JEE Advanced 2022 Question Paper 2

Mathematics
JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

SECTION 1 (Maximum marks: 24)
• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on­
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1 𝜋 𝜋 1
Let 𝛼 and 𝛽 be real numbers such that − 4 < 𝛽 < 0 < 𝛼 < 4 . If sin(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 3 and
2
cos(𝛼 − 𝛽) = 3 , then the greatest integer less than or equal to

sin 𝛼 cos 𝛽 cos 𝛼 sin 𝛽 2
( + + + )
cos 𝛽 sin 𝛼 sin 𝛽 cos 𝛼

is _____________.

Q.2 If 𝑦(𝑥) is the solution of the differential equation

𝑥𝑑𝑦 − (𝑦 2 − 4𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 0 for 𝑥 > 0, 𝑦(1) = 2,

and the slope of the curve 𝑦 = 𝑦(𝑥) is never zero, then the value of 10 𝑦(√2 ) is _____________.

Q.3 The greatest integer less than or equal to

2 log2 9 1
∫ log 2 (𝑥 3 + 1) 𝑑𝑥 + ∫ (2𝑥 − 1) 3 𝑑𝑥
1 1

is _____________.

Q.4 The product of all positive real values of 𝑥 satisfying the equation

3
𝑥 (16(log5 𝑥) −68 log5 𝑥) = 5−16

is __________ .

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.5 If

3 1 1
𝑒 𝑥 − (1 − 𝑥 3 )3 + ((1 − 𝑥 2 )2 − 1) sin 𝑥
𝛽 = lim ,
𝑥→0 𝑥 sin2 𝑥

then the value of 6𝛽 is ___________.

Q.6 Let 𝛽 be a real number. Consider the matrix

𝛽 0 1
𝐴=(2 1 −2) .
3 1 −2

If 𝐴7 − (𝛽 − 1)𝐴6 − 𝛽𝐴5 is a singular matrix, then the value of 9𝛽 is ___________.

Q.7 Consider the hyperbola
𝑥2 𝑦2
− =1
100 64

with foci at 𝑆 and 𝑆1 , where 𝑆 lies on the positive x-axis. Let 𝑃 be a point on the hyperbola, in the
𝜋
first quadrant. Let ∠𝑆𝑃𝑆1 = 𝛼, with 𝛼 < 2 . The straight line passing through the point 𝑆 and
having the same slope as that of the tangent at 𝑃 to the hyperbola, intersects the straight line 𝑆1 𝑃 at
𝑃1 . Let 𝛿 be the distance of 𝑃 from the straight line 𝑆𝑃1 , and 𝛽 = 𝑆1 𝑃. Then the greatest integer
βδ 𝛼
less than or equal to
9
sin 2 is _____________.

Q.8 Consider the functions 𝑓, 𝑔 ∶ ℝ → ℝ defined by

4|𝑥| 3
5 2 (1 − ), |𝑥| ≤ ,
3 4
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + and 𝑔(𝑥) =
12 3
{ 0, |𝑥| > .
4

If 𝛼 is the area of the region

3
{(𝑥, 𝑦) ∈ ℝ × ℝ ∶ |𝑥| ≤ , 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ min{𝑓(𝑥), 𝑔(𝑥)} } ,
4

then the value of 9𝛼 is _____________.

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.10 Let
∞
𝜋
𝛼 = ∑ sin2𝑘 ( ) .
6
𝑘=1

Let 𝑔 ∶ [0, 1] → ℝ be the function defined by

𝑔(𝑥) = 2𝛼𝑥 + 2𝛼(1−𝑥) .

Then, which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?

7
(A) The minimum value of 𝑔(𝑥) is 26

1
(B) The maximum value of 𝑔(𝑥) is 1 + 23

(C) The function 𝑔(𝑥) attains its maximum at more than one point

(D) The function 𝑔(𝑥) attains its minimum at more than one point

Q.11 Let 𝑧̅ denote the complex conjugate of a complex number 𝑧. If 𝑧 is a non-zero complex number for
which both real and imaginary parts of

1
( 𝑧̅ )2 +
𝑧2

are integers, then which of the following is/are possible value(s) of |𝑧| ?

