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RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 10 Mar All Shifts (in English)

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Page 1

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 10 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 10/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kaly ani
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 5 : 7, and their least common multiple (LCM) is
l
ag
1050. Determine their greatest common divisor (GCD).
Ans 1. 12

2. 15

3. 18

4. 24

Q.2

m
Ans
m .co
1.
s e
g la
2. a
3.

4.

m
.co
Q.3 Diya borrowed a sum of ₹25,000 from Abha for two years. If the rate of interest is 8%
m
compounded annually, find the amount that Diya has to pay back.
Ans

m.co 1. ₹29,160
s e m
s e 2. ₹27,610
g l a
g l a 3. ₹28,360
a
a 4. ₹26,910

Q.4 A boat covers 4 km upstream and 15 km downstream in 7 hours, while it covers 16 km
upstream and 35 km downstream in 23 hours. What is the speed of the current?
Ans 1. 1 km/hr

2. 2 km/hr

3. 2.5 km/hr

4. 1.5 km/hr
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 60

Page 3

Q.5 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 78 metres, if he runs at a speed of 13 km/h?
Ans 1. 86.4

2. 94

3. 86

4. 79

Q.6
Ans 1. 10% increase

2. 10% decrease

3. 9% increase

4. 9% decrease

Q.7 A television is marked at ₹50,000. The store offers a 25% discount and an additional
10% discount on the discounted price. After these discounts, the buyer has to pay 5%
GST on the final price. What is the final amount paid by the buyer?

Ans 1. ₹36,400

2. ₹35,437.50

3. ₹35,000

4. ₹37,600.50

Q.8 An amount of ₹903 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 6 : 2 : 7. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 367

2. 301

3. 249

4. 341

Q.9 Find the least value of k so that the 8-digit number 198754k8 is divisible by 8.
Ans 1. 4

2. 0

3. 1

4. 2

Q.10 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 12 ÷ 3) ÷ 2}]
Ans 1. 29

2. 30

3. 28

4. 27

Q.11

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 60

Page 4

m
.co
Q.12 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3120 after 3
m
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in

. co 1 year?

s e m
m Ans 1. 480
a
se 2. 120
ag l
3. 960

4. 240

Q.13 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 65. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 130

2. 65

m
.co
3. 14

m
.co m
4. 28

m s e
Q.14
s e
A shopkeeper mixes two types of rice costing ₹385 per five kg and ₹540 per five kg in
l a
a ag
the ratio of 9 : 11. Find the net cost of resulting mixture per 2 kg.
l
ag
Ans 1. ₹186.20

2. ₹192.70

3. ₹178.50

4. ₹188.10

Q.15 A man buys an old scooter for ₹6,600 and spends ₹900 on its repairs. If he sells the
scooter for ₹9,000, then what is his gain percentage?
Ans 1. 25%

m
.co
2. 21%

m
3. 18%

4. 20%
s e
g la
Q.16
a
An amount of ₹50,000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 4%, compounded half
yearly. What will be the total amount after 2 years (round up to two decimal places)?
Ans 1. ₹52,121.61

2. ₹55,000

3. ₹54,121.61

4. ₹53,120

Q.17 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 420 m in 70 sec in the first lap. He covers the
m
.co
second lap of the same length in 140 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the

m
athlete?
Ans

m.co 1. 1

s e m
s e 2. 4

g l a
g l a 3. 8
a
a 4. 2

Q.18 Three taps P, Q and R can together fill an empty cistern in 12 minutes. Tap P alone can
fill the cistern in 36 minutes, and tap Q alone can fill it in 42 minutes. How long will tap
R alone take to fill the cistern?
Ans 1. 30 minutes

2. minutes

m .
.co
3. minutes

e m
4. 28 minutes
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 60

Page 5

Q.19 The perimeter of a regular hexagon is 138 cm. How long is each side?
Ans 1. 17.25 cm

2. 23 cm

3. 27.5 cm

4. 11.5 cm

Q.20 A solid rubber sphere weighs 40 kg when its diameter is 8 cm. Using the same material,
a hollow sphere is made with an outer diameter of 16 cm and inner diameter of 12 cm.
What is its weight?
Ans 1. 80 kg

2. 240 kg

3. 185 kg

4. 120 kg

Q.21 A retailer buys an electronic item for ₹175. His overhead expenses are ₹25. He sells the
electronic item for ₹400 and makes x%' profit. The value of x is:
Ans 1. 100

2. 120

3. 90

4. 80

Q.22 A bike goes 89 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 320.4

2. 327.6

3. 329.6

4. 315.9

Q.23
Ans 1. 11 hours

2. 29 hours

3. 28 hours

4. 20 hours

Q.24 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 127. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 203

2. 189

3. 190

4. 202

Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 60

Page 6

m
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Q.26 If 100 : y :: y : 36, find the positive value of y.
m
co
Ans 1. 60

. e m
m 2. 58
as
se 3. 69
ag l
4. 52

Q.27
Find the value of

Ans 1. 5772

2. 4769

m
.co
3. 5473

m
.co
4. 4776

em
Q.28
e m
The average of first 136 even numbers is
l as
Ans 1. 137.5
l as ag
2. 136.5

3. 138
ag
4. 137

Q.29 A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3920. The number is:
Ans 1. 5600

2. 1400

3. 8400
m
4. 2800
m .co
s e
la
Q.30 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 72 minutes and 51 minutes, respectively. Both

ag
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe A be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 34 minutes?
Ans 1. 35 min

2. 30 min

3. 20 min

4. 24 min

Q.31 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 119. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
m
.co
Ans 1. 197
m
.co m
2. 198

m s e
s e
3. 191

g l a
g l a 4. 190
a
a Q.32 Find the surface area of a cube-shaped box having a side of 7 cm.
Ans 1. 290 cm2

2. 294 cm2

3. 280 cm2

4. 147 cm2

Q.33 The greatest number that exactly divides 324, 1044 and 1548 is:

m .
.co
Ans 1. 33

e m
2. 39

e m l as
3. 36

l as ag

4. 28
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 60

Page 7

Q.34 After 59 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 1% empty.
How much petrol must be poured (in litres, rounded off to one decimal place) into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 59.6

2. 58.6

3. 60

4. 60.6

Q.35 Rizwan bought a kurta-pajama set for ₹1,116 from a new year sale offering 28% off on all
the purchases. What was the marked price (in ₹) on the kurta-pajama set?
Ans 1. 1,500

2. 1,575

3. 1,550

4. 1,525

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 In a certain code language, ‘the car crashed’ is coded as ‘al tk jb’ and ‘answer the call’ is
coded as ‘mo jb tu’. How is ‘the’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tu

2. tk

3. al

4. jb

Q.37 In a certain code language,
A@ B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A & B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A # B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is S related to T if ‘S # D @ R & Y + T’?
Ans 1. Father

2. Wife's father

3. Brother

4. Wife's brother

Q.38 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 9 7 6 1 6 7 6 5 7 6 4 8 8 6 2 6 2 4 8 5 6 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.39 In a certain code language,
‘A = B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is Q related to U if ‘Q * W = R $ T @ U’?
Ans 1. Wife's brother

2. Wife's father

3. Brother

4. Father
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 60

Page 8

m
.co
Q.40 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
m
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

. co 7B3A3C5D2=?

s e m
m Ans 1. 4
a
se 2. 5
ag l
3. 10

4. 8

Q.41 In a given number 82617543, if 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from
each odd digit, what will be the sum of all the odd digits in the new number thus
formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 19
m
3. 16
m .co
4. 24

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.42 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
l
ag
to logically complete the following series.

