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PU MET 2017 Question Paper

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Page 1

Question Booklet Series: A
-
Question Booklet Serial No.
170913

Important: Please consult your Admit Card/Roll No. slip before filling your Roll
Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figure In Words

I l l . I I I I
'-----.L_--l...----'----..J____j___L_ _

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.
I l I [J
Signature a/Candidate: Signature ofInvigilator:
--------
Time: 2 Hours Number of Questions: 120 Maximum Marks: 120
DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.
INSTRUCTIONS:
l. Write your Roll No. on the Questions Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided
and nowhere else.
2. Enter the Question Booklet Serial No. on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with
Black Ball Point/Black Gel Pen.
_ ,_,_., Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4.
Please check that this Question Booklet contains 120 Questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of Test.
5. Each question has four alternative answers (A,B,C,D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point/Black Gel Pen. There shall be negative marking for wrong answer, ¼ of the
marks of the question will be deducted for every wrong answer.
6. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the
Answer Booklet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
7.
Darken. the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the question given in the
Question Booklet.
8. If you want to change an already marked answer, erase the shade in the darkened bubble completely.
9. For rough work only the blank sheet at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
IO. The· Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions
given on the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the compute!-.difficult. Any resultant loss to the
candidate on the above account, Le, not following the instructions completely, shall be of the
candidate only.
;
11. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and, the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on
duty.
I 2. In no case the, Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this
Booklet is to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from
the examination.
I 3. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes his/her seat or is found in possession of any
paper possibly of any assistant or found giving or receiving assistant or found using any other unfair means
during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer
whose decision shall be final.
14. Communication equipment such as mobile phones, pager, wireless set, scanner, camera or any
electronic/digital gadget etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not
allowed.
15. The candidates will .not be allowed to leave the Examination Hall/Room before the expiry· of half of the
allotted time.

,

Page 2

(1037)

1. Which committee of Chief Ministers (CMs) has recently submitted report on preparing
road map for rapid adoption of digital payment methods to the Union Government?
A) Raman Singh committee B) Sarbananda Sonowal committee
C) Chandrababu Naidu committee D) Nitish Kumar committee

2. Which Indian airport has won the 2016 Golden Peacock Award for Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) in the transportation sector under the Aviation category?
A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
B) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport
C) Chhatrapati Shiva International Airport
D) Delhi International Airport Limited

3. The world's largest solar park has been built by which country?
A) China B) India C) Bhutan D) Myanmar

4. Famous sculptures depicting art of love'built some time in 950 AD - 1050 AD are
A) Khajuraho temples B) Jamamasjid
C) Sun temple D) Mahabalipuram temples

5. The ozone layer restricts
A) Visible light B) Infrared radiation
C)X-rays and gamma rays D) Ultraviolet radiation

6. Eugenics is the study of
A) Altering human beings by changing their genetic components
B) People of European origin ..
C) Different races of mankind ...
D) Genetic of plants

7. Who was the firstIndian Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army?
A) Gen: K.M. Cariappa B) Vice-Admiral R.D. Katari
B) Gen. Maharaja Rajendra Singhji D) None of these
J,.

;:
8. Fathometer is used to measure
;l

A) Earthquakes B) Rainfall C)Ocean depth D) Soundintensity

9. The main objectives of the UN are
A) To maintain peace and security in the world
B) To work together to remove poverty.disease and illiteracy and encourage respect for
each other's rights of basic freedom
C) To develop friendly relations among nations
D) All ofthe; above

,

Page 3

10. What is India's rank in 201 7 Economic Freedom Index (EFI)
A) 120 ,. B) 143 ,(:::) 99 D)lOO
·- -~
11. Who is heading the committee set up by ucion ~overnment"and RBI to boost cashless
transactions in India?
A) Kelkar committee B) Nachiket Mor committee
C) Neeraj kumar gupta committee D) Shanta kumar committee.

12. ISRO has launched how many satellites into space on 15 Feb. 2017.
A) 100 B) 104 C)37 D) 03

13. Which is the new continent discovered by geologists, off the coast of Australia recently.
A) Hunga Tonga B) Zealandia C) Nishinoshima D) Sholan .& Jadid

14. For the first time, in which of the following General elections, voting right by the youths
at the age of 18 years was exercised?