1 1
43+3√205 4 7+√33 4
(A) ( ) (B) ( )
2 4

1 1
9+√65 4 7+√13 4
(C) ( 4 ) (D) ( )
6

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.12 Let 𝐺 be a circle of radius 𝑅 > 0. Let 𝐺1 , 𝐺2 , … , 𝐺𝑛 be 𝑛 circles of equal radius 𝑟 > 0. Suppose
each of the 𝑛 circles 𝐺1 , 𝐺2 , … , 𝐺𝑛 touches the circle 𝐺 externally. Also, for 𝑖 = 1, 2, … , 𝑛 − 1, the
circle 𝐺𝑖 touches 𝐺𝑖+1 externally, and 𝐺𝑛 touches 𝐺1 externally. Then, which of the following
statements is/are TRUE ?

(A) If 𝑛 = 4, then (√2 − 1)𝑟 < 𝑅

(B) If 𝑛 = 5, then 𝑟 < 𝑅

(C) If 𝑛 = 8, then (√2 − 1) 𝑟 < 𝑅

(D) If 𝑛 = 12, then √2 (√3 + 1) 𝑟 > 𝑅

Q.13 Let 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ and 𝑘̂ be the unit vectors along the three positive coordinate axes. Let

𝑎⃗ = 3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ ,
𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 𝑏2 𝑗̂ + 𝑏3 𝑘̂ , 𝑏2 , 𝑏3 ∈ ℝ ,
𝑐⃗ = 𝑐1 𝑖̂ + 𝑐2 𝑗̂ + 𝑐3 𝑘̂ , 𝑐1 , 𝑐2 , 𝑐3 ∈ ℝ

be three vectors such that 𝑏2 𝑏3 > 0, 𝑎⃗ ⋅ 𝑏⃗⃗ = 0 and

0 −𝑐3 𝑐2 1 3 − 𝑐1
( 𝑐3 0 −𝑐1 ) (𝑏2 ) = ( 1 − 𝑐2 ) .
−𝑐2 𝑐1 0 𝑏3 −1 − 𝑐3

Then, which of the following is/are TRUE ?

(A) 𝑎⃗ ⋅ 𝑐⃗ = 0

(B) 𝑏⃗⃗ ⋅ 𝑐⃗ = 0

(C) |𝑏⃗⃗| > √10

(D) |𝑐⃗| ≤ √11

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.14 For 𝑥 ∈ ℝ, let the function 𝑦(𝑥) be the solution of the differential equation

𝑑𝑦 𝜋
+ 12𝑦 = cos ( 𝑥) , 𝑦(0) = 0 .
𝑑𝑥 12

Then, which of the following statements is/are TRUE ?

(A) 𝑦(𝑥) is an increasing function

(B) 𝑦(𝑥) is a decreasing function

(C) There exists a real number 𝛽 such that the line 𝑦 = 𝛽 intersects the curve 𝑦 = 𝑦(𝑥) at
infinitely many points

(D) 𝑦(𝑥) is a periodic function

6/8

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.15 Consider 4 boxes, where each box contains 3 red balls and 2 blue balls. Assume that all 20 balls are
distinct. In how many different ways can 10 balls be chosen from these 4 boxes so that from each
box at least one red ball and one blue ball are chosen ?

(A) 21816 (B) 85536 (C) 12096 (D) 156816

Q.16 5 3

If 𝑀 = ( 23 2
1 ) , then which of the following matrices is equal to 𝑀2022 ?
−2 −2

3034 3033
(A) ( )
−3033 −3032
3034 −3033
(B) ( )
3033 −3032
3033 3032
(C) ( )
−3032 −3031
3032 3031
(D) ( )
−3031 −3030

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.17 Suppose that

Box-I contains 8 red, 3 blue and 5 green balls,
Box-II contains 24 red, 9 blue and 15 green balls,
Box-III contains 1 blue, 12 green and 3 yellow balls,
Box-IV contains 10 green, 16 orange and 6 white balls.