Ans

m
1.
m .co
s e
g la
a
2.

m
m .co
m.co 3.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
4.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 60

Page 9

Q.43 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some computers are tablets.
Some tablets are scanners.
All scanners are printers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some printers are tablets.
(II) All scanners are computers.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.44 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
HDB−FBZ
IEC−GCA
Ans 1. VRP−SPM

2. RNL−PLJ

3. VQN−SOM

4. VQN−TPN

Q.45 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

OWEM XFNV GOWE PXFN ?
Ans 1. YOGO

2. YGWO

3. YGOW

4. WOGY

Q.46 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which pair DOES NOT belong to that
group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. DK-LU

2. JQ-RA

3. QX-YH

4. MR-CJ

Q.47 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

33 46 72 111 163 ?
Ans 1. 226

2. 224

3. 222

4. 228

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 60

Page 10

m
.co
Q.48 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
m
are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 2 6 1 7 3 8 9 1 5 2 3 7 5 4 6 8 4 5 3 7 9 2 4 1 5 4 7 (Right)
s e m
m a
se How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
ag l
Ans 1. Three

2. More than three

3. Two

4. One

Q.49 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
m
.co
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

m
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as

.co m
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
m s e
s e l a
ag
(25, 21, 14)
(82, 78, 71)
l a
Ans
ag
1. (12, 8, 2)

2. (37, 33, 26)

3. (31, 26, 19)

4. (10, 4, 3)

Q.50 Paran ranked 10th from the top and 13th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 22
m
.co
2. 20

3. 23
e m
4. 21
las
Q.51 ag
In a certain code language, ‘RANK’ is coded as ‘1892’ and ‘RAIN’ is coded as ‘9126’.
What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 9

4. 1

m
.co
Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

.co m
that group?

m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e
s e
position in the letter-cluster.)

g l a
a
Ans 1. NVD

g l a
a
2. MVC

3. OWE

4. KSA

Q.53 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
(Left) 1 7 9 6 $ 5 7 8 4 = 6 3 % 7 5 # 8 @ 2 + 5 7 & 4 1 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans 1. One
m .
2. Two

m .co s e m
3. Four
s e l a
4. Three
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 60

Page 11

Q.54 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
to logically complete the following series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.55 G, H, J, K, L and P live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost
floor is numbered 6.
Only two people live between J and K. Only two people live between P and H. No one
lives above P. K lives below H, but above L. How many people lives below G?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

Q.56 Seven students, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people sit to the right of W. Only two people sit between W and X. Only two people sit
between Y and R. R sits to the immediate left of W. S sits to the immediate right of Q.
How many people sit between S and T?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One

4. Four

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 60

Page 12

m
.co
Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 5 9 17 29 45 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 65
a
se 2. 66
ag l
3. 67

4. 64

Q.58 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.

KDWP PIBU UNGZ ZSLE ?
Ans 1. ERTD

m
.co
2. EQJX
m
.co m
3. EDRT

m s e
4. EXQJ

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.59 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits third right to
A. A is not an immediate neighbour of B. C is the immediate left neighbour of B.
How many people sit between A and E when counted from the right of A?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Three

4. Zero

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
.co
17 32 62 107 167 ?
Ans 1. 275
e m
2. 242
las
3. 224
ag
4. 257

Q.61 Raj starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 4 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 12 km towards the north

m
.co
2. 15 km towards the west

m
.co
3. 10 km towards the south

e m
e m
4. 15 km towards the east

l as
l asQ.62 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
ag
ag given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No doors are rugs.
No rugs are leopards.

Conclusions:
(I) : No leopards are doors.
(II) : Some doors are not leopards.

m .
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

m .co s e m
e
3. Only conclusion (I) follows
s l a
l a
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 60

Page 13

Q.63 STEM is related to WXIQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, FILL is related to JMPP. To which of the following is FLAG related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. KPOK

2. KPEL

3. JPEK

4. JOEK

Q.64 Deepak starts from Point Y and drives 73 km towards east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 37 km, turns right and drives 29 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 61 km.
He takes a left turn, drives 44 km. He then turns right, drives 22 km and stops at Point Z.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 35 km towards west

2. 42 km towards north

3. 51 km towards south

4. 46 km towards south

Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘where is it’ is coded as ‘pn tp or’ and ‘is this how’ is coded
as ‘oq rd tp’. How is ‘is’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. or

2. rd

3. pn

4. tp

Q.66 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

JKL3, KJM4, LIN5, MHO6, ?
Ans 1. N7GP

2. NPG7

3. PNG7

4. NGP7

Q.67 If # means ÷, $ means +, @ means − and & means ×, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?

12$10#5@2&6#3 = ?
Ans 1. 10

2. 18

3. 1

4. 5

Q.68 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

FM-HO-JL
HO-JQ-LN
Ans 1. LS-NU-PR

2. KS-NV-PQ

3. KS-NU-PQ

4. LS-NU-PS

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 60

Page 14

m
.co
Q.69 Six people E, F, G, X, Y, and Z are sitting in a row facing north. Only two persons sit to
m
the right of Y. Z sits third to the left of Y. Only one person sits between X and Z. E sits to

. co the immediate left of G. How many people sit between F and E?

s e m
m Ans 1. Three
a
se 2. Four
ag l
3. One

4. Two

Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bands are gardens.
m
.co
No band is a hen.
Conclusions:
m
.co m
(I): Some hens are gardens.
(II): All gardens are hens.
m s e
Ans
s e
1. Only conclusion (II) follows.
l a
l a
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
ag
ag
3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 If a magnetic field is applied parallel to a charge moving in a straight line, the direction
of the charge will be:
Ans 1. circular

m
.co
2. spiral

m
3. rectilinear

s e
la
4. elliptical

Q.72 ag
Which of the following states is home to India's first Multi-Modal Logistics Park
(MMLP)?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Assam

3. Gujarat

4. Maharashtra

m
Q.73 Who has been appointed as the Executive Director (Whole-Time Director) of YES Bank

.co
for a three-year term starting 11 December 2024?

m
.co
Ans 1. Rajesh Sharma

e m
e m
2. Manish Jain

l as
l as 3. Anil Kumar
ag
ag 4. Deepak Mehra

Q.74 Lactic acid is primarily found in which of the following kitchen ingredients?
Ans 1. Curd

2. Salt

3. Lemon

4. Sugar

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 60

Page 15

Q.75 Who was an ambassador sent to the court of Chandragupta by the Greek ruler of West
Asia?
Ans 1. Seleucus

2. Sayyid Beg

3. Dionysius

4. Megasthenes

Q.76 Which state launched Deepam-2 scheme to provide free LPG cylinders to eligible
beneficiaries?
Ans 1. Telangana

2. Odisha

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.77 Which of the following Fundamental Duties instructs a parent to provide opportunities
of education to their child between the age of 6 and 14 years?
Ans 1. 11th

2. 8th

3. 10th

4. 9th

Q.78 What is the minimum age prescribed in the Constitution of India for a person to be
appointed as a High Court Judge?
Ans 1. 30 years

2. 25 years

3. 32 years

4. No minimum age is prescribed in the Constitution.

Q.79 The Green Revolution in India began in which decade?
Ans 1. 1970s

2. 1950s

3. 1960s

4. 1980s

Q.80 Which of the following approaches is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen, as per which
building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is
the key to human development?
Ans 1. Capability Approach

2. Income Approach

3. Basic Needs Approach

4. Welfare Approach

Q.81 What is the geological origin of the Peninsular Plateau?
Ans 1. Tethys Sea deposits

2. Gondwana land

3. Himalayan uplift

4. Indo-Gangetic alluvium

Q.82 India’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was established in:
Ans 1. Chennai

2. Mumbai

3. Bengaluru

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Q.83 India’s heavy communication satellite GSAT-20 was developed by _____.
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Ans 1. ISRO

. e m
m 2. DRDO
as
se 3. SAIL
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4. BHEL

Q.84 In 1919, when the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in India, Lord
Chelmsford was the:
Ans 1. British Prime Minister

2. Governor General of India

3. Viceroy of India

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4. Secretary of State for India

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Q.85
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Which of the following Governor Generals of British India introduced the Permanent

m
Settlement of Land Revenue in 1793?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Lord Cornwallis

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ag
2. Lord Wellesley

3. Sir John Shore

4. Lord Warren Hastings

Q.86 Which organization is primarily responsible for promoting free trade among nations?
Ans 1. World Bank

2. International Monetary Fund (IMF)

3. United Nations (UN)
m
.co
4. World Trade Organization (WTO)

e m
Q.87
s
A stone of mass m tied to a rope is rotated in vertical circular path of radius r with

la
uniform speed v. The total downwards forces acted on the stone at the lowest point is:
Ans 1. mg
ag
2. mv2/r − mg

3. mg − mv2/r

4. mv2/r + mg

Q.88 Which Five-Year Plan in India primarily focused on agriculture and irrigation to support
the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. Third Five-Year Plan

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2. Fourth Five-Year Plan
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3. Second Five-Year Plan

m s e
s e
4. First Five-Year Plan

g l a
g l a Q.89 The System of dual government (Dyarchy) in the provinces was introduced by which a
a Ans
Act of the British Government in India?
1. Government of India Act, 1935

2. Government of India Act, 1919

3. Government of India Act, 1909

4. Government of India Act, 1929

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Q.90 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans 1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a Constitutional body, while National Commission for Backward Classes is a
Non-Constitutional body.
2. Both National Commission for Scheduled Castes and National Commission for Backward Classes are Non-Constitutional
bodies.
3. National Commission for Backward Classes is a Constitutional body, while National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a
Non-Constitutional body.
4. Both National Commission for Scheduled Castes and National Commission for Backward Classes are Constitutional bodies.

