Kerala LLB 5 Year 2026 Question Paper with Answers

FOR KERALA LLB 5 YEAR EXAM PREPARATION

Kerala LLB 5 Year 2026
Question Paper ·
Answers
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

Kerala LLB 5 Year 2026 Question Paper Answers

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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m .co FINAL ANSWER KEY a s e m
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Question Paper Code: 17/2026/OL
Exam:INTEGRATED FIVE YEAR LLB 2026
Date of Test: 28-06-2026

1. Which one of the following is an incorrectly spelled word?
A) revarberation
B) juxtaposition
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opaque m .co
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C)
appeasement e m
D)

e m l as
l
Correct Answeras: Option A
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2. Which one of the following is an incorrectly spelled word?
A) assassination
B) multidisciplinery
C) linguistic
D) refurbished

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3. s e
Find out the correct preposition to be used in the blanks.

la
He is capable ________solving the complicated issue.
g
A)
B)
in
with
a
C) to
D) of

Choose the correct preposition to be used in the blanks.
4. m
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She is responsible ________ the economic development of the company.
m
A)
B .)
co to
s e m
emC ) a
for

as with g l
l a
ag D ) of

Choose the correct preposition from the following to be used in the blanks.
5.
He is married _______ an advocate.
A) of
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B) with
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C) to
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D) against

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
capitals?
6.
MEEK
A) forbearing
B) humble
C) mild
D) impatient

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
7. capitals?
UNDETERRED
A) daunted
B) bold
C) apprehensive
D) gallant
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
8. capitals?
HOMOLOGOUS
A) distinct
B) parallel
C) same
D) similar

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
9. capitals?
STARK
A) bleak
B) hostile
C) austere
D) subtle

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in italics in the sentence:
10. The plot of land costs an arm and a leg
A) moderate
B) very expensive
C) cheap

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c. o D ) for sale s e m
m a
se Correct Answer : Option B ag l
He spilled the beans about his new car.
11. The meaning of the idiom, “ spill the beans ” is
A) to cook the beans
B) to cut the beans
C) to reveal a secret
to speak truth m
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D)

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m s e m
s e
Identify theameaning of the idiom or phrases given in capitals in the sentence: g l a
l a
12.
ag administration CUT CORNERS on safety, which caused many problems
The University
A) to do something in an efficient way
B) to do something in the cheapest or quickest way by ignoring proper standards
C) to do something secretly
D) to do something extravagantly

o m
c
. words to fill in the blanks to make
m
Choose the most effective word from the given
13. the sentence meaningfully complete. se
a an _________ manner, without proper planning
The policy changes were introducedlin
g
A) agreeable a
B) acceptable
C) arbitrary
D) admissible

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make m
14. om
c
the sentence meaningfully complete.
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m . The respondent’s reply during the cross examination in the court was ________
s e
s e A) by contradictions
g l a
la B )
eliminated
g a
a C)
confused
validated
D) undermined

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
15. the sentence meaningfully complete.
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Her claim was so _________ that it required no further evidence
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A) doubtful
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las ag
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B) ambiguous
C) self-evident
D) equivocal

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
16. the sentence meaningfully complete.
The growth of the organization was _______ by poor management decisions
A) hindered
B) increased
C) accelerated
D) facilitated

Find out all the nouns in the following sentence.
17. His involvement in music earned him good recognition across the State.
A) involvement, music, recognition, earned
B) involvement, music, recognition, across
C) earned, music, recognition, across
D) involvement, music, recognition, State

Find out all the nouns in the following sentence.
18. The rapid expansion of technology has transformed modern medical treatments.
A) expansion, technology, treatments
B) expansion, technology, medical, treatments
C) rapid, expansion, technology, medical
D) expansion, transformed, technology

Find out all the verb in the following sentence.
19. The Government has been reviewing the project for several years
A) has
B) project
C) several
D) has been reviewing

Find out all the verb in the following sentence.
20. The results of Assembly election were analysed carefully by the political parties.
A) were
B) results
C) were analysed

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c. o D ) carefully s e m
m a
se Correct Answer : Option C ag l
Change the assertive sentence into an interrogative sentence.
21. He rarely speaks in English to his friends.
A) Is he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
B) Does he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
C) Do he rarely speaks in English to his friend?
Does he rarely speak in English to his friend? m
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D)

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a
22. Everyonelwelcomed
Change the
g
assertive sentence into an interrogative sentence.
ag
A)
a his dance performance.
Did everyone welcomed his dance performance?
B) Does everyone welcome his dance performance?
C) Has everyone welcomed his dance performance?

