Kerala LLB 5 Year 2024 Question Paper with Answers

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 16/2024/OL
Exam:INTEGRATED 5 YEAR LLB 2024
Date of Test: 18-08-2024

1. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) rejuvanation
B) excarsion
C) abundance
D) advantagious

2. Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?
A) achievemant
B) supperlative
C) transtive
D) pharmaceutical

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
3. capitals?
ABOLISH
A) cancel
B) rescind
C) terminate
D) restore

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
4. capitals? AMUSE
A) annoy
B) interest
C) enliven
D) please

Which one of the following is nearest to the opposite in meaning to the word given in
5. capitals?
INTERFERE
A) counter
B) assist
C) hate
D) fight

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence: The work
6. was A PIECE OF CAKE.
A) very easy to do
B) a hard work
C) difficult to do
D) not possible

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
7. Before the performance, the organiser told the artists to BREAK A LEG.
A) give a warning
B) good luck
C) to wind up the programme
D) to speed up the programme

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
8. He called me OUT OF THE BLUE to invite me to the meeting.
A) gradually
B) quickly
C) unexpectedly
D) slowly

Identify the meaning of the idioms or phrases given in capitals in the sentence:
9. She got COLD FEET and decided not to attend the party.
A) dislike
B) fever
C) laziness
D) nervous

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the
10. sentence meaningfully complete.
He goes to the ---------- every day and studies books in History
A) market
B) library
C) office
D) town

11. Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.

The Earth ------------ around the Sun.

A) passes
B) runs
C) revolves
D) stays

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the
sentence meaningfully complete.
12.
Study hard, ----------- you will fail in the examination.
A) since
B) because
C) so
D) otherwise

Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the
13. sentence meaningfully complete.
Man struggles hard to ---------- his living
A) enjoy
B) eat
C) earn
D) spend

Find out the correct preposition
14.
He passed the under graduate degree course ------- the year 1983 with distinction.
A) of
B) in
C) since
D) at

Find out the correct preposition
15.
He is a good friend ----------- mine
A) of
B) off
C) with
D) to

Find out the correct preposition
16.
He saved the goat -------- killing the snake.
A) into
B) on
C) of
D) by

Change the sentence
17. “ She teaches Mathematics ” into an interrogative sentence
A) Does she teach Mathematics ?
B) Do she teach Mathematics ?
C) Is she a Mathematics teacher?
D) Is Mathematics taught by her?

Change the sentence
18. “ He will be here in ten minutes ” into an interrogative sentence
A) Will he be here in ten minutes?
B) Is he here in ten minutes?
C) Does he be here in ten minutes?
D) He won’t be here in ten minutes

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
19. sentence , choose the option (D)
A) This electronic item
B) cost ten
C) thousand rupees
D) No error

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
20. sentence , choose the option (D)
A) Remember to switch of
B) the lights
C) before leaving the hall.
D) No error

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
21. sentence, choose the option (D).
A) To take a decision
B) in a critical situation

C) is not easy
D) No error

A sentence is divided into three parts. Choose the incorrect part. If no error is in the
22. sentence, choose the option (D).
A) The Government has
B) ban the sale of
C) tobacco
D) No error

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters:
23. AFFLUENT
A) poor
B) destitute
C) wealthy
D) suffering

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters:
24. AUDACIOUS
A) afraid
B) cowardly
C) fearful
D) bold

A period of time fixed for the isolation and observation of persons, animals or plants is
25. known as
A) quarantine
B) quarter
C) imprisonment
D) custody

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
26.
P: for breakfast Q: cereal R: many people S: eat
A) QRPS
B) PQSR
C) SPRQ
D) RSQP

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

27. P: and left Q: their luggage
R: the passengers collected S: the airport

A) QPSR
B) RQPS
C) SQRP
D) RPQS

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:
28. P: meet Q: the ministers
R: the chief minister S: every Monday
A) RPQS
B) QRPS
C) SPRQ
D) QPRS

Read the passage and answer the question

The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the
Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches,
doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the
performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well- balanced meal and try
29. avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not
always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian
alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four
dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the
clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