Q.91 When was the signing ceremony for the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for
Prosperity (IPEF) Clean Economy Agreement, Fair Economy Agreement, and Agreement
on IPEF held?
Ans 1. September 2024

2. June 2023

3. October 2023

4. June 2024

Q.92 In October 2024, ISRO has acquired how many 400 kg-satellites for an essential mission
called Space Docking Experiment (SPADEX)?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 4

4. 5

Q.93 How many shrutis have been formulated for all practical purposes?
Ans 1. 72

2. 22

3. 50

4. 25

Q.94 Which of the following countries signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in the
fields of digital technologies, semiconductors, health cooperation and skill
development in September 2024?
Ans 1. India and Australia

2. India and Bhutan

3. India and Germany

4. India and Singapore

Q.95 In Budget 2024, to promote tourism, the government plans to develop religious circuits
similar to the Kashi Vishwanath corridor. Which temple complex is included in this
initiative?
Ans 1. Sabarimala Temple, Kerala

2. Vishnupad Temple, Gaya

3. Vaishno Devi Temple, Jammu

4. Jagannath Temple, Puri

Q.96 What market share does Axis Bank hold in the UPI Payer Payment service Provider
(PSP) space as of Q2 FY25?
Ans 1. ~25%

2. ~31%

3. ~36%

4. ~20%

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Q.97 Which of the following musical instruments of Mizoram is NOT a wind instrument?
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Ans 1. Tumphit

. e m
m 2. Seki
as
se 3. Buhchangkuang
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4. Rawchhem

Q.98 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Community Development
Programme?

1. Due recognition was given to the importance of planning
2. Recognition was also given to recruitment of trained personnel
3. It introduced modern technologies in agriculture
Ans 1. Only 1 and 3

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2. Only 2 and 3
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3. Only 1 and 2

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4. 1, 2 and 3

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ag
Q.99 According to Bharat Muni in Natya Shastra, Ghan Vadya is also known as ______.
Ans 1. wind

2. percussion

3. solid

4. string

Q.100 India accounts for how much percentage of the total world land area?
Ans 1. 2.42%

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2. 0.42%

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3. 6.40%

4. 9.42%
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a
Q.101 How many accounts had been opened under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana by
October 2024?
Ans 1. 53 crore

2. 40 crore

3. 60 crore

4. 25 crore

Q.102 The Official Language Commission is governed by which Article of the Indian
m
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Constitution?

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Ans 1. Article 346

e m
e m
2. Article 342

l as
l as 3. Article 345
ag
ag 4. Article 344

Q.103 During which of the following movements did the extremists call for the boycott of
British goods as a form of protest?
Ans 1. Quit India Movement

2. Swadeshi Movement

3. Civil Disobedience Movement

4. Non-Cooperation Movement

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Q.104 Where was the new East Africa Representative Office of India Exim Bank inaugurated in
May 2024?
Ans 1. Nairobi, Kenya

2. Addis Ababa, Ethiopia

3. Lagos, Nigeria

4. Dares Salaam, Tanzania

Q.105 Which of the following Governor-Generals introduced the General Service Enlistment
Act?
Ans 1. Lord Wellesley

2. Lord Canning

3. Lord Auckland

4. Lord Amherst

Q.106 In October 2024, which Indian institute was launched by the Prime Minister in Mumbai?
Ans 1. Indian Institute of Fishery

2. Indian Institute of Mines

3. Indian Institute of Skills

4. Indian Defence Institute

Q.107 Which of the following organisations promotes globalisation?
Ans 1. WHO

2. WTO

3. UNESCO

4. UNCTAD

Q.108 Colonel Manpreet Singh of the Indian Army was awarded with which of these Gallantry
awards (Posthumous), in the year 2024?
Ans 1. Bar to Sena Medal (Gallantry)

2. Shaurya Chakra

3. Sena Medal (Gallantry)

4. Kirti Chakra

Q.109 Mithun Chakraborty was awarded the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for his
contributions to Indian cinema. The award was presented during the 70th National Film
Awards ceremony held on:
Ans 1. 8 November 2024

2. 8 September 2024

3. 8 October 2024

4. 8 October 2023

Q.110 In which of the following months are Rabi crops mostly sown in the northern part of
India?
Ans 1. October to December

2. January to March

3. July to September

4. April to June

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Q.111 Who among the following British officers introduced the policy of Subsidiary Alliance,
m
one of the reason of 1857 revolt?

. co
Ans 1. John Nicholson
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2. Henry Lawrence

3. Lord Wellesley
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4. Sir Colin Campbell

Q.112 What was the time period of the Sayyid dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?
Ans 1. 1414–1430

2. 1414–1451

3. 1414–1446

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4. 1424–1445

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Q.113 Which river forms the largest delta in the Great Indian Plains?

m s em
Ans
e
1. Ganga-Brahmaputra

s l a
l a
2. Ganga-Yamuna
ag
ag
3. Damodar-Mahanadi

4. Indus-Satluj

Q.114 Name the famous literary personality who has authored the book named 'Rajatarangini'.
Ans 1. Jaimini

2. Vishakhadatta

3. Kautilya

4. Kalhana
m
Q.115 Which of the following is NOT a property of sound waves?
m .co
s e
la
Ans 1. They show the phenomena of reflection, transmission, diffraction, etc.

2. Sound waves are transverse mechanical waves.
ag
3. They cannot traverse through vacuum, so their velocity in vacuum is zero.

4. They travel faster in solids than in liquids than in gases.

Q.116 The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, which recognised 'cooperative societies' as a
part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, amended which of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. Articles 39 and 243

2. Articles 19 and 243
m
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3. Articles 21 and 243
.co
m .co 4. Articles 19 and 39
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.117 What slogan did Lokmanya Tilak popularise regarding Swaraj?
a
a Ans 1. "Swaraj is given by the British."

2. "Swaraj is a gift."

3. "Swaraj is achieved through sacrifice."

4. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it."

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Q.118 Arrange the names of the following defence ministers of India from the earliest to latest.
A. Sharad Pawar
B. Mulayam Singh Yadav
C. George Fernandes
D. Rajnath Singh
Ans 1. B,D,A,C

2. A,D,C,B

3. A,B,C,D

4. C,B,D,A

Q.119 When a light ray moves from denser to rarer medium, which of the following conditions
results in total internal reflection?
Ans 1. Refracted angle (r) < critical angle (ic)

2. Angle of incidence (i) < critical angle (ic)

3. Angle of incidence (i) > critical angle (ic)

4. Angle of incidence (i) = critical angle (ic)

Q.120 The south-west monsoon is regarded as the continuation of which of the following
winds, deflected towards the Indian subcontinent after crossing the Equator?
Ans 1. Easterlies

2. Southeast trades

3. Northeast trades

4. Westerlies

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m m .co
m . s e
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Exam Date 10/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Zoo Park Tirupathi
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m.co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1
l
ag
Find the value of 37 -14 ÷ 37 4 × 37 -12
Ans 1.
37 -30
2.
37 -20
3.
-38
37
4.
37 -24

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Q.2 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 312 m in 156 sec in the first lap. He covers the

m
second lap of the same length in 52 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
s e
la
Ans 1. 3

2. 2
ag
3. 6

4. 12

Q.3 A man can row 12 km/hr in still water. When the river is running at 2.2 km/hr, it takes him
1.2 hours to row to a place and come back. How far is the place?
Ans 1. 6.758 kilometres

2. 6.958 kilometres
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3. 6.858 kilometres
m
m.co 4. 6.658 kilometres

s e m
s e
Q.4
g l a
g l a Ans a
a 1.

2.

3.

m .
.co m
4.

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Page 23

Q.5 What is the value of p such that 579p46 is divisible by 11?
Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 9

4. 5

Q.6 Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours. Pipe B can empty it in 12 hours. If both the pipes are
opened simultaneously, how much time will it take to fill the tank?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 9 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be two-third filled, is:
Ans 1. 63

2. 21

3. 42

4. 84

Q.8 Anjali can do a certain piece of work in 20 days. Anjali and Ayushi can together do the
same work in 16 days, and Anjali, Ayushi and Ankita can do the same work together in
10 days. In how many days can Anjali and Ankita do the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 The average of first 122 even numbers is
Ans 1. 123.5

2. 124

3. 122.5

4. 123

Q.10 The monthly incomes of two friends Rupesh and Manjit, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹84000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 3, find the monthly income of Rupesh(in ₹).
Ans 1. 420000

2. 588000

3. 421000

4. 419000

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Q.11 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 5:9:1. They invested their capitals for
m
1 months, 9 months and 6 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?

