. Brother's son
3. Father's brother
4. Father's brother's son
Q.63 Pritam starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards South. He then takes a right turn,
drives 12 km, turns right and drives 6 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 6 km towards East
2. 8 km towards West
3. 6 km towards South
4. 8 km towards North
Q.64 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VD – TG
2. DR – BU
3. WK – SG
4. ZX – XA
Q.65 A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits third to
the left of E. C sits to the immediate right of E. Only B sits between A and E. How many
people sit between E and F, when counted from the right of E?
Ans 1. Two
2. One
3. Three
4. None
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Q.66 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
m
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
. co INN : JPM
GBG : HDF
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. OEY : PGZ
2. NMN : OOM ag l
3. MGS : NIQ
4. TKR : ULS
Q.67 When the second digit from the left is divided by the second digit from the right in the
number 865127, what is the quotient?
Ans 1. 4
2. 3
m
3. 1
m .co
4. 2
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.68 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
l
ag
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
(Left) 7 $ 4 1 7 1 9 6 2 + 5 = 6 3 % 7 5 # 8 @ 4 5 & 7 8 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans 1. Three
2. Two
3. One
4. Four
m
Q.69
m .co
In a certain code language, ‘WORK’ is coded as ‘1673’ and ‘FROW’ is coded as ‘7326’.
What is the code for ‘F’ in the given code language?
s e
la
Ans 1. 2
2. 6
ag
3. 7
4. 3
Q.70 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.
ECQ-11, HGO-2, KKM-15, NOK-28, ?
Ans 1. RTI-39
m
.co
2. QSI-41
m
.co
3. QTI-41
e m
e m
4. RSI-39
l as
l as ag
ag Section : General Awareness
Q.71 Which of the following Acts provided for the establishment of a federal, provincial and
joint public service commission, Reserve Bank of India and a federal court?
Ans 1. Government of India Act, 1919
2. Government of India Act, 1929
3. Government of India Act, 1909
4. Government of India Act, 1935
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 60
Page 35
Q.72 The Satpura Range is a part of the Peninsular Plateau and is located between which two
rivers?
Ans 1. Krishna and Kaveri
2. Godavari and Krishna
3. Narmada and Mahi
4. Narmada and Tapi
Q.73 The 2024 Copa America championship, which was held in the USA from 20 June to 14
July 2024, is a ______ tournament.
Ans 1. Boxing
2. Golf
3. Hockey
4. Football
Q.74 Which of the following Articles was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
Ans 1. Article 31D
2. Article 31
3. Article 101
4. Article 22
Q.75 In February 2025, the Government of India announced that the South Coastal Railway
zone is a new railway zone that will be headquartered in ___________.
Ans 1. Vijayawada
2. Tirupathi
3. Visakhapatnam
4. Amaravati
Q.76 What was the literacy rate in India according to the 2011 Census?
Ans 1. 70.05%
2. 60.05%
3. 64.05%
4. 74.04%
Q.77 In July 2024, the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC) announced the
expansion of 90% insurance cover for exporters with a credit limit of ₹___________.
Ans 1. 20 crore
2. 50 crore
3. 10 crore
4. 100 crore
Q.78 Which of the following Acts is also known as the Gagging Act?
Ans 1. Government of India Act of 1858
2. Vernacular Press Act of 1878
3. Government of India Act of 1919
4. Regulating Act of 1773
Q.79 Which of the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 was the adopted son of Bajirao
Peshwa II?
Ans 1. Kunwar Singh
2. Nana Saheb
3. Tantiya Tope
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Q.80 In June 2024, the Supreme Court directed which state to release 137 cusecs of water to
m
Delhi?
. co
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh
s e m
m a
se l
2. Punjab
3. Himachal Pradesh
ag
4. Haryana
Q.81 Which day was marked by Mahatma Gandhi as the day of 'humiliation and prayer'?
Ans 1. 23 March 1919
2. 10 February 1919
3. 20 October 1919
m
.co
4. 6 April 1919
m
Q.82
.co
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution declares that Directive
m
Principles are NOT enforceable by any court?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Article 51
l a
ag
2. Article 37
3. Article 35
4. Article 45
Q.83 Which of the following rivers rises in the Satpura ranges?
Ans 1. Tapi
2. Chambal
3. Damodar
m
.co
4. Luni
e m
Q.84
s
Which constitutional body is responsible for recommending principles for the allocation
la
of grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India?
Ans 1. National Development Council
ag
2. Finance Commission
3. Planning Commission
4. NITI Aayog
Q.85 Name the author who wrote the famous book called 'Panchatantra'.