This passage is primarily focused on?
A) drugs to be given to sportsmen
B) physical fitness of the Olympic participants
C) safety of the Indian contingents
D) balanced diet to be given to Olympic participant

30. Read the passage and answer the question
The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the
Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches,
doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the
performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well- balanced meal and try
avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not
always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian
alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four
dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the
clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

Which one of the following is a correct statement?
A) 110 Indian participants are staying in the Olympic Village.
B) Doctors are to take part in Olympic Games.
C) Indian dishes will be supplied to Indian participants.
D) Coaches will give training and guidance to the player.

Read the passage and answer the question

The Olympic Games in Paris have officially begun. More than 110 participants are at the
Olympic village as part of the Indian contingent. Along with them is a team of coaches,
doctors, physiotherapists, psychologists and a nutritionist. Nutrition plays a major role in the
performance of the sports persons. They will have to consume a well- balanced meal and try
31. avoid having something new. When sports persons are in a foreign country, there may not
always be dishes they have eaten previously. So they need guidance. If there is no Indian
alternative, the nutritionist can suggest a close alternative. The Olympic village has four
dining districts: World, French, Halal, and Asian. These halls will be functional round the
clock, but the participants will not be allowed to cook anything within the venue.

Psychologists refer to persons
A) who study the activities of sportsmen
B) who study the human mind, emotions and behaviour
C) who arrange facilities to sportsmen
D) who regulate the movements of sportsmen

Change the sentence into indirect speech:
32.
He said, “ I go to park every day “
A) He says that he went to park every day
B) He said that he may go to park every day
C) He said that he had gone to park every day
D) He said that he went to park every day

Change the sentence into indirect speech :
33.
She says, “ I study Mathematics and English ”
A) She said that she has studied Mathematics and English
B) She says that she studies Mathematics and English
C) She says that she study Mathematics and English
D) She said that she had studied Mathematics and English

Change the sentence given in indirect speech into direct speech:
34.
She told that she had eaten two eggs.

A) She says, “ I have eaten two eggs”
B) She says, “ I had eaten two eggs”
C) She said, “ I have eaten two eggs ”
D) She says, “ I ate two eggs"

35. Identify the word which is not a verb.
A) offer
B) borrow
C) write
D) book

36. Identify the verb in the sentence : The committee members will meet tomorrow
A) committee
B) members
C) will meet
D) tomorrow

37. The United Arab Emirates is formed from a federation of
A) Seven Emirates
B) Six Emirates
C) Eight Emirates
D) Nine Emirates

38. The Indus river flows through India and finally falls in the
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Indian ocean
C) Arabian Sea
D) Pacific ocean

39. India is the
A) seventh largest country in the world
B) eighth largest country in the world
C) fifth largest country in the world
D) tenth largest country in the world

40. The Yamuna river merges with the river Ganges at

A) Triveni Sangam, Allahabad
B) Kanpur
C) Lucknow
D) Ayodhya

41. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on
A) April 13, 1929
B) April 13, 1919
C) April 13, 1939
D) April 13, 1909

42. Gandhiji started his Dandi March in the year 1930 from Sabarmati Ashram
A) to oppose the British Rule in general
B) to show his mass strength
C) to break the salt law
D) to protest against the Simon commission

43. Which planet is known as morning star?
A) Mars
B) Jupiter
C) Mercury
D) Venus

44. Greenland island has its own extensive local government, but it is also a part of
A) Indonesia
B) United Kingdom
C) Denmark ( as autonomous territory )
D) Canada

45. The Suez Canal connects
A) Pacific Sea to China Sea
B) Arabian Sea to Coral Sea
C) Mediterranean Sea to Black Sea
D) Mediterranean Sea to Red Sea