A) 1987 B) 1988 C) 1989 D)1990

15. After returning from South Africa, which among the following wasthe first successful
Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi?
A) Chauri-Chaura B) Dandi C) Champaran D) Bardoli

1 ". Who has been named as the International Boxing Association (AIBA) ambassador for
Women's World Championship?
A) Akhil Kumar B) Mary Korn
C) Mohammad Ali Qamar D) Vijender Singh
..
-- · -17. Apart from India, in which of the following two countries, Tamil is an official language?
A) Mauritius and Malaysia · · B) Malaysia and Indonesia
C). Sri Lanka and Mauritius D) Sri Lanka and Singapore

18. With which of the following, the Agenda 21' of Rio Summit, 1992 is related to?
A) Sustainable development -·'
B) Combating the consequences of population explosion
C) Mitigation norms of Green House Gases (GHGs) emission .
D) Technology transfer mechanism to developing countries for 'clean-energy' production

19. Who has been appointed as The Chief Justice of India In January 2017?
A) Jagdish Singh Kehar . B)H J Kania
C) H L Dattu D) TS Thakur

20. Which film has won the best film award 'at the BAFTA awards recently?
A) La La Land B) Manchester' by the Sea
C) Moonlight D) Arrival
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Page 4

21. Dumping is

.
pnce _ -- -~
-
A) selling of goods abroad at a price well below the production cost at the home market

B) the process by which the supply of a manufacture's product remains low in the
domestic market, which batches him better price
C) prohibited by regulations of GA TT
D) All the above

22. Fiscal policy refers to the policy of government regarding taxation public expenditure and

A) Public Debt B) Budgets C) Policies D) Deposits

23. Factors that create opportunities and threats to business units is known as _
A) Internal Environment B) External Environment
C) Micro Environment D) Macro Environment

24. The economic system in which business units or factors of production arc privately
owned and governed is called as _

A) Capitalism B) Socialism C) Democratic D) Republic

25. SEZ stands for ---
A) Special Economic Zone B) Special Export Zone
C) Socially Backward Zone D) None of these

26. Liberalization means
A) Reducing number of reserved industries from 17 to 8
B) Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restrictions
C) Opening up of economy to the world by attaining international competitiveness
D) Free determination of interest rates

27. Which is the apex body of the economic planning in India?
A) Planning Commission B) Parliament
C) Supreme Court D) None of these
f

28. Globalization is the term used to describe process of removal of restriction on

A) Foreign Trade i\
B) Investment
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None of these

29. Laissez Faire policy is adopted in
A) Socialist Economic system B) Capitalist Economic system
C) Mixed Economic System D) Communist Economic System

{3)

Page 5

-
30. Which of the following is not the objective of Competition act 2002?
A) Prohibition of abuse of dominant position
B) Prohibitmrr-of resmctive Trade practices
C) Prohibition of anti-competitive Agreement
D) Regulation of combinations

31. The credit for inventing the word "Privatization" goes to
A) Elton Mayo B) F.W. Taylor C) L. Urwick D) Peter Drucker

32. There are multiple reasons why nations demonetize their local units of currency: which of
the following is not true for Indian economy.
A) To combat deflation in the economy B) To combat corruption and crime
C} To discourage a cash-dependent economy D) To facilitate trade

3 3. Demonetization of currency is
A) The act ofstripping a currency unit of its status as legal tender
B) Devaluing the currency
C) Depreciating the value of the currency
D) When a form of payment is restored as legal tender

34. When a company takes over another one and clearly becomes the new owner, the action
is called
A) Merger B) Acquisition
C) Strategic Alliance D) None of these

35. The low income. economies are sometimes referred to.as ---
A) First world B) Second world
C) Third world . D) Transitory economies

36. This policy is concerned with holding the balance between economic and social goals and
between Individual and communal goals.
A) Corporate Management B) Corporate governance
C) Business ethics D) Corporate social responsibility

37. CII stands for
I

A) Confederation of Indian Industries B) Condition of Indian Industries,
C) Classes of Indian Industries D) Civilians of Indian Industries