Ans 1. Kalhana
2. Daṇḍin
m
m
3. Vishnu Sharma
.co
m.co 4. Śūdraka
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.86 The Economic Survey 2024 calls for a 'tripartite compact'. Which of the following is NOT
a part of it? a
a Ans 1. Private sector
2. Foreign investors
3. Central government
4. State governments
Q.87 What is the maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly of a State as per Article 170
of the Indian Constitution?
m .
Ans 1. 250
2. 350
m .co s e m
3. 200
s e l a
4. 500
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 60
Page 37
Q.88 Which of the following steers the tropical depressions into India especially during the
summer season?
Ans 1. Western Disturbances
2. Northeast Monsoon
3. Westerly Jet Stream
4. Easterly Jet Stream
Q.89 The Swaran Singh Committee, which recommended the inclusion of Fundamental
Duties, was set up by whom among the following Indian Prime Ministers?
Ans 1. Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi
4. Morarji Desai
Q.90 Alai Darwaja is a part of which of the following monuments of Mughal architecture?
Ans 1. Taj Mahal, Agra
2. Red Fort, Delhi
3. Red Fort, Agra
4. Qutub Minar, Delhi
Q.91 Which significant policy approach was suggested to sustain India’s economic recovery
in the Economic Survey 2024?
Ans 1. Reducing exports
2. Increasing trade deficits
3. Heavy domestic efforts and reforms
4. Increase in foreign aid
Q.92 Tropical rainforests are mainly NOT found in which of the following regions?
Ans 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
3. The North-Eastern states
4. Western slope of the Western Ghats
Q.93 Where is the Ranganadi Dam situated?
Ans 1. Sikkim
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nagaland
4. Manipur
Q.94 The First Five-Year Plan in India focused primarily on which sector of the economy?
Ans 1. Industrialisation
2. Agricultural development
3. Service sector expansion
4. Infrastructure development
Q.95 Which of the following tools did India adopt for economic development after gaining
independence?
Ans 1. Privatisation
2. Decentralised planning
3. Centralised planning
4. Liberalisation
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Q.96 Manjira is a solid instrument made of ________.
m
co
Ans 1. cloth
. e m
m 2. goatskin
as
se 3. metal
ag l
4. wood
Q.97 When an object is placed at the centre of curvature in front of a concave mirror, the
characteristics of the image formed are:
Ans 1. at the focus, upright, virtual and diminished
2. at infinity, real, inverted and highly enlarged
3. between the focus and the mirror, virtual, upright and enlarged
m
.co
4. at the centre of curvature, real, inverted and of the same size
m
Q.98
.co
Tat Vadya are also known as _______ instruments.
m s e m
Ans 1. percussion
s e l a
2. electronic
l a ag
3. wind
4. stringed
ag
Q.99 Which of the following Amendment Acts provided one-third reservation for women in
municipalities?
Ans 1. 73rd Amendment Act
2. 103rd Amendment Act
3. 106th Amendment Act
m
.co
4. 74th Amendment Act
e m
Ans 1. To promote small-scale industries
las
Q.100 What was the primary aim of the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) in India?
2. To enhance agricultural production ag
3. To achieve self-sufficiency in food grains
4. To focus on poverty alleviation
Q.101 Which of the given statements about photosynthesis is/are correct?
A. Stomata in the leaves absorb sunlight for photosynthesis.
B. Photosynthesis results in the reduction of carbon dioxide to form carbohydrates.
Ans 1. Neither A nor B
m
.co
2. Only B
m
.co m
3. Both A and B
m s e
s e
4. Only A
g l a
g l a Q.102 Which of the following statements is correct about the Chairperson of the Monetary a
a Policy committee of India, which was reconstituted by the Government of India in
October 2024?
Ans 1. The Chairperson of the Monetary Policy committee will be elected by directors of all public sector banks of India.
2. The Prime Minister of India will be the de facto Chairperson of the Monetary Policy committee for FY25.
3. The CAG of India is the Chairperson of the Monetary Policy committee.
4. The RBI Governor is the Chairperson (ex officio) of the Monetary Policy committee.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 60
Page 39
Q.103 Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared emergency on 25 June 1975, which lasted for
_____ months.
Ans 1. 15
2. 21
3. 26
4. 17
Q.104 The President of the Government of Spain, Pedro Sanchez, paid an official visit to India
on which dates in 2024?
Ans 1. 27 − 29 October 2024
2. 04 − 05 October 2024
3. 14 − 15 October 2024
4. 28 − 29 September 2024
Q.105 Scurvy is characterised by swelling and bleeding of gums. Deficiency of which vitamin
causes scurvy?
