NIOS Class 10 Question Paper 2023 Hindustani Music
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NIOS Class 10 Question Paper 2023 Hindustani Music – Text
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Page 1
This Question Paper consists of 20 questions and 8 printed pages.
Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| 20 àíZ VWm 8 ‘w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢& Code No.
H$moS> Z§0
65/S/A
u
Roll No.
AZwH$« ‘m§H$ Set / goQ>
HINDUSTANI MUSIC
qhXþñVmZr g§JrV
(242)
Day and Date of Examination ..........................................................................................
(narjm H$m {XZ d {XZm§H$)
Signature of Invigilators 1. .....................................................................................
({ZarjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja)
2. .....................................................................................
General Instructions :
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number on the first page of the Question
Paper.
2. Please check the Question Paper to verify that the total pages and total
number of questions contained in the Question Paper are the same as those
printed on the top of the first page. Also check to see that the questions are
in sequential order.
3. For the objective type of questions, you have to choose any one of the four
alternatives given in the question, i.e., (A), (B), (C) or (D) and indicate your
correct answer in the Answer-Book given to you.
4. Making any identification mark in the Answer-Book or writing Roll Number
anywhere other than the specified places will lead to disqualification of the
candidate.
5. (a) The Question Paper is Bilingual, i.e., English/Hindi. However, if you wish,
you can answer in any one of the languages listed below :
English, Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi, Bengali, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada,
Telugu, Marathi, Odia, Gujarati, Konkani, Manipuri, Assamese, Nepali,
Kashmiri, Sanskrit and Sindhi.
You are required to indicate the language you have chosen to answer in
the box provided in the Answer-Book.
242/S/A/522 [ P.T.O.
Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| 20 àíZ VWm 8 ‘w{ÐV n¥ð> h¢& Code No.
H$moS> Z§0
65/S/A
u
Roll No.
AZwH$« ‘m§H$ Set / goQ>
HINDUSTANI MUSIC
qhXþñVmZr g§JrV
(242)
Day and Date of Examination ..........................................................................................
(narjm H$m {XZ d {XZm§H$)
Signature of Invigilators 1. .....................................................................................
({ZarjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja)
2. .....................................................................................
General Instructions :
1. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number on the first page of the Question
Paper.
2. Please check the Question Paper to verify that the total pages and total
number of questions contained in the Question Paper are the same as those
printed on the top of the first page. Also check to see that the questions are
in sequential order.
3. For the objective type of questions, you have to choose any one of the four
alternatives given in the question, i.e., (A), (B), (C) or (D) and indicate your
correct answer in the Answer-Book given to you.
4. Making any identification mark in the Answer-Book or writing Roll Number
anywhere other than the specified places will lead to disqualification of the
candidate.
5. (a) The Question Paper is Bilingual, i.e., English/Hindi. However, if you wish,
you can answer in any one of the languages listed below :
English, Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi, Bengali, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada,
Telugu, Marathi, Odia, Gujarati, Konkani, Manipuri, Assamese, Nepali,
Kashmiri, Sanskrit and Sindhi.
You are required to indicate the language you have chosen to answer in
the box provided in the Answer-Book.
242/S/A/522 [ P.T.O.
Page 2
(b) If you choose to write the answer in the language other than Hindi and
English, the responsibility for any errors/mistakes in understanding the
questions will be yours only.
6. Candidate will not be allowed to take Calculator, Mobile Phone, Bluetooth,
Earphone or any such electronic devices in the Examination Hall.
7. In case of any doubt or confusion in the question paper, the English version
will prevail.