46. The first Indian to win Nobel Prize is

A) Dr.Radhakrishnan
B) C V Raman
C) Rabindranath Tagore
D) Mother Teresa

47. The headquarters of the Security Council of the United Nations is at
A) New York
B) Paris
C) Berlin
D) Rome

48. The National Bird of India is
A) Dove
B) the Indian Peacock
C) Parrot
D) Eagle

49. In India, the State with the lowest infant mortality rate is
A) Odisha
B) Tamilnadu
C) Karnataka
D) Kerala

Among the top ten countries with the largest aquaculture production, India occupies second
50. position next to
A) China
B) Pakistan
C) Bangladesh
D) Russia

51. Which Sanctuary in Kerala is a premier haven for Peacocks?
A) Thattekkad Bird Sanctuary
B) Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary
C) Kadalundi Bird Sanctuary
D) Choolannur Pea Fowl Sanctuary

52. Which waterfalls in Kerala is nicknamed as Niagara of India?
A) Athirappilly waterfalls
B) Attukad waterfalls
C) Kanthanpara waterfalls
D) Adyanpara waterfalls

53. In the T20 world cup 2024, India won the world cup in the final match against
A) Australia
B) Pakistan
C) England
D) South Africa

54. BRICS stands for
A) Brazil, Russia, Iraq, Canada and South Africa
B) Brazil, Russia, Iran, China and South Africa
C) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
D) Bangladesh, Russia, India, China and South Africa

55. SARS stands for
A) Severe Actual Respiratory Syndrome
B) Self Acute Respiratory System
C) Severe Acute Respiratory System
D) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

56. Which one of the following is widely used as fuel to produce nuclear energy?
A) Sodium
B) Uranium
C) Sulfur
D) Lithium

57. Which one of the following planets is a terrestrial planet?
A) Uranus
B) Mars
C) Saturn
D) Neptune

58. The Solar System has
A) nine planets
B) seven planets
C) eleven planets
D) eight planets

59. The capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is
A) Bambooflat
B) Diglipur
C) Port Blair
D) Rangat

60. India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep consists of
A) 46 Islands
B) 26 Islands
C) 16 Islands
D) 36 Islands

61. The people in Minicoy island of the Union Territory Lakshadweep speak mainly in
A) Mahi
B) Malayalam
C) Urdu
D) Hindi
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
62. The capital city of Assam is
A) Tezpur
B) Guwahati
C) Jorhat
D) Dibrugarh
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
63. The Mizoram State shares a border with neighbouring countries
A) Bangladesh and Myanmar
B) China and Bhutan
C) Nepal and China
D) Bhutan and Nepal

The product of three consecutive positive integers is 120. Then the sum of the three positive
64. numbers is ?
A) 16
B) 24

C) 15
D) 12

65. If you divide the number 1003 by 5, then the remainder is equal to
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 3

A person bought an item for Rs. 1350 and spent Rs.150 towards transportation of the item.
66. Then he sold it for Rs.1800. The profit percentage is
A) 25%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 10%

The average marks of 15 students in a subject is 65. If another student has scored 97 marks
67. in the same subject, then the average marks of the 16 students is
A) 69
B) 71
C) 68
D) 67

The area of a vacant land in the form of a square is 36100 square metres. Then the length
68. of the side of the land is
A) 160 metres
B) 180 metres
C) 190 metres
D) 210 metres

69. The smallest positive number which is divisible by the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 is
A) 840
B) 1260
C) 210
D) 420

A can do a work in 10 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. Both together can do
70. the same work in

A) 4 days
B) 5 days
C) 6 days
D) 8 days

71. Rs. 21600 has to be divided and paid to A and B in the ratio 2 : 7. Then B will get
A) Rs.14600
B) Rs.16800
C) Rs.16400
D) Rs.14800

72. Which of the following numbers is not divisible by 9 ?
A) 94896
B) 84996
C) 68949
D) 98967

73. The smallest number among the fractions 3/5 , 5/9, 7/11 , 9/13 is
A) 3/5
B) 5/9
C) 7/11
D) 9/13

74. If HKNQ corresponds to LORU , then BEHK corresponds to
A) FLOI
B) FILO
C) DGJM
D) DJMG

From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
75. word :
MAINTENANCE
A) mean
B) team
C) neat
D) tail

A man walks 5 km distance straight from a place X and reach another place Y in the western
76. direction. At Y, he turns 90 degrees and walks straight towards North to reach the Place Z
which is 12 km from Y. The distance between X and Z is
A) 14 km
B) 17 km
C) 13 km
D) 16 km

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.