A ball is chosen randomly from Box-I; call this ball 𝑏. If 𝑏 is red then a ball is chosen randomly
from Box-II, if 𝑏 is blue then a ball is chosen randomly from Box-III, and if 𝑏 is green then a ball is
chosen randomly from Box-IV. The conditional probability of the event ‘one of the chosen balls is
white’ given that the event ‘at least one of the chosen balls is green’ has happened, is equal to

15 3
(A) (B) 16
256

5 1
(C) (D) 8
52

Q.18 For positive integer 𝑛, define

16 + 5𝑛 − 3𝑛2 32 + 𝑛 − 3𝑛2 48 − 3𝑛 − 3𝑛2 25𝑛 − 7𝑛2
𝑓(𝑛) = 𝑛 + + + + ⋯ + .
4𝑛 + 3𝑛2 8𝑛 + 3𝑛2 12𝑛 + 3𝑛2 7𝑛2

Then, the value of lim 𝑓(𝑛) is equal to
𝑛→∞

4 3 7
(A) 3 + 3 log 𝑒 7 (B) 4 − 4 log 𝑒 (3)

4 7 3
(C) 4 − log 𝑒 ( ) (D) 3 + log 𝑒 7
3 3 4

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

8/8

Physics

EIGHT (08)

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.4 In a particular system of units, a physical quantity can be expressed in terms of the electric charge
𝑒, electron mass 𝑚 , Planck’s constant ℎ, and Coulomb’s constant 𝑘 = , where 𝜖 is the
permittivity of vacuum. In terms of these physical constants, the dimension of the magnetic field is
[𝐵] = [𝑒] [𝑚 ] [ℎ] [𝑘] . The value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 + 𝛾 + 𝛿 is ____ .

Q.5 Consider a configuration of n identical units, each consisting of three layers. The first layer is a
column of air of height ℎ = 𝑐𝑚, and the second and third layers are of equal thickness 𝑑 =
√
𝑐𝑚, and refractive indices 𝜇 = and 𝜇 = √3 , respectively. A light source O is placed
on the top of the first unit, as shown in the figure. A ray of light from O is incident on the
second layer of the first unit at an angle of 𝜃 = 60° to the normal. For a specific value of n, the
ray of light emerges from the bottom of the configuration at a distance 𝑙 = 𝑐𝑚, as shown in
√
the figure. The value of n is ____.

n units

Q.6 A charge 𝑞 is surrounded by a closed surface consisting of an inverted cone of height ℎ and
base radius 𝑅, and a hemisphere of radius 𝑅 as shown in the figure. The electric flux through
the conical surface is (in SI units). The value of 𝑛 is ________ .

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.7 On a frictionless horizontal plane, a bob of mass 𝑚 = 0.1 𝑘𝑔 is attached to a spring with
natural length 𝑙 = 0.1 𝑚. The spring constant is 𝑘 = 0.009 𝑁𝑚 when the length of the
spring 𝑙 > 𝑙 and is 𝑘 = 0.016 𝑁𝑚 when 𝑙 < 𝑙 . Initially the bob is released from 𝑙 =
0.15 𝑚. Assume that Hooke’s law remains valid throughout the motion. If the time period of
the full oscillation is 𝑇 = (𝑛 𝜋) 𝑠 , then the integer closest to 𝑛 is ____.

Q.8 An object and a concave mirror of focal length 𝑓 = 10 𝑐𝑚 both move along the principal axis of
the mirror with constant speeds. The object moves with speed 𝑉 = 15 𝑐𝑚 𝑠 towards the mirror
with respect to a laboratory frame. The distance between the object and the mirror at a given
moment is denoted by 𝑢. When 𝑢 = 30 𝑐𝑚, the speed of the mirror 𝑉 is such that the image is
instantaneously at rest with respect to the laboratory frame, and the object forms a real image. The
magnitude of 𝑉 is _____ 𝑐𝑚 𝑠 .