8. Write your Question Paper Code No. 65/S/A, Set u on the Answer-Book.
gm‘mݶ AZwXoe …
1. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ Ho$ nhbo n¥ð> na AnZm AZwH«$‘m§H$ Adí¶ {bI|&
2. H¥$n¶m àíZ-nÌ H$mo Om±M b| {H$ àíZ-nÌ Ho$ Hw$b n¥ð>m| VWm àíZm| H$s g§»¶m CVZr hr h¡ {OVZr àW‘ n¥ð> Ho$ g~go
D$na N>nr h¡& Bg ~mV H$s Om±M ^r H$a b| {H$ àíZ H«${‘H$ ê$n ‘| h¢&
3. dñVw{Zð> àíZm| _o§ AmnH$mo Mma {dH$ënm| (A), (B), (C) VWm (D) _| go H$moB© EH$ CÎma MwZZm h¡ VWm Xr JB©
CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| ghr CÎma {bIZm h¡&
4. CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| nhMmZ-{M• ~ZmZo AWdm {Z{X©ï> ñWmZm| Ho$ A{V[aº$ H$ht ^r AZwH«$‘m§H$ {bIZo na narjmWu H$mo
A¶mo½¶ R>ham¶m OmEJm&
5. (H$) ¶h n«íZ-nÌ Xmo ^mfmAm| ‘| h¡ AWm©V² A§J«oOr Ed§ qhXr& {’$a ^r, ¶{X Amn Mmh| Vmo ZrMo Xr JB© {H$gr EH$ ^mfm
‘| CÎma Xo gH$Vo h¢ …
A§J«oOr, {hÝXr, CXÿ©, n§Om~r, ~§Jbm, V{‘b, ‘b¶mb‘, H$Þ‹S>, VobwJy, ‘amR>r, C{‹S>¶m, JwOamVr, H$m|H$Ur,
‘{Unwar, Ag{‘¶m, Zonmbr, H$í‘rar, g§ñH¥$V Am¡a {gÝYr&
H¥$n¶m CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| {XE JE ~m°³g ‘| {bI| {H$ Amn {H$g ^mfm ‘| CÎma {bI aho h¢&
(I) ¶{X Amn {hÝXr Ed§ A§J«oOr Ho$ A{V[aº$ {H$gr Aݶ ^mfm ‘| CÎma {bIVo h¢, Vmo àíZm| H$mo g‘PZo ‘| hmoZo dmbr
Ìw{Q>¶m|/Jb{V¶m| H$s {Oå‘oXmar Ho$db AmnH$s hmoJr&
6. narjmWu H$mo narjm hm°b ‘| H¡$ëHw$boQ>a, ‘mo~mBb ’$moZ, ãbyQy>W, B¶a’$moZ O¡go {H$gr ^r Bbo³Q´>m°{ZH$ CnH$aU H$mo bo
OmZo H$s AZw‘{V Zht h¡&
7. àíZ-nÌ ‘| {H$gr ^r àH$ma Ho$ g§Xoh AWdm Xþ{dYm H$s pñW{V ‘| A§J«oOr AZwdmX hr ‘mݶ hmoJm&
8. AnZr CÎma-nwpñVH$m na àíZ-nÌ H$m H$moS> Z§0 65/S/A, goQ> u {bI|&
242/S/A/522 2
English, the responsibility for any errors/mistakes in understanding the
questions will be yours only.
6. Candidate will not be allowed to take Calculator, Mobile Phone, Bluetooth,
Earphone or any such electronic devices in the Examination Hall.
7. In case of any doubt or confusion in the question paper, the English version
will prevail.