D)
Did everyone welcome his dance performance?

o m
c
m.friends
Choose the suitable adjective to fill in the blanks
23. His ________ attitude made it difficult forehis
in the sentence.

la s to trust him.
A)
B)
adjustable
erratic a g
C) acceptable
D) amicable

Choose the suitable adjective to fill in the blanks in the sentence.
24. The senior counsel presented a ________ argument that convinced the judge. m
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A)
weak e m
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B)

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s
la D )
compelling
flimsy ag
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A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If there is no error in the
25. sentence , choose the option (D).
A) They had prepared meticulously
B) for the project, but unforeseen
C)
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technical issues disrupted them plan
.
D) No error
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s em l a
g la ag
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A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If there is no error in the
26. sentence, choose the option (D).
A) She neither apologized for
B) her mistake, nor does she
C) attempt to rectify it
D) No error

27. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: PERNICIOUS
A) injurious
B) graceful
C) useful
D) delightful

28. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: OBSEQUIOUS
A) bold
B) argue
C) fight
D) submissive

29. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: PRAGMATIC
A) optimistic
B) static
C) practical
D) forgive

30. Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters: CANDID
A) honest
B) tight
C) happy
D) strict

31. Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
P : them and confused
Q : were detailed, yet

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m .co R : the instructions
s e m
se S : some participants misunderstood
g l a
A) QRPS a
B) PQSR
C) RQSP
D) SQRP

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence: m
m
P : to understand the truth
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32.
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Q : the boy was trying
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R : old man had said
s e l a
ag
S : of what the
A) QPSR
g l a
B) RQPS a
C) SQRP
D) RPQS

Choose the correct conjunction to fill in the blanks in the following sentence.He can stay
33.
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here, _______ he can go home
A) but
e m
B) and
las
C)
D)
or
yet ag

Choose the correct conjunction to fill in the blanks in the following sentence.
34. She not only studies well ________ plays tennis excellently.

A) does
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B)
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C)
mD )
and
s e m
s e but also
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35. Read the passage and answer the question :
Plastic is a notorious material. Of the more than 400 million tonnes of plastic produced
globally each year, only about 9% is recycled, while millions of tonnes end up in the
oceans annually. Plastic can take hundreds of years to break down, fragmenting instead
into microplastics that have now been detected in the air, drinking water, and even the
human body. Produced largely from fossil fuels, it is estimated to account for around 3%
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to 4% of global greenhouse gas emissions. Greenhouse gases are components of the
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atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide , methane and water vapour being durable, cheap
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and endlessly versatile, however, plastic has woven itself into nearly every aspect of
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modern life. Longevity changes the environmental equation. And recycling, while
necessary, cannot be the primary solution to a crisis driven by the sheer scale of
production and design of single-use plastic.

According to the passage, choose the statement which is not correct.
A) Each year, about 400 million tonnes of plastic is produced globally.
B) Each year, about 80% of plastics is not recycled.
C) Plastic can take hundreds of years to break down.
D) Recycling of plastic is necessary

36. "I _____ English for the last five years"
A) learn
B) have been learning
C) learnt
D) am learning

37. Kerala is set to celebrate the 75th anniversary of the formation of the state in the year
A) 2029
B) 2028
C) 2031
D) 2035

38. Kerala Piravi Day is celebrated every year on
A) 1st November
B) 5th November
C) 10th November
D) 25th November

39. In Kerala, Nirbhaya Nisha is a programme that provides special security for
A) senior citizen travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
B) women travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
C) children travelling between 9 pm and 5 am
D) disabled persons travelling between 9 pm and 5 am

40. The “ Sanchaya ” software in Kerala is related to
A) tax and revenue management in local bodies
B) Forests management

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c. o C ) Health Services s e m
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se D) management of water bodies
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41. G.V. Raja Award is the highest sporting honour in the State of
A) Karnataka
B) Telangana
C) Kerala
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D) Tamil Nadu
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c
. C s e
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Correct Answer : Option
l a
42. The world’s as
l second largest steel producer is ag
A) Japana
g
B) China
C) India
D) Germany

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43. The third closest planet to the sun and fifth largest planet is
A) the Earth
e m
B) Mars
las
C) Jupiter
ag
D) Venus

