JEE Advanced 2026 Paper 1 English Question Paper

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JEE Advanced 2026
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JEE Advanced 2026 Question Paper Paper 1 English

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se g l a
a
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
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Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
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: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
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Zero Marks
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
s e
s em g l a
g la the function : (0, ∞) → (−∞, ∞) given by a
a
Q.1 Consider

( ) = √ log e ( ) − +1.

Then which one of the following statements is TRUE ?

(A) The derivative of the function is decreasing in the interval (0, 1)
(B) The function
m ∈ (0, ∞)
has a local maximum at some point

. co point ∈ (0, ∞)
(C) The function has a local minimum at some
(D) The function has NEITHER a pointm
s e of local maximum NOR a point of local minimum in
the interval (0, ∞)
l a
ag
Q.2 Let be the point on the parabola = 2 such that the slope of the tangent to the parabola at the
point is 4 . Let be the point in the first quadrant lying on the circle 2 + 2 = 2 such that the
slope of the tangent to the circle at the point is −1 . Let be the point in the first quadrant lying
2 1
on the ellipse + 4 2 = 8 such that the slope of the tangent to the ellipse at the point is − 2 .
Then the radius of the circle passing through the points , and is
m
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.co s e(D)m
em
(A) √10 (B) √5 (C) 2√5
la
5

l as √
2
ag
ag

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la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.3 Which one of the following matrices can be obtained by performing elementary row transformations
on the 3 × 3 identity matrix ?

(A) 1 1 1 (B) 1 1 1
[1 1 1] [2 3 4]
1 1 1 1 2 1
(C) 1 1 1 (D) 1 1 1
[2 3 4] [ −1 1 2]
2 5 8 0 2 3

Q.4 Considering only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, the value of

1
cot −1 (cot(−11)) + 10 sin (2 cos−1 ( )) + 10 sin(2 tan−1 (2))
√2
is

(A) 3 +7 (B) 7 (C) 4 +7 (D) 3 −5

2/10

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se gl a
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: a
16)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
m
Full Marks

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Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
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Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
e m
e m
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
l as
l as correct option;
ag
ag
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
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choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;

e m
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

l as
choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.

ag
Q.5 Suppose that Box I contains 6 red balls and 9 green balls, and Box II contains 8 red balls and 12 green
balls. All the balls of Box I and Box II are mixed together and a ball is chosen at random from them.
Let 1 be the event that the ball chosen belonged to Box I and let 2 be the event that the ball chosen
belonged to Box II. Let 1 be the event that the ball chosen is red and let 2 be the event that the ball
chosen is green.

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Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?
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e la
(A) The events 1 and 1 are independent

las (B) The events and are dependent
2 2 g
a probability ( | )
ag (C) The conditional probability ( | ) is equal to the conditional
1 1 1 2
(D) The conditional probability ( 1| 1 ) is greater than the conditional probability ( 2| 2)

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.6 −1 −3 +2
Let be the plane such that it contains the straight line 2
= 3
= 1 and is perpendicular to
the plane + 2 + 3 = 4 . Let 1 be the plane which passes through the point (4, 2, 2) and is
parallel to .

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

(A) The equation of the plane is 7 − 5 + = −10
(B) The distance between the planes and 1 is 30
(C) The distance of the plane from the origin is 2√3
1
(D) The acute angle between the plane and the plane 2 + 2 + = 3 is cos−1 (3 3)
√

Q.7 Let ℝ denote the set of all real numbers. Let ∶ ℝ → ℝ be an arbitrary function and let
∶ ℝ → ℝ be the function defined by

( )= ( ) , for all ∈ℝ.