8. Write your Question Paper Code No. 65/S/A, Set u on the Answer-Book.
gm‘mݶ AZwXoe …
1. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ Ho$ nhbo n¥ð> na AnZm AZwH«$‘m§H$ Adí¶ {bI|&
2. H¥$n¶m àíZ-nÌ H$mo Om±M b| {H$ àíZ-nÌ Ho$ Hw$b n¥ð>m| VWm àíZm| H$s g§»¶m CVZr hr h¡ {OVZr àW‘ n¥ð> Ho$ g~go
D$na N>nr h¡& Bg ~mV H$s Om±M ^r H$a b| {H$ àíZ H«${‘H$ ê$n ‘| h¢&
3. dñVw{Zð> àíZm| _o§ AmnH$mo Mma {dH$ënm| (A), (B), (C) VWm (D) _| go H$moB© EH$ CÎma MwZZm h¡ VWm Xr JB©
CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| ghr CÎma {bIZm h¡&
4. CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| nhMmZ-{M• ~ZmZo AWdm {Z{X©ï> ñWmZm| Ho$ A{V[aº$ H$ht ^r AZwH«$‘m§H$ {bIZo na narjmWu H$mo
A¶mo½¶ R>ham¶m OmEJm&
5. (H$) ¶h n«íZ-nÌ Xmo ^mfmAm| ‘| h¡ AWm©V² A§J«oOr Ed§ qhXr& {’$a ^r, ¶{X Amn Mmh| Vmo ZrMo Xr JB© {H$gr EH$ ^mfm
‘| CÎma Xo gH$Vo h¢ …
A§J«oOr, {hÝXr, CXÿ©, n§Om~r, ~§Jbm, V{‘b, ‘b¶mb‘, H$Þ‹S>, VobwJy, ‘amR>r, C{‹S>¶m, JwOamVr, H$m|H$Ur,
‘{Unwar, Ag{‘¶m, Zonmbr, H$í‘rar, g§ñH¥$V Am¡a {gÝYr&
H¥$n¶m CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| {XE JE ~m°³g ‘| {bI| {H$ Amn {H$g ^mfm ‘| CÎma {bI aho h¢&
(I) ¶{X Amn {hÝXr Ed§ A§J«oOr Ho$ A{V[aº$ {H$gr Aݶ ^mfm ‘| CÎma {bIVo h¢, Vmo àíZm| H$mo g‘PZo ‘| hmoZo dmbr
Ìw{Q>¶m|/Jb{V¶m| H$s {Oå‘oXmar Ho$db AmnH$s hmoJr&
6. narjmWu H$mo narjm hm°b ‘| H¡$ëHw$boQ>a, ‘mo~mBb ’$moZ, ãbyQy>W, B¶a’$moZ O¡go {H$gr ^r Bbo³Q´>m°{ZH$ CnH$aU H$mo bo
OmZo H$s AZw‘{V Zht h¡&
7. àíZ-nÌ ‘| {H$gr ^r àH$ma Ho$ g§Xoh AWdm Xþ{dYm H$s pñW{V ‘| A§J«oOr AZwdmX hr ‘mݶ hmoJm&
8. AnZr CÎma-nwpñVH$m na àíZ-nÌ H$m H$moS> Z§0 65/S/A, goQ> u {bI|&
242/S/A/522 2
Page 3
HINDUSTANI MUSIC
qhXþñVmZr g§JrV
(242)
Time : 2 Hours ] [ Maximum Marks : 40
g‘¶ … 2 KÊQ>o ] [ nyUmªH$ … 40
Note : (i) All questions are compulsory and carry marks as indicated against
each question.
(ii) Question Nos. 1 to 6 are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For these
questions, you have to choose the most appropriate answer from
amongst the four choices given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), and write your
answer in the Answer-Book. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iii) Question Nos. 7 to 9 are Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions
carrying 1 mark each. Answer each question in about 15 words.
(iv) Question Nos. 10 to 17 are Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying
2 marks each. Answer each question in about 30 words.
(v) Question Nos. 18 to 20 are Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying
5 marks each. Answer each question in about 50 words.
{ZX}e … (i) g^r àíZ A{Zdm¶© h¡§ Am¡a à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ A§H$ CgHo$ gm‘Zo {XE JE h¢&
(ii) àíZ g§»¶m 1 go 6 VH$ ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àíZ h¢ & ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àH$ma Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ {bE CnbãY
Mma {dH$ënm| (A), (B), (C) Am¡a (D) ‘| go gdm©{YH$ Cn¶wº$ CÎma MwZH$a CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| {b{IE&
à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 1 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h¡&
(iii) àíZ g§»¶m 7 go 9 A{V bKw-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 15 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 1 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h¡&
(iv) àíZ g§»¶m 10 go 17 VH$ bKw-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 30 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 2 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h§¡&
(v) àíZ g§»¶m 18 go 20 VH$ XrK©-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 50 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 5 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h§¡&
242/S/A/522 3 [ P.T.O.
qhXþñVmZr g§JrV
(242)
Time : 2 Hours ] [ Maximum Marks : 40
g‘¶ … 2 KÊQ>o ] [ nyUmªH$ … 40
Note : (i) All questions are compulsory and carry marks as indicated against
each question.