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Ans 1. 3:81:6
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m a
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2. 6:81:6

3. 5:81:6
ag
4. 7:81:6

Q.12 Evaluate:

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Ans 1. 5

m .co s em
2. 8
s e l a
3. 4
l a ag
4. 3
ag
Q.13 The marked price of a watch is ₹6,420, available at a discount of 17%. Find the amount
paid by the customer when he purchased the watch.
Ans 1. ₹5,425.25

2. ₹5,328.60

3. ₹5,248.85

4. ₹5,368.78
m
Q.14 .co
Tushar bought 52 books for Rs 1125 from one shop and 48 books for Rs 910 from
m
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another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
s
la
Ans 1. 1031.8

2. 1036.8
ag
3. 1011.8

4. 1021.8

Q.15 A merchant offers a discount of 25% on the list price, due to which she makes a loss of
13%. What percent profit or percent loss will she make if she sells at a discount of 10%
of the list price?
Ans 1. 4.8% Loss

2. 4.8% Profit
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3. 4.4% Profit

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4. 4.4% Loss

l as
l asQ.16 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Sachin
ag
ag borrowed an amount of ₹460000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Sachin after 2 (in ₹) years.
Ans 1. 24000

2. 24500

3. 23000

4. 22500

Q.17 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of

m .
side 53 metres, if he runs at a speed of 8 km/h?

.co m
Ans 1. 102

m s e
2. 101

s e l a
3. 95.4

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Q.18
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 7

4. 3

Q.19 What is the area (in cm2) of a right-angled triangle having a hypotenuse of 89 cm and
one side measuring 39 cm?
Ans 1. 1260

2. 1150

3. 1650

4. 1560

Q.20 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 9900 cm2. If the length of the rod is
82 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

Ans 1. 17.09

2. 19.21

3. 20.39

4. 17.55

Q.21 If 40% of k is 10 less than 2400% of 10, then k is:
Ans 1. 535

2. 575

3. 615

4. 555

Q.22 Find the value of 2.35 + 0.56 − 1.89 − 2.85 + 4.26.
Ans 1. 2.43

2. 2.33

3. 2.24

4. 2.04

Q.23 What is the greatest number that will divide 651 and 1110 leaving the remainders 5 and
8, respectively?
Ans 1. 38

2. 36

3. 18

4. 19

Q.24 A bike goes 47 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 162.6

2. 175.3

3. 169.2

4. 162.5

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Q.25 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 62. If the marks of each student
m
are doubled, find the new average?

. co
Ans 1. 14
s e m
m a
se l
2. 62

3. 28
ag
4. 124

Q.26
A fraction is equivalent to 18.75%. What is the value of the expression ?

Ans 1. 1

2. 0.75

3. 0.5
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m .co
.co
4. 0.25

em
Q.27 Simplify
e m l as
l as ag
Ans
1.
ag
2.

3.

m
4.
m .co
s e
Q.28
g la
On an amount, the difference in interests is ₹225 at 10% per annum rate when the
a
interest is compounded semi-annually and annually, respectively, in a year. The amount
(in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 90,000

2. 80,000

3. 1,00,000

4. 75,000

Q.29 An amount of ₹905 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 9 : 10 : 16. The
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difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

m
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Ans 1. 110

e m
e m
2. 181

l as
l as 3. 205

ag
ag 4. 274

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Page 27

Q.30

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.31 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 129. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 189

2. 205

3. 188

4. 204

Q.32 The difference (in ₹) between C.I. and S.I. on a certain sum at 12 % per
annum compounded annually for 2 years is ₹360. Find the sum (in ₹).
Ans 1. 25,060

2. 23,560

3. 23,650

4. 25,000

Q.33 The price of an item is increased by ₹25 and in percentage, its price is increased by
10%. The price of the item now is ₹____.
Ans 1. 275

2. 225

3. 250

4. 200

Q.34
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 Six bells start ringing simultaneously and ring at an interval of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
seconds, respectively. How many times do they ring together in 50 minutes?
Ans 1. 15

2. 26

3. 30

4. 21

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

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Q.36 Seven people, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only
m
three people sit between L and O. Only two people sit to the right of O. K sits second to

. co the right of P. K is not an immediate neighbour of Q. O sits to the immediate left of M.
Who sits at the extreme left end of the line?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. N

2. P ag l
3. M

4. L

Q.37 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements:
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All coats are pants.
All pants are sneakers.
m
.co m
All sneakers are jackets.

m s e
Conclusions:

s e l a
ag
(I) All coats are sneakers.

l a
(II) All pants are jackets.
Ans
ag
1. Only I follows

2. Both I and II follow

3. Only II follows

4. Neither I nor II follows

Q.38 In a certain code language,
A * B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
m
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A - B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is R related to D if ‘R @ O - U + N * D’?
e m
Ans 1. Brother's sister's daughter
las
2. Brother's wife's brother
ag
3. Brother's sister's son

4. Brother's wife's husband

Q.39 Ram starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 13 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 15 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the west
m
m
2. 1 km to the west
.co
m.co 3. 4 km to the east
s e m
s e 4. 3 km to the east
g l a
g l a a
a Q.40 XCHB is related to ZEJD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, WOJQ is related to JQLS. To which of the given options is UMGT related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. WOIV

2. SKER

3. VNHU

4. TLFS

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Page 29

Q.41 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

16 32 80 240 ? 3360
Ans 1. 850

2. 820

3. 840

4. 830

Q.42 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain
mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are
related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

201 - 302
3 - 104
Ans 1. 90 - 191

2. 103 - 205

3. 40 - 142

4. 23 - 125

Q.43 In a certain code language, ‘its my life’ is coded as ‘io tr we’ and ‘life is precious’ is
coded as ‘ew oi tr’. How is ‘life’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. io

2. ew

3. we

4. tr

Q.44 Seven students, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
four people sit to the right of T. Only one person sits between S and W. Only three
people sit between T and S. X sits to the immediate left of Y. Q is not an immediate
neighbour of S. How many people sit to the right of R?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

Q.45 In a certain code language, 'watch less tv' is coded as 'mb tb km' and 'tv is boring' is
coded as 'zb km ab'. How is 'tv' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tb

2. zb

3. mb

4. km

Q.46 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7735821, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the new
number thus formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 8

4. 4

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Q.47 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
m
shown below.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans 1.

2.

m
3.
m .co
4.
m .co s em
s e l a
Q.48
l a
Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. F sits to the immediate
ag
ag
left of B. C sits third to the left of B. D is an immediate neighbour of B. E sits to the
immediate right of C. D sits to the immediate left of A. Who sits at the extreme right end
of the line?
Ans 1. D

2. A

3. E

4. B

m
Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

55 60 59 64 63 ?

m .co
Ans 1. 58
s e
2. 64

g la
3. 68
a
4. 54

Q.50 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

SUF : WYJ
CAL : GEP
Ans 1. EKO : INS

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2. AFL : GJM

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.co m
3. DVB : HZF

m s e
a
4. QST : NKH

s e g l
g l a Q.51 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are a
a alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. OJN

2. LGJ

3. RMP

4. UPS

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 60

Page 31

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

UZG XCJ AFM DIP ?
Ans 1. GLS

2. GSL

3. GHY

4. GYH

Q.53 M, N, O, R, S and Z live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. N lives on the topmost floor. Only three people live between N and
S. O lives on a floor below S. M lives on an even numbered floor. Z lives on an odd
numbered floor but not on floor number 5. How many people live between R and S?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three

4. One

Q.54 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some pets are wild.
All wild are animals.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pets are animals.
(II) All pets are animals.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.55 In a certain code language,

'A + B' means ‘A is the sister of B’,
'A – B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A ÷ B' means ‘ A is the father of B’.

How is P related to T if ‘P + Q – R ÷ S × T’?
Ans 1. Wife's father's sister

2. Wife's mother's mother

3. Wife's father's mother

4. Wife's mother's sister

Q.56 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
3178546, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 7

2. 6

3. 5

4. 8

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Page 32

m
.co
Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
m
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT

. co belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. DK-LU
ag
2. FM-NU

3. GN-OX

4. BI-JS

Q.58 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. B is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between B and
G. F is kept at one of the positions below B. Only E is kept between G and D. A is kept at
one of the positions above G. How many boxes are kept between A and E?
m
.co
Ans 1. 1
m
.co m
2. 4

m s e
3. 2

s e l a
4. 3
l a ag
Q.59 ag
This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 567 248 351 946 846 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8
m
3. 9

m .co
4. 10
s e
g la
Q.60
a
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 3 6 2 8 7 4 3 1 6 9 2 5 8 1 3 4 8 7 5 4 7 9 5 7 2 4 1 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square and immediately followed by an odd digit?
(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square.)
Ans 1. More than three

2. Three

m
.co
3. Two

m
.co m
4. One

m s e
s e
Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘love your enemies’ is coded as ‘tq fs rt’ and ‘love conquers
g l a
g l a Ans
all’ is coded as ‘ps nt tq’. How is ‘love’ coded in the given language?
a
a
1. tq

2. rt

3. nt

4. fs

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
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Page 33

Q.62 Manoj starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 9 km, turns left and drives 12 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 15 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km to the north

2. 6 km to the south

3. 5 km to the south

4. 6 km to the north

Q.63 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
7436518, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 1

2. 0

3. 3

4. 2

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

782 780 776 770 762 ?
Ans 1. 756

2. 750

3. 754

4. 752

Q.65 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 276 468 583 314 529 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9, and third digit = 7)
(Note: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the first
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 10

2. 12

3. 15

4. 11

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

XPR UMO RJL OGI ?
Ans 1. LDF

2. LCE

3. LCF

4. LDE

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Page 34

m
.co
Q.67 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se l
Statements:
All peas are onions.
No pea is a tomato.
ag
No tomato is a brinjal.
Conclusions:
(I): No onion is a tomato.
(II): No pea is a brinjal.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.
m
m .co
.co m
Q.68 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.
m s e
s e l a
l a ag
ag

Ans

1.

m
m .co
s e
g la
2. a

3.