Ans 1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin C
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin B1
Q.106 Which of the following was the smallest administrative unit in the Mauryan Empire?
Ans 1. Village
2. Province
3. District
4. Town
Q.107 How many Param Rudra supercomputers worth around ₹130 crore were launched by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 26 September 2024?
Ans 1. 5
2. 3
3. 7
4. 2
Q.108 Which of the following was a focus in the Budget 2024 to stimulate growth in the MSME
sector?
Ans 1. Reduction in corporate tax
2. New pension schemes
3. Loan schemes for small businesses
4. Reduction in GST rates
Q.109 What was the policy of the 'Doctrine of Lapse' that caused discontent among Indian
rulers before the rebellion of 1857?
Ans 1. The British would pay subsidies to Indian rulers.
2. The British government would adopt Indian rulers without heirs.
3. The British could annex a princely state if the ruler did not have a natural/biological heir.
4. The British would intervene in Indian courts.
Q.110 Which of the following is an indicator of economic development?
Ans 1. Rising per capita income
2. Decreasing exports
3. Reduction in industrialisation
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Page 40
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Q.111 Which of the following countries signed a historic Memorandum of Understanding
m
(MoU) for civil nuclear cooperation in September 2024?
. co
Ans 1. India and the United States of America
s e m
m a
se l
2. Ukraine and United Kingdoms
3. Sri Lanka and Russia
ag
4. India and the United Arab Emirates
Q.112 Which Indian flautist won two Grammys at the Grammy Awards ceremony at Los
Angeles In February 2024?
Ans 1. Rishab Prasanna
2. Ronu Majumdar
3. Shashank Subramanyam
m
4. Rakesh Chaurasia
m .co
m .co
Q.113 Which of the following Hydroelectric Power Projects is located on Narmada River?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Nagarjuna Sagar Project
l a
ag
2. Koyna Project
3. Sardar Sarovar Project
4. Ranjit Sagar Project
Q.114 What does the term 'liberalisation' refer to in the context of the economy?
Ans 1. Nationalising private industries
2. Opening up the economy to foreign trade
3. Reducing taxes for all citizens
m
.co
4. Increasing government regulations
e m
his kingdom?
las
Q.115 Which of the following Gupta rulers defeated Shaka King Rudrasimha III and captured
Ans 1. Kumaragupta
ag
2. Skandagupta
3. Chandragupta II
4. Chandragupta I
Q.116 What does E3 stand for in the 'BioE3 Policy' unveiled by the Department of
Biotechnology in August 2024?
Ans 1. Econometrics, Ecosystem and Experience
m
.co
2. Equity, Ecological footprint and Ecofeminism
m
.co m
3. Economic surplus, Erosion and Employment gap
m s e
s e
4. Economy, Environment and Employment
g l a
g l a Q.117 Which Indian Navy ship visited Port Louis, Mauritius in June 2024, as part of a long- a
a Ans
range deployment?
1. INS Sunayna
2. INS Vikrant
3. INS Talwar
4. INS Shivalik
Q.118 In a material, the mass is the ________________.
m .
Ans 1. gravitational force acting on it
2. amount of space it occupies
m .co s e m
e
3. amount of water it replaces
s l a
l a
4. amount of matter it has
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 60
Page 41
Q.119 The Constitution (Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes) Orders (Amendment) Bill,
2024, was related to which state?
Ans 1. Bihar
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Odisha
4. Punjab
Q.120 Using dimensional analysis, determine which of the following pairs of physical
quantities have the same dimensions?
Ans 1. Latent heat and gravitational potential
2. Linear momentum and angular momentum
3. Force and torque
4. Work and power
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 60
Page 42
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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 07/03/2025
a
Centre Name TCS Gito Bitan
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
l
ag
number is 134. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 212
2. 213
3. 183.5
4. 182.5
Q.2 Find the compound interest on ₹19,375 in 1 year at 8% per annum, the interest being
compounded half-yearly.
Ans 1. ₹1,591
m
.co
2. ₹1,561
3. ₹1,541
e m
4. ₹1,581
las
Q.3 ag
Find the value of
Ans 1. 2683
2. 2670
3. 2678
4. 2673
m
m .co
.co
Q.4
e m
e m l as
l asAns 1. 15385.8
ag
ag 2. 15185.8
3. 15485.8
4. 15285.8
Q.5 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 36 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radius are 9 cm and 11 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in kg) of the shell ?
( )
Ans 1. 92.52
m .