(ii) Question Nos. 1 to 6 are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). For these
questions, you have to choose the most appropriate answer from
amongst the four choices given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), and write your
answer in the Answer-Book. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iii) Question Nos. 7 to 9 are Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions
carrying 1 mark each. Answer each question in about 15 words.
(iv) Question Nos. 10 to 17 are Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying
2 marks each. Answer each question in about 30 words.
(v) Question Nos. 18 to 20 are Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying
5 marks each. Answer each question in about 50 words.
{ZX}e … (i) g^r àíZ A{Zdm¶© h¡§ Am¡a à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ A§H$ CgHo$ gm‘Zo {XE JE h¢&
(ii) àíZ g§»¶m 1 go 6 VH$ ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àíZ h¢ & ~hþ{dH$ënr¶ àH$ma Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ {bE CnbãY
Mma {dH$ënm| (A), (B), (C) Am¡a (D) ‘| go gdm©{YH$ Cn¶wº$ CÎma MwZH$a CÎma-nwpñVH$m ‘| {b{IE&
à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 1 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h¡&
(iii) àíZ g§»¶m 7 go 9 A{V bKw-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 15 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 1 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h¡&
(iv) àíZ g§»¶m 10 go 17 VH$ bKw-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 30 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 2 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h§¡&
(v) àíZ g§»¶m 18 go 20 VH$ XrK©-CÎmar¶ àíZ h¢& à˶oH$ àíZ H$m CÎma bJ^J 50 eãXm| ‘|
{b{IE& à˶oH$ àíZ Ho$ {bE 5 A§H$ {ZYm©[aV h§¡&
242/S/A/522 3 [ P.T.O.
Page 4
1. The different tonal quality of Nada produced through different mediums is
called
(A) pitch (B) intensity
(C) timbre (D) brahmarupa 1
{^Þ-{^Þ ‘mܶ‘m| go CËnÞ ZmX H$s {^Þ-{^Þ {deofVmAm| go ¶wº$ Üd{Z H$mo H$hm OmVm h¡
(A) VmaVm (B) Vrd«Vm
(C) Om{V (D) ~«÷ê$n
2. Laukik Swaras were first mentioned in the treatise
(A) Natya Shastra (B) Brihaddeshi
(C) Sangeet Parijat (D) Sangeet Ratnakar 1
bm¡{H$H$ ñdam| H$m gd©àW‘ C„oI {H$g J«ÝW ‘| hþAm Wm?
(A) ZmQ>çemó (B) ~¥hÔoer
(C) g§JrV nm[aOmV (D) g§JrV aËZmH$a
3. Tempo of the musical tune is called
(A) Matra (B) Laya
(C) Tala (D) Avartan 1
gm§Jr{VH$ g‘¶ H$s J{V H$mo H$hm OmVm h¡
(A) ‘mÌm (B) b¶
(C) Vmb (D) AmdV©Z
242/S/A/522 4
called
(A) pitch (B) intensity
(C) timbre (D) brahmarupa 1
{^Þ-{^Þ ‘mܶ‘m| go CËnÞ ZmX H$s {^Þ-{^Þ {deofVmAm| go ¶wº$ Üd{Z H$mo H$hm OmVm h¡
(A) VmaVm (B) Vrd«Vm
(C) Om{V (D) ~«÷ê$n
2. Laukik Swaras were first mentioned in the treatise
(A) Natya Shastra (B) Brihaddeshi
(C) Sangeet Parijat (D) Sangeet Ratnakar 1
bm¡{H$H$ ñdam| H$m gd©àW‘ C„oI {H$g J«ÝW ‘| hþAm Wm?
(A) ZmQ>çemó (B) ~¥hÔoer
(C) g§JrV nm[aOmV (D) g§JrV aËZmH$a
3. Tempo of the musical tune is called
(A) Matra (B) Laya
(C) Tala (D) Avartan 1
gm§Jr{VH$ g‘¶ H$s J{V H$mo H$hm OmVm h¡
(A) ‘mÌm (B) b¶
(C) Vmb (D) AmdV©Z
242/S/A/522 4
Page 5
4. Which Tala has ten Matras? 1
(A) Teental (B) Chautal
(C) Jhaptal (D) Keharwa
{H$g Vmb ‘| Xg ‘mÌmE± hmoVr h¢?