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a 4. a
a

Q.69 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
YAB−DFG
RTU−WYZ
Ans 1. WYZ−ADD

m .
.co
2. ACD−FHI

e m
3. WXX−ACD

e m l as
4. WXX−BDE

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 60

Page 35

Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
PET 23, TJN 32, XOH 41, BTB 50, ?
Ans 1. GZV 57

2. FYV 59

3. GYU 59

4. FZV 57

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 The Constitution was drafted in 1947 by how many representatives of different castes,
regions, religions, genders, etc.?
Ans 1. 201

2. 299

3. 222

4. 159

Q.72 Aus, Aman and Boro, mainly grown in Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, are varieties of
which of the following crops?
Ans 1. Tea

2. Wheat

3. Potato

4. Paddy

Q.73 Who appoints the Governor of a state in India?
Ans 1. Election Commission

2. President

3. Chief Minister

4. Prime Minister

Q.74 As of October 2024, which of the following statements is correct regarding repo and
reverse repo rates?
Ans 1. The repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was 6.50%.

2. The reverse repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was 6.50%.

3. The reverse repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was 9.50%.

4. The repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was 1.50%.

Q.75 Which commission was appointed to study the reforms of the Government of India Act,
1919, and suggest further measures for constitutional reforms?
Ans 1. FIoud Commission

2. Hunter Commission

3. Chatfield Commission

4. Simon Commission

Q.76 Mundari is a ritualistic dance form of the Munda tribes prevalent in _______________.
Ans 1. Jharkhand

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Punjab

4. Uttarakhand

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Page 36

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.co
Q.77 Which of the following is the highest peak of the Himalayas located in India?
m
co
Ans 1. Kangchenjunga

. e m
m 2. Nanda Devi
as
se 3. Mount Everest
ag l
4. Annapurna

Q.78 Which of the following places did Kunwar Amar Singh of Arrah make his battlefield in
the revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. Rohilkhand

2. Gwalior and Jhansi

3. Azamgarh and Ghazipur

m
.co
4. Lucknow

m
Q.79
.co
Articles 153 to 167 in the Indian Constitution deal with which aspect of governance?

m s em
Ans 1. The Judiciary

s e l a
l a
2. The Union Executive
ag
ag
3. The State Executive

4. The Panchayati Raj System

Q.80 Standard Capital Markets issued Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs) worth _______ in
2024.
Ans 1. ₹500 crore

2. ₹300 crore

3. ₹700 crore
m
.co
4. ₹200 crore

e m
Q.81
s
Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of the religious
development during the Gupta Empire?
la
century CE. ag
I. Nalanda University was founded by Kumargupta I of the Gupta dynasty in the 5th

II. Narasimhagupta Baladitya was influenced by Mahayana Buddhism.
Ans 1. Only II

2. Both I and II

3. Only I

4. Neither I nor II

Q.82 Bimbava Devi is a famous _____ dancer.
m
Ans
m
1. Manipuri
.co
m.co 2. Kuchipudi
s e m
s e 3. Sattriya
g l a
g l a 4. Kathak
a
a Q.83 Which of the following acids is primarily present in vinegar?
Ans 1. Lactic acid

2. Citric acid

3. Acetic acid

4. Oxalic acid

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 60

Page 37

Q.84 Who fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat with the Britishers during the Revolt of
1857?
Ans 1. Shah Mal

2. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

3. Maulana Azad

4. Rani Laxmibai

Q.85 Which of the following stages of the 2024 Hyundai Archery World Cup was held in
Antalya, Turkey from 18 June to 23 June, 2024?
Ans 1. Stage 1

2. Stage 2

3. Stage 4

4. Stage 3

Q.86 Indian tennis player Rohan Bopanna and his Australian partner Matthew Ebden have
qualified for the men’s doubles event of which tournament that was scheduled to take
place in November 2024?
Ans 1. French Open

2. US Open

3. China Open

4. ATP Finals 2024

Q.87 How many Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed by India and Singapore in
September 2024 to strengthen the cooperation between the two nations?
Ans 1. Two

2. Five

3. Four

4. Three

Q.88 What does MSME stand for in the context of the industrial sector?
Ans 1. Medium, Scale and Micro Enterprises

2. Major, Small and Medium Enterprises

3. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

4. Medium, Small and Micro Enterprises

Q.89 Who appoints the Chairman and members of a Joint Administrative Tribunal (JAT)?
Ans 1. The Union Cabinet

2. The President of India, after consultation with the Governors of the concerned states

3. The concerned state governments

4. The Chief Justice of India, in consultation with the Chief Ministers of the concerned states

Q.90 Organisation of Village Panchayats is included in which of the following?
Ans 1. Fundamental Rights

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Preamble

4. Fundamental Duties

Q.91 Protection of life and personal liberty is contained under which Article of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 21

2. Article 24

3. Article 23

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Page 38

m
.co
Q.92 Which fiscal year’s Budget is noted for introducing a 'taxation budget' with a revision of
m
income tax slabs?

. co
Ans 1. 2022-23
s e m
m a
se l
2. 2025-26

3. 2024-25
ag
4. 2023-24

Q.93 Which of the following sectors saw major reforms in the 1991 economic liberalisation?
Ans 1. Agriculture

2. Industry and Trade

3. Education

m
.co
4. Healthcare

m
Q.94
.co
Rahul Acharya is a famous _____ dancer.
m s em
Ans 1. Bharatnatyam
s e l a
2. Kathak
l a ag
3. Odissi
ag
4. Sattriya

Q.95 The shift in the position of the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in the summer
season in India is related to which of the following phenomena?
Ans 1. Formation of the easterly jet stream along 25°N latitude

2. Withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from the north Indian plain

3. Formation of the westerly jet stream in the north Indian plain
m
.co
4. Withdrawal of the easterly jet stream along 15°N latitude

e m
Q.96
s
Which of the following is NOT one of the four holy pilgrimage destinations where the
Kumbh Mela is held by rotation?
la
Ans 1. Varanasi
ag
2. Nashik

3. Prayagraj

4. Haridwar

Q.97 In June 2024, Raja Venugopal Naik of Congress won the assembly constituency by-
election in which state?
Ans 1. Andhra Pradesh

m
.co
2. Telangana
m
.co m
3. Karnataka

m s e
s e 4. Maharashtra

g l a
g l a Q.98 The distance (in cm) covered by particle in time t sec is given by x = 10t2 + 6t + 3. How a
a Ans
much distance will it cover after 2 sec?
1. 52 cm

2. 15 cm

3. 55 cm

4. 3 cm

Q.99 Modulus of elasticity has the dimensions __________.
Ans 1. [ML−1T−2]
m .
2. [MLT−2]
m .co s e m
3. [ML−2T−2]
s e l a
4. [ML−1T−1]
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 60

Page 39

Q.100 According to the 2023-2024 Human Development Report (HDR), India's Human
Development Index (HDI) value is __________.
Ans 1. 2.763

2. 1.109

3. 0.644

4. 0.984

Q.101 How many Fundamental Duties were mentioned at the time of Constitution enforcement
in 1950?
Ans 1. 0

2. 8

3. 11

4. 10

Q.102 Who was the chief commissioner of Awadh in 1857?
Ans 1. Major John Sherbroke Banks

2. Major General Sir James Outram

3. Sir Henry Lawrence

4. Colville Coverly Jackson

Q.103 Which of the following schemes focuses on rural employment?
Ans 1. GST

2. Digital India

3. Swachh Bharat Mission

4. MNREGA

Q.104 Which organisation(s) is/are known for providing microfinance to rural communities in
India?
Ans 1. Regional Rural Banks

2. Reserve Bank of India

3. UNESCO

4. World Health Organization

Q.105 In October 2024, in the State of Uttar Pradesh v. Lalta Prasad Vaish, the Supreme Court
upheld the power of state governments to regulate which of the following?
Ans 1. Goods and Service Tax (GST)

2. Royality of mines

3. Industrial alcohol

4. Foreign trade

Q.106 According to the Economic Survey 2024, which sector is emphasised as the primary
area for job creation in India?
Ans 1. Private sector

2. Government sector

3. Public sector

4. Agricultural sector

Q.107 Which city of India has the highest density, according to Census 2011?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Bengaluru

3. Mumbai

4. Hyderabad

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m
.co
Q.108 Electrons are fundamental particles that make up matter. Who among the following is
m
credited with this discovery?