38. Who is responsible for presenting the Union Budget before the Parliament?
A) Prime Minister B) Finance Minister
C) RBI Governor D) Pr~sident

39. The intervening period between third and forth Five year plans is regarded as __
A) Plan period B) Plan holidays
C) Plan days D) Annual holidays

(4)

Page 6

40. What was the predecessor of WTO?
A) GAAT B) IMF C)ADB D) World bank

A table showing the percentage of the total population of a state in different age groups is
given
AgeGroun Percentaze
Below-15 32.25% I
16 ~25 17.25%
26-35 14.34%
36-45 14.23%
46-55 10.43%
56-65 7.75%
66 and above 3.75%

41. Which age group accounts for the second maximum population in the state?
A) 26-35 B) 36-45 C) 46-55 D) 16-25

42. Out of every 6400, find the number of persons below 25 years?
A) 3186 B) 3168 C) 3185 D) 3178

43. If the difference between the numbers of people in the age group 56-65 and 66 above is
12 million. Then find the total population of the state?

A) 250 Million B}277 Million C) 300 Million D) 289 Million

44. If 18 million people in the age group 36-45 and what is the difference between the total
number of people in age group below 15 and 16-25?

A) 7.4 Million B) 8.4 Million C) 7 .2 Million D) 8.2 Million

45. There are 400 Million people below 26 years; Howmany Million people.(appr.oximately1
are in the 36-45? :-- ·

A) 112.48 Million· B) 114.34 Million C)U4.98 Million D) 112.98 Million

The pie-chart .. drawn below shows the expenses of a 'family on various items and its
savings during the year 2016. Study the graph and answer the questions. Percent of
money spent on various items and savings bya family during 2016.

fl • Others • Housetng • transpxt i· food
•Sai1i'1gs w-Ctoths • Educa:;on, Health

(5)

Page 7

- 46. Maximum expenditure of the family wason:
A) Transport B) Cloths C) Food D) Health

47. The central angle for the sector on others is:
J
A) 58° B) 54° C) 56° D) 59°

48. The central angle corresponding to the Food is more than that of saving is:
A) 57° B) 57.5° C) 57.6° D) None of these

49. If the total income for the year is Rs.1,20,000, the difference of the expenses between
education and transport is :

A) Rs.7400/~ B) Rs.8400/- C) Rs.7700/- D) Rs. 7800/-

50. What percent of the income was spent on housing and cloths is:
A) 15% B)20% C) 17% D) 19%

Following graph shown milk production, in thousand liters. From 2005 to 2010. Answer
the questions given below:

-: ,
.....
-
.,..,
rl 0
c,
,..,
,:,

LL

., II
0
z
0

2CC5
~
2006
~
..........:., .. I 1.
2007 2008
AXIS TITLE
20CS

;
;.•

51. What percent is the increase in production in 2005 as compared to 2006?
A) 21% · B)25% C) 18% D) 17%

52. Which year production is 50% of the sum of production of2007 and 2009?
A) 2006 B) 2009 C) 2010 D) 2007

53. Sum of production during 'odd' years is how many times that of the 'even' years?
A) 1.14 B) 1.15 C) 1.12 D) 1.13

(6)

Page 8

54. If the production during 2011 is more than th~erage product of the given years, which
is the minimum production during 2011?
A) 1, 04,900 tones -- B) 1, 05, 900 tones
C) I, 05, 900 tones D) 1, 04,775 tones

Answer the questions based on the table given below
A survey of TV watching habits of people living in 5 cities, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 is
summarized below.
The column (1) gives the percentage of T.V watchers in each city who see only one day
in a week.
The Column (2) gives the total number of T.V watchers who see more than one day in a
week. Read the table and answer the questions.
. r---- ------ --. ~- r·.
_ - i ------- r-·-------~rs
City i 1
--T-: - 2
340_0 -
- -------------------- . ---------------_---·--r·---- ... ---- . - -
2 1 30 I 3800
·-····--··- ·---- ; ------------··-· ----«------{-----·-·"·· ---·-- -·-·--· ---·-- ·---·--
3 , 65 i 4500
--·------··-·"°{--- . -·---------- ---·.-······· , ,. .
·r -----.......---.·-- ···- ..•••.. , ... _