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

(A) The function is always continuous at =0
(B) If is continuous at = 0 , then is differentiable at =0
(C) If is differentiable at = 0 , then is continuous at =0
(D) If is differentiable at = 0 , then lim ( ) exists
→0

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se Q.8
g l a
2 −1 a
Consider the matrix
=[ ].
1 0

Let , , , , , , and be integers such that

26
26
=[ ] and ∑ =[ ].
=1

m
m
Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?
.co
m .co s e m
(A)
s e
There exists a 2 × 2 invertible matrix with real entries such that
g l a
g l a = [
1 1
] a
a 0 1

(B) The value of is 378

(C) For any two given integers and , there exist unique integers and such that

+ = and + =

(D)
m
For each positive real number , the system of linear equations
o
c
( +. ) +
e m+ ( + ) ==−11
l as
ag
has a unique solution

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
• If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.9 Let = {1, 2, 3, … , 10} . Consider the set

={ ∶ is an equivalence relation on the set such that has exactly 42 elements} .

Then the number of elements in is _____________.

Q.10 Consider the function ∶ (− 2 , 2 ) → (−∞, ∞) defined by

( ) = (| | + | − 1|) sin + [ sin ] ,

where [ sin ] is the greatest integer less than or equal to sin .

Let α be the total number of points in the interval (− 2 , 2 ) at which is NOT continuous, and
let be the total number of points in the interval (− 2 , 2 ) at which is NOT differentiable.

Then the value of + is ___________.

Q.11 The number of ways to distribute 10 identical red pens and 14 identical blue pens among four
persons such that each person gets 6 pens, is _____________.

Q.12 Let
3 9 27 81
= (1 − 2 cos ( )) (1 − 2 cos ( )) (1 − 2 cos ( )) (1 − 2 cos ( )) (1 − 2 cos ( )) .
11 11 11 11 11

2
Then the value of 5 − is _____________.

6/10

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se g l a
a
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 16)

• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of

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these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
•
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Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +4 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
e m
s
Full Marks
Zero Marks
e m
: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
l a
as
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
l ag
ag
Q.13
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

om + + 1 = 0
(P) If and are the distinct roots of the 2
(1)
equation 2 + + 1 = 0, then the
. c
quadratic equation with roots
e m
1
( +1)2026
1
and ( +1)2026 is
l a s
a g
(Q) If and are the distinct roots of the (2) 2
− +1 = 0
2
equation + + 1 = 0, then the
quadratic equation with roots
1 1
( 2027 and
+1) ( 2027 is
+1)

2
(R) If and are the distinct roots of the (3) + −1 = 0
equation 2 − + 1 = 0, then the value
1 1
of ( −1)2026 + ( −1)2026 is
m
m (S) If and are the distinct roots of the .co
.co m
(4) −1

m
equation 2 + − 1 = 0, then the value
s e
s e 1 1
of ( +1)3 + ( +1)3 is
g la
g la a
a (5) −4

(A) (P) → (1), (Q) → (2), (R) → (5), (S) → (4)
(B) (P) → (3), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → (5)
(P) → (1), (Q) → (2), (R) → (4), (S) → (5)
m .
(C)

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(P) → (2), (Q) → (3), (R) → (5), (S) → (4)
e m
(D)

em l as
las ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.14

Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) The number of elements in the set (1) is 1

{ ∈ [− , ] ∶ sin6 + cos4 = 1}

(Q) The number of elements in the set (2) is 2

{ ∈ [− , ] ∶ sin2 + cos6 = 1}
2 2

(R) The number of elements in the set (3) is 3

1
{ ∈ [− , ] ∶ cos 2 ( ) − sin2 = }
2 2

(S) The number of elements in the set (4) is 4

{ ∈ [−2 , 2 ] ∶ 6 sin2 ( ) − cos 3 = 3}
2

(5) is 5

(A) (P) → (2), (Q) → (5), (R) → (3), (S) → (4)
(B) (P) → (5), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (4)
(C) (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (1), (S) → (3)
(D) (P) → (4), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (5)

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se l a
and , consider the matrix ag
Q.15
For real numbers , , ,
1 1
− 2
√2 √
= 1 1 .
√3 √3
[ ]