. co
Ans 1. Ernest Rutherford
s e m
m a
se l
2. JJ Thomson

3. Niels Bohr
ag
4. Marie Curie

Q.109 What is the name of an AI-based tool developed by woman entrepreneur Shivani Verma
in June 2024 that creates a 'robust and multi-faceted authentication system' by
combining facial recognition with gait analysis?
Ans 1. Divya Drishti

2. Divya Shakti

m
.co
3. Divya Kanti

m
.co m
4. Divya Vani

m s e
s e
Q.110 In September 2024, the Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha announced the introduction of
l a
a ag
which of the following in its monsoon session?
l
ag
Ans 1. Zero Hour

2. A digital legislative portal

3. Transgenders' representation in Assembly

4. A new tourism policy

Q.111 Which of the following is NOT a feature of globalisation?
Ans 1. Technological advancement

2. Movement of labour
m
.co
3. Protectionism

4. Free trade
e m
las
ag
Q.112 In March 2024, the Prime Minister inaugurated a semiconductor fabrication facility at
Dholera, and two Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facilities in
which locations?
Ans 1. Hyderabad and Bengaluru

2. Guwahati and Ahmedabad

3. Morigaon and Sanand

4. Vadodara and Lucknow

Q.113 Which type of forests are found in areas with annual rainfall above 200 cm?
m
.co
Ans 1. Tropical Deciduous Forests
m
.co m
2. Mangrove Forests

m s e
s e 3. Montane Forests

g l a
g l a 4. Tropical Evergreen Forests
a
a Q.114 Who founded the Mughal Empire in India?
Ans 1. Taimur

2. Babur

3. Sher Shah

4. Akbar

m .
m.co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 60

Page 41

Q.115 Who among the following played a pivotal role in drafting the Indian Constitution and is
often referred to as the 'Father of the Indian Constitution'?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Dr BR Ambedkar

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.116 In which of the following states is the Chota Nagpur Plateau located?
Ans 1. Telangana

2. Jharkhand

3. Rajasthan

4. Maharashtra

Q.117 Double Olympic medalist in shooting in 2024, Manu Bhaker was appointed as brand
ambassador of which Indian Ministry?
Ans 1. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

2. Ministry of Railways

3. Ministry of Education

4. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Q.118 Where did India’s second nuclear power station come up, the first unit of which went
into operation in August 1972?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Maharashtra

4. Rajasthan

Q.119 India ranks ______________________ in the world’s GDP rankings for 2024 as per
Forbes.
Ans 1. seventh

2. fourth

3. fifth

4. sixth

Q.120 Which of the following options does NOT represent one of Kepler's laws of planetary
motion?
Ans 1. The orbit of all planets around the Sun are coplanar.

2. The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.

3. A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.

4. The square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.

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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 10/03/2025
a
Centre Name ION Digital Zone IDZ KIOT-Campus
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 If 40% of k is 10 less than 1200% of 10, then k is:
l
ag
Ans 1. 315

2. 275

3. 255

4. 235

Q.2 Two types of rice costing ₹50 per kg and ₹70 per kg are mixed together to make a blend
that costs ₹60 per kg. In what ratio should the two types of rice be mixed?
Ans 1. 3 : 2

m
.co
2. 1 : 1

3. 2 : 3

e m
4. 4 : 3

las
Q.3
ag
The area of a trapezium is 330 cm2, if the lengths of its parallel sides are 24 cm and 20
cm, find the distance between the parallel sides.
Ans 1. 10 cm

2. 25 cm

3. 15 cm

4. 20 cm

Q.4 The prices of three items are ₹120, ₹150 and ₹180. On these items, respectively, 20%,
m
.co
10% and 5% profits are earned. The overall profit on the items is ___%.

m
.co
Ans
1.
e m
e m l as
l as 2.

ag
ag 3.

4.

Q.5 The average of first 138 even numbers is
Ans 1. 138.5

2. 139

3. 139.5
m .
4. 140

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 60

Page 43

Q.6 Train A leaves station M at 7:30 AM and reaches station N at 2:30 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 9:30 AM and reaches station M at 2:30 PM on the same day.
Find the time when Trains A and B meet.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 A hollow spherical shell is made of a metal of density 9 g/cm3. Its internal and external
radius are 10 cm and 13 cm, respectively. What is the weight (in kg) of the shell ?

( )

Ans 1. 45.144

2. 46.67

3. 46.2

4. 42.144

Q.8 A bus travelling at 56 km/h completes a journey in 16 hours. At what speed will it have
to cover the same distance in 8 hours?
Ans 1. 118 km/h

2. 106 km/h

3. 112 km/h

4. 103 km/h

Q.9 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Chetan
borrowed an amount of ₹420000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Chetan after 2 years.
Ans 1. 21000

2. 22000

3. 20500

4. 22500

Q.10 The sum of 8 numbers is 888. Find their average.
Ans 1. 110

2. 109

3. 111

4. 112

Q.11 A pipe A can fill a cistern in 12 hours, while pipe B can fill it in 8 hours. In how much
time will the cistern be filled, if both pipes A and B are opened together?
Ans 1. 3 hours 26 minutes

2. 4 hours 48 minutes

3. 4 hours 12 minutes

4. 3 hours 54 minutes

Q.12 A merchant fixes the sale price of his goods at 90% above the cost price. He sells his
goods at 18% discount. His percentage of profit is:
Ans 1. 55.8%

2. 59.6%

3. 53.7%

4. 58.5%

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Page 44

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.co
Q.13 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹84 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹51 per kg so
m
that by selling the mixture at ₹90.2 per kg, there is a profit of 10%?

. co
Ans 1. 32 : 3
s e m
m a
se l
2. 35 : 2

3. 33 : 3
ag
4. 31 : 2

Q.14 A sum of ₹8,000 is invested at an annual interest rate of 12% compounded half-yearly
for 2 years. Calculate the compound interest earned at the end of 2 years.(Rounded off
to the nearest integer)
Ans 1. ₹2,200

2. ₹2,100

m
.co
3. ₹2,150

m
.co m
4. ₹2,280

m s e
Q.15
s e l a
a
Find the value of 18 -13 ÷ 18 18 × 18 -3
l ag
Ans
ag
1. 18 -41

2. 18 -34

3. 18 -29

4. 18 -40

Q.16 The cost price of 30 articles is the same as the marked price of x articles. If the profit is
20%, then find the value of x.
Ans 1. 25

m
.co
2. 20

3. 35
e m
4. 30
las
Q.17 ag
Find the volume of a given cone with height of 14 cm and diameter of the circular base

of 6 cm. (Use π = )

Ans 1. 232 cm3

2. 130 cm3

3. 132 cm3

4. 396 cm3

m
Q.18
m
Evaluate:
.co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 2

4. 5

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 60

Page 45

Q.19 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 6:7:9. They invested their capitals for
7 months, 3 months and 9 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 15:7:27

2. 13:7:27

3. 14:7:27

4. 17:7:27

Q.20 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (5 - 10 ÷ 2) ÷ 3}]
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 31

4. 29

Q.21 Arjun can do a piece of work in 4 hours. Kartik can do it in 48 hours. With the
assistance of Ishan, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Ishan
alone do it?
Ans 1. 15

2. 18

3. 17

4. 16

Q.22 What is the greatest common divisor of 90, 1020 and 2340?
Ans 1. 30

2. 45

3. 5

4. 10

Q.23 The least number which should be added to 6424 so that the sum is exactly divisible by
8, 9 and 12 is:
Ans 1. 56

2. 26

3. 46

4. 36

Q.24 An article is sold at a profit of 17%. If the selling price is doubled, the profit will be:
Ans 1. 200%

2. 34%

3. 68%

4. 134%

Q.25 2 men can complete a piece of work in 15 days while 5 women can do it in 14 days. In
how many days can 7 women and 3 men complete it?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 3 days

3. 5 days

4. 8 days

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Page 46

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.co
Q.26 The population of a small city decreased every year due to water contamination. The
m
present population of the town is 1,39,650. Last year, the migration was 2%, and the

. co year before last, it was 5%. What was the population of the city two years ago?

s e m
m Ans 1. 1,45,000
a
se 2. 1,50,000
ag l
3. 1,55,000

4. 1,25,000

Q.27 The price of milk was increased by 15% last year and this year, there is again an
increment of 12% in the price. Two years ago, the price was ₹60, now the price of the
milk is ₹________.
Ans 1. 77.82
m
2. 78.27
m .co
3. 78.72
m .co s em
4. 77.28
s e l a
l a ag
Q.28
ag
After 56 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 10% empty.
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 63.22

2. 57

3. 62.22

4. 61.22

Q.29
m
A 242 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 9.5 km/h in the opposite

.co
direction in 24 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train ?
Ans 1. 23.8
e m
2. 26.8
las
3. 22.4
ag
4. 28.3

Q.30 If the distance between A and B is 1084 Km. From A, Vishal goes to B with speed 104
km/h and return to A with the speed 112 km/h. Find the average speed of Vishal.
(rounded off to two decimal place)
Ans 1. 110.52 km/h

2. 110.64 km/h

3. 107.85 km/h
m
m
4. 102.18 km/h
.co
m.co s e m
s e
Q.31 An amount of ₹968 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 16 : 13 : 15. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 66 a
a 2. 20

3. 28

4. 85

Q.32 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
number is 129. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 187

2. 186
m .
3. 207

m .co s e m
4. 206
s e l a
g l a ag
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Page 47

Q.33
Find the value of .