Statements :
77. 1. All snakes are reptiles
2. Some tigers eat grass

Conclusions:

I. No snake is reptile
II. All tigers eat grass
A) only conclusion I follows
B) only conclusion II follows
C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
D) both conclusions I and II follow

Two statements followed by two conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the
statements.

Statements :

78. 1. Some balls are red in colour
2. All boxes are empty

Conclusions:

I. Some balls are red in colour
II. Some boxes are not empty
A) only conclusion I follows
B) only conclusion II follows
C) neither conclusion I nor Conclusion II follow
D) both conclusions I and II follow

79. Which statement of the following is not related to the Principles of Natural Justice?
A) No one should be the judge in his/her own case
B) Each party should be given the opportunity to be heard
C) fairness, equity and equality
D) any decision unilaterally taken

80. Actus Reus means
A) not punishable
B) forgiveness under law
C) the guilty act that comprises the physical component of a crime
D) act under the influence of alcohol

81. One of the essential elements of the offence of theft is that the property shall be
A) a moveable property
B) gold only
C) cattles only
D) currency notes only

82. An agreement made by a minor is
A) a valid document when the minor becomes major
B) a valid document in law
C) absolutely void
D) valid when the minor is of sound mind

83. interlocutory means
A) not final
B) illegal
C) legal
D) valid

84. The constitution of India came into force on
A) 25th January, 1950
B) 26th January, 1950
C) 26th November, 1949
D) 26th November, 1950

85. The constitutional head of the Executive of the Union is the
A) Prime Minister
B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C) President
D) Chief of Army

As per Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the council of the Parliament of the Union
86. consists of
the President and the two Houses known as the council of States and the House of the
A)
People
B) the two Houses known as the council of States and the House of the People
C) the President and the Prime Minister
D) the council of States only

87. The first Schedule of the Indian Constitution consists of
A) the salary of Prime Minister
B) the list of States and Union Territories
C) the salary of President
D) the list of languages

88. The President of India must have completed
A) 35 years of age
B) 45 years of age
C) 55 years of age
D) 25 years of age

89. Identify the wrong statement in respect of powers of Vice-President of India.
A) Vice- President is elected by both the Houses
B) Vice- President holds office for 5 years
C) Vice-President is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D) Vice-President has right to vote in the Rajya Sabha

90. The Prime Minister of India should be a member of
A) the Lok Sabha
B) the Rajya Sabha
C) Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
D) a national political party

91. The repugnancy arises
A) when two laws are identical
B) when the judgment of two judges are contrary
C) when provisions of two laws are contrary
D) when judgments are delayed

92. Identify the wrong statement.
A) The Supreme Court of India is the guardian of the Constitution
B) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeal
C) The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi
D) The Supreme Court of India has a Branch in Mumbai

93. The Indian High Court Judges remain in office till the age of
A) 65
B) 60
C) 62
D) 63

94. The Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is created by
A) the Constitution of India
B) the Union Government
C) Prime Minister of India
D) the district collector

95. The Election Commission of India was established in the year
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1949
D) 1951

96. The Examinations for appointment to the various Civil Services of India are conducted by
A) the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India
B) the Union Public Service Commission
C) the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India
D) the Staff Selection Commission

97. The Chairperson of National Commission for Scheduled Tribes shall be appointed by
A) the Chief Justice of India
B) the Vice-President of India
C) the President of India
D) the Prime Minister of India

98. The names of States in India can be altered by
A) the Chief Justice of India
B) the Parliament following certain procedures in this regard
C) the President of India
D) the Prime Minister of India

In the Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala judgment, the Supreme Court of India
99. asserted its right
A) to strike down amendments to the Constitution
B) to strike down the appointment to the Constitutional posts
C) to strike down the election conducted in a State
D) to strike down the election of Chief Minister of a State