Suppose that = , where is the transpose of the matrix , and is the 3 × 3 identity

m
matrix. Let

⃗ = ̂+
1
m
c. √3o ̂ + ̂ , =
1
̂+ ̂ + ̂ and ⃗⃗ = −
1
̂+
1
̂+ ̂.
m .co
√2 √2 √3
s e
s em g l a
g laeach entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
Match a
a
List-I List-II
2 2 (1) 0
(P) The value of + is

(Q) If ⃗ + + ⃗⃗ = ̂ for some real (2) 1
numbers , and , then the value
of is
m
(R) The value of |⃗ ⋅ ( × ⃗⃗ )| is c. o(3) 1

e m (4) √2

(S) The value of |⃗ × ( × ⃗⃗ )| is
l as 1
√3

ag (5)
5
6

(A) (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (2), (S) → (1)
(B) (P) → (4), (Q) → (5), (R) → (1), (S) → (2)
m
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(C) (P) → (5), (Q) → (3), (R) → (2), (S) → (1)
m (D) (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (1), (S) → (2)
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.16
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) The circle with centre (1, 2) and touching (1) the point (1, 1)
the straight line 3 + 4 = 1, passes
through

(Q) The common tangent to the circle (2) the point (7, 9)
2
+ 2 = 2 and the parabola 2 = 8
with positive slope, passes through

(R) Let be the end point of the latus rectum (3) the point (3, 2)
of the ellipse 3 2 + 4 2 = 48 such that
lies in the first quadrant. Then the normal
to the ellipse drawn at passes through

(S) Let be the hyperbola whose centre is at (4) the point (2, 5)
the origin, one of the foci is at (5, 0), and
one directrix is 5 + 16 = 0 .
Then passes through

(5) the point (8, 3√3 )

(A) (P) → (3), (Q) → (4), (R) → (1), (S) → (2)
(B) (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (1), (S) → (5)
(C) (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (4), (S) → (5)
(D) (P) → (4), (Q) → (1), (R) → (2), (S) → (3)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

10/10

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se g l a
a
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks:12)
 This section contains Four (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
m
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Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
m
.co
: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
m
Zero Marks
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
m s e
s e g l a
g a
l a large disk of radius and two smaller disks, each of radius = /50, lying on aits
Q.1 Consider
a
circumference, as shown in the figure. The smaller disks are initially in contact with each other,
with an angular separation Δ between their centers. They are made to roll without slipping in
opposite directions, with constant angular velocities and 2 while the large disk is held
stationary. The time at which the smaller disks are again in contact is:
[Use sin(Δ ) = Δ and ignore gravity.]

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s e
l a
ag
(A) 4 (B) 2
= 51 × (2 − )/ = 51 × (2 − ) /3
51 51
(C) 4 (D) 2
= 51 × (2 − ) /3 = 51 × (2 − ) /
51 51

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.2 Consider a circuit consisting of a capacitor of capacitance and a coil with turns per unit length,
cross sectional area and length , where 2 ≫ . There is another coil of length /2, cross
sectional area /2 and 2 turns per unit length completely inside the larger coil, as shown in the
figure. The ends of this smaller coil are connected with each other by an insulated conducting wire.
The self-inductance of the larger coil is . Neglecting edge effects and all the Ohmic resistances,
the resonant frequency of the circuit is:

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D)
2
√15 √5 √3 √
3

Q.3
A solid cylinder of radius rolls without slipping with a center of mass speed 0 =√3 on a
horizontal surface with a vertical edge, as shown in the figure. Here, is the acceleration due to the
gravity. At the moment when the cylinder loses contact with the surface due to rotation around the
corner, the speed of its center of mass is:

(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
5 3
√ √ √
7 15 7

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se a of curvature of the curved
Q.4 A double convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 andlradii
g
a . The correct plot showing the
surfaces 20 cm each is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
variation of the power, in the units of diopter ( ), as a function of is:

(A) (B)

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a
(C) (D)

g l a
a

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s e
l a
ag

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a

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks:16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.