4
--···· ---
i 15 : 5800
5 85 7500

55. How many watch T.V in city-3 only one time in a week?
A) 3000 B) 2875 C) 8357 D) 2975

56. Which city has the highest number ofT.V watchers, who see only once in a week?
A) 3 B)2 C)4 D)S

57. The city with the lowest number of T.V watchers is:
A) 2 B)S C)3 D) 1

58. The total number of all T.V-watchers in the five cities, who see only once in a week?
A) 55,646 B) 56,646 C) 57,666 D) 53,987

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered
I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments a 'strong' argument is and which a
'weak' argument is. J.

59. Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient for internal
'\

use itself?

Arguments:
Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.
No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.
A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument.Il is strong
C) Either I or II is strong D) Neither I nor II is strong

(7)

Page 9

60. Statement: Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western countries be first
tried out on sample basis before giving licence for sale to general public in
India?

Arguments:

Yes: Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian population and
hence it is necessary.
No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented.
A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument II is strong
C) Either I or U is strong D) Neither I nor II is strong

61. Statement: Should India make efforts to harness solar energy ,,tq _fi.),lfi-11 its ~nergy
requirements?

Arguments:

Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot ofcapital, which India lacks in.
A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument II is strong
C) Either I or II is strong D) Neither I nor Il is strong

62. Statement: Should there be students union in college/university?
Arguments:

No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.
·' Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.

A) Only argument I is strong B)Only argument H is-strong
C) Either I or II is strong D) Both I and II ate strong.

63. Statement: Should India give away Kashmir toPakistan?
Arguments:

No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India.
Yes. This would help settle conflicts. ,!.

A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument II is strong
C) Either I or II is strong ' D) Neither I nor II is strong

64. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A) 7 B) 10 C)12 D) 13

65. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A) Winter B) Bear C) Dream D) Sleep·

(8)

Page 10

66~ Applying fo~asonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered for a
job that is dependent on a particular season or tirne of year. Which situation below is the
~ example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?
A) The ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through
March.
B) Matthew prefers.jobs that allow him to work outdoors.
C) Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to interview
for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the newspaper.
D) Doug's ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m .. during the summer months.

• 67. The government. has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the
unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting
against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is.its effect
B) Statement II is the cause and statement Lis its effect-·
C) Both the statements I and H are independent causes
D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

68. Statements: Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
All kings are beautiful.
All queens are kings.
A) Only conclusion I follows B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Either I or II follows D) Neither I nor II follows

69. LFA, GLHA, ILJA, __, MLNA ..
A)OLPA B)KLMA C)LLMA D)KLLA

70. The attainment of individual and organizational goals is mutually interdependent and
linked by a common denominator ".' employee work motivation. Organizational members
are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the
attainment of organizational objectives as means of achieving these personal goals.

The passage best supports the statement that motivation+
. -·'
A) Encourages an individual to give priorityto personal goals over organizational goals.
B) Is crucial for the survival of an individual and organization?
C) Is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy?
D) Is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts?

71. Give the antonym ofENORMOUS
A) Soft B) Average C)Tiny D) Weak

(9)

Page 11

Choose the proper sequence.
When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do

72. The Proper sequence should be:
A) RQPS B) QSPR C)SQPR D) PQRS

73. That which cannot be corrected
A)· Unintelligible B) Indelible C) Illegible D) Incorrigible

74. PAIN:SEDATIVE
A) comfort: stimulant B) grief: consolation
C) trance: narcotic D) ache: extraction
75. Give the synonym of:
CORPULENT
A) Lean B) Gaunt C) Emaciated D) Obese

76. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
Fate smiles those who untiringly grapple with stark realities oflife.
A) with B) over C) on D)round

77. The miser gazed at the pile of gold coins in front of him.
A) avidly . Bj.admiringly C) .thoughtfully D) earnestly

78. Choose the correct meaning ofproverB/idiom~
To drive home
A) To.find one's roots B) To return to place ofrest
C) Back to original position D) To emphasise
,
79. Pick out the best one which can completeincomplete stern· correctly and meaningfully.
Even if it rains I shall come means .
A) if I come it will not rain
B) if it rains I shall not come
C) I will certainly come whether it rains or not
D) whenever there is rain I shall come

(10)

Page 12

From the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in
Indirect/Direct speech .
8-0. His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
A) His father said, "Go to your room and study."
B) His father said to him, "Go and study in your room."
C) His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room"
D) His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room."