2. 90.816
m .co s e m
3. 87.816
s e l a
4. 92.75
g l a ag
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Page 43
Q.6 The sum of 10 numbers is 360. Find their average.
Ans 1. 35
2. 34
3. 37
4. 36
Q.7 Abhay and Bharat can complete a certain piece of work in 11 and 9 days, respectively,
They started to work together, and after 2 days, Bharat left. In how many days will
Abhay complete the remaining work?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.8 If the distance between A and B is 942 Km. From A, Chaman goes to B with speed 66
km/h and return to A with the speed 49 km/h. Find the average speed of Chaman.
(rounded off to two decimal place)
Ans 1. 50.69 km/h
2. 56.24 km/h
3. 47.91 km/h
4. 51.69 km/h
Q.9 The cost price of 12 tables is equal to the selling price of 15 tables. What is the loss
percent?
Ans 1. 10%
2. 12%
3. 15%
4. 20%
Q.10 The average of first 128 even numbers is
Ans 1. 129.5
2. 130
3. 128.5
4. 129
Q.11 If 72 : y :: y : 50, find the positive value of y.
Ans 1. 65
2. 68
3. 70
4. 60
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Page 44
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Q.12 The sum of all the three sides of an equilateral triangle is cm. What is the height
m
co
(in cm) of this triangle?
. e m
s
Ans
m 1.
a
se 2. 22
ag l
3. 33
4. 44
Q.13 The population of a town is increased from 60,000 to 61,050. How much is the
percentage increase?
Ans 1. 1.65%
2. 1.55%
m
.co
3. 1.85%
m
4. 1.75%
m .co s em
s e l a
ag
Q.14 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
l a
side 78 metres, if he runs at a speed of 8 km/h?
Ans 1. 135
2. 140.3
ag
3. 139
4. 130
Q.15 Simplify the following.
m
Ans 1. 2
m .co
2. 0.2
s e
3. 20
g la
4. 3 a
Q.16 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 76 and the third
number is 109. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 185
2. 197
3. 186
4. 198
m
m .co
.co m
Q.17 A bus travelling at 35 km/h completes a journey in 20 hours. At what speed will it have
m
to cover the same distance in 7 hours?
s e
s e
Ans 1. 90 km/h
g l a
g l a 2. 94 km/h
a
a 3. 100 km/h
4. 92 km/h
Q.18 A merchant offers a discount of 20% on the list price, due to which she makes a loss of
15%. What percentage profit or percentage loss will she make if she sells at a discount
of 4% of the list price?
Ans 1. 5%, Loss
2. 2%, Loss
m .
.co m
3. 2%, Profit
m s e
a
4. 5%, Profit
s e l
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 60
Page 45
Q.19 The LCM of 148 and 185 is _____.
Ans 1. 37
2. 940
3. 740
4. 87
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.21 The population of a town was 1,20,000 at the end of 2017. It increases at a rate of 7% per
annum. What will the population be at the end of 2019?
Ans 1. 1,37,570
2. 1,37,388
3. 1,37,680
4. 1,37,285
Q.22 On a 10% discount sale, an article costs ₹7,200. What was the original price of the
article?
Ans 1. ₹7,600
2. ₹7,400
3. ₹7,800
4. ₹8,000
Q.23 1% of 97% of a number is what percentage of that number?
Ans 1. 98
2. 0.097
3. 0.97
4. 97
Q.24
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.25 A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do it in 12 days. With the assistance of C,
they completed the work in 3 days. C alone can do it in ______________days.
Ans 1. 7
2. 6
3. 8
4. 5
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 60
Page 46
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.co
Q.26
m
Find the value of 23 -19 ÷ 23 9 × 23 -6
. co
Ans 1.
s e m
m a
se
23 -43
g l
2.
23 -33 a
3.
23 -36
4.
23 -34
Q.27 The monthly incomes of two friends Kiran and Mahesh, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
and each of them saves ₹75000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
2 : 4, find the monthly income of Kiran(in ₹).
m
m .co
Ans 1. 124000
2. 175000
m .co s em
3. 126000
s e l a
4. 125000
l a ag
Q.28
ag
Find the value of (9K − 5) for which the number 35K84 is divisible by 11.
Ans 1. 24
2. 49
3. 51
4. 37
Q.29 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹72 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹12 per kg so
m
.co
that by selling the mixture at ₹43.4 per kg, there is a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 19 : 41
e m
2. 21 : 43
las
3. 20 : 39
4. 17 : 40 ag
Q.30 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Keshav
borrowed an amount of ₹380000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Keshav after 4 years.