Q.5 Consider a hydrogen atom with , , and denoting the velocity, orbital radius and kinetic
th
energy of the electron in the orbit, respectively. The electron undergoes a transition from the
th
orbit, emitting radiation corresponding to the Lyman series. Considering ℎ to be the Planck’s
constant and 0 the permittivity of the free space, the correct statement(s) is/are:

(A) ℎ
Magnitude of change in kinetic energy of electron can be expressed as | − 1 |.
4 1

(B) Magnitude of change in de Broglie wavelength of the electron can be expressed as
2 1 1
| − |.
4 0 1
2 1 1
(C) Frequency of the radiation emitted can be expressed as ( − ).
8 0ℎ 1

(D) ℎ
Magnitude of change in total energy of the electron can be expressed as | 1− |.
2 1

4/14

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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se a the horizontal plane such that
Q.6 A particle is thrown with a speed from a point at an angle lwith
g
a distance of 5 m from , as shown in
it passes through the point at a height of 1 m and horizontal
the figure. If acceleration due to gravity is ms −2 , then the correct statement(s) is/are:

m
c o m m .co
(A) If = 45. , then = e
e m o
ms .
5√ −1

l as
(B) Ifas= 45 , the particle reaches its maximum height before it reaches .
2

l
o
ag
(C) g If = 30 , the particle reaches its maximum height after reaching .
a o

1
(D) If = tan−1 ( ), then = 125√ ms −1 .
5

Q.7 A quasi-static cycle of a monoatomic ideal gas contains an isothermal process ( ), followed by an
isochoric process ( ) and an adiabatic process ( ) as shown in the figure. The volumes of the gas

m
are 1 and 2 at and , respectively. If the cycle has heat input in and output out , then the

.co
in − out
efficiency of the cycle is defined as = . The correct statement(s) is/are:

m
in
[Given: ln 2 ≈ 0.7]
s e
l a
ag

m
.co
(A) If 2 / 1 = 8, the heat released in the process is smaller than the heat absorbed in the
m (B) For a given value of / , does not depend on the temperature of themisothermal process.
.co
process .

m
2 1
s e of the gas at .
s e 2 1
g l a
(C) If / = 8, then the temperature of the gas at is 4 times the temperature

l a / = 8, a
ag
(D) If then the2pressure
1 of the gas at is 4 times the pressure of the gas at .

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.8 The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave travelling in vacuum is given by
0 sin(3 + 4 + ) ̂, where is the angular frequency. All quantities are in SI units. The correct
statement(s) about this wave is/are:
[Given: speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 ms −1 .]

1
(A) The wave is travelling in − (3 ̂ + 4 ̂ ) direction.
5
(B) The magnitude of the wave vector is 0.5 m−1 .
(C) The value of is 1.5 × 109 rad s −1 .
(D) The magnetic field associated with this wave is given by
0
sin(3 + 4 + )(4 ̂ − 3 ̂ ).

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks:16) gl
a
a
 This section contains Four (04) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the designated
place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
m
.co
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
m
.co
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
: 0 In all other cases.
e m
s
Zero Marks

s em g l a
g la a
a
Q.9 A tank contains two immiscible liquids of densities 6 and 2 . The higher density liquid is filled
up to a height /2 from the bottom. A thin rod of density and length is fully immersed and
hinged at the bottom so that it can oscillate freely, as shown in the figure. If the rod is slightly
2
disturbed from its equilibrium, the time period of small oscillations is √ , where is the
acceleration due to gravity. The value of is:

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ag

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.10 As shown in the figure, five Carnot engines, each with efficiency and same number of cycles per
unit time, are operating between six heat reservoirs. The amount of heat released per cycle by one
engine is completely absorbed by the next engine. Consider 0 to be the amount of heat absorbed
per cycle by the first engine and as the amount of total work done by all the engines per cycle,
211
then the net efficiency of the system is found to be net = = . The value of
243
is:
0