81. A train 800 meters long is running at a speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1
• minute, then the length of the tunnel (in meters) is:

A) 130 B) 360 C) 500 D) 540

82. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4
years. The sum is:
A) Rs. 650 B) Rs. 690 C) Rs. 698 D) Rs. 700

83. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain
20%?
A) 3 B)4 C) 5 D)6

84. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the
other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
A) 39, 30 B) 41, 32 C) 42, 33 D) 43, 34

85. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q
and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly
income of P is

A) 3500 B) 4000 C) 4050 D) 5000

86. A hall is 15 mlong and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the ceiling is
equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is: ·

A) 720 B) 900 C) 1,200 D) 1800

87. Which one of the following is not a prime number?
A) 31 B) 61 C,) 71 D) 91

88. The greatest number offour digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
A) 9000 B) 9400 C) 9600 D) 9800

89. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-
rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total
number of notes that he has?

A) 45 B) 60 o C) 75 D) 90
- (11)

Page 13

90. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and com es
back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) i~: _ - ..•.•.

A) 4 B)5 C)6 D)lO

91. A man buys Rs. 20 shares paying 9% dividend. The man wants to have an interest of
12% on his money. The market value of each share is:

A) Rs. 12 B) Rs. 15 C) Rs. 18 D) Rs. 21

92. Find the odd man out.
396,462,572,427,671,264 "

A) 396 B) 427 C) 671 D) 264

93. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of iff'km/ht,'he wouldhave walkecr20 km more.
The actual distance travelled by him is:

A) 50 km B)56km C) 70km . D) 80 km

94. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a
certain sum of money for 2 years at 4%1)erannum is-Re. L The sum (in Rs.) is:

A) 625 B) 630 C) 640 D) 650

95. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B
Rs. 5000 more than C. 0,1.1t of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A) Rs. 8400 B) Rs. 11,900 C)Rs. '13,600 D)'Rs. ·14,700

96. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee
so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
. A) 564 • :- .. B) 645 C) 735 D)756

97. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the
two numbers is: ·

A) 2: 5 B) 3: 5 C)4:5 D)6:7
,
98. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is
the probability that none of the balls drawn
A
is blue?
10 11
A) B) C) ~ D)~
21 21 7 7

99. The banker's discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15% is Rs. 420. The true discount
1s:

A) Rs. 400 B) Rs. 360 C) Rs. 480 D) Rs. 320

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Page 14

100. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating
simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third
pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:

A) 6 hours B) 10 hours C) 15 hours D) 30 hours

Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.
At this stage of civilization, when many nations are brought in to close and vital
contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one
another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one
• another's historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to
expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international
situations. Our genuine · goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing,
• because we expect other people to be like us, This would be corrected if we knew tl1e
history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political
conditions which have given to each nation its present character.

101. According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of it's
A) present character B) international position
C) politics D) history

102. The character of a nation is the result of it's ...
A) gross ignorance B) cultural heritage
C) socio-political conditions D) mentality

103. The need for a greater understanding between nations
A) is more today than ever before . B) was always there
C) is no longer there D) will always be there

I 04. Englishmen like others to react to political situations _lil~e
A) others B) us C) themselves D) each others

105. According to the author his countrymen should

.. A) read the story of other nations
B) not reacts to other actions
C) have a better understanding Of other nations
D) have vital contacts with other nations ,,

Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it.
~ .. . -
, - -
Laws of nature are not commands but statements of acts. The use of the word
"law" in this context is rather unfortunate. It would be better to speak of uniformities in
nature. This would do away with the elementary fallacy that a law implies a law giver. If
a piece of matter does not obey a law of nature it is punished. On the contrary, we say
that the law has been incorrectly started.