(A) VrZVmb (B) Mm¡Vmb
(C) PnVmb (D) H$hadm
5. How many Vibhags are there in Chautal? 1
(A) 2 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4
Mm¡Vmb ‘| {H$VZo {d^mJ hmoVo h¢?
(A) 2 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4
6. Which symbol is used to show Meend in Bhatkhande Notation system? 1
(A) (B)
(C) s (D) —
^mVIÊS>o ñda{b{n nÕ{V ‘| ‘tS> H$m ³¶m {M• h¡?
(A) (B)
(C) s (D) —
7. Which instrument is used for accompaniment of ‘Dhamar’ ? Write its total
number of Matras. 1
"Y‘ma' Ho$ gmW H$m¡Z-gr Vmb ~OmB© OmVr h¡? CgH$s Hw$b ‘mÌmAm| H$s g§»¶m {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 5 [ P.T.O.
(A) Teental (B) Chautal
(C) Jhaptal (D) Keharwa
{H$g Vmb ‘| Xg ‘mÌmE± hmoVr h¢?
(A) VrZVmb (B) Mm¡Vmb
(C) PnVmb (D) H$hadm
5. How many Vibhags are there in Chautal? 1
(A) 2 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4
Mm¡Vmb ‘| {H$VZo {d^mJ hmoVo h¢?
(A) 2 (B) 7
(C) 6 (D) 4
6. Which symbol is used to show Meend in Bhatkhande Notation system? 1
(A) (B)
(C) s (D) —
^mVIÊS>o ñda{b{n nÕ{V ‘| ‘tS> H$m ³¶m {M• h¡?
(A) (B)
(C) s (D) —
7. Which instrument is used for accompaniment of ‘Dhamar’ ? Write its total
number of Matras. 1
"Y‘ma' Ho$ gmW H$m¡Z-gr Vmb ~OmB© OmVr h¡? CgH$s Hw$b ‘mÌmAm| H$s g§»¶m {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 5 [ P.T.O.
Page 6
8. Write the names of seven Vedic Swaras and their counterparts in
Laukik Swaras. 1
gmV d¡{XH$ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ VWm CZHo$ g‘mZmWu bm¡{H$H$ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
9. Write the definition of Vaggeyakara. 1
dm½Jo¶H$ma H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE&
10. Write the definition of Raga. Write any five characteristics of Raga. 2
amJ H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE& amJ Ho$ {H$Ýht nm±M {Z¶‘m| H$mo {b{IE&
11. Write the definition of Dhrupad. 2
Y«wnX H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE&
12. Complete the Alankar : 2
Sa Re Ga, Re Ga Ma _____
Ab§H$ma nyU© H$s{OE :
gm ao J, ao J ‘ _____
13. How many Swaras out of 12 Swaras are required to form a Thata? 2
EH$ WmQ> ~ZmZo Ho$ {bE 12 ñdam| ‘| go {H$VZo ñda hmoZo Mm{hE?
14. Write the names of the two parts of Archik in Sama Veda. Write the names
of the four parts of Gana Samhita. Write the names of five Bhaktis of
Samagana. 2
"gm‘doX' ‘| Am{M©H$ Ho$ Xmo ^mJm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& "JmZ g§{hVm' Ho$ Mma ^mJm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& gm‘JmZ
H$s nm±M ^{º$¶m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 6
Laukik Swaras. 1
gmV d¡{XH$ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ VWm CZHo$ g‘mZmWu bm¡{H$H$ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
9. Write the definition of Vaggeyakara. 1
dm½Jo¶H$ma H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE&
10. Write the definition of Raga. Write any five characteristics of Raga. 2
amJ H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE& amJ Ho$ {H$Ýht nm±M {Z¶‘m| H$mo {b{IE&
11. Write the definition of Dhrupad. 2
Y«wnX H$s n[a^mfm {b{IE&
12. Complete the Alankar : 2
Sa Re Ga, Re Ga Ma _____
Ab§H$ma nyU© H$s{OE :
gm ao J, ao J ‘ _____
13. How many Swaras out of 12 Swaras are required to form a Thata? 2
EH$ WmQ> ~ZmZo Ho$ {bE 12 ñdam| ‘| go {H$VZo ñda hmoZo Mm{hE?