Q.11 As shown in the figure, an insulated container is fitted with a thermally conducting but immovable
partition ( 1 ) and a freely movable but thermally insulated piston ( 2 ). The partition 1 with
thermal conductivity , cross sectional area and width divides the container into two sections,
1 and 2 , each containing one mole of a monoatomic gas. The piston 2 moves freely such that the
gas in 2 is always at the atmospheric pressure. Initially, the difference between the temperatures of
Δ 0
1 and 2 is Δ 0 . The time it takes for the temperature difference to become 2 is / , where
is the universal gas constant. The value of is:
[ Given: ln 2 ≈ 0.7 ]

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m
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m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se g laits tip at the origin is rotating
Q.12 A hollow, right circular cone of base radius and height ℎ, with
about the Z-axis with an angular velocity , as shown ina the figure. The cone carries a total
charge uniformly distributed on its curved surface. The magnitude of magnetic field at a
2
0
point (0,0, ) , where ≫ and ≫ ℎ, is 3 . The value of is:
4

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks:16)

 This section contains Four (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of
these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se Q.13 List-I shows four configurations made of straight and semi-circular l
g a tubes containing air. A sound
narrow
a and a sound detector is placed at .
wave of wavelength = 0.29 m enters these structures at the point
Between the points and , the sound travels only through the tubes. List-II contains the possible smallest
values of (refer to the figures) for which the detector records maximum amplitude. Ignore effects of
sharp corners. [Given cos(15°) = 0.97]
Choose the option that best describes the match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) (1) 1.32 m

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
(Q) l a a
ag
(2) 1.19 m

(R) (3) 0.51 m

m
m .co
s e
l a
(S) ag (4) 0.29 m

(5) 0.13 m

m
m (A) P→4, Q→3, R→5, S→1 . co
.co emS→2
(B) P→4, Q→3, R→1, S→5
s
s em (C) P→3, Q→4, R→1, S→2
la
(D) P→3, Q→4, R→5,
g
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
la ag
11/14

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.14 In the List-I, four optical effects are mentioned. The physical phenomena of light which are
essential to describe these optical effects are given in List-II. Choose the option which describes
the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) Colorful sky in north polar region (Aurora (1) Dispersion and reflection
Borealis)
(Q) Partially polarized sun light (2) Total internal reflection
(R) Rainbow (3) Diffraction
(S) Dark and bright fringes (4) Scattering of light by molecules in the
atmosphere
(5) Emission of radiation from oxygen
and nitrogen atoms excited by charged
particles

(A) P→5, Q→4, R→1, S→3 (B) P→4, Q→2, R→1, S→3
(C) P→4, Q→1, R→2, S→3 (D) P→5, Q→4, R→1, S→2

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se Q.15 List-I contains four conducting loops lying in the
g l
plane, as ashown in the figures. The loops
are rotating about axis passing through the point with a
time period in clockwise direction.
The region > 0 contains a uniform magnetic field in the + direction. List-II contains the
qualitative variation of the induced current ( ) for each of these loops. Choose the option which
describes the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
(Q) (2)

m
(R)
c. o(3)
e m
l as
ag

(S) (4)

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e (5)
g la
g la a
a

(A) P → 5, Q → 4, R → 1, S → 3 (B) P → 3, Q → 2, R → 5, S → 4
m .
.co m
(C) P → 3, Q → 2, R → 1, S → 4 (D) P → 5, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 3
s e
s em l a
la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.16 List-I shows four planar structures made of uniform solid rods each of mass and length . In the List-II
′
the possible moment of inertia of these structures about an axis , which lies in the plane of the
structures, are given.
Choose the option that describes the correct match between the entries in List-I to those in List-II.

