JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 2 English Question Paper

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JEE Advanced 2026
Question Paper · Paper
2 English
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JEE Advanced 2026 Question Paper Paper 2 English

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 2

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SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
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Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
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: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
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Zero Marks
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
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Q.1 Let g⃗,l ⃗⃗ be two vectors, and let , and be the points with position vectors ⃗ , ⃗⃗ and a ⃗ + ⃗⃗,
a
respectively, with respect to the origin . If | ⃗ + ⃗⃗| = √21 , | ⃗ − ⃗⃗| = 3 , and ⃗ and ( ⃗ − ⃗⃗) are
perpendicular to each other, then the area of the triangle is

(A) √3 (B) √3 (C) 3√3 (D) 3
2 2 2

Q.2
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Let be the tangent to the parabola 2 = 16 at the point (64, 32). Let be the tangent to the same

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parabola at another point ( 1 , 1 ) on the parabola. If and are perpendicular to each other, then
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the distance between the point ( 1 , 1 ) and the focus of the parabola, is
s
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(A) 15 (B) ag 4 (C) 17 (D) 5
4 4

Q.3 Let ∶ (−∞, ∞) → (0, ∞) be the solution of the differential equation

5 3 3
+
= 4
,
+
m
m satisfying 1
.co
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(0) = (log 2) is
em
. Then the value of
√2

e m las
las (A) (B) g
a √7 + √53
ag √
5 + √35
2 2
(C) 7 + √53 (D) 5 + √35
2 2

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.4 The value of the definite integral
2
1
∫
3 +3
0
is

(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) log e 3 (D) log e 3
2 3 3 2

2/9

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 2

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: a
20)

• This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
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Full Marks

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Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
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Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
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which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
l as
l as correct option;
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Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
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choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

em
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
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choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.
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Q.5 Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers. Consider the polynomial function : ℝ → ℝ defined by

10
( )= 10
(( 2 − 1)10 ), for all ∈ ℝ.

10
Here 10
(( 2 − 1)10 ) is the 10th order derivative of the function ( 2 − 1)10 .

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Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

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s e (A) The coefficient of 8
in the polynomial (
18!
) is (−10) ( )
g la
la a
8!

ag (B)
(C)
The value of (1) + (−1) is equal to 10! 2
The degree of the polynomial ( ) is 10
11

(D) 10!
The constant term of the polynomial ( ) is − ( 5! )

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.6 Let , , be positive integers in arithmetic progression such that the equation
2
+ + =0

has only integer solutions.

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

(A) − is an integer multiple of
2
(B) Both the roots of the equation + + = 0 are odd integers
(C) If = 15 , then =8
2
(D) If = 8 , then = 3 is a root of the equation + + =0

Q.7 Let be the straight line joining the points (1, 2, −1) and (2, 3, 1). Let be the foot of the
perpendicular drawn from the point (4, −1, 5) to the line . Another line passing through
intersects at a point such that the point divides the line segment internally in the ratio
| | ∶ | | = 1 ∶ 2 , where | | and | | are the lengths of the line segments and ,
respectively.

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

(A) 23 31
The orthocentre of the triangle is ( 5 , −4, 5 )
(B) The orthocentre of the triangle is (4, 3, 5)
(C) The area of the triangle is 6√5
(D) The area of the triangle is 18√5

Q.8 Let = ( ) be the real valued function defined on the interval (0, ∞) , satisfying (1) = 0 and
the differential equation

3
= − .

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

1
(A) The function has a local minimum at =
√3
1
(B) The function has a local maximum at = 3
√
(C) The function is increasing in the interval (1, 2)
3
(D) If ( )=4 3−5 2+ for > 0, then the number of elements in the set
2

{ ∈ (0, ∞) ∶ ( ) = ( )}
is 2

4/9

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 2

se g la the matrices
Q.9 Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers and let = √−1 . Consider
a
0 −1 1 1
=[ ] and =[ ].
1 0 0 1

Let , , , be real numbers such that
=[ ].
Let
={ + ∶ , ∈ ℝ and >0}.
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Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?
s e m
s em g l a
(A) la = +
a
a g +

(B) −1+ √3 +
If = 2
, then +
=

(C) If is an integer greater than 2 such that ( )2 = ( ) , then is an integer multiple
of 8

(D) +
If ∈ , then ∈
+

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 20)

• This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.10 Let ℕ denote the set of all positive integers. Consider the sets

= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} .