Ans 1. 38000
2. 37500
3. 39000
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4. 39500
m
Q.31
m.co
Arjun has to reach Jaipur which is 602 km away in 22 hours. His starting speed for 7
s e m
s e hours was 29 km/hr. For the next 189 km his speed was 21km/hr. By what speed he
g l a
a
must travel now so as to reach Jaipur in decided time of 22hours?
g l Ans 1. 30 km/hr a
a 2. 35 km/hr
3. 34 km/hr
4. 41 km/hr
Q.32 A tank is filled in 20 hours by two pipes, A and C. Pipe C is thrice as fast as Pipe A. How
much time will Pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
Ans 1. 75 hours
2. 84 hours
m .
3. 100 hours
m .co s e m
s e l a
ag
4. 80 hours
g l a
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 60
Page 47
Q.33
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.34
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.35
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
Q.36 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
1000 × 500 + 10 ÷ 50 – 5 = ?
Ans 1. 234
2. 224
3. 242
4. 243
Q.37 IH 15 is related to KE -3 in a certain way. In the same way, CI 11 is related to EF -7. To
which of the given options is FU 3 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GS -13
2. HS -13
3. HR -15
4. GR -17
Q.38 N, E, A, T, L and Y live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. L lives immediately above Y. Exactly two people live between Y and
E, where E lives on an odd number floor below Y. A lives immediately below N. How
many people live between T and N?
Ans 1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Three
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 60
Page 48
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Q.39 Seven people F, I, E, L, D, A, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E
m
sits second to the left of D and D sits second to the left of I. Only one person sits
. co between I and L. S sits to the immediate right of E and A sits to the immediate left of I.
Who sits to the immediate right of I?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. F
2. D ag l
3. E
4. L
Q.40 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
6 21 37 54 72 ?
Ans 1. 89
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2. 91
m
.co m
3. 88
m s e
4. 90
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.41 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people
sit between C and F. A sits to the immediate left of F. No one sits to the right of E. Only
two people sit between E and A. B sits to the immediate right of G. How many people sit
between F and G?
Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
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Q.42 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
m
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e
Statements:
g la
All drums are balloons.
No rings are balloons.
All rings are keys.
a
Conclusions:
(I) No drums are rings.
(II) Some keys are not drums.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
.co
Q.43
m.co
In a certain code language, ‘DINE’ is coded as ‘5279’ and ‘NODE’ is coded as ‘9753’.
s e m
s e What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 3
a
a 2. 9
3. 5
4. 7
Q.44 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
JNX MPV PRT STR ?
m .
Ans 1. VVQ
2. VWQ
m .co s e m
3. WWP
s e l a
4. VVP
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 60
Page 49
Q.45 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.
NPN23, KQP21, HRR19, ?, BTV15
Ans 1. FTS17
2. FTS19
3. EST17
4. EST19
Q.46 TORM is related to MORT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, PLOT is related to LOPT. To which of the following is LAST related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. ASTL
2. ALST
3. ASLT
4. ATSL
Q.47 Devendra starts from Point Y and drives 21 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 18 km, turns right and drives 61 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 33 km.
He takes a left turn, drives 43 km. He then turns right, drives 25 km, turns left and drives
39 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 87 km towards east
2. 71 km towards south
3. 76 km towards west
4. 68 km towards east
Q.48 In a certain code language,
A - B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A > B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ; B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is F related to S if 'F ; L > A - G * S’?
Ans 1. Wife's father
2. Wife's mother
3. Wife's sister
4. Wife's son
Q.49 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VQNI
2. PKHC
3. MHEZ
4. EZVR
Q.50 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).
(Left) 4 5 7 1 4 7 2 4 7 9 7 2 5 4 1 7 5 7 7 9 5 2 7 (Right)
How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. None
2. Two
3. Three
4. One
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 60
Page 50
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Q.51 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se l
Statements:
All bottles are mangoes.
All bottles are foams.
ag
Conclusions:
(I): Some mangoes are foams.
(II): All foams are bottles.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
m
Q.52 In a certain code language,
m .co
.co m
A # B means ‘A is the son of B’
A % B means ‘A is the brother of B’
m s e
e
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’
s l a
ag
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’
l a
ag
Based on the above, how is C related to K if ‘C # O @ M − P % K’?