List-I List-II

(P) 5 2
(1)
4

(Q) 1 2
(2)
6

(R) 1 2
(3)
12

(S) 2 2
(4)
3

1 2
(5)
3

(A) P→ 5, Q→ 1, R→ 4, S→ 2 (B) P→ 1, Q→ 3, R→ 4, S→ 2
(C) P→ 5, Q→ 3, R→ 2, S→ 1 (D) P→ 5, Q→ 4, R→ 2, S→ 1

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se g l a
a
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
m
Full Marks

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Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
m
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Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
e m
m a
e (0.5 mol), initially at 2 bar pressure, is compressed at a constant temperature of g600l K s
a s
lsteps: first, against a constant external pressure of P bar (2 < P < 8), and then against aconstant
Q.1 An ideal gas
g
a pressure of 8 bar. At each step, the compression is stopped only when the pressure of the gas
in two
external
becomes equal to the external pressure. The total work done on the gas in these steps is W.
Considering all possible values of P (2 < P < 8) and taking the gas constant as R (in J K−1 mol−1), the
minimum value of |W| (in J) is

(A) 207R (B) 600R (C) 630R (D) 900R

m
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Q.2
s e
For a reversible reaction R ⇌ P, at constant temperature, both the forward and the backward reactions

l a
are first order elementary reactions with rate constants kf and kb, respectively. At time zero, the

ag
concentration of R is [R]0 and the concentration of P is zero. At any given time, [R] and [P] are the
concentrations of R and P, respectively. If kb = 4kf, the correct graphical representation of the reaction
is

(A) (B)

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m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a (C) (D)

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.3 The correct order of dipole moments for the given species is

(A) BF3 = NH4+ < NF3 < NH3
(B) BF3 < NH4+ < NF3 < NH3
(C) NH4+ < BF3 < NH3 < NF3
(D) BF3 < NH4+ < NH3 < NF3

Q.4 Considering LiBH4 reduces an ester group to the corresponding alcohol and does not reduce a
carboxylic acid group, the correct statement about the major products P, Q, R and S is

(A) P & Q are identical, and R & S are diastereomers.
(B) P & Q are diastereomers, and R & S are identical.
(C) P & Q are diastereomers, and R & S are diastereomers.
(D) P & Q are identical, and R & S are identical.

2/10

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 16) l
g a
 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
a
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;

m
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;

.co
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
m
.co m
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
m s e
s e correct option;
g l a
Zero Marks
g l a : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases. a
 a
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
m
.co
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and

em
choosing any other combination of options will get −1 marks.

l as
Q.5 The 2s and the 2p orbital energies ag
of hydrogen atom are E (H) and E (H), respectively. The 2s and
2s 2p
the 2p orbital energies of lithium atom are E (Li) and E (Li), respectively. The correct option(s)
2s 2p
about the orbital energies is(are)

(A) E2s(Li) < E2p(Li)
(B) E2s(H) = E2p(H)
(C) E2p(H) < E2s(Li)
m
.co
(D) E2s(H) > E2s(Li)
m
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s e g la
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
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la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.6 Correct statement(s) about the compounds X, Y and Z is(are)

(A) X is used for sterilizing drinking water.
(B) Y has a planar structure.
(C) Z is used in the enrichment of 235U.
(D) Y is a stronger Lewis base than ammonia.

Q.7 Reaction of PtF6 with oxygen (O2) gas results in the formation of an ionic compound, X+Y–.
Correct statement(s) is(are)

(A) The bond order of X+ is 1.5.
(B) Valence d-orbitals of the metal ion in X+Y– has 5 electrons.
(C) PtF6 acts as an oxidant in this reaction.
(D) PtF6 acts as a fluorinating agent in this reaction.

4/10

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se a
Q.8 In the following reaction sequence, Q, R, S and T are the majorlproducts.
g
a

m
m .co
.co s e m
s em g l a
g la a
a correct statement(s) about Q, R, S and T is(are)
The

(A) S on warming with ammoniacal AgNO3 results in the formation of silver mirror.
(B) Q on treatment with Cl2(excess)/UV gives gammaxane.
(C) T is a heterocyclic compound.
(D) R on acid catalyzed intramolecular cyclization followed by treatment with Zn-Hg/HCl gives
9,10-dihydroxyanthracene.
m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

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m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
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la ag
5/10

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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value corresponding to the answer in the
designated place using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad.
 If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.9 Two cylinders, both fitted with frictionless pistons, are filled with mixtures of He and Ar gases. In
the first cylinder, the masses of He and Ar are 1 and 2 , respectively. In the second cylinder, the
masses of He and Ar are 2 and 1 , respectively. The molar mass of Ar is 10 times the molar mass
of He. The external pressure applied by the piston on the first cylinder needs to be 5 times that on the
second cylinder so that the volume of the gas mixtures in both the cylinders are equal at the same
temperature. Assuming He and Ar behave like ideal gases, the value of ( 1 / 2 ) is ____.