44. The lithosphere is
A) the larger waterbodies on the earth.

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B)
the rigid, outermost shell of the earth, composed of the crust and the brittle upper mantle
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C)
D .)
co the gaseous envelope that surrounds the earth
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the sphere where life exists
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The continent bordered on the north by the Arctic ocean and on the east by the North
45. Atlantic Ocean and on the south by Pacific ocean, is
A) South America
B) North America
C) Europe
D) Australia
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46. The Sabarmati River runs through the center of _______, the Gujarat City,
A) Jamnagar
B) Surat
C) Ahmedabad
D) Amreli

47. Myopia is a disease related to _______.
A) Ears
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Eyes

48. In human, tear gas causes immediate_______.
A) eye burning
B) cold
C) fever
D) fainting

Radar is a system that uses radio waves to determine the distance, direction and
49. radial velocity of objects relative to the site. Radar stands for
A) radio displays and range
B) radio rays and range
C) radio distance and range
D) radio detection and ranging

50. The National Research Institute for Panchakarma is situated at
A) Thrissur
B) Thiruvananthapuram
C) Kottayam
D) Calicut

Fluid Control Research Institute is a national centre, registered under the Societies Act
51. and it comes under the
A) Ministries of Earth Science, Government of India
B) Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers, Government of India
C) Ministries of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India

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c. o D ) Ministries of Heavy Industries, Government of India s e m
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The Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Ministry of Law and Justice,
52. Government of India, is
A) Shri Jitan Ram Manjhi
B) Shri. Arjun Ram Meghwal
C) Shri. Jayant Chaudhary
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D)

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53. Deficiencylaof Vitamin E causes
g ag
A) throatainfection
B) blindness
C) peptic ulcer
D) neurological damage and muscle weakness

54. About 68% of the cargo handled at Cochin Port is m
A) timber
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B) fertilizer
s e
C) crude and POL
g la
D) coal a

55. THUNA is the citizen service portal of
A) Forest Department, Government of Kerala
B) Kerala Police, simplifies public access to police services
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C) Revenue Department, Government of Kerala
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Transport Department, Government of Kerala
D)
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las ag
ag 56. The Kuttanad region in Kerala is famous for its vast,
A) rubber plantation
B) below sea-level tea plantation
C) below sea-level paddy cultivation
D) below sea-level coffee plantation

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The first Malayalam journal published in Kerala , is
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A) Rajyasamacharam
B) Malayala Manorama
C) Mathrubhumi
D) Patriotic

58. In Kerala, the slogan “ One caste, one religion, one God for mankind ” is mainly related to
A) Vakkom Moulavi
B) Ayyankali
C) Thycaud Ayya
D) Sri Narayana Guru

59. The festival Thrissur Pooram is celebrated in Kerala in honour of
A) Goddess Saraswathi
B) Goddess Lakshmi
C) Goddess Durga
D) Goddess Valli
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
60. Kerala Kalamandalam is famous for nurturing and preserving
A) architecture
B) Kerala’s traditional performing arts
C) music
D) literature

61. Which one is the first fully solar powered airport in the world?
A) Cochin International Airport, India
B) Vienna Airport, Austria
C) Changi Airport, Singapore
D) Denver International airport, USA.

62. Author of the classic novel Chemmeen, is
A) M.Mukundan
B) Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai
C) O.V.Vijayan
D) K.R.Meera

63. The winner of the player of the tournament award in T20 World Cup(Men) 2026, is

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c. o A ) Mitchell Marsh s e m
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se B)
C)
Jasprit Bumrah
Sanju Samson ag l
D) Sam Curren

64. If a given number is increased by 25% , the number becomes 320. The given number is
A) 286
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B) 264
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C) 276
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256
D)

s l a
g la : Option D
Correct Answer ag
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65. If an item is sold for Rs.540 at a loss of 10%, then the cost price of the item is
A) Rs.630.
B) Rs.610.
C) Rs.600.
D) Rs.620.

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66. Together, they can complete the same work inlas
A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete the same work in 45 days .

A) 12.25 days ag
B) 11.5 days
C) 12.5 days
D) 11.25 days

The arithmetic mean of 10 numbers is 65. If one number is removed and 25 is included in m
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67.
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the list. The new arithmetic mean is 60. The removed number is
A)
.co 75
s e m
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g l a
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a 80

The area of a square shaped plot is 3600 sq.ft. If the lengths of all the sides of the plot
68. are doubled, then the area of the plot is
A) 14600 sq.ft
B) 14800 sq.ft
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C) 12200 sq.ft
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D) 14400 sq.ft
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 23

A sum of rupees fetches simple interest Rs.2400 for 2 years. If the rate of interest is 12%,
69. then the principal amount is
A) Rs.12000
B) Rs.10000.
C) Rs.8000
D) Rs.10200