14. Write the names of the two parts of Archik in Sama Veda. Write the names
of the four parts of Gana Samhita. Write the names of five Bhaktis of
Samagana. 2
"gm‘doX' ‘| Am{M©H$ Ho$ Xmo ^mJm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& "JmZ g§{hVm' Ho$ Mma ^mJm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& gm‘JmZ
H$s nm±M ^{º$¶m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 6
Page 7
15. Write the names of Gitis as discussed in Sangeet Ratnakar. 2
"g§JrV aËZmH$a' ‘| d{U©V Jr{V¶m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
Or / AWdm
Give a brief introduction of Natya, Nritya and Nritta as discussed by
Pt. Sharangadeva in Sangeet Ratnakar.
"g§JrV aËZmH$a' ‘| n§0 em“©Xod Ûmam d{U©V ZmQ>ç, Z¥Ë¶ d Z¥Îm H$m g§{já n[aM¶ Xr{OE&
16. Write the names of pure Jatis (Jatigana) as given in Sangeet Parijat.
Write the names of Angas of Prabandha as given in Sangeet Parijat. 2
"g§JrV nm[aOmV' ‘| Xr JB© ewÕ Om{V¶m| (Om{VJmZ) Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& "g§JrV nm[aOmV' ‘| {XE JE à~§Y
Ho$ A§Jm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
17. Write the names of the three notes used during Vedic period. Write the
symbols initially used to show the pitches of the Vedic notes. Write the
numerals used to show the pitches of the notes during Vedic period. Which
syllables were used in Brihaddeshi to show the notes? 2
d¡{XH$ H$mb ‘| à¶wº$ hmoZo dmbo VrZ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& d¡{XH$ ñdam| H$s VmaVm Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE à¶wº$
{M•m| H$mo {b{IE& d¡{XH$ H$mb ‘| ñdam| H$s VmaVm Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE à¶wº$ A§H$m| H$mo {b{IE& "~¥hÔoer'
‘| ñdam| H$mo Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE {H$Z eãXm| H$m à¶moJ {H$¶m J¶m Wm?
18. In which languages Sadarang-Adarang composed Khyal compositions?
Which Talas were used by Sadarang-Adarang for Khyal compositions?
Write the name of the Emperor in whose Court Sadarang was the Court
Veena player. Write the period of birth of Niyamat Khan. Which pen name
is found in the compositions of Sadarang? 5
gXma§J-AXma§J Zo {H$Z ^mfmAm| ‘| »¶mb aMZmE± ~ZmBª? gXma§J-AXma§J Ûmam »¶mb H$s ~pÝXem| Ho$ {bE
{H$Z Vmbm| H$m à¶moJ {H$¶m J¶m Wm? Cg ~mXemh H$m Zm‘ {b{IE {OZHo$ Xa~ma ‘| gXma§J Xa~mar
drUmdmXH$ Wo& {Z¶m‘V ImZ Ho$ OÝ‘ H$m H$mb {b{IE& gXma§J H$s ~pÝXem| ‘| {H$g CnZm‘ H$m à¶moJ
{‘bVm h¡?
242/S/A/522 7 [ P.T.O.
"g§JrV aËZmH$a' ‘| d{U©V Jr{V¶m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
Or / AWdm
Give a brief introduction of Natya, Nritya and Nritta as discussed by
Pt. Sharangadeva in Sangeet Ratnakar.