Let be the set of all functions : → such that (2) ≠ 2 and (4) ≠ 4. Consider the set

={ ∈ ∶ there exists a function ∶ → ℕ such that ( ( )) = 2 for all ∈ }.

Then the number of elements in the set is ___________.

Q.11 A bookshelf contains 6 distinct books of Mathematics and 5 distinct books of Physics. From these
11 books, 6 books are chosen at random. Let be the absolute value of the difference between the
number of Mathematics books chosen and the number of Physics books chosen. If is the mean of
the random variable , then the value of 77 is ___________.

Q.12 Consider a data consisting of 10 observations 1 , 2 , … , 10 , whose mean is 5 and variance is 7 .
If the mean and the variance of the first 8 observations 1 , 2 , … , 8 are 4 and 3.5 , respectively,
and 9 < 10 , then the value of 3 9 + 2 10 is ___________.

2 2
Q.13 Consider the ellipse given by 18 + 12 = 1 . Let be the hyperbola whose eccentricity is the
reciprocal of the eccentricity of and whose foci are the same as that of . Let and be the
points of intersection of and the parabola √5 = 2 in the first quadrant. Let be the distance
between and .

If and are the integers such that 2
= + √5 , then the value of − is __________.

6/9

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 2

se g laor equal to . For a finite set ,
Q.14 For a real number , let [ ] denote the greatest integer less than
let | | denote the number of elements in the set . a
Consider the functions ∶ (−3, 3) → (−∞, ∞) and ∶ (−3, 3) → (−∞, ∞) defined by

( ) = [ 3 ] log (1 + sin2( ( − [ ])))
and
3
( )= sin2 ( log (1 + − [ ])).

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Let

.co m
= { ∈ (−3, 3) ∶ is discontinuous at }
s e
em a
and

a s = { ∈ (−3, 3) ∶ is discontinuous at }.
g l
g l a
a value of | | + 2| | − | ∩ | is ___________.
Then the

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 8)

• This section contains TWO (02) question stems.
• There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the
designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Question Stem for Question Nos. 15 and 16

Consider the curve 1 given by
−
= for ∈ [0, 10 ] ,

and the curve 2 given by

−
= (sin + cos ) for ∈ [0, 10 ] .

Let be the total number of points of intersection of the curves 1 and 2.

Suppose that 1 , 2 , … , ∈ [0, 10 ] are the - coordinates of the points of intersection of the curves
1 and 2 such that
1 < 2 <⋯< .

Q.15 The value of is ___________.

Q.16 Let be the area of the region enclosed between the curves 1, 2 , and the lines
= 1 and = 4 . Then the value of

1 −
− log ( − 2 2 )
is ___________.

8/9

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 2

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Question Stem for Question Nos. 17 and 18

Consider the ellipses given by

2
+4 2 =1 and 4 2+ 2
=1 .

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Q.17 Let
m
be the point in the first quadrant where the given ellipses intersect. If is the acute angle

m
between the tangents to the given ellipses at the point , then the value of 4 tan is ___________.
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Q.18 If is the area of the common region that lies inside both the given ellipses, then the value of
cot is ___________.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1 A metal wire of cross-sectional area 0.5 mm2 and length 100 m is connected across a battery of
e.m.f. 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω. The density, atomic mass and electrical conductivity of the
metal are 6.35 × 103 kg m−3, 63.5 gm/mole and 2 × 108 mho m−1, respectively. Assuming one
conduction electron per atom of the metal, the drift velocity (in mm s −1 ) of the electrons in the
wire is:
[Take Avogadro’s number as 6 × 1023 and charge of the electron as 1.6 × 10−19 C.]