A has deposited some amount in a bank. The bank gives 10% compound interest. If he
70. receives Rs.24200 at the end of two years, the amount deposited initially in the bank is
A) Rs.21000
B) Rs.20000
C) Rs.22000
D) Rs.22200

The ratio of four numbers is 3 : 4 : 5 : 6 and the sum of the four numbers is 7200. The
71. largest of the four numbers, is
A) 2800
B) 2600
C) 3200
D) 2400

72. Choose the prime number from 175, 161, 129, 101
A) 161
B) 101
C) 175
D) 129

73. If a : b = 4 : 5, b : c = 5 : 4 and c : d = 6 : 5, then a : b : c : d =
A) 12 : 16 : 12 : 10
B) 10 : 15 : 10 : 12
C) 12 : 15 : 12 : 10
D) 12 : 15 : 10 : 12

74. If WUXWK corresponds to TRUTH , then FIGHT corresponds to

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c. o A ) CFDEQ s e m
m a
se B)
C)
FCDQE
CFDQE ag l
D) CDFEQ

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is
75. related to the first word.
Bird : Wings :: Fish : ?
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A) Scales
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B) Tail
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C) Fins
s e l a
D) Gills
g la ag
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76. If 2 + 4 = 20 and 3 + 5 = 34, then 6 + 9 =
A) 121
B) 118
C) 108
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D)

s em
77. A is B’s sister. C is B’s father. D isag
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C’s mother. How is D related to A ?
A) Uncle
B) Sister
C) Grandfather
D) Grandmother

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78.
c o m
The next alphabet in the sequence D, G, K, P, ?
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A .) e
m
e B) V
U
l as
l as C) W ag
ag D ) S

79. Literally “ Ultra vires ” means beyond powers and it refers to
A) actions that are endorsed by the legal authority
B) actions lacking legal authority
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actions taken by the government
C)
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D) actions taken by a corporate company
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80. Which one of the following does not come under immovable property?
A) Factories
B) Houses
C) Growing Crops
D) Commercial Buildings

81. FERA stands for
A) Foreign Exchange Reservation Act
B) Foreign Embassy Regulation Act
C) Foreign Exchange Rules and Act
D) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act

82. NHRC stands for
A) National Human Rights Committee
B) National Human Rights Commission
C) National Human Rights and Liabilities Commission
D) National Human Rights and Duties Commission

83. Plaint legally refers to a statement of
A) claims in which the plaintiff sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
B) claims in which a witness sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars
C) claims in which the advocate sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars

D)
claims in which the authority sets out his cause of action with all necessary particulars

84. The Family Courts are constituted
A) by the respective State Governments
B) under the Family Courts Act 1984
C) by the Supreme Court
D) by the respective High Courts

The legal disputes between the Union of India and the States or States inter se are to be
85. heard

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c. o A ) in any court in India s e m
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C)
both by the Supreme Court of India and the High Courts l
only by the High Courts ag
D) only in the Supreme Court of India

86. Legally, Alien is a person who is
A) not an Indian citizen but lives in India
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B) an Indian citizen but lives in abroad
m
.co m
C) a foreigner visiting India on tourist visa
s e
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an Indian visiting foreign countries very often
D)

s l a
g la : Option A
Correct Answer ag
a
87. The original Constitution of India, which came into force on 26 January 1950, had
A) 495 Articles
B) 395 Articles
C) 595 Articles
D) 695 Articles

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88. The legal term Bequeath means s em
g laauction
to sell a property to someone through
A)
B)
a
to give property to someone at concessional rate through will.
C) to give property to someone through will after death
D) to sell a property to someone.

89. In legal terminology, a dependent is a person who relies on another for
m
A)

c o
financial support and maintenance
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.
B) moral support
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s D)
getting loan
g l a
l a getting tax relief
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ag Correct Answer : Option A

90. The writ of mandamus is issued by a Court
A) to command a public authority to perform a legal duty
B) to arrest a person immediately
C) to produce a detained person before the court
D)
m
to set aside the judgment of a lower court
.
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s em l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 23

91. The main purpose of the Delimitation Bill is
A) to increase the number of Supreme Court judges
B) to increase the number of High Court judges
C) to amend taxation laws
D) to redraw the boundaries of electoral constituencies

The Indian Constitution provides the procedure and power of Parliament to amend the
92. constitution in
A) Article 168
B) Article 268
C) Article 368
D) Article 208

93. The Indian Constitution establishes in India a Parliamentary type of Government on the
A) British Model
B) US Model
C) Russian Model
D) German Model