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.10 In Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 shown in the figures, 𝑅 = 1 Ω, 𝑅 = 2 Ω and 𝑅 = 3 Ω.
𝑃 and 𝑃 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2
are in open conditions, respectively.
𝑄 and 𝑄 are the power dissipations in Circuit-1 and Circuit-2 when the switches S1 and S2
are in closed conditions, respectively.
R1
R1 R2 R3
R2

S1 R3
R1 /2

A B

S2 2R3
Circuit-1
A B

Circuit-2

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) When a voltage source of 6 𝑉 is connected across A and B in both circuits, 𝑃 < 𝑃 .
(B) When a constant current source of 2 𝐴𝑚𝑝 is connected across A and B in both circuits, 𝑃 > 𝑃 .
(C) When a voltage source of 6 𝑉 is connected across A and B in Circuit-1, 𝑄 > 𝑃 .
(D) When a constant current source of 2 𝐴𝑚𝑝 is connected across A and B in both circuits,
𝑄 <𝑄 .

Q.11 A bubble has surface tension S. The ideal gas inside the bubble has ratio of specific heats 𝛾 =
. The bubble is exposed to the atmosphere and it always retains its spherical shape. When
the atmospheric pressure is 𝑃 , the radius of the bubble is found to be 𝑟 and the
temperature of the enclosed gas is 𝑇 . When the atmospheric pressure is 𝑃 , the radius of the
bubble and the temperature of the enclosed gas are 𝑟 and 𝑇 , respectively.

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then = .

(B) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then the total internal energy of the
bubble including its surface energy does not change with the external atmospheric pressure.
(C) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat conductor and the change in atmospheric

temperature is negligible, then = .

(D) If the surface of the bubble is a perfect heat insulator, then = .

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.12 A disk of radius R with uniform positive charge density 𝜎 is placed on the xy plane with its center at
the origin. The Coulomb potential along the z-axis is
𝜎
𝑉(𝑧) = 𝑅 +𝑧 −𝑧 .
2𝜖
A particle of positive charge 𝑞 is placed initially at rest at a point on the z axis with 𝑧 = 𝑧 and
𝑧 > 0. In addition to the Coulomb force, the particle experiences a vertical force 𝐹⃗ = −𝑐 𝑘 with
𝑐 > 0. Let 𝛽 = . Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) For 𝛽 = and 𝑧 = 𝑅, the particle reaches the origin.
(B) For 𝛽 = and 𝑧 = 𝑅, the particle reaches the origin.
(C) For 𝛽 = and 𝑧 = , the particle returns back to 𝑧 = 𝑧 .
√
(D) For 𝛽 > 1 and 𝑧 > 0, the particle always reaches the origin.

Q.13 A double slit setup is shown in the figure. One of the slits is in medium 2 of refractive index
𝑛 . The other slit is at the interface of this medium with another medium 1 of refractive index
𝑛 (≠ 𝑛 ). The line joining the slits is perpendicular to the interface and the distance between
the slits is 𝑑. The slit widths are much smaller than d. A monochromatic parallel beam of light
is incident on the slits from medium 1. A detector is placed in medium 2 at a large distance
from the slits, and at an angle 𝜃 from the line joining them, so that 𝜃 equals the angle of
refraction of the beam. Consider two approximately parallel rays from the slits received by
the detector.

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The phase difference between the two rays is independent of 𝑑.
(B) The two rays interfere constructively at the detector.
(C) The phase difference between the two rays depends on 𝑛 but is independent of 𝑛 .
(D) The phase difference between the two rays vanishes only for certain values of 𝑑 and the
angle of incidence of the beam, with 𝜃 being the corresponding angle of refraction.

6/10

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.14 In the given P-V diagram, a monoatomic gas (γ = ) is first compressed adiabatically from state A
.
to state B. Then it expands isothermally from state B to state C. [Given: ≃ 0.5, ln 2 ≃ 0.7 ].

𝑃 (𝑘𝑃𝑎)

Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) The magnitude of the total work done in the process 𝐴 → 𝐵 → 𝐶 is 144 kJ.
(B) The magnitude of the work done in the process 𝐵 → 𝐶 is 84 kJ.
(C) The magnitude of the work done in the process 𝐴 → 𝐵 is 60 kJ.
(D) The magnitude of the work done in the process 𝐶 → 𝐴 is zero.