(A) 0.052 (B) 0.104 (C) 0.208 (D) 0.156

Q.2 A nuclear reactor starts producing a radioactive nuclide from = 0, at a constant rate of per
second. Each decay of produces energy 0 , which is utilized to heat a liquid of mass and
specific heat . Assuming no heat loss from the liquid and taking as the decay constant of , the
rate of increase in the temperature of the liquid is:

(A) 0 − (B) 0
(1 − ) ( − 1)

(C) 0 − (D) 0 −
(1 − ) ( − )

Q.3 A beam of polychromatic light passes through a thin prism of prism angle 6°. The refractive index
of the material of the prism varies with wavelength ( ) as ( ) = + 2 , where = 3 m−1 and
= 0.096 m2 . If min is the wavelength at which the angle of minimum deviation is
smallest, then the correct value of at min is

(A) 6.4° (B) 4.8° (C) 3.2° (D) 2.4°

1/10

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 2

se Q.4 A particle of mass , and angular momentum ℓ is moving in a l
g a orbit of radius
a its angular momentum
circular 0
under the influence of an attractive force ⃗ ( ) = − ̂ . Keeping 2
unchanged, the particle is displaced radially by a small distance ≪ 0 , due to which its radial
distance varies periodically. The corresponding time period is:

(A) 2 ℓ3 (B) (C) 2 ℓ3 (D) 2 ℓ3
2
2 √
3 2 5 2

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 20)

 This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.

3/10

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 2

se Q.5 Consider two isosceles prisms 1 and 2 with prism angles andla and refractive indices and
, respectively, as shown in the figure. The faces
2 anda
g are parallel to each other and
1 1
1
2 2
2 1

perpendicular to the mirror . If a ray of light is incident on the face 1 1 and emerges from the
face 2 2 , then the correct statement(s) is/are:

m
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m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
(A) If both the prisms are at minimum deviation condition, then 2
= sin ( 1 ) / sin ( 2 ).
1 2 2
(B) If prism 2 is at minimum deviation condition, then sin 1 = 2
2 sin ( 2 ) is always true.

(C) If both the prisms 1 and 2 are thin and are at minimum deviation condition with angles of

o m
deviation 1 and 2 , respectively, then = 2( −1) 1
+ 2
.
c
. then sin = sin ( ) is always true.
1 2( 2 −1)

e m
(D) If prism 1 is at minimum deviation condition, 1

s
2 1 2

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Q.6 In a vacuum chamber, a particle of charge 1 C and mass 1 mg is projected with a velocity
( ̂ + 2 ̂) ms−1 from the plane at time = 0 in an electric field of 1 ̂ Vm−1 . At = 0.2 s, the
electric field is switched off and a magnetic field of 6 ̂ T is switched on. The acceleration due to
gravity is −10 ̂ ms−2. Correct option(s) is/are:

(A) The vertical distance of the particle from the plane at = 0.3 s is 15 cm.
(B) The vertical distance of the particle from the plane at = 0.4 s is 10 cm.
The radius of the trajectory of the particle for > 0.2 s is 20 cm.
m
(C)

m plane at = 0.35 s.
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(D) The particle will be in the

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s em Q.7 Two charges = and = are placed at the points ( , ) gandla ( , ), respectively,
g la 1 2 a 1 2

a in the
to charge
plane, where , ≠ 0 and
1 2
≠ 0, 1. If is the potential at a point in the
1 plane due
and is the potential at that point due to charge . Correct statement(s) for the 2
points at which | 1 | = | 2 | is/are:

(A) For = −1, locus of these points is + = 0.
(B) 2 2 centered at (2 2
For = 2, the locus of these points is a circle of radius √ 2 + , )
3 3 3
(C) For = −2, the locus of these points is a circle of radius 2√ 2 + 2 centered at (2 ,2 )
= −3, locus of these points is 3 +3 = 0.
m .
(D) For