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,

Page 15

106. If a piece of matter violates nature's law, it is not punished because
A) it is not binding to obey it
B) there is no superior being to enforce the law of nature
C) it cannot be punished
D) it simply means that the facts have not been correctly stated by law

107. Laws of nature differ from man-made laws because
A) the former state facts of Nature B) they must be obeyed
C) they are natural D) unlike human laws, they are systematic
;
108. The author is not happy with word 'law' because
A) it connotes rigidity and harshness
B) it implies an agency which has made them
C) it does not convey the sense of nature's uniformity
D) it gives rise to false beliefs

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error -in it. The
error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, the answer is 'D' .. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

109. A) We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
B) On the eve of the examination
C) That I found it very easy to workitout
D) No error

110. Solve as per the direction given above
A) Ah Indian ship B) Laden with merchandise
C) Gotdrowned in the Pacific Ocean. D) No error

111. Solve as per the direction given above
A) I could not put up in a hotel
B) because the boarding and lodging charges
C) were exorbitant
D) No error
_.; •..I..

In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech.
From the given alternatives, choose' the one which best expresses the given sentence ~
in Indirect/Direct speech.

112. He exclaimed with joy that India had won the. Sahara Cup.
A) He said, "India has won the Sahara Cup"
B) He said, "India won the Sahara Cup" .
C) He said, "How! India will win the Sahara Cup"
D) He said, "Hurrah! India has won the Sahara Cup"

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,

Page 16

113. The little girl said to her mother, "Did the sun rise in the East?"
A) The little girl said to her mother that the sun rose in the East.
B) The little girl asked her mother if the sun rose in the East.
C) The little girl said to her mother if the sun rises in the East.
D) The little girl asked her mother if the sun is in the East.

114. The man said, "No, I refused to confer guilt."
A) The man emphatically refused to confers guilt.
B) The man refused to confers his guilt.
C) The man told that he did not confers guilt.
D) The man was stubborn enough to confer guilt.

Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.

115. I was astounded at his lack of knowledge about the Continent of Africa.

A) abundant B) colossal C) huge D) great

116. Ayesha always the permission of her father before going for movies.

A) Seeking B) seeks C) sought D) seeker

117. He felt no as he plunged the knife into her back.
A) Qualms B) scruple C) conscience D) morals

Fill in the blanks with the right option

Today most businessmen are very worried. To begin with, they are not used to
competition ..... .In the past they sold whatever ... (118) ... produced at whatever prices
they chose. But ... Ell-9) ... increasing competition, customers began to ... (120) ..... and
choose.

118. Solve as per the direction given above
A) it B) he C) they D)we

119. Solve as per the direction given above
A) with B) by r) after D) from

120. Solve as per the direction given above
A) buy B) take C) pick D) want

(15)

x-x-x

Page 17

MET-2017 Answer Key

1 C 31 D 61 A 91 B

2 D 32 A 62 D 92 B

3 A 33 A 63 A 93 A
4 A 34 B 64 B 94 A

5 D 35 C 65 D 95 D

6 A 36 B 66 C 96 D

7 A 37 A 67 B 97 C

8 C 38 B 68 D 98 A

9 D 39 B 69 D 99 A
10 B 40 A 70 A 100 C

11 C 41 D 71 C 101 D

12 B 42 B 72 A 102 C

13 B 43 C 73 D 103 A

14 C 44 A 74 B 104 C

15 C 45 C 75 D 105 C
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 B

17 D 47 B 77 A 107 A

18 A 48 C 78 D 108 A

19 A 49 B 79 C 109 A

20 A 50 B 80 A 110 C

21 D 51 A 81 C 111 A
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 D

23 D 53 B 83 C 113 B

24 A 54 B 84 C 114 A

25 A 55 C 85 B 115 B

26 B 56 D 86 C 116 B

27 A 57 A 87 D 117 A
28 C 58 B 88 C 118 C

29 B 59 A 89 D 119 A

30 B 60 A 90 B 120 C

Document Details

Board / OrgPanjab University
ExamPU MET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages17
Languageenglish
Updated30 Apr 2026