Ans 1. 14

2. 11

3. 12.5

4. 9.5

Q.34 The simplified value of the expression
is _____.

Ans 1. −1

2. 1

3. 0.5

4. −0.5

Q.35 Calculate the smallest five-digit number divisible by 9, 11 and 21.
Ans 1. 10,390

2. 10,385

3. 10,395

4. 10,830

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two set of pairs
given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

BDF : GKK
GIK : LPP
Ans 1. JLO : NPQ

2. MQT : QVX

3. CMJ : HTO

4. ADE : EHI

Q.37 Y, A, K, S, E, N, and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second
to the left of K. S sits second to the right of K. Only one person sits between S and E. T
sits second to the right of Y. Only one person sits between E and N. Who sits to the
immediate left of E?
Ans 1. A

2. S

3. T

4. K

Q.38 FOR is related to CLO in a certain way. In the same way, POT is related to MLQ. To
which of the following is RUN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. KRO

2. QXU

3. UXQ

4. ORK

Q.39 If you subtract the number formed by reversing the digits of 74 from the number 74
itself, what is the result?
Ans 1. 27

2. 36

3. 0

4. 12
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Page 48

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.co
Q.40 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
m
Counting to be done from left to right only.

. co (Left) 7 $ % 5 & 8 2 @ 4 & 3 Ω 1 * 9 £ # 6 (Right)
s e m
m a
se g l
If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be fifth from
the right?
a
Ans 1. 9

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.41 All 48 people are standing in a row facing North. Sridesh is 31st from the right end while
Niraj is 26th from the left end. How many people are there between Sridesh and Niraj?
m
Ans 1. 5
m .co
2. 7

m .co s em
3. 6
s e l a
4. 8
l a ag
Q.42
ag
Mr. Tigiri starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 17 km, turns right and drives 18 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 28 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 34 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 11 km to the north

2. 9 km to the east

3. 9 km to the west
m
.co
4. 11 km to the south

e m
Q.43
s
In a certain code language, ‘MOTION’ is coded as ‘121345’ and ‘SLOW’ is coded as

la
‘1689’. What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1
ag
2. 3

3. 6

4. 4

Q.44 Eden ranked 21st from the bottom and 14th from the top in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 31

m
.co
2. 32
m
.co m
3. 33

m s e
s e 4. 34

g l a
g l a Q.45 Seven students, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only R a
a sits to the left of Q. Only four people sit between R and X. Only W sits between S and T,
and S is not an immediate neighbour of X. How many people sit between Y and S?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 60

Page 49

Q.46 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 3 5 9 7 8 6 6 8 7 2 6 1 4 5 6 2 9 1 1 9 1 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. Three

4. One

Q.47 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 458 652 483 617 456 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 9

3. 12

4. 11

Q.48 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KHMQ

2. PMRV

3. AXCH

4. HEJN

Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

32 36 47 51 62 66 ?
Ans 1. 78

2. 77

3. 70

4. 76

Q.50 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All priests are teachers.
Some priests are singers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some singers are teachers.
(II) Some singers are priests.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
m
English alphabetical order?

. co PRU NPS LNQ JLO ?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. HJM

2. HIN ag l
3. HJN

4. HIM

Q.52 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’
m
m
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P + Q ÷ R – S × T’?
.co
Ans 1. Grandmother

m .co s em
2. Granddaughter
s e l a
l a
3. Mother-in-law
ag
4. Mother
ag
Q.53 Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 3 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 2 km, turns right and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and
drives 5 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach
Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km towards the north

2. 3 km towards the east
m
.co
3. 2 km towards the south

4. 1 km towards the west
e m
las
Q.54
g
If 1 is added to each even digit and 3 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
a
2935874, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. Two

4. One

Q.55 In a certain code language, ‘tea and coffee’ is coded as ‘nm hg bv’ and ‘tea is better’ is
coded as ‘mn vb hg’. How is ‘tea’ coded in the given language?
m
.co
Ans 1. hg
m
.co m
2. bv

m s e
s e
3. vb

g l a
g l a 4. nm
a
a Q.56 In a certain code language,
A : B means ‘A is the son of B’
A = B means ‘ A is the wife of B’
A * B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ? B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is F related to N if 'F * A : L ? E = N’?
Ans 1. Wife's son

2. Wife's sister

m .
3. Wife's father

4. Wife's brother

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 60

Page 51

Q.57 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some apples are rocks.
Some peanuts are crows.
All rocks are crows.

Conclusions:
(I): Some rocks are peanuts.
(II): Some crows are apples.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.58 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

ADB 1, EHF 4, ILJ 16, MPN 64, ?
Ans 1. QTR 32

2. QTR 128

3. QRT 128

4. QTR 256

Q.59 What is the difference between the number 49 and the number obtained by adding 4 to
each digit of 49?
Ans 1. 789

2. 657

3. 760

4. 764

Q.60 Six people T, U, V, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight row facing north. Only one person
sits between W and V when counted from the left of V. Y sits third to the right of V. U sits
to the immediate left of X. How many people sit between T and X?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘how was exam’ is coded as ‘xp or hg’ and ‘exam is tough’ is
coded as ‘fs xp wl’. How is ‘exam’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. or

2. fs

3. xp

4. hg

Q.62 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

FOR 16, JIV 29, NCZ 42, RWD 55, ?
Ans 1. NQZ 70

2. WQI 70

3. VQH 68

4. NCZ 68

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Q.63 EGKN is related to PQVX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
m
the same way, WUCB is related to HENL. To which of the given options is DYJF related,

. co following the same logic?

s e m
m Ans 1. OUPI
a
se 2. OIUP
ag l
3. POIU

4. PIOU

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

57 70.4 88.8 112.2 140.6 ?
Ans 1. 188

2. 182.2
m
3. 168.8
m .co
4. 174

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.65 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
l
ag
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(6, 11, 19)
(7, 12, 21)
Ans 1. (8, 13, 29)

2. (17, 23, 43)

3. (12, 17, 31)
m
4. (10, 5, 7)

m .co
s e
la
Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are

g
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
a
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. NUB

2. VCI

3. GNU

4. IPW

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 60

Page 53

Q.67 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All breads are donuts.
Some donuts are muffins.
No muffin is a fruit.
Conclusions:
(I): No bread is a fruit.
(II): Some muffins are breads.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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Page 54

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Q.69 Identify the option that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically
m
complete the series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
2.
ag

3.

m
m .co
s e
g la
4.
a

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

86 94 110 142 ? 334
Ans 1. 206
m
m
2. 208
.co
m.co 3. 204
s e m
s e 4. 205
g l a
g l a a
a Section : General Awareness

Q.71 In October 2024, the Indian Army’s Sudarshan Chakra Corps conducted the
‘Swavlamban Shakti’ Exercise in which state?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Haryana

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
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Page 55

Q.72 Who is the author of the biography ‘Manoj Bajpayee: The Definitive Biography’,
published in March 2024?
Ans 1. Anustup Basu

2. Tanuja Chaturvedi

3. Mukesh Manjunath

4. Piyush Pandey

Q.73 Which desert is known as the Great Indian Desert?
Ans 1. Gobi Desert

2. Sahara Desert

3. Thar Desert

4. Arabian Desert

Q.74 How many medals and Medallions of Excellence were won by India at WorldSkills Lyon
2024 in France?
Ans 1. 16

2. 4

3. 12

4. 8

Q.75 The British adopted which of the following policies with respect to landlords and
zamindars after the Revolt of 1857?
Ans 1. The policy of land nationalisation

2. Policies that protected their rights and provided security over their lands

3. The policy of confiscation of property

4. The policy of land redistribution

Q.76 When was the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity established in India?
Ans 1. 2002

2. 2003

3. 2005

4. 2009

Q.77 Which of the following groups of states is part of the Great Indian Desert?
Ans 1. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

2. Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

3. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab and Haryana

4. Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Maharashtra

Q.78 What is rural development?
Ans 1. Shifting rural people to urban areas

2. Improving the quality of life and economic well-being of people living in rural areas

3. Industrialisation of rural areas

4. Development of urban infrastructure

Q.79 Which Indian state is the leader in solar power generation with its largest installed
capacity?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Karnataka

4. Rajasthan

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Q.80 Which of the following vector quantities has the same dimensions as of the scalar
m
quantity 'work'?