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.8 Consider an electric dipole comprising two charges + and − each with mass , separated by a
fixed distance and initially at rest with its dipole moment pointing along .̂ A uniform electric
field ̂ is turned on at time = 0 and it is turned off at = , when the dipole moment makes an
angle with ̂. Neglecting any sources of energy loss, correct option(s) is/are:

(A) The center of mass of the dipole is deflected towards ̂ in the presence of the field.
(B) 2
If the magnitude of the final angular velocity =√ , then = .
6

(C) If = /3, then the change in kinetic energy of the dipole is given by 2√3 .
(D) For = /4, the dipole rotates around its center of mass with a constant angular velocity
after > .

Q.9 Ten moles of an ideal monoatomic gas, initially in state at atmospheric pressure and temperature
= 27°C, is enclosed in a metal cylinder of volume 0 fitted with a frictionless piston. The gas is
suddenly compressed to state with volume 0 /3. Now, keeping the piston stationary, the cylinder
is submerged in a water bath of temperature 11℃ until the gas reaches the temperature of the water
bath, which is denoted as state . Finally, while still in the water bath, the piston is brought slowly
to its initial position, which is denoted as state . If is universal gas constant, then the correct
option(s) is/are:
[Given: 91/3 = 2.08]

(A) The schematic P-V diagram of the processes described above is:

(B) The change in internal energy in going from state to is 4860R.
(C) The net change in the internal energy in the whole process is −240R.
(D) The pressure and temperature of the state are 2.08 times the atmospheric pressure and
624 K, respectively.

5/10

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 2

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 20)

 This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
m
decimal places.
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
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Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:

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Full Marks
s e
: +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
: 0 In all other cases.
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Zero Marks

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Q.10 Two thin wires, Wire-1 of diameter 0.650 mm and Wire-2 of unknown diameter are given. To
obtain the value of , the diameters of the two wires are measured with a screw gauge. The screw
gauge has a pitch of 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on the circular scale (CS). The smallest
division on the linear scale (LS) is 0.5 mm. The table shows the readings of LS and CS for the
measurements. The value of (in µm) is:

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Q.11 In a single slit diffraction experiment, a slit of width (0.016 ± 0.002) mm is used to measure the
wavelength of a monochromatic light source. In the diffraction pattern, the angular distance
between the central maximum and first minimum is measured to be (2° ± 40′). The value of the
fractional error in the measurement of wavelength is:
[Given: sin(2°) = 0.035]
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.12 As shown in the figure, a ray of unpolarized light enters from water of refractive index =
4/3 into a medium of refractive index = 4/√3 after passing through a glass plate of refractive
index = 1.5 and a layer of water. At a particular incident angle the reflected ray is
polarized in the direction as shown in the figure. The value of (in degrees) is:

Q.13 As shown in the figure, the resistance of a galvanometer can be found by the half-deflection
method. Here the resistance 2 is adjusted such that when the key is closed the deflection in the
galvanometer becomes half of the value as compared to when is open. Half-deflection is obtained
at 2 = 4 Ω and thus the galvanometer resistance is found to be 6 Ω. In this half-deflection
condition the current (in mA) through the resistor 1 is:

Q.14 In a new system of units, the units of mass, length, time and current are 5 kg, 5 m, 5 s and 5 A,
respectively. If μ0 and 0 are the permeability and permittivity of free space, respectively, then in this
new system of units, the magnitude of one SI unit of √ 0 / 0 , is:

7/10

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 2

se g l a
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 8)a

 This section contains TWO (02) question stems.
 There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the
designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.

m
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If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO

m
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decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
e m
e m
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
l as
l as
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Question Stem for Question Nos. 15 and 16

A container of height 2 m, length 2 m and breadth 1 m is made of insulating vertical walls and two
large area horizontal metal plates (M1 and M2 ) which extend far beyond the vertical walls in all
directions. The container is partitioned into two equal chambers with a thin insulating vertical wall.
The partition wall contains a small hole of cross-sectional area √10 cm2 near its bottom edge. Initially
the hole is closed and the left chamber of the container is completely filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant = 15 and the right chamber is empty ( = 1). At time = 0, the hole is opened and the
liquid flows from the left chamber to the right chamber. In both the chambers, the space above the
liquid has = 1 and is maintained at atmospheric pressure. The schematic of the container at a time
> 0 is shown in the figure.
[Given: acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms−2 .]