7/10

FOUR (04)

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.15 A flat surface of a thin uniform disk A of radius R is glued to a horizontal table. Another thin
uniform disk B of mass 𝑀 and with the same radius 𝑅 rolls without slipping on the circumference
of A, as shown in the figure. A flat surface of B also lies on the plane of the table. The center of
mass of B has fixed angular speed 𝜔 about the vertical axis passing through the center of A. The
angular momentum of B is 𝑛𝑀ω𝑅 with respect to the center of A. Which of the following is the
value of n?

(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) ) (D) )

Q.16 When light of a given wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the minimum potential needed
to stop the emitted photoelectrons is 6.0 𝑉. This potential drops to 0.6 𝑉 if another source with
wavelength four times that of the first one and intensity half of the first one is used. What are the
wavelength of the first source and the work function of the metal, respectively? [Take = 1.24 ×
10 𝐽 𝑚 𝐶 .]

(A) 1.72 x 10-7 m, 1.20 eV
(B) 1.72 x 10-7 m, 5.60 eV
(C) 3.78 x 10-7 m, 5.60 eV
(D) 3.78 x 10-7 m, 1.20 eV

9/10

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.17 Area of the cross-section of a wire is measured using a screw gauge. The pitch of the main scale is
0.5 mm. The circular scale has 100 divisions and for one full rotation of the circular scale, the main
scale shifts by two divisions. The measured readings are listed below.

Measurement condition Main scale reading Circular scale reading
Two arms of gauge touching 0 division 4 divisions
each other without wire
Attempt-1: With wire 4 divisions 20 divisions
Attempt-2: With wire 4 divisions 16 divisions

What are the diameter and cross-sectional area of the wire measured using the screw gauge?

(A) 2.22 ± 0.02 𝑚𝑚, 𝜋(1.23 ± 0.02)𝑚𝑚
(B) 2.22 ± 0.01 𝑚𝑚, 𝜋(1.23 ± 0.01)𝑚𝑚
(C) 2.14 ± 0.02 𝑚𝑚, 𝜋(1.14 ± 0.02)𝑚𝑚
(D) 2.14 ± 0.01 𝑚𝑚, 𝜋(1.14 ± 0.01)𝑚𝑚

Q.18 Which one of the following options represents the magnetic field 𝐵⃗ at O due to the current flowing
in the given wire segments lying on the xy plane?

L/2 L/2
O
L/4
𝚥̂
L/4

I 𝚤̂
L
3L/4 I
𝑘

(A) 𝐵⃗ = + 𝑘 (B) 𝐵⃗ = − + 𝑘
√ √
(C) 𝐵⃗ = 1+ 𝑘 (D) 𝐵⃗ = 1+ 𝑘
√

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

10/10

Chemistry
JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

SECTION 1 (Maximum marks: 24)

• This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 TO 9, BOTH INCLUSIVE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the on­
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1 Concentration of H2SO4 and Na2SO4 in a solution is 1 M and 1.8 × 10–2 M, respectively. Molar
solubility of PbSO4 in the same solution is X × 10–Y M (expressed in scientific notation). The value
of Y is _________.

[Given: Solubility product of PbSO4 (Ksp) = 1.6 × 10–8. For H2SO4, Ka1 is very large and
Ka2 = 1.2 × 10–2]

Q.2 An aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 0.1 mol of an ionic salt in 1.8 kg of water at 35 ºC.
The salt remains 90% dissociated in the solution. The vapour pressure of the solution is 59.724 mm
of Hg. Vapor pressure of water at 35 ºC is 60.000 mm of Hg. The number of ions present per
formula unit of the ionic salt is _______.

1/8

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Consider the strong electrolytes ZmXn , UmYp and VmXn . Limiting molar conductivity ( ) of
0
Q.3
2 -1
UmYp and VmXn are 250 and 440 S cm mol , respectively. The value of (m + n + p) is _______.