Q.10 The total number of all possible isomers for the square planar complex with formula
K[M(NCS)(NO2)(gly)] is ____.

(M = metal ion and gly = NH2CH2COO– )

Q.11 The sum of total number of carbonyl groups ( >C=O ) present in the major products X and Y in the
following reactions is ____.

Q.12 Treatment of buta-1,3-diyne with NaNH2 (2 equivalents), followed by reaction with excess of
trans-CH3-CH=CH-CH2-Br gives X as the major product. The maximum number of carbon atoms
that are collinear (in a straight line) in X is ____.

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s e m Paper 1

se g l a
a
SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
 Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
 Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
 List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5).
 FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of

m
.co
these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

m
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Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
: +4 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
e m
s
Full Marks
Zero Marks
s em : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
g l a
la
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

g a
a
Q.13 List-I contains various physical/chemical processes, and List-II contains combinations of changes
in enthalpy (ΔH) and entropy (ΔS). Match each entry in List-I to the appropriate entry in List-II,
and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) Physisorption (1) ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0
m
(Q) Diamond ⟶ Graphite c. o(2) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
e m (3) ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
(R) Denaturation of protein
l as
(S) Propene ⟶ Cyclopropane ag (4) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0

(5) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0

(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 4
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 5; S → 1
m
.co
(C) P → 2; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 4
m (D) P → 2; Q → 5; R → 1; S → 3
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.14 Consider the following species:

SOCl2, XeOF4, ClF3, ClF5, XeF5+, SO32–, XeF3+, SF4

List-I contains different molecular shapes and List-II contains total number of species with the
same molecular shapes from the given species. Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate
entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) See-saw (1) one

(Q) T-Shaped (2) two

(R) Trigonal Planar (3) three

(S) Square Pyramidal (4) four

(5) zero

(A) P  1; Q  2; R  5; S  3
(B) P  5; Q  4; R  2; S  3
(C) P  3; Q  2; R  1; S  4
(D) P  1; Q  3; R  5; S  4

8/10

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m
m .co

m .co JEE (Advanced) 2026
s em Paper 1

se g l a in List-I with O /Zn-H O
Q.15 The List-II contains products obtained from the reaction of compounds
a of aqueous NaOH. Match each
3 2
followed by cyclization (via more stable enolate) in the presence
entry in List-I with appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
(Q)
g l a (2)
a
a

(R) (3)

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag
(S) (4)

m
m .co
.co m
(5)

m s e
s e g la
g la a
a

(A) P ⟶ 2; Q ⟶ 4; R ⟶ 1; S ⟶ 3
(B) P ⟶ 3; Q ⟶ 4; R ⟶ 5; S ⟶ 2
(C) P ⟶ 2; Q ⟶ 1; R ⟶ 5; S ⟶ 3
P ⟶ 3; Q ⟶ 5; R ⟶ 4; S ⟶ 2
m .
(D)

.co s e m
s em l a
la ag
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JEE (Advanced) 2026 Paper 1

Q.16 Match the major products obtained in the reactions given in List-I with the corresponding
structures in List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I List-II

(P) (1)

(Q) (2)

(R) (3)

(S) (4)

(5)

(A) P → 2; Q ⟶ 1; R → 5; S ⟶ 4
(B) P → 1; Q ⟶ 2; R → 4; S ⟶ 5
(C) P → 1; Q ⟶ 2; R → 3; S ⟶ 4
(D) P → 2; Q ⟶ 1; R → 3; S ⟶ 5

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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