Q.15 The height (in m) of the liquid in left chamber at = 500 s is:

Q.16 The difference in the capacitance (in F) between the metal plates at = 0 and that at = 500 s
is (8 − ) 0 , where 0 is the permittivity of free space. The value of is:

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Question Stem for Question Nos. 17 and 18

A uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m and mass 1 kg is pivoted at its top point such that it can
rotate freely around in the plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, when the disk is at rest, a
particle of mass 20 g, travelling along negative direction in the plane with speed 100 ms−1,
hits the circumference of the disk at a point . After collision the particle moves along negative
direction at a speed of 90 ms −1.
[Given: the acceleration due to gravity (g) = − 10 ̂ ms−2]
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Q.17 After the collision the disk starts to rotate around point in the plane. The maximum change in
the height (in m) of its center is:

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Q.18 Amount of energy loss (in J) in the collision is:

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1 At 300 K, the molar conductivities of the aqueous solutions of three salts at two different
concentrations are given below:

The conductivity of a saturated aqueous solution of AgCl is 1.40×10−6 S cm−1 at 300 K. If the
solubility of AgCl in water at 300 K is X mol L−1, then log10(X −1) is

(Assume that AgCl dissolved in water ionizes completely and that the molar conductivity of saturated
AgCl solution is equal to its limiting molar conductivity.)

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Q.2 The correct order of ONO bond angle in the given species is

(A) NO2+ < NO2 < NO3– < NO2–
(B) NO2– < NO3– < NO2 < NO2+
(C) NO3– < NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
(D) NO2– < NO3– < NO2+ < NO2

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se g la X as the major product. X gives
Q.3 Natural rubber on complete ozonolysis (O /Zn-H O) gives compound
a NaOH gives Y as the major product.
3 2
positive iodoform and Tollen’s tests. X on heating with aqueous
Y is

(A) (B)

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.4 A known artificial sweetener X is composed of 4-chloro-4-deoxy-α-D-galactose and 1,6-dichloro-
1,6-dideoxy-β-D-fructose joined by a glycosidic linkage. Structure of D-galactose is given below:

The correct structure of X is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: a
20)

 This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
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Full Marks

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Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
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Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
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Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
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Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
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choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

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choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

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choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

Q.5 For a first-order reaction R ⟶ P at a given temperature, k is the rate constant. For this reaction, at
the given temperature, the concentrations of R and P at a time t are [R] and [P], respectively. The
correct graphical representation(s) for this reaction is(are)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.6 Correct statement(s) about the compounds P, Q and R is(are)

(A) P has two lone pairs of electrons on the central atom.
(B) Q has a perfect octahedral geometry.
(C) Q can act as a fluorinating agent.
(D) The molecular structure of R is trigonal pyramidal.

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Q.7 The correct statement(s) regarding the periodic properties of elements
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(A) Second ionization enthalpy of carbon atom is less than that of boron atom.
(B) Increasing order of ionic radii: Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
(C) Under identical conditions, in solid state, the density of potassium metal is more than density
of sodium metal.
(D) The H–H bond is weaker than F–F bond.

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Q.8 In the following reaction sequence, P, Q, S and T are the major products.

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(A) Q on treatment with ethanol generates
(B) S gives positive phthalein dye test.
(C) P is a dinitro compound.
(D) T is a coloured compound.

Q.9 The correct statement(s) regarding sugars is(are)
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Given: Specific rotations of L-(−)-glucose and L-(+)-fructose are −52.5 and +92.5, respectively.
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oxidized to saccharic acid.