. co
Ans 1. Torque
s e m
m a
se l
2. Angular momentum

3. Gravitational constant
ag
4. Force

Q.81 The Union cabinet in September 2024 approved Chandrayaan-4 and ___________.
Ans 1. Jupiter Orbiter Mission

2. Mars Orbiter Mission

3. Neptune Orbiter Mission

m
.co
4. Venus Orbiter Mission

m
Q.82
.co
Which of the following is India's longest national waterway?

m s em
Ans
e
1. National Waterway 3 (NW 3)

s l a
l a
2. National Waterway 1 (NW 1)
ag
ag
3. National Waterway 2 (NW 2)

4. National Waterway 4 (NW 4)

Q.83 Which of the following is a traditional hornpipe instrument of Assam made from buffalo
horn?
Ans 1. Khol

2. Chang

3. Pepa
m
.co
4. Pongi

e m
Q.84
Ans 1. 29 August 1947
las
On which date did the Constituent Assembly give the third reading of the Constitution?

2. 26 November 1949 ag
3. 17 October 1949

4. 14 November 1949

Q.85 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024, will initially
apply to how many states?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5
m
m
3. 2
.co
m.co 4. 1
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.86 Which law or principle explains the connection between fluid velocity and pressure in a
moving fluid? a
a Ans 1. Archimedes' Principle

2. Bernoulli's Principle

3. Pascal's Law

4. Boyle's Law

Q.87 Who was the last ruler of the Sayyid dynasty?
Ans 1. Muhammad Shah

m .
.co
2. Mubarak Shah

e m
3. Alauddin Alam Shah

e m l as
4. Khizr Khan

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 60

Page 57

Q.88 What ideology did the extremists strongly oppose within the Indian National Congress?
Ans 1. Self-governance

2. Nationalism

3. Gradualism

4. Swadeshi

Q.89 When was the National Green Tribunal established in India?
Ans 1. 2014

2. 2003

3. 2005

4. 2010

Q.90 Who among the following gave sharp criticism of imperialism, termed as 'drain of
wealth', which was a milestone in the mainstream Indian independence movement?
Ans 1. Zakir Husain

2. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

3. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

Q.91 Padma Awards 2024 were conferred to how many women awardees by the President of
India?
Ans 1. 28

2. 20

3. 36

4. 30

Q.92 What is the projected fiscal deficit for the financial year 2024-25, as per the Union
Budget?
Ans 1. 4.5%

2. 5.1%

3. 3.9%

4. 4.9%

Q.93 Which of the following Articles states that the Chief Minister shall communicate to the
Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers?
Ans 1. Article 168

2. Article 163

3. Article 167

4. Article 164

Q.94 Which of the following waterways of India is navigable by mechanical boats up to Patna
and by ordinary boats up to Haridwar?
Ans 1. National Waterway 4 (NW 4)

2. National Waterway 2 (NW 2)

3. National Waterway 1 (NW 1)

4. National Waterway 3 (NW 3)

Q.95 Kanuma festival is celebrated on which day of Sankranti by Hindus in the south Indian
states, especially in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?
Ans 1. Third

2. Second

3. Fifth

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Q.96
In which country was the 44th session of the Codex Commi ee on Nutri on and
m
. co Foods for Special Dietary Uses (CCNFSDU) held from 2 October to 6 October 2024?

s e m
m Ans 1. Canada
a
se 2. Germany
ag l
3. New Zealand

4. Peru

Q.97 The element ___________ is commonly used in aircraft construction.
Ans 1. Hafnium

2. Osmium

3. Titanium
m
m .co
4. Zirconium

Q.98
m .co
In September 2024, who was elected as the Chief Minister of Delhi?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Manish Sisodia

l a
ag
2. Arvind Kejriwal

3. Atishi Marlena

4. Virender Jain

Q.99 The Terai region is best known for:
Ans 1. dry soil and sparse vegetation

2. rich forest cover and marshy land

3. rocky terrain

m
.co
4. salt pans

e m
advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?
las
Q.100 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President of India seek the

Ans 1. Article 141
ag
2. Article 143

3. Article 129

4. Article 148

Q.101 What was the primary strategy adopted by the Indian government in the 1950s for
economic development?
Ans 1. Encouraging private sector growth in basic and heavy industries

m
.co
2. Rapid industrialisation through centrally prepared five-year plans

m
.co m
3. Developing the agricultural sector as the foundation of the economy

m s e
a
4. Focusing on agricultural expansion and crop yield improvement

s e g l
g l a Q.102 Right to Education is contained in which of the following Articles of the Indian a
a Ans
Constitution?
1. Article 17

2. Article 51 A

3. Article 19

4. Article 21 A

Q.103 SONAR technology utilises sound energy for navigation, particularly in underwater
environments. What does the acronym 'SONAR' represent?

m .
.co
Ans 1. Sound Oscillation Navigation And Ranging

e m
e m
2. Sound Organized Navigation And Ranging

l as
as
3. Sound Observational Navigation And Ranging
l ag
ag
4. SOund Navigation And Ranging
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Page 59

Q.104 The Indian National Congress session of 1905 took place in _____.
Ans 1. Banaras

2. Lucknow

3. Madras

4. Calcutta

Q.105 What role does the Economic Survey 2024 attribute to the tripartite compact in
achieving India’s development goals?
Ans 1. Focuses on self-reliance

2. Ensures cooperation between central, state governments and private sector

3. Increases government power

4. Reduces foreign influence

Q.106 Which of the following promotes cross-border movement of resources?
Ans 1. Foreign direct investment

2. Import restrictions

3. Tariffs

4. Quotas

Q.107 The Indian Councils Act, 1861, initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring
legislative powers to which provinces?
Ans 1. Punjab and Bengal

2. United Provinces and Assam

3. Bihar and Orissa

4. Bombay and Madras

Q.108 In the context of inheritance of sex chromosomes in humans, which of the following
statements is correct?
Ans 1. All children inherit a Y chromosome from their mother, and the sex is determined by the chromosome inherited from their
father.
2. All children inherit an X chromosome from their mother, and the sex is determined by the chromosome inherited from their
father.
3. All children inherit a Y chromosome from their father, and the sex is determined by the chromosome inherited from their
mother.
4. All children inherit an X chromosome from their father, and the sex is determined by the chromosome inherited from their
mother.

Q.109 What has been a major environmental challenge linked to globalisation in India?
Ans 1. Pollution and overuse of natural resources

2. Decrease in foreign investments due to regulations

3. Increase in deforestation laws

4. Reduction in industrialisation

Q.110 Which of the following does NOT come in the Ghan Vadya category?
Ans 1. Gedi

2. Dandia

3. Harmonium

4. Gurki

Q.111 The Simhastha Kumbh Mela festival at Ujjain is celebrated on the banks of river _____.
Ans 1. Kuno

2. Shipra

3. Narmada

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 60

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Q.112 The famous ‘Sam Sand Dunes’ region is located in which state of India?
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Ans 1. Gujarat

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se 3. Punjab
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4. Haryana

Q.113 Which of the following is the main purpose of focusing on human development?
Ans 1. To increase industrialisation

2. To ensure that individuals lead healthy, educated and productive lives

3. To improve trade relations

4. To promote economic growth only
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Q.114 What was the year-on-year (Y-o-Y) growth in HDFC Bank’s total deposits as of Q2 FY25?

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Ans 1. 5%

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2. 10%

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3. 15%

4. 20%

Q.115 SBI's loan loss provisions increased by how much percentage in Q3 FY24 year-over-
year?
Ans 1. 35.5%

2. 13.02%

3. 10.75%

4. 36.05%
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Q.116 The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was launched during which of the
following five year plans?
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Ans 1. 7th Five Year Plan
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2. 5th Five Year Plan a
3. 8th Five Year Plan

4. 6th Five Year Plan

Q.117 When was the Battle of Kanauj fought?
Ans 1. 1526

2. 1540

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3. 1556

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4. 1567

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Q.118 Which of the following banks appointed Amitava Chatterjee as its Managing Director
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and Chief Executive Officer, effective 30 December 2024?
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1. ICICI Bank

2. State Bank of India

3. Punjab National Bank

4. Jammu & Kashmir Bank

Q.119 Which of the following is the name of the new high-quality malaria vaccine, developed
by the Serum Institute of India and the University of Oxford, rolled out in Africa from
July 2024?

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Ans 1. R20

2. R24

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3. R21
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4. R22
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 60

Document Details

Board / OrgRailway
ExamRailway Protection Force Constable
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages61
Languageenglish
Updated24 Sep 2026