"g§JrV aËZmH$a' ‘| n§0 em“©Xod Ûmam d{U©V ZmQ>ç, Z¥Ë¶ d Z¥Îm H$m g§{já n[aM¶ Xr{OE&
16. Write the names of pure Jatis (Jatigana) as given in Sangeet Parijat.
Write the names of Angas of Prabandha as given in Sangeet Parijat. 2
"g§JrV nm[aOmV' ‘| Xr JB© ewÕ Om{V¶m| (Om{VJmZ) Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& "g§JrV nm[aOmV' ‘| {XE JE à~§Y
Ho$ A§Jm| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
17. Write the names of the three notes used during Vedic period. Write the
symbols initially used to show the pitches of the Vedic notes. Write the
numerals used to show the pitches of the notes during Vedic period. Which
syllables were used in Brihaddeshi to show the notes? 2
d¡{XH$ H$mb ‘| à¶wº$ hmoZo dmbo VrZ ñdam| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE& d¡{XH$ ñdam| H$s VmaVm Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE à¶wº$
{M•m| H$mo {b{IE& d¡{XH$ H$mb ‘| ñdam| H$s VmaVm Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE à¶wº$ A§H$m| H$mo {b{IE& "~¥hÔoer'
‘| ñdam| H$mo Xem©Zo Ho$ {bE {H$Z eãXm| H$m à¶moJ {H$¶m J¶m Wm?
18. In which languages Sadarang-Adarang composed Khyal compositions?
Which Talas were used by Sadarang-Adarang for Khyal compositions?
Write the name of the Emperor in whose Court Sadarang was the Court
Veena player. Write the period of birth of Niyamat Khan. Which pen name
is found in the compositions of Sadarang? 5
gXma§J-AXma§J Zo {H$Z ^mfmAm| ‘| »¶mb aMZmE± ~ZmBª? gXma§J-AXma§J Ûmam »¶mb H$s ~pÝXem| Ho$ {bE
{H$Z Vmbm| H$m à¶moJ {H$¶m J¶m Wm? Cg ~mXemh H$m Zm‘ {b{IE {OZHo$ Xa~ma ‘| gXma§J Xa~mar
drUmdmXH$ Wo& {Z¶m‘V ImZ Ho$ OÝ‘ H$m H$mb {b{IE& gXma§J H$s ~pÝXem| ‘| {H$g CnZm‘ H$m à¶moJ
{‘bVm h¡?
242/S/A/522 7 [ P.T.O.
Page 8
19. Write any five names of the 22 modified notes given by Pt. Ahobal.
Write the names of four Varnas with a short description as explained by
Pt. Ahobal. 5
n§0 Ahmo~b Ûmam 22 {dH¥$V ñdam| H$mo {XE JE Zm‘m| ‘| go H$moB© nm±M Zm‘ {b{IE& n§0 Ahmo~b Ûmam
d{U©V Mma dUm] Ho$ Zm‘ CZHo$ g§{já {ddaU Ho$ gmW {b{IE&
20. Write any three major contributions of Pt. V. N. Bhatkhande. Write the
names of any four books written by Pt. Bhatkhande. 5
n§0 dr0 EZ0 ^mVIÊS>o Ho$ {H$Ýht VrZ à‘wI ¶moJXmZm| Ho$ ~mao ‘| {b{IE& n§0 ^mVIÊS>o Ûmam {b{IV
{H$Ýht Mma nwñVH$m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 [V23—4950] 8
Write the names of four Varnas with a short description as explained by
Pt. Ahobal. 5
n§0 Ahmo~b Ûmam 22 {dH¥$V ñdam| H$mo {XE JE Zm‘m| ‘| go H$moB© nm±M Zm‘ {b{IE& n§0 Ahmo~b Ûmam
d{U©V Mma dUm] Ho$ Zm‘ CZHo$ g§{já {ddaU Ho$ gmW {b{IE&
20. Write any three major contributions of Pt. V. N. Bhatkhande. Write the
names of any four books written by Pt. Bhatkhande. 5
n§0 dr0 EZ0 ^mVIÊS>o Ho$ {H$Ýht VrZ à‘wI ¶moJXmZm| Ho$ ~mao ‘| {b{IE& n§0 ^mVIÊS>o Ûmam {b{IV
{H$Ýht Mma nwñVH$m| Ho$ Zm‘ {b{IE&
242/S/A/522 [V23—4950] 8
Document Details
| Board / Org | NIOS |
| Exam | National Institute of Open Schooling Class 10 |
| Type | Question Paper |
| Pages | 8 |
| Updated | 22 Jul 2026 |