94. In India, the Head of the State is
A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) the Prime Minister of India
C) the President of India
D) the Chairman of Rajya Sabha

95. The President of India can be removed from the office by
A) an order of a High Court
B) vote of no confidence
C) impeachment
D) An order of the Supreme Court of India

96. During the election to a State Assembly in India, the Model Code of Conduct is
A) a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India

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c. o B ) a set of guidelines issued by the Governor of the State sem
m C ) a set of guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of Indiala
se D) a set of guidelines issued by the President of India a
g

97. Which one of the following is not true in respect of Election Commission of India?
A) It can cancel elections in case of malpractice
B) Its decisions cannot be challenged in Courts
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C) It allots election symbols
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.co m
D) It prepares electoral rolls
s e
s em l a
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g la
a Libel, legally means
98. The term
A) a method of defamation expressed in writing
B) spoken defamation
C) an assault
D) threat

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99. FIR stands for
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s e
la
A) First Introduction Report
B) First Investigation Register
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C) First Investigation Report
D) First Information Report

100. In the case of Cognizable offence,
police require permission from the Court to arrest
m
A)
B)

c o
police can arrest without warrant
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C)
. it is a negligible offence
s e
s emD ) police cannot take action as the offence is committed by a minor
g l a
l a a
ag Correct Answer : Option B

101. In a civil case, the burden of proof usually lies on
A) the judge
B) the plaintiff
C) the witness
D) the advocate appearing for the defendant

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s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 23

102. Legally an affidavit is
a written statement made on oath, sworn before an authorized officer and submitted in
A)
the court
B) an oral statement made on oath in the court
C) a judgement delivered by a judge
D) a record maintained in the court

103. Legally liability means
A) a right of the defendants
B) wrong doing by a group of people
C) a crime to be investigated by a special team of police officers
D) a legal responsibility or obligation imposed by law.

104. A minor enters into a contract. It is
A) void ab initio
B) valid automatically when the minor becomes major
C) partially valid when the minor becomes major
D) valid after the demise of minor

105. The Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court is appointed by
A) Chief Justice of India
B) Chief Minister of Kerala
C) President of India
D) Governor of Kerala

106. A judge of the High Court holds office until the age of
A) 65 years
B) 62 years
C) 60 years
D) 58 years

A person X threatens another person Y to publish defamatory statements in a newspaper
107. unless Y pays money. This amounts to
A) undue influence
B) coercion
C) fraud

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c. o D ) unlawful detention s e m
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108. In tort laws, the term Battery means
A) intentional physical contact without consent
B) verbal abuse
C) damaging another property
D) forceful detention of a minor
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109. The term of soffice l as
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9 years
B) 6 years
C) 10 years
D) 5 years

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A) sue for breach of trust
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B) sue for damage
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C) do nothing legally a
D) give a complaint to the Police

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
111. 1. The International Court of Justice can hear disputes only between States
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2. Individuals have no local standi before the International Court of Justice
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A) Only the statement (1) is true

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C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
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Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
112. 1. Election Commission of India is a constitutional body
2. Election Commission of India conducts elections to Corporations
A) Only the statement (1) is true
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Both statements (1) and (2) are true
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D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements.
Statements :
113. 1. Indian Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution
2. One-third of Indian Rajya Sabha Members retire every two years
A) Only the statement (1) is true
B) Only the statement (2) is true
C) Both the statements (1) and (2) are true
D) Both the statements (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
114. 1. The Supreme Court of India is the final interpreter of the constitution
2. The decision of the Supreme Court can be overlooked by the President of India
A) Only the statement (1) is true
B) Only the statement (2) is true
C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
115. 1. The Supreme Court can review its own judgements
2. Public Interest Litigation can be filed directly in the Supreme Court
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements
Statements :
116. 1. A High Court Judge can be removed only by the President of India on grounds of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity
2. The removal of a High Court Judge does not require a special majority in Parliament.
A) Only the statement (1) is true
B) Only the statement (2) is true
C) Both statements (1) and (2) are true
D) Both statements (1) and (2) are false

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B) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
C) Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
D) Bharatiya Nagarik Subha Sanhita, 2023

118. Which one of the following replaced the Indian Evidence Act,1872?
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A) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
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B)
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Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
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Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
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D)
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Transfer of Property Act
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119. The maxim “ Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea ” means
A) The act alone makes a person guilty
B) Motive is more important than act
C) The act makes a person guilty even the mind is not guilty
D)
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A person X finds lost goods and keeps
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A) trustee
B) guardian
C) owner
D) bailee

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