100. Who was the First Chief Justice of India ?
A) Justice Harilal J.Kania
B) Justice Saiyid Fazl Ali
C) Justice M.Patanjali Sastri
D) Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan

101. An Advocate-on-Record of the Supreme Court of India is
A) entitled to file an appearance or act for party in the Supreme Court
B) allowed only in the constitutional matters
C) allowed only in Writ Petitions
D) allowed only in the criminal cases

102. Public Interest Litigation is a system through which
A) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in theft matters
B) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in his native district civil matters
C) Indian citizen can move a Writ Petition in matters of the public interest
D) an individual can file a Writ Petition only in personal civil matters

103. Number of High Courts in India is
A) 25
B) 30
C) 22
D) 28

Lok Adalats is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism to arrive at amicable settlement
104. of disputes
A) on the same day of arguments of the case in the court
B) on the same day of markings of document in the court
C) within one month time before the Court
D) outside of Court

105. The Central Administrative Tribunal was established under
A) Article 123 of the constitution of India
B) Article 223 of the constitution of India
C) Article 23-A of the constitution of India
D) Article 323-A of the constitution of India

106. The decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal could be challenged
A) by way of Writ Petition before respective High Court
B) by way of Writ Petition before Supreme Court
C) by way of Writ Petition before Principal Bench of the CAT
D) by way of Petition before Union Law Ministry

107. DRT stands for
A) Debentures Recovery Tribunals
B) Debts Recovery Tribunals
C) Demands Recovery Tribunals
D) Deposits Restore Tribunals

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
108. 1. Writs are written orders issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts
2. A writ of Mandamus is a Court order that commands a government official to perform an
act or to refrain from performing an act

A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

109. Statements :
1. Fundamental Rights are provided to the citizens by the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution of India guarantees seven Fundamental Rights to the citizens.
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

110. Statements :
1. Lok Sabha of Indian Parliament divides its work into Three Sessions in a year
2. G.V. Mavlankar was the first speaker of the Indian Lok Sabha
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

111. Statements :
1. A member of the Lok Sabha should be mentally sound
2. A member of the Lok Sabha should not be a bankrupt
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are false

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
112. 1. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous Constitutional Authority
2. The Election Commission of India administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
State Legislative Assemblies and offices of the President and Vice- President in the country .
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true

D) Both (1) and (2) are false

113. The term abatement means
A) to continue an action legally
B) bringing to an end of an action or suspending an action
C) To suspend a legal action temporarily
D) to go an appeal for the suspended action

114. Bankruptcy refers to
A) the legal processes related to insolvency
B) theft in a Bank
C) closure of a bank
D) Loss in the bank

115. Bye-laws refer to
A) set of rules and regulations formulated by the General Body of the Association
B) set of rules and regulations formulated by the head of the department
C) set of rules and regulations framed by the landlord
D) set of rules and regulations framed by the Court

116. A Returning Officer is responsible for the conduct of
A) meeting of Board of Directors of a company
B) meeting of elected members of Legislative Assembly
C) elections in Parliament or Assembly constituency concerned
D) meeting of elected members of Parliament

Two statements are given. Choose the correct option based on the statements

Statements :
117. 1. Civil cases are filed in courts due to conflicts involving mostly money between people or
institutions like businesses
2. Criminal Cases are filed in Courts for offences committed by a group of people.
A) Only (1) is true
B) Only (2) is true
C) Both (1) and (2) are true
D) Both (1) and (2) are falls

118. The term conciliation means
A) settling the disputes through Police Station
B) settling the dispute through Court.
C) filing a court case to challenge a Government order
D) settling the disputes without litigations

119. A deponent is a person
A) who appears in a court for giving witness for defendant
B) who swears on oath in a Court that a statement is correct
C) who files a case against his neighbour
D) who appears in a court for giving witness for prosecution

120. The term interrogatories refer to
A) in a civil case, formal questions from one side which the other side must answer under oath
B) set of questions to be answered only by the plaintiff under oath
C) set of questions to be answered only by the defendant under oath
D) set of questions to be answered only by a witness under oath

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