Ans 1. Brother's wife's brother
2. Brother's wife's father
3. Wife's brother
4. Wife's father
Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
78 83.4 90.8 ? 111.6 125
m
.co
Ans 1. 109.2
2. 100.2
e m
3. 98
las
4. 104.8
ag
Q.54 Seven persons X, Y, Z, K, B, R, and D are sitting around a circular table facing inside the
centre. X is the only person sitting between D and Y when counted from the left of Y.
there are exactly two persons sitting between K and D when counted from right of K. B
is sitting to the immediate right of K, R is sitting to the immediate left of D. Who is the
only person between Z and B, when counted from the right of Z?
Ans 1. K
2. Y
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3. X
m
.co m
4. D
m s e
s e
Q.55 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘–’, what will
g l a
g l a come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
23 B 4 C 2 D 16 A 4 = ? a
a Ans 1. 90
2. 120
3. 80
4. 70
Q.56 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
32167854, how many digits will appear twice in the new number thus formed?
m .
Ans 1. One
2. Two
m .co s e m
3. Three
s e l a
4. None
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 60
Page 51
Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PU:WB
2. AF:HM
3. KP:RV
4. TY:AF
Q.58 In a certain code language, ‘TALE’ is coded as ‘4286’ and ‘ARCS’ is coded as ‘3879’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7
2. 3
3. 6
4. 8
Q.59 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 546 588 931 173 541 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 14
2. 12
3. 4
4. 16
Q.60 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) \ ? $ / 3 * 1 ^ # 4 2 6 @ 6 8 $ / ? \ \ * (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans 1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(5, 8, 26)
(10, 12, 44)
Ans 1. (11, 5, 30)
2. (7, 6, 38)
3. (5, 10, 30)
4. (8, 2, 30)
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Page 52
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Q.62 RPNK is related to LJHE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
m
same way, XVTQ is related to RPNK. To which of the given options is JHFC related,
. co following the same logic?
s e m
m Ans 1. DAYW
a
se 2. DBZW
ag l
3. DBYW
4. DCYB
Q.63 Mr. S starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards the east. He then takes a left
turn, drives 2 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 3 km, turns right drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and
stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should
he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless
specified.)
m
Ans 1. 3 km towards the west
m .co
2. 3 km towards the south
m .co s em
s e
3. 2 km towards the north
l a
l a
4. 1 km towards the east
ag
Q.64
ag
In a row of people all facing North, Yash is 5th from the right end. Mahesh is 6th from the
right end. Mahesh is exactly between Yash and Kushal. If Kushal is 9th from the left end
of the line, how many people are there in the row?
Ans 1. 13
2. 15
3. 14
4. 12
m
Q.65 .co
In a certain code language, ‘7235’ is coded as ‘LKSD’ and ‘2315’ is coded as ‘SOKL’.
m
What is the code for ‘1’ in the given code language?
s e
la
Ans 1. L
2. O
ag
3. K
4. S
Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All margins are borders.
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All margins are rims.
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All fringes are rims.
Conclusions:
e m
e m(I): All fringes are borders.
(II): Some rims are borders.
l as
l asAns 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
ag
ag 2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 60
Page 53
Q.67 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
to logically complete the following series.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
OU25, PV34, QW43, RX52, ?
Ans 1. SZ62
2. SY62
3. SY61
4. SZ61
Q.69 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
124 135 113 146 102 ?
Ans 1. 157
2. 160
3. 168
4. 170
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 60
Page 54
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Q.70 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
m
shown below.
. co s e m
m a
se ag l
m
m .co
.co em
Ans
em l as
l as ag
ag
1.
2.
m
m .co
s e
g la
3.
a
4.
m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a
Section : General Awareness a
a Q.71 In which year was the Second Five-Year Plan launched, emphasising industrialisation?
Ans 1. 1956
2. 1961
3. 1966
4. 1971
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
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Q.72 In September 2024, Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off India’s first Vande Metro,
renamed as Namo Bharat Rapid Rail, in which state?
Ans 1. Rajasthan
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Gujarat
4. Haryana
Q.73 The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended in 1976 to include which of the
following words?
Ans 1. Federal and Parliamentary
2. Democratic and Republic
3. Unity and Integrity
4. Socialist and Secular
Q.74 Which Asian country hosted the 10th World Water Forum from 18 to 25 May 2024 in
partnership with the World Water Council (WWC)?
Ans 1. Indonesia
2. Vietnam
3. Singapore
4. Myanmar
Q.75 ‘Bhabar’ and ‘Khadar’ belts are part of which physiographic division of India?
Ans 1. The Peninsular Plateau
2. The Himalayan Mountains
3. The Northern Plains
4. The Coastal Plains
Q.76 The laws of motion describe how objects behave when they are in motion. Who among
the following is credited with the formulation of these laws?