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(B) Fructose gives a positive Fehling’s test because it isomerises to
aldohexose in the presence of Fehling’s reagent.
(C) Invert sugar is an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose formed after hydrolysis of
the corresponding disaccharide.
(D) Specific rotation of invert sugar is −40.

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 20)

 This section contains FIVE (05) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the
designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.10 Xa+ and Yb+ are hydrogen-like species. The wavelength of light absorbed during the transition
between the states with principal quantum numbers = 1 and = 2 of Xa+ is . The wavelength of
light absorbed during the transition between the states with principal quantum numbers = 2 and
= 4 of Yb+ is 9 . The lowest possible value of (a+b) is ____.

Q.11 At a given temperature, 0.45 g of acetic acid in 50 mL of water is shaken with 1.0 g of charcoal and
the pH of the resulting solution is 3.0. Assume, the adsorption of acetic acid from the aqueous solution
by charcoal follows Freundlich isotherm,

1/
=

If the plot of log10(x/m) against log10C gives a straight line with slope 1, the value of k in
L mol−1 is ____.

Given: The molar mass of acetic acid is 60 g mol−1.
The acid dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.0×10−5 at the given temperature.
x is the mass (in grams) of acetic acid adsorbed.
m is the mass (in grams) of charcoal.
C is the equilibrium concentration of acetic acid in the solution after the adsorption is complete.
k and n are constants for acetic acid–charcoal system at the given temperature.

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se aas given below:
Q.12 In a solvent S, a compound B is partially dissociated into C andlD
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B ⇌ 2C + 2D

B, C and D are non-volatile in nature. The molar mass of B is 10 times the molar mass of S. The
standard boiling point and the standard enthalpy of vaporization of S are 400 K and
10R J mol−1, respectively (R is the gas constant in J K−1 mol−1). A solution of B in S with an initial
concentration of B as 0.25% (mass/mass) has a boiling point of 408 K at 1 bar pressure. In this

m
solution, the mole percent of B that has been dissociated is ____.

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Q.13 Consider thatm .
the coordinating atoms of the ligands in cis-[Co(NH ) Cl ]Cl and mer-[Co(NH ) Cl ]se
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octahedralscomplexes
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laboth the complexes having one N atom and two Cl atoms at their corners is____. a
are at the vertices of an octahedron. The sum of total number of the triangular

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faces in

Q.14 In the following reaction sequence, major products X and Y are acyclic monomers.

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500 mol of X completely reacts with 500
g amol ofof YZ toformed
lamount give 1 mol of a single biodegradable acyclic

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copolymer Z as the only product. The in grams is ____.

Given:
Atomic mass (in amu): H : 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16, Br : 80

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 2

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 8)

 This section contains TWO (02) question stems.
 This section contains TWO (02) questions corresponding to each question stem.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the
designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Question Stem for Question Nos. 15 and 16

Two volatile liquids A and B form an ideal solution. Consider a 5 molal solution of B in A inside a closed
container having a total vapour pressure of 100 mm Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of pure A at 300K
is 105 mm Hg. Assume that A and B behave as ideal gases in the vapour phase.

Given:
The gas constant R = 0.08 L atm K−1 mol−1
Molar mass of A is 50 g mol−1
Molar mass of B is 57 g mol−1
Density of liquid B at 300 K is 0.5 g/mL
1 atm = 760 mm Hg

Q.15 At 300 K, the ratio of the molar volume of pure B in vapour phase to its molar volume in liquid
phase is ____.

Q.16 The mole fraction of B in vapour phase which is in equilibrium with this solution is ____.

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Question Stem for Question Nos. 17aand

Consider the following reaction sequence in which J, K, L and M are the major products.

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Given:
Atomic mass (in amu): H : 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16, S : 32, Br : 80, Ba : 137

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Q.17 The volume of 1 M aqueous H2SO4 required to completely neutralize the ammonia evolved
from 5.72 g of L in Kjeldahl’s method of nitrogen estimation is ____ mL.

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a the amount of BaSO formed from 3.79 g of M is
Q.18 In sulphur estimation by Carius method, 4
____ g.

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