Given:
n+ p+ n+ m- m-
Ion Z U V X Y
0 (S cm mol )
2 -1
50.0 25.0 100.0 80.0 100.0
0 is the limiting molar conductivity of ions

The plot of molar conductivity () of ZmXn vs c1/2 is given below.

Q.4 The reaction of Xe and O2 F2 gives a Xe compound P. The number of moles of HF produced by the
complete hydrolysis of 1 mol of P is _______.

Q.5 Thermal decomposition of AgNO3 produces two paramagnetic gases. The total number of electrons
present in the antibonding molecular orbitals of the gas that has the higher number of unpaired
electrons is _______.

2/8

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.6 The number of isomeric tetraenes (NOT containing sp-hybridized carbon atoms) that can be
formed from the following reaction sequence is ________.

Q.7 The number of -CH2- (methylene) groups in the product formed from the following reaction
sequence is ________.

Q.8 The total number of chiral molecules formed from one molecule of P on complete ozonolysis
(O3, Zn/H2O) is ________.

3/8

JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.10 The correct option(s) about entropy (S) is(are)
[R = gas constant, F = Faraday constant, T = Temperature]

𝑑𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 𝑅
(A) For the reaction, M(s) + 2H (aq) → H2(g) + M (aq), if
+ 2+
= 𝐹 , then the entropy change of
𝑑𝑇
the reaction is R (assume that entropy and internal energy changes are temperature
independent).
+ +
(B) The cell reaction, Pt(s) | H2(g, 1bar) | H (aq, 0.01M) || H (aq, 0.1M) | H2(g, 1bar) | Pt(s), is an
entropy driven process.
(C) For racemization of an optically active compound, S > 0.
(D) S > 0, for [Ni(H2O)6] + 3 en → [Ni(en)3] + 6H2O (where en = ethylenediamine).
2+ 2+

Q.11 The compound(s) which react(s) with NH3 to give boron nitride (BN) is(are)

(A) B (B) B2H6 (C) B2O3 (D) HBF4

Q.12 The correct option(s) related to the extraction of iron from its ore in the blast furnace operating in
the temperature range 900 – 1500 K is(are)

(A) Limestone is used to remove silicate impurity.
(B) Pig iron obtained from blast furnace contains about 4% carbon.
(C) Coke (C) converts CO2 to CO.
(D) Exhaust gases consist of NO2 and CO.

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.13 Considering the following reaction sequence, the correct statement(s) is(are)

(A) Compounds P and Q are carboxylic acids.
(B) Compound S decolorizes bromine water.
(C) Compounds P and S react with hydroxylamine to give the corresponding oximes.
(D) Compound R reacts with dialkylcadmium to give the corresponding tertiary alcohol.

Q.14 Among the following, the correct statement(s) about polymers is(are)

(A) The polymerization of chloroprene gives natural rubber.
(B) Teflon is prepared from tetrafluoroethene by heating it with persulphate catalyst at high
pressures.
(C) PVC are thermoplastic polymers.
(D) Ethene at 350-570 K temperature and 1000-2000 atm pressure in the presence of a peroxide
initiator yields high density polythene.

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

SECTION 3 (Maximum marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.15 Atom X occupies the fcc lattice sites as well as alternate tetrahedral voids of the same lattice. The
packing efficiency (in %) of the resultant solid is closest to

(A) 25 (B) 35 (C) 55 (D) 75

Q.16 The reaction of HClO3 with HCl gives a paramagnetic gas, which upon reaction with O3 produces

(A) Cl2O (B) ClO2 (C) Cl2O6 (D) Cl2O7

Q.17 The reaction of Pb(NO3)2 and NaCl in water produces a precipitate that dissolves upon the addition
of HCl of appropriate concentration. The dissolution of the precipitate is due to the formation of

2- 2-
(A) PbCl2 (B) PbCl4 (C) [PbCl4] (D) [PbCl6]

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JEE (Advanced) 2022 Paper 2

Q.18 Treatment of D-glucose with aqueous NaOH results in a mixture of monosaccharides, which are

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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