Ans 1. Michael Faraday
2. Isaac Newton
3. Albert Einstein
4. JJ Thomson
Q.77 Which of the following books was authored by Vishakhadatta?
Ans 1. Kundalakesi
2. Yavanajataka
3. Mudrarakshasa
4. Silappatikaram
Q.78 The volume of water versus temperature graph reaches the minimum at temperature
___________.
Ans 1. 0°C
2. 10°C
3. 4°C
4. 100°C
Q.79 What do we call a specific sequence of notes that is peculiar to each Raga of Indian
classical music and by which a listener can instantly recognise the Raga?
Ans 1. Thata
2. Avaroha
3. Aroha
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 60
Page 56
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Q.80 Indian playback singer Sonu Nigam bagged a Grammy Award in 2017 for which of the
m
following music albums?
. co
Ans 1. Mubarkan
s e m
m a
se l
2. Jaan
3. Best of Me
ag
4. Deewana
Q.81 During the early years post-Independence, which sector was prioritised for
development in India?
Ans 1. Quaternary sector
2. Secondary sector
3. Primary sector
m
4. Tertiary sector
m .co
Q.82
m.co
During the winter season, surface winds blow from the high-pressure centre over
s em
s e
______________, reaching India as a dry continental air mass.
l a
Ans
l a
1. peninsular India
ag
ag
2. Western Ghats
3. central Asia
4. Aravalli Range
Q.83 During which Five Year Plan was the slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (Eradicate Poverty)
introduced?
Ans 1. Second Plan
2. Fifth Plan
m
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3. Fourth Plan
4. Third Plan
e m
las
Q.84
Ans 1. Ravindra Jadeja ag
_______ became the first Indian left arm spinner to take 300 test wickets in Test cricket.
2. Kuldeep Yadav
3. Axar Patel
4. Arshdeep Singh
Q.85 Who among the following was the leader of the 1857 Revolt from Kullu?
Ans 1. Maulvi Liaqat Ali
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.co
2. Raja Pratap Singh
m
.co m
3. Abdul Ali Khan
m s e
s e
4. Ujjwal Shahi
g l a
g l a Q.86 Who among the following was the court poet of Samudragupta? a
a Ans 1. Harishena
2. Vatsyayana
3. Kalidasa
4. Bharavi
Q.87 The transport of water and minerals primarily occurs through which part of a plant?
Ans 1. Xylem
m .
.co
2. Phloem
e m
3. Petals
e m l as
4. Stomata
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 60
Page 57
Q.88 Which of the following organisations aims to promote sustainable and equitable
agriculture and rural development?
Ans 1. RBI
2. SBI
3. NABARD
4. Rural Bank of India
Q.89 As of October 2024, which transgenic crop is being commercially cultivated in India?
Ans 1. Potato
2. Cotton
3. Brinjal
4. Tomato
Q.90 What is the primary function of the Cabinet in the Indian government?
Ans 1. To act as the highest decision-making body in the formal sense
2. To oversee international relations
3. To conduct elections
4. To manage only local government affairs
Q.91 In January 2024, the Government of India, launched a flagship program ‘Centre of
Excellence (CoE) in Intelligent Internet of Things (IIoT) Sensors’, at which place?
Ans 1. Hyderabad
2. Bengaluru
3. Pune
4. Kochi
Q.92 Which sectors received the majority of the gross FDI inflows during the reported
period?
Ans 1. Real estate and retail
2. Manufacturing, financial services, communication services and electricity
3. Information technology and hospitality
4. Agriculture and textiles
Q.93 What was the role of the ‘Rajanya’ in society during the Vedic period?
Ans 1. Kings and warriors
2. Merchants and traders
3. Farmers and labourers
4. Priests and scholars
Q.94 Under which Act were Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) established?
Ans 1. The Securitization Act, 2002
2. The Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act (RDB Act), 1993
3. The SARFAESI Act, 2002
4. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q.95 In which of the following months are Rabi crops mostly harvested in the northern part
of India?
Ans 1. January to March
2. October to December
3. April to June
4. July to September
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Q.96 Which of the following Five-Year Plans was interrupted due to the economic crisis and
m
political instability in India and eventually shifted towards a focus on poverty alleviation
. co programmes?
s e m
m Ans 1. Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
a
se 2. Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
ag l
3. Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-78)
4. Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-85)
Q.97 What traditional water harvesting system is used in the semi-arid and arid regions of
Rajasthan?
Ans 1. Rooftop harvesting
2. Guls
m
.co
3. Bamboo pipes
m
.co m
4. Tankas
m s e
Q.98
s e
The power to rule in India was transferred from the British East India Company to the
l a
a ag
British Parliament in which of the following years?
l
ag
Ans 1. 1858 AD
2. 1861 AD
3. 1857 AD
4. 1860 AD
Q.99 Plastids are vital organelles in plant cells. Which of the following is a function of
plastids?
Ans 1. Movement of organelles
m
.co
2. Synthesis of proteins
m
3. Photosynthesis
4. Storage of genetic information
s e
g la
a
Q.100 The UEFA Champions League 2024 final took place on 1 June 2024 at Wembley Stadium
located in _______.
Ans 1. New York
2. California
3. Tokiyo
4. London
Q.101 Which of the following territories was annexed by the British Governor General Lord
m
.co
Dalhousie before the 1857 revolt that fueled the First War of Independence?
m
.co
Ans 1. Awadh
e m
e m
2. Punjab
l as
l as 3. Gwalior
ag
ag 4. Assam
Q.102 The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024, introduced in Lok Sabha in July 2024, proposed
to set up how many statutory authorities?
Ans 1. Six
2. Two
3. Three
4. Ten
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m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
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Page 59
Q.103 How many people escaped multidimensional poverty in India between 2013-14 and
2022-23, as per NITI Aayog?
Ans 1. 30 crore
2. 24.82 crore
3. 18.3 crore
4. 12.5 crore
Q.104 Which of the following was a key element of India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961)?
Ans 1. Focus on poverty alleviation
2. Promoting private sector growth
3. Heavy industrialisation
4. Expansion of the service sector
Q.105 The Thar Desert experiences a significant temperature variation due to:
Ans 1. high altitude
2. dry conditions and sparse vegetation
3. its proximity to the sea
4. frequent rainfall
Q.106 In September 2024, the Supreme Court granted bail to ex-Tamil Nadu minister V Senthil
Balaji in which case?
Ans 1. Money Laundering case
2. Corruption case
3. POSCO Act
4. Tax Evasion case
Q.107 Mirza Wajid Ali Shah was the king of which of the following regions during the Indian
Rebellion of 1857?
Ans 1. Awadh
2. Meerut
3. Kanpur
4. Satara
Q.108 Who among the following appoints the Administrator of a Union Territory without a
Legislative Assembly?
Ans 1. The Union Cabinet
2. The Prime Minister
3. Chief Minister of the State
4. The President of India
Q.109 The phenomenon of bending light when it passes through one transparent medium to
another is due to _________________.
Ans 1. scattering
2. refraction
3. diffraction
4. reflection
Q.110 Which of the following were done by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Ans 1. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18.
2. Introducing the anti-defection law.
3. Addition of word secular in the Preamble.
4. Limiting the size of Council of Ministers.
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Q.111 How much were ICICI Bank's provisions, excluding tax provisions, in Q3 2024?
m
co
Ans 1. ₹1,500 crore
. e m
m 2. ₹1,250 crore
as
se 3. ₹2,257 crore
ag l
4. ₹1,050 crore
Q.112 Who appoints the Chairman of National Green Tribunal?
Ans 1. He/She is appointed by the State Government.
2. He/She is appointed by the Home Minister.
3. He/She is appointed by the Central Government.
4. He/She is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
m
m .co
.co
Q.113 Who led the rebellions of 1857 at Allahabad?
em
s
Ans 1. Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope
e m l a
l as
2. Khan Bahadur Khan
ag
ag
3. Kunwar Singh
4. Maulvi Liyakat Ali
Q.114 On which of the following Sikh Guru's birth anniversary is the Prakash Parv celebrated?
Ans 1. Guru Nanak Dev
2. Guru Gobind Singh
3. Guru Teg Bahadar
4. Guru Hargobind Singh
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Principles of State Policy?
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Q.115 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has NOT inserted any Directive
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Ans 1. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
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3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
4. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
Q.116 The Bank Clinic is an initiative launched in June 2024 by the _______ to help customers
address their grievances in retail banking.
Ans 1. All India Bank Employees' Association (AIBEA)
2. Ministry of Finance
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3. Indian Banking Association (IBA)
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4. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
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Q.117 Who is the author of the book ‘An Uncommon Love: The Early Life of Sudha and
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Narayana Murthy’, published in 2024?
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1. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
2. Rohan Murty
3. Akshata Narayana Murty
4. Sunanda Kulkarni
Q.118 The Green Revolution was associated with which of the following techniques?
Ans 1. Crop rotation
2. Terrace farming
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3. Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
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4